**1. Complete the series: 6, 4, 3, 12/5, ----------------**
(a) 8/3
(b) 8/5
(c) 13/5
(d) 2
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the pattern involved adding an absolute constant fraction like 4/15.
(b) Correct if the term was exactly one-third of the previous mixed fraction.
(c) Correct if the sequence merely added 1/5 to the last term.
(d) Correct if asked to continue the multiplier pattern of ×(2/3), ×(3/4), ×(4/5), and finally ×(5/6).
**2. Given below are two statements and two conclusions numbered I and II. Taking the given statements to be true, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows from the two statements:
Statements: All chairs are apples. Some apples are tables.
Conclusions: I. Some chairs are tables. II. Some tables are chairs.**
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Neither I nor II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the statements were "All chairs are tables".
(b) Correct if the statements were "All tables are chairs".
(c) Correct if asked for the valid conclusion of an A + I syllogism (which yields no definite relation).
(d) Correct if the statements were "All chairs are tables" and "All tables are chairs".
**3. 'Pigeon' is related to 'bird' in the same way as 'bee' is related to:**
(a) Category
(b) Insect
(c) hive
(d) Crawl
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the analogy asked for the generic classification word rather than the specific class.
(b) Correct if asked for the biological class/phylum the bee belongs to.
(c) Correct if the analogy was "Pigeon is to nest as bee is to...".
(d) Correct if the analogy was "Pigeon is to fly as bee is to..." (though bees also fly).
**4. A woman was walking with her face towards east. She walked 30 m and then turned to her right and walked another 30 m. She again turned towards her right and walked 60 m. She then turned back and walked 90 m. Which direction is she facing now?**
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if she had turned left instead of turning back at the end.
(b) Correct if she had made only the first right turn.
(c) Correct if asked for her final facing direction after doing an about-face (180 degrees) from facing West.
(d) Correct if she hadn't turned back in the final step.
**5. Identify the pattern and complete the series: 1, 1, 3, 9, 31 ----------------**
(a) 85
(b) 93
(c) 129
(d) 155
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the mathematical sequence used a different quadratic multiplier.
(b) Correct if the sequence was purely multiplying by 3.
(c) Correct if asked to follow the pattern: $x_n = x_{n-1} \times (n-1) + n$.
(d) Correct if the pattern added fixed exponents of 5.
**6. In a certain code FLOWER is written as DNMYCT. How will PETAL be written in this code:**
(a) NGRCJ
(b) RGVCN
(c) NCRYN
(d) RTVCI
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked to apply the alternating -2, +2, -2, +2, -2 shift pattern to PETAL.
(b) Correct if the shift pattern was strictly +2 for all letters.
(c) Correct if the vowels were shifted completely differently.
(d) Correct if the shift was purely +2, +1, +0 type series.
**7. If a rectangle is called a circle, a circle is called a square, a square is called a line and a line is called a ray, then what is the shape of a chapati?**
(a) Rectangle
(b) Square
(c) Line
(d) Ray
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if a chapati was rectangular.
(b) Correct if asked for the coded name of a circle (which is the shape of a chapati).
(c) Correct if a chapati was square-shaped originally.
(d) Correct if a chapati was line-shaped originally.
**8. Pick the odd one out:**
(a) Hour
(b) Second
(c) Minute
(d) Clock
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the unit containing 60 minutes.
(b) Correct if asked for the base SI unit of time.
(c) Correct if asked for the unit containing 60 seconds.
(d) Correct if asked to identify the physical device among abstract time units.
**9. A train starts from Delhi on 4th May 2022 at 21:05 hours and reaches Chennai on 6th May 2022 at 6:15 hours. What is the time duration of the journey?**
(a) 9 hours 10 minutes
(b) 15 hours 20 minutes
(c) 27 hours 20 minutes
(d) 33 hours 10 minutes
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the journey was strictly from 21:05 to 6:15 on the *next* immediate day.
(b) Correct if the math incorrectly subtracted the hours ignoring the overnight carryover.
(c) Correct if the journey missed a 6-hour time zone or calculation step.
(d) Correct if asked to calculate the exact duration crossing two midnights (24 hours + 9 hours 10 mins).
**10. In the following sequence, how many even numbers are there which are immediately preceded but not immediately followed by an even number? 3 8 4 2 5 7 2 8 3 4 8 9 3 9 4 2 1 5 8 1**
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if there was only one such occurrence.
(b) Correct if the sequence was much shorter.
(c) Correct if you missed one instance (e.g., the last '2').
(d) Correct if asked to find all instances where pattern = (Even)-(Even)-(Odd), which happens 4 times.
**11. There are 50 students in a primary class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. Ten students can speak both Hindi & English. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak only Hindi?**
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 29
(d) 39
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a random subset of 9.
(b) Correct if asked for the number of students who speak *only* English (21 - 10).
(c) Correct if asked for students speaking only Hindi (50 total - 21 total English = 29).
(d) Correct if the 10 bilingual students were excluded incorrectly.
**12. Find the missing term in the following series: 149, 174, 201, 230, 261, ?**
(a) 274
(b) 280
(c) 291
(d) 294
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the difference was a flat 13.
(b) Correct if the difference sequence collapsed.
(c) Correct if the last difference added was 30.
(d) Correct if asked to add the next difference in the sequence (25, 27, 29, 31, 33), making it 261 + 33.
**13. Five boxes A, B, C, D and E are lying on the floor. A is heavier than B. C is lighter than A but heavier than B. B is lighter than D but heavier than E. Which box is the lightest?**
(a) B
(b) D
(c) E
(d) can not be determined
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if B was lighter than E.
(b) Correct if asked for a box heavier than B but not specified fully.
(c) Correct if asked for the absolutely lightest box based on the chain A > C > B > E.
(d) Correct if the relative weight of E and B was never stated.
**14. If 'CONSTABLE' is coded as 91, what will be the code number for 'ABLE'?**
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 19
(d) 15
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked to sum the alphabetical numerical values (1 + 2 + 12 + 5 = 20).
(b) Correct if the sum omitted vowels.
(c) Correct if the letter 'A' was indexed at 0 instead of 1.
(d) Correct if asked to sum just B, L, E.
**15. Rehana points to a man and says "He is the son of my paternal grandfather's only son". How is Rehana related to the man?**
(a) Niece
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the man was her uncle.
(b) Correct if Rehana was the father's sister.
(c) Correct if asked for the relationship of Rehana to her father's son (her brother).
(d) Correct if Rehana was the mother of the man.
**16. All students of a class are standing in a line. Arvind's position is 15th from front and 21st from back. How many students are there in the class?**
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 36
(d) 37
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if Arvind was 14th from front.
(b) Correct if asked to calculate Total = Front + Back - 1 (15 + 21 - 1 = 35).
(c) Correct if the formula incorrectly added front and back without subtracting the overlapping person.
(d) Correct if an extra person was mistakenly added.
**17. A pearl is related to a necklace in the same way as page is related to a:**
(a) Library
(b) Ink
(c) Pen
(d) Book
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked what a collection of books forms.
(b) Correct if asked what is printed on the page.
(c) Correct if asked what tool writes on the page.
(d) Correct if asked what a collection of pages forms (a book).
**18. If in a certain code, TWENTY is written as 863985 and ELEVEN is written as 323039, how is TWELVE written in that code?**
(a) 863203
(b) 863584
(c) 863903
(d) 863063
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked to map the letters directly (T=8, W=6, E=3, L=2, V=0, E=3).
(b) Correct if the letters mapped to different random digits.
(c) Correct if 'L' mapped to 9.
(d) Correct if 'V' mapped to 6.
**19. Which of the following words will appear after all the others in a dictionary?**
(a) Conscience
(b) Conundrum
(c) Colloquium
(d) Coarse
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the word starting with 'Cons'.
(b) Correct if asked for the alphabetically last word (C-o-n-u... comes after C-o-n-s...).
(c) Correct if asked for the second word in alphabetical order.
(d) Correct if asked for the alphabetically first word.
**20. Pick the odd one out:**
(a) Potato
(b) Turnip
(c) Rice
(d) Carrot
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a stem tuber.
(b) Correct if asked for a specific root vegetable that is white/purple.
(c) Correct if asked to identify the grain among root/tuber vegetables.
(d) Correct if asked for an orange root vegetable.
**21. A school examination was scheduled at 10:00 am. Azhar reported 10 minutes before the scheduled time and Shakeel reported 20 minutes after the scheduled time. Gaurav arrived 5 minutes earlier than Shakeel. Jaspreet was the second to arrive. Who was the last one to reach?**
(a) Azhar
(b) Jaspreet
(c) Shakeel
(d) Gaurav
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked who was the first to arrive (9:50 am).
(b) Correct if asked who arrived second.
(c) Correct if asked who arrived at 10:20 am, the latest time.
(d) Correct if asked who arrived at 10:15 am.
**22. There are five different houses A to E, in a row, facing north. A is to the right of B; E is to the left of C and to right of A; B is to the right of D. Which of the houses is in middle?**
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the middle house in the sequence D, B, A, E, C.
(b) Correct if asked for the second house from the left.
(c) Correct if asked for the rightmost house.
(d) Correct if asked for the leftmost house.
**23. If TABLE is coded as VZDOG, how would CHAIR be coded using he same rule?**
(a) ESCRT
(b) XJZQT
(c) EJZQI
(d) XSZRG
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the code used a strictly +2 increment for all letters.
(b) Correct if C was replaced by its opposite X.
(c) Correct if asked to use the specific offset pattern applied in the source word (likely intended as +2, +2, -1, +8, -9 or similar typical error-prone logical test mapping).
(d) Correct if asked to replace all letters with their reverse alphabet counterparts.
**24. If letters in CHALK are coded as 42156 and letters in BOARD are coded as 37198, How can COLD be coded?**
(a) 3746
(b) 4758
(c) 6752
(d) 3685
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if C was mapped to 3.
(b) Correct if asked to extract direct letter-to-number mappings (C=4, O=7, L=5, D=8).
(c) Correct if C mapped to 6.
(d) Correct if D mapped to 5.
**25. Arc is related to a circle in the same way as:**
(a) tangent is related to circumference
(b) diagonal is related to rectangle
(c) line segment is related to a square
(d) kite is related to rhombus
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if an arc touched a circle at only one point.
(b) Correct if an arc crossed through the center of a circle.
(c) Correct if asked for the component that forms the perimeter/boundary of the shape.
(d) Correct if an arc was a completely separate 2D shape.
**26. A is three years older than B and three years younger to C. B and D are twins. How many years older than D is C?**
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 12
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if C was 1 year younger than A.
(b) Correct if asked how much older A is compared to D.
(c) Correct if asked to combine the differences: A = B+3, C = A+3, so C = B+6. Since B=D, C is D+6.
(d) Correct if the age gaps were 6 years each.
**27. If ÷ means +, – means ÷, × means – and + means ×, then 32 ÷ 8 – 4 × 12 + 4 =**
(a) 12
(b) 1/(12)
(c) 40
(d) -14
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if no symbol substitution was made.
(b) Correct if all operators meant division.
(c) Correct if the final operation was addition instead of subtraction.
(d) Correct if evaluated strictly as 32 + 8 ÷ 4 - 12 × 4.
**28. If 3 * 6 = 18; 4 * 7 = 22; 9 * 1 = 20; 5 * 2 = ? The missing number is:**
(a) 3
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 10
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the rule was subtraction.
(b) Correct if asked to apply the rule: 2 × (first + second digit).
(c) Correct if the rule was simple addition.
(d) Correct if the rule was straight multiplication.
**29. Pick the number that is different from the rest:**
(a) 729
(b) 216
(c) 343
(d) 481
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked to identify the square of 27.
(b) Correct if asked for the cube of 6.
(c) Correct if asked for the cube of 7.
(d) Correct if asked to identify the non-perfect cube in the list.
**30. Complete the series: 5, 16, 50, 153, ----------------**
(a) 459
(b) 306
(c) 463
(d) 362
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the sequence just multiplied by 3 without adding an increment.
(b) Correct if the sequence multiplied by 2.
(c) Correct if asked to follow the pattern $x_n = x_{n-1} \times 3 + n$.
(d) Correct if the sequence added 100 instead.
**31. A student makes the same mistake over and over again in solving particular kind of mathematical problems. The teacher is best advised to**
(a) Talk to the parents of the child and bring the problem to their notice.
(b) Analyse child's difficulty and modify his/her teaching strategy.
(c) Suggest some good reference books to the child.
(d) Ask the child to skip these problems and concentrate better on others.
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the issue was purely behavioral rather than academic.
(b) Correct if asked for the most pedagogically sound and proactive teaching approach.
(c) Correct if the child just lacked reading material.
(d) Correct if the teacher wanted to evade the teaching responsibility.
**32. Which of the following is a desirable practice to be adopted by a language teacher in her/his class?**
(a) Strictly disallowing the use of mother-tongue by a student
(b) Encouraging students to copy their essays from a good reference book
(c) Encouraging students to freely express their ideas
(d) Discouraging students from consulting eachother.
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the school followed an obsolete, hyper-strict monolingual policy.
(b) Correct if rote learning and plagiarism were the goals.
(c) Correct if asked for a practice that promotes active communication and fluency.
(d) Correct if peer-learning was banned.
**33. Which of the following statements matches with our understanding of children?**
(a) Children learn best by listening to long lectures.
(b) Children are like blank slates waiting to be written upon.
(c) Children are like young adults and should be taught accordingly.
(d) Children are like young scientists who like to explore.
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if children had adult-level attention spans for passive learning.
(b) Correct if asked for John Locke's "tabula rasa" concept.
(c) Correct if children were miniature adults (an outdated historical view).
(d) Correct if asked for Jean Piaget's constructivist view of child development.
**34. What is the most important objective of conducting classroom assessment?**
(a) To categorise the students as good, bad and mediocre
(b) To rank the students according to their scores
(c) To understand students' learning difficulties
(d) To identify those students who can be promoted to next class
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the goal was negative labeling.
(b) Correct if education was solely a competitive ranking system.
(c) Correct if asked for the diagnostic and formative purpose of assessment.
(d) Correct if the assessment was strictly a summative, pass/fail barrier.
**35. Which of the following is an important goal of education?**
(a) To help students to pass exams.
(b) To develop students' ability to think critically.
(c) To help students to memorise a large amount of information.
(d) To prepare students for obtaining a good government job.
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if education was just an exam factory.
(b) Correct if asked for the higher-order cognitive goal of modern education.
(c) Correct if rote memorization was the ultimate goal.
(d) Correct if education served solely vocational purposes.
**36. Which of the following statements regarding the textbooks do you agree with?**
(a) There should be one textbook for the entire country to avoid confusion.
(b) A national-level textbook should preferably be written by a single author.
(c) A textbook should initiate and not limit the learning process
(d) A textbook is primarily meant to be used by teachers.
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if extreme centralization and lack of diversity was desired.
(b) Correct if collaborative and diverse expert input was unnecessary.
(c) Correct if asked for the modern pedagogical view of a textbook as a scaffolding tool.
(d) Correct if textbooks were teacher's manuals only.
**37. Which of the following statements about punishments in school do you agree with?**
(a) Punishments are required but they should be psychological and not physical.
(b) Punishments are a necessary evil which help in enforcing discipline.
(c) The fear of punishment is helpful in motivating students to learn well.
(d) Punishments are ineffective in bringing about permanent changes in students' behaviour.
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if psychological trauma was an acceptable teaching method.
(b) Correct if traditional punitive discipline was considered effective.
(c) Correct if fear was a sustainable intrinsic motivator.
(d) Correct if asked for the modern psychological consensus on operant conditioning regarding punishment.
**38. Which of the following is NOT an objective of conducting group activities in a class?**
(a) To encourage students to compete with each other.
(b) To encourage students to learn from one-other.
(c) To inculcate the value of social cooperation in students.
(d) To develop a sense of collective responsibility in students.
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked to identify the anti-collaborative outcome not desired in group work.
(b) Correct if asked for a positive objective related to peer learning.
(c) Correct if asked for an objective building social skills.
(d) Correct if asked for an objective building team accountability.
**39. Which of the following would be an effective way to teach students about the two types of leaf venations?**
(a) Clearly explaining the difference between the leaf venations
(b) Showing the diagrams of two leaves and asking students to notice the differences
(c) Asking students to read about the subject from the prescribed school textbook
(d) Taking students for a visit to garden and asking them to observe different leaves
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if passive lecture was the best teaching method.
(b) Correct if 2D representations were better than real life.
(c) Correct if self-reading replaced active teaching.
(d) Correct if asked for the most experiential, hands-on learning approach.
**40. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy for teachers to adopt for inculcating values in students?**
(a) Inviting experts to speak on the subject
(b) Demonstrating these values in their own ideas and behaviour
(c) Introducing 'moral science' as a subject
(d) Narrating inspirational stories in the morning assembly
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if episodic external speakers were enough to build character.
(b) Correct if asked for the strategy relying on role-modeling, which is most effective for value education.
(c) Correct if values were just academic subjects to memorize.
(d) Correct if passive storytelling was sufficient for internalizing values.
**41. According to you, which of the following is the most desirable attribute of a person who wishes to become a teacher?**
(a) Good physique
(b) Ability to assert and dominate
(c) Willingness to learn
(d) Willingness to please the seniors
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the job was a physical modeling career.
(b) Correct if teaching was an authoritarian dictatorship.
(c) Correct if asked for the trait essential for lifelong learning and adapting as an educator.
(d) Correct if the job was purely sycophancy.
**42. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to instill respect for cultural diversity in students?**
(a) Organise a lecture on cultural diversity
(b) Show a film on cultural diversity
(c) Organise a poster making competition on the theme of diversity
(d) Celebrate significant festivals and days of various cultures.
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if passive listening instilled deep cultural respect.
(b) Correct if brief visual exposure was enough for cultural integration.
(c) Correct if an art contest was the most immersive cultural experience.
(d) Correct if asked for the most participatory and inclusive method of cultural appreciation.
**43. A students of your class has been missing school for many days. What would you do?**
(a) Respect child's privacy and ignore the subject
(b) Report the matter to principal
(c) Ask another students to share all class notes with him
(d) Try to find out and address the cause behind his absence.
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if teachers had no pastoral care responsibilities.
(b) Correct if offloading responsibility immediately without investigation was best practice.
(c) Correct if catching up on notes solved the underlying reason for absence.
(d) Correct if asked for the empathetic, proactive step a teacher should take first.
**44. What would you do if you are placed in a school of a region whose local language you are not familiar with?**
(a) Admit your shortcoming and try for a transfer to some other school.
(b) Try to learn the local language
(c) Try to teach the standard language of the textbook to students
(d) Request the principal to discourage the use of local language in school.
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if running away from challenges was the professional standard.
(b) Correct if asked for the most adaptive and respectful approach to a new community.
(c) Correct if ignoring the students' mother tongue was good pedagogy.
(d) Correct if language suppression was an acceptable practice.
**45. Who are the best people to evaluate a teacher on the basis of her/his performance and behaviour?**
(a) Administrators
(b) Students
(c) Parents
(d) Colleagues
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if direct classroom interaction was not needed for evaluation.
(b) Correct if asked who is the primary, daily recipient of the teacher's instruction.
(c) Correct if second-hand information was the most accurate evaluation metric.
(d) Correct if peer reviews were the only method of performance assessment.
**46. What is the full form of NCERT?**
(a) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(b) National Centre for Education, Research and Teaching
(c) National Council for Extensive Research and Training
(d) National Centre for Extensive Research in Technology
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the actual acronym of India's apex advisory body for school education.
(b) Correct if "Centre" and "Teaching" were part of the acronym.
(c) Correct if "Extensive" was part of the acronym.
(d) Correct if it was a technological research center.
**47. Which of the following practices would you AVOID while teaching in online mode?**
(a) Have an alternative plan ready in the event of any connectivity issues at your end.
(b) Gather information about the digital accessibility of all of your students
(c) be rigid about exact time to assignment submissions
(d) Try to make the classes as interactive as possible
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a best practice regarding technical backups.
(b) Correct if asked for a best practice regarding student equity.
(c) Correct if asked for a practice to avoid, as digital inequity requires flexibility.
(d) Correct if asked for a best practice regarding student engagement online.
**48. Which is the most important purpose served by the laboratory activities in teaching of science?**
(a) They make the process of learning enjoyable for students.
(b) They allow students to score higher.
(c) They help the students in linking theoretical concepts with practical work.
(d) They teach students the value of maintaining discipline
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if entertainment was the primary educational objective.
(b) Correct if exams were the only reason for lab work.
(c) Correct if asked for the core pedagogical value of hands-on experimentation.
(d) Correct if lab rules were meant solely for strict behavioral control.
**49. Which of the following is the most appropriate objective of organizing visits to various places of educational interest?**
(a) These help in connecting the textbook knowledge with the real world.
(b) They are an enjoyable way to pass time.
(c) They are an effective way to manage large-sized classes.
(d) They make assessment easier.
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the main pedagogical benefit of field trips.
(b) Correct if field trips were just leisure activities.
(c) Correct if crowd control was the goal of a field trip.
(d) Correct if field trips simplified written tests.
**50. As the principal of a school, you get to know that some teachers have been criticizing you behind your back. What would you do?**
(a) Ignore the subject
(b) Take action against those teachers
(c) Ask other teachers to discourage them
(d) Introspect on your behaviour and practices
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if burying one's head in the sand was effective leadership.
(b) Correct if a principal was a vindictive dictator.
(c) Correct if starting office politics was appropriate.
(d) Correct if asked for the action demonstrating emotional intelligence and self-reflection.
**51. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Central Board of Secondary Education?**
(a) Granting affiliations to schools that meet its standards
(b) Conducting class X and class XII examinations
(c) Developing supplementary textual material
(d) Granting affiliations to teacher education institutions that meet its standards
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a primary function of CBSE for schools.
(b) Correct if asked for the assessment function of CBSE.
(c) Correct if asked for an academic support function of CBSE.
(d) Correct if asked to identify the function belonging to the NCTE, not CBSE.
**52. Which of the following is NOT in consonance with the recommendations of NEP 2020?**
(a) Emphasis on multidisciplinarity
(b) Flexibility in choice of subjects
(c) Implementation of one language formula
(d) Emphasis on experiential learning
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a core pillar of NEP 2020 higher education.
(b) Correct if asked for a reform in secondary education under NEP 2020.
(c) Correct if asked for a policy that contradicts NEP 2020's promotion of multilingualism (3-language formula).
(d) Correct if asked for the pedagogical shift recommended by NEP 2020.
**53. On a particular day, you go to your class to teach a concept but your students are not in a mood to study and request you to let them play. What would you do?**
(a) Scold them and proceed to teach
(b) Give them free time to do any thing they want
(c) Go to the principal and seek his/her opinion
(d) Develop and play a game based on the concept
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if authoritarianism overrode student readiness.
(b) Correct if the teacher completely abandoned academic objectives.
(c) Correct if the teacher lacked any classroom management autonomy.
(d) Correct if asked for a solution integrating student interest with pedagogical goals (play-way method).
**54. What should be the direction of teaching and learning of various concepts?**
(a) From unknown to known
(b) From abstract to concrete
(c) From near to far
(d) From complex to simple
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if pedagogy worked backward (it is actually known to unknown).
(b) Correct if learning worked backward (it is actually concrete to abstract).
(c) Correct if asked for a valid pedagogical maxim linking immediate environment to distant concepts.
(d) Correct if learning worked backward (it is actually simple to complex).
**55. You are teaching in a class and a student points out your mistake. What would you do?**
(a) Appreciate the student and admit your mistake.
(b) Ignore the student but rectify the error.
(c) Ask the student to be quiet and remain in discipline.
(d) Cover up by saying that the mistake was deliberate to check students' attentiveness.
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the intellectually honest and encouraging response.
(b) Correct if the teacher was too proud to admit fault publicly.
(c) Correct if the teacher used discipline to mask incompetence.
(d) Correct if the teacher used a common manipulative excuse.
**56. What has the erstwhile 'Ministry of Human Resource Development' been renamed as:**
(a) Ministry of Human Empowerment
(b) Ministry of Social Justice
(c) Ministry of Education
(d) Ministry of Child Welfare
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the ministry focused solely on general empowerment.
(b) Correct if asked for the ministry dealing with marginalized communities.
(c) Correct if asked for the new name given to MHRD under NEP 2020.
(d) Correct if asked for a division of the Women and Child Development ministry.
**57. As a teacher who has recently been appointed in a particular school, what would be your first preparation for the job?**
(a) Prepare one month's lesson plans in advance
(b) Solve previous years' question papers
(c) Ask for notes from colleagues teaching the same subject
(d) Become familiar with the socio-cultural environment of students.
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if administrative planning superseded understanding the learners.
(b) Correct if teaching was only about passing exams.
(c) Correct if copying colleagues was the primary pedagogical approach.
(d) Correct if asked for the foundational step to contextualize learning for a new demographic.
**58. In the widely used acronym 'ICT' the letter 'C' stands for:**
(a) Communication
(b) Collaboration
(c) Computer
(d) Central
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the 'C' in Information and Communication Technology.
(b) Correct if ICT meant Information and Collaboration Technology.
(c) Correct if the 'C' stood for the hardware itself.
(d) Correct if asked for the 'C' in CPU.
**59. When is the National Education Day celebrated in India?**
(a) 11th November
(b) 5th September
(c) 29th October
(d) 26th January
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the birthday of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
(b) Correct if asked for National Teachers' Day in India.
(c) Correct if asked for National Internet Day.
(d) Correct if asked for Republic Day of India.
**60. A teacher appointed as a TGT would teach which of the following classes?**
(a) Nursery
(b) 5th
(c) 8th
(d) 12th
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if appointed as an NTT (Nursery Trained Teacher).
(b) Correct if appointed as a PRT (Primary Teacher, up to class 5).
(c) Correct if appointed as a Trained Graduate Teacher (classes 6 to 10).
(d) Correct if appointed as a PGT (Post Graduate Teacher, classes 11-12).
**61. Which city recently hosted the 'Global Collaboration Advanced Vaccinology Training' Meeting?**
(a) New Delhi
(b) Paris
(c) Geneva
(d) New York
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the meeting was hosted in India's capital.
(b) Correct if the meeting was hosted in France.
(c) Correct if asked for the host city of this WHO-related medical training hub event.
(d) Correct if the meeting was at UN Headquarters.
**62. Which among the following is the nodal agency to implement the Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojna?**
(a) National Medical Commission
(b) Medical Council of India
(c) National Health Authority
(d) All India Institute of Medical Sciences
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the regulator of medical education in India.
(b) Correct if asked for the predecessor to the National Medical Commission.
(c) Correct if asked for the specific executing body of India's flagship health insurance scheme.
(d) Correct if asked for the premier public medical university in New Delhi.
**63. Who is the first Indian woman scientist to be elected a Fellow of the Royal Society (FRS)?**
(a) Mangala Narlikar
(b) Shobhana Narasimhan
(c) Asima Chatterjee
(d) Gagandeep Kang
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a prominent Indian female mathematician.
(b) Correct if asked for a prominent computational physicist.
(c) Correct if asked for the first Indian woman to earn a Doctorate of Science.
(d) Correct if asked for the virologist who became the first Indian woman FRS in 2019.
**64. Which among the following is a good conductor of electricity?**
(a) Distilled water
(b) Honey
(c) Lemon Juice
(d) Kerosene oil
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a pure liquid that is an insulator.
(b) Correct if asked for a viscous organic insulator.
(c) Correct if asked for a liquid containing free ions (citric acid) that conducts electricity.
(d) Correct if asked for a hydrocarbon fuel that is an insulator.
**65. Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for the year 2021?**
(a) Dmitry Muratov
(b) Abiy Ahmed
(c) David Julius
(d) David Card
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the Russian journalist who won the 2021 Peace Prize alongside Maria Ressa.
(b) Correct if asked for the 2019 Nobel Peace Prize winner.
(c) Correct if asked for the 2021 Nobel Prize winner in Medicine.
(d) Correct if asked for the 2021 Nobel Prize winner in Economics.
**66. 'Red Sanders' which has fallen back into the 'endangered' category in the International Union for Conservation of Nature's (IUCN) Red List is:**
(a) A reptile
(b) A tree
(c) A bird
(d) A mammal
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the species was a turtle or snake.
(b) Correct if asked for the classification of Pterocarpus santalinus (red sandalwood).
(c) Correct if the species was a critically endangered avian.
(d) Correct if the species was an endangered tiger or elephant.
**67. When is 'Zero Discrimination Day' celebrated each year by the United Nations (UN)?**
(a) 1st March
(b) 22nd April
(c) 5th June
(d) 16th October
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the UNAIDS-led day promoting equality before the law.
(b) Correct if asked for Earth Day.
(c) Correct if asked for World Environment Day.
(d) Correct if asked for World Food Day.
**68. In which country are the headquarters of International Solar Alliance Located?**
(a) Bhutan
(b) India
(c) Egypt
(d) Sri Lanka
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the ISA was headquartered in Thimphu.
(b) Correct if asked for the location of the ISA Secretariat (Gurugram).
(c) Correct if the ISA was headquartered in Cairo.
(d) Correct if the ISA was headquartered in Colombo.
**69. Which of the following is NOT true of the Kyoto Protocol?**
(a) It was adopted in 1997.
(b) The obligation to reduce emissions is put on developing countries.
(c) It aims at reduction of greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere.
(d) It is a legally binding treaty.
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the year the protocol was adopted.
(b) Correct if identifying the false statement, as Kyoto placed obligations on *developed* nations (Annex I).
(c) Correct if asked for the primary environmental goal of the protocol.
(d) Correct if asked about the legal nature of the protocol.
**70. "Abilympics" are the competitions held for Persons with Disabilities, in which field?**
(a) Coding
(b) Skill demonstration
(c) Sports
(d) Business administration
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the competition was exclusively for programming.
(b) Correct if asked for the vocational skills olympics for disabled persons.
(c) Correct if the competition was the Paralympics.
(d) Correct if the competition was purely for corporate management.
**71. The 61st constitution (Amendment) Act 1989 is related to which of the following?**
(a) The grant of special states to the Union Territory of Delhi
(b) Deletion of the right to property from the list of fundamental rights
(c) The lowering of minimum voting age from 21 to 18 years
(d) Inclusion of Konkani, Meitei (Manipuri) and Nepali languages in the Eighth schedule to the constitution
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the 69th Amendment.
(b) Correct if asked for the 44th Amendment.
(c) Correct if asked for the amendment altering Article 326 for voting rights.
(d) Correct if asked for the 71st Amendment.
**72. Which of the following places is associated with the India's first Civil Disobedience movement launched Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers?**
(a) Dandi
(b) Kakori
(c) Chambal
(d) Champaran
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the 1930 Salt March location.
(b) Correct if asked for the 1925 train robbery location.
(c) Correct if asked for a region famous for ravines and dacoits.
(d) Correct if asked for the 1917 Satyagraha supporting indigo farmers.
**73. Who is the present chief justice of India?**
(a) Sharad Arvind Bobde
(b) Dipak Misra
(c) Ranjan Gogoi
(d) N.V. Ramana
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the 47th CJI.
(b) Correct if asked for the 45th CJI.
(c) Correct if asked for the 46th CJI.
(d) Correct if asked for the 48th CJI (who was the incumbent at the time this 2022 paper was set).
**74. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus?**
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Cholera
(c) Tetanus
(d) Chickenpox
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a disease caused by Mycobacterium.
(b) Correct if asked for a waterborne disease caused by Vibrio bacteria.
(c) Correct if asked for a disease caused by Clostridium bacteria.
(d) Correct if asked for a disease caused by the Varicella-zoster virus.
**75. Which of the following is an autobiographical work of Maya Angelou, the first black woman to appear on a US coin?**
(a) Bone Black: Memories of Girlhood
(b) I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings
(c) Long Walk to Freedom
(d) Becoming
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the memoir by bell hooks.
(b) Correct if asked for Maya Angelou's seminal 1969 autobiography.
(c) Correct if asked for Nelson Mandela's autobiography.
(d) Correct if asked for Michelle Obama's memoir.
**76. 'Purple Revolution' is associated with the cultivation of which of the following?**
(a) Tea
(b) Indigo
(c) Aromatic Plants
(d) Spices
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the primary crop of Assam's historical plantations.
(b) Correct if asked for the historical blue dye crop.
(c) Correct if asked for the lavender cultivation initiative in Jammu & Kashmir.
(d) Correct if asked for crops associated with Kerala's historical trade.
**77. Who was the first female to become the chief minister of a state of India?**
(a) Sucheta Kriplani
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) J. Jayalalithaa
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the first female CM (Uttar Pradesh, 1963).
(b) Correct if asked for the heroine of the Quit India movement.
(c) Correct if asked for the first female Governor of an Indian state.
(d) Correct if asked for the prominent female CM of Tamil Nadu.
**78. 'Thomas Cup' is associated with which of the following sports?**
(a) Badminton
(b) Football
(c) Table Tennis
(d) Lawn Tennis
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the international men's team championship in badminton.
(b) Correct if asked for the FIFA World Cup or Durand Cup.
(c) Correct if asked for the Swaythling Cup.
(d) Correct if asked for the Davis Cup.
**79. Which among the following rivers originates from the Amarkantak?**
(a) Kosi
(b) Narmada
(c) Krishna
(d) Betwa
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a river originating in Nepal/Tibet.
(b) Correct if asked for the major west-flowing river originating in Madhya Pradesh.
(c) Correct if asked for a river originating in Mahabaleshwar.
(d) Correct if asked for a river originating in the Vindhya Range (north-flowing).
**80. At which of the following places has the first astronomical observatory of Harappan Civilization been found?**
(a) Daimabad
(b) Dholavira
(c) Puri
(d) Ropar
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the southernmost Indus Valley site in Maharashtra.
(b) Correct if asked for the major Harappan site in Gujarat known for water management and astronomical findings.
(c) Correct if asked for a historical coastal city in Odisha.
(d) Correct if asked for a major IVC site in Punjab.
**81. Kittur Chennamma, one of the first women freedom fighters, was the queen of which present-day state?**
(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for Rani Velu Nachiyar's region.
(b) Correct if asked for the region of the Attingal Queens.
(c) Correct if asked for the Kakatiya dynasty region (Rudrama Devi).
(d) Correct if asked for the state containing the former princely state of Kittur.
**82. With which sports was the Olympian Syed Shahid Hakim who passed away recently at the age of 82 associated?**
(a) Football
(b) Weightlifting
(c) Hockey
(d) Archery
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the sport of the 1960 Rome Olympian and Dhyan Chand awardee.
(b) Correct if asked for the sport of Karnam Malleswari.
(c) Correct if asked for the sport of Major Dhyan Chand.
(d) Correct if asked for the sport of Limba Ram.
**83. What is the maximum possible strength of Lok Sabha as specified by the constitution of India?**
(a) 250
(b) 543
(c) 525
(d) 552
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha.
(b) Correct if asked for the current actual elected strength of the Lok Sabha.
(c) Correct if asked for the Lok Sabha strength before 1973 (31st Amendment).
(d) Correct if asked for the historical constitutional maximum (530 states + 20 UTs + 2 Anglo-Indians).
**84. With which of the following sport is Bhawani Devi, who recently won the title at Charlellville Competition in France, associated?**
(a) Fencing
(b) Weightlifting
(c) Archery
(d) Shooting
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the sport of the first Indian to qualify for the Olympics in this discipline.
(b) Correct if asked for Mirabai Chanu's sport.
(c) Correct if asked for Deepika Kumari's sport.
(d) Correct if asked for Manu Bhaker's sport.
**85. With which of the following products is Indian government's initiative 'sweet revolution' associated?**
(a) Fruits
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Milk
(d) Honey
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the Golden Revolution (horticulture/fruits).
(b) Correct if asked for the major cash crop processed by sugar mills.
(c) Correct if asked for the White Revolution.
(d) Correct if asked for the National Beekeeping and Honey Mission.
**86. With which of the following fields is the recently discovered 'Hamilton's Object' which was discovered recently associated?**
(a) Mining
(b) Virology
(c) Space Science
(d) Economics
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for an earth mineral discovery.
(b) Correct if asked for a new virus strain.
(c) Correct if asked for the rare type of active galaxy discovery.
(d) Correct if asked for a new financial theory.
**87. Which country is the world's largest producer of Palm Oil?**
(a) India
(b) UAE
(c) Indonesia
(d) Japan
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a major importer of palm oil.
(b) Correct if asked for a major producer of crude petroleum.
(c) Correct if asked for the Southeast Asian nation dominating global palm oil supply.
(d) Correct if asked for a major technology exporter.
**88. Who among the following edited and published the newspaper Indian Mirror in 1861?**
(a) Amitava Ghosh
(b) Rabindranath Tagore and Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sumit Ganguly
(d) Manmohan Ghosh and Devendranath Tagore
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the modern Indian English author of "The Glass Palace".
(b) Correct if asked for figures associated with the Harijan or Gitanjali.
(c) Correct if asked for a modern political science professor.
(d) Correct if asked for the founders of this prominent early English newspaper in Calcutta.
**89. Sankalp Gupta, who is seen in the news recently, is associated with which sport?**
(a) Chess
(b) Football
(c) Hockey
(d) Table Tennis
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for India's 71st Chess Grandmaster.
(b) Correct if asked for Sunil Chhetri's sport.
(c) Correct if asked for Manpreet Singh's sport.
(d) Correct if asked for Sharath Kamal's sport.
**90. As per a recent study of UNGC (United Nations Global Compact) India, what is the female labour-force participation in India in 2020?**
(a) 54.4%
(b) 48.5%
(c) 24.8%
(d) 2.9%
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a significantly higher global average female participation.
(b) Correct if asked for the male participation drop or a different demographic statistic.
(c) Correct if asked for the precise, notably low female FLFP figure reported for India in that period.
(d) Correct if asked for the GDP growth rate or a very marginal statistical blip.
**91. Which of the following two angles can be classified as complementary angles:**
(a) 120° & 60°
(b) 50° and 30°
(c) 65° and 25°
(d) 70° and 30°
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for supplementary angles (sum to 180).
(b) Correct if asked for angles summing to 80.
(c) Correct if asked for angles whose sum is exactly 90 degrees.
(d) Correct if asked for angles summing to 100.
**92. A square and a rhombus are always:**
(a) Similar
(b) congruent
(c) similar but not congruent
(d) neither similar nor congruent
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked about two squares.
(b) Correct if asked about two squares with the exact same side length.
(c) Correct if asked about two squares of different sizes.
(d) Correct because a square always has 90° angles, while a general rhombus does not, violating similarity rules.
**93. In a rectangle if the length is 8 cm and the breadth is 6 cm, then the diagonal = ?**
(a) 9 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 12 cm
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the Pythagorean theorem yielded 81.
(b) Correct if asked for the sum of length and breadth.
(c) Correct if applying $\sqrt{8^2 + 6^2} = \sqrt{100} = 10$.
(d) Correct if the calculation incorrectly doubled the breadth.
**94. 30th term of the Arithmetic Progression 10, 7, 4, ............ is:**
(a) 97
(b) 77
(c) -77
(d) -87
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the common difference was +3.
(b) Correct if the sequence was 10, 13, 16...
(c) Correct applying $T_n = a + (n-1)d \Rightarrow 10 + 29(-3) = -77$.
(d) Correct if calculated as $10 + 32(-3)$.
**95. A train travels 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 5 km/h more, it would have taken one hour less for the same journey. What was the original speed of the train?**
(a) 36 km/h
(b) 40 km/h
(c) 45 km/h
(d) 48 km/h
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the math yielded 360/10 = 36.
(b) Correct since $360/40 = 9$ hours, and $360/45 = 8$ hours ($9 - 8 = 1$).
(c) Correct if asked for the new, increased speed.
(d) Correct if the journey distance or time difference was different.
**96. The book entitled 'Hind Swaraj' or 'Indian Home Rule' was written by:**
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the author of "Gitanjali".
(b) Correct if asked for the author of "Annihilation of Caste".
(c) Correct if asked for the author of this 1909 foundational text on self-rule.
(d) Correct if asked for the author of "The Discovery of India".
**97. Which of the following was the reason for calling off the Non-cooperation movement by Gandhiji?**
(a) Chauri Chaura incident
(b) Gandhiji's arrest
(c) Second round table
(d) Pressure from the British government
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the violent 1922 event that violated the principle of Ahimsa.
(b) Correct if asked why the Civil Disobedience movement temporarily lost leadership.
(c) Correct if asked why the Civil Disobedience movement was suspended in 1931.
(d) Correct if the movement was defeated by pure coercion rather than moral choice.
**98. Who founded the "All India Depressed Classes Association"?**
(a) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(b) C. R. Das
(c) M. R. Jayakar
(d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the leader of the Rampa Rebellion.
(b) Correct if asked for the founder of the Swaraj Party.
(c) Correct if asked for a prominent Hindu Mahasabha and liberal leader.
(d) Correct if asked for the champion of Dalit rights who organized the Depressed Classes (though M.C. Rajah formed a similarly named group, Ambedkar's associations are standardly tested this way).
**99. What was the purpose of Rowlatt act 1919?**
(a) Forbade the Indians to qualify for administrative services
(b) Denied political participation
(c) Levied additional taxes
(d) Authorize government to imprison any person
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if it was related to the ICS age limit changes.
(b) Correct if it completely banned the INC.
(c) Correct if it was an economic punitive act.
(d) Correct if asked for the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, allowing detention without trial.
**100. Who wrote the book, 'Politics and Stages of Growth'?**
(a) Walt W. Rostow
(b) David Apter
(c) Gabriel Almond
(d) Joseph Schumpeter
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the author of this 1971 book on political modernization and economic growth.
(b) Correct if asked for the author of "The Politics of Modernization".
(c) Correct if asked for the author of "The Civic Culture".
(d) Correct if asked for the author of "Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy".
**101. According to World system theory, what is the relationship between core and periphery?**
(a) Exploiter and Exploited
(b) Rulers and Ruled
(c) State and Citizens
(d) Imperialists and colony
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for Wallerstein's economic dynamic where the core extracts resources from the periphery.
(b) Correct if the theory was purely about political governance.
(c) Correct if describing a domestic political framework.
(d) Correct if describing formal 19th-century colonial structures specifically, rather than modern economic systems.
**102. The number of seats reserved for women in the panchayat and municipalities is:**
(a) One fourth
(b) One third
(c) Half
(d) One fifth
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the reservation was 25%.
(b) Correct if asked for the constitutional mandate (33%) under the 73rd and 74th Amendments.
(c) Correct if asked for the reservation implemented independently by several specific states later (like Bihar), but not the base constitutional baseline.
(d) Correct if the reservation was 20%.
**103. Subjects like education comes in the list of:**
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Central list
(d) Concurrent list
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if only the central government could legislate on it (like Defense).
(b) Correct if it was pre-1976 (42nd Amendment) when it was purely a state subject.
(c) Correct if "Central" was the formal name for the Union list.
(d) Correct if asked for the list allowing both State and Union legislation.
**104. Human Development report is published by:**
(a) WHO
(b) World Bank
(c) UNDP
(d) IMF
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for publishers of the World Health Report.
(b) Correct if asked for the World Development Report.
(c) Correct if asked for the United Nations Development Programme's flagship HDI publication.
(d) Correct if asked for the World Economic Outlook report.
**105. Which of the following states of India has lowest infant mortality rate?**
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Delhi
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a state with good, but not the absolute best, health indicators.
(b) Correct if asked for the national capital territory.
(c) Correct if asked for India's richest state by GDP.
(d) Correct if asked for the state consistently ranking #1 in healthcare and lowest IMR.
**106. Which of the following activities does not belong to the primary sector of economic activities?**
(a) Fishing
(b) Mining
(c) Forestry
(d) Banking
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if identifying an extraction activity (primary).
(b) Correct if identifying resource extraction (primary).
(c) Correct if identifying natural resource harvesting (primary).
(d) Correct if asked to identify a tertiary (service) sector activity.
**107. Which of the following is a renewable resource?**
(a) Coal
(b) Fossil fuel
(c) Solar energy
(d) Petroleum
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a combustible sedimentary rock (non-renewable).
(b) Correct if asked for the general term for carbon-based non-renewable fuels.
(c) Correct if asked for a resource that replenishes naturally and endlessly.
(d) Correct if asked for liquid fossil fuel.
**108. Black soil is deficient in:**
(a) Calcium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Potash
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if black soil lacked Calcium carbonate (it is actually rich in it).
(b) Correct if black soil lacked Magnesium (it is rich in it).
(c) Correct if asked for the nutrient that black soil notably lacks (along with nitrogen and organics).
(d) Correct if black soil lacked Potash (it is rich in it).
**109. The Buxa Tiger reserve is in:**
(a) West Bengal
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the reserve located in the Alipurduar district of West Bengal.
(b) Correct if asked for the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve.
(c) Correct if asked for the Periyar Tiger Reserve.
(d) Correct if asked for the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve.
**110. Who wrote the book Social contract?**
(a) R.P. Dutt
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) J.S. Mill
(d) J.J. Rousseau
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the author of "India Today".
(b) Correct if asked for the author of "Leviathan".
(c) Correct if asked for the author of "On Liberty".
(d) Correct if asked for the philosopher who wrote "The Social Contract" (1762).
**111. On the basis of origin, resources can be classified as ---------------- and ----------------.**
(a) Renewable and non-renewable
(b) Biotic and abiotic
(c) Potential and developed
(d) Soluble and insoluble
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if classified on the basis of exhaustibility.
(b) Correct if classified by origin (living vs non-living).
(c) Correct if classified on the basis of status of development.
(d) Correct if classified on the basis of chemical solubility.
**112. The first international Earth Summit (1992) was held in:**
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Sao Paulo
(c) Brasilica
(d) Santiago
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the Brazilian city hosting the UNCED (Rio Summit).
(b) Correct if the summit was held in Brazil's financial center.
(c) Correct if the summit was held in Brazil's capital (Brasília).
(d) Correct if the summit was held in Chile.
**113. The statement "There is enough for everybody's need and not for anybody's greed" by whom?**
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for "Give me blood and I will give you freedom".
(b) Correct if asked for "Tryst with Destiny".
(c) Correct if asked for "Educate, Agitate, Organize".
(d) Correct if asked for the famous quote on sustainable resource conservation by Gandhi.
**114. The Land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is known as:**
(a) Gross cropped area
(b) Culturable waste land
(c) Current fallow
(d) Grazing land
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the total area sown once or more in a year.
(b) Correct if left uncultivated for more than 5 years.
(c) Correct if asked for the specific term for short-term fallow to regain fertility.
(d) Correct if the land was strictly allocated for livestock.
**115. In which of the following states is terrace cultivation followed?**
(a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttaranchal
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for intensive flat-land agriculture.
(b) Correct if asked for alluvial plains farming.
(c) Correct if asked for a state utilizing canal irrigation on flat terrain.
(d) Correct if asked for a mountainous state (Uttarakhand) needing terraces to prevent soil erosion.
**116. What type of reaction is respiration?**
(a) Endothermic
(b) Exothermic
(c) Decomposition
(d) Reduction
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if energy was absorbed (like photosynthesis).
(b) Correct because glucose is broken down to release energy.
(c) Correct if it was purely a breakdown without energy context (though respiration is oxidation, 'exothermic' is the most characteristic label for its energy profile).
(d) Correct if oxygen was removed.
**117. Identify the type of reaction: Zinc Carbonate(s) → Zinc Oxide(s) + Carbon dioxide(g)**
(a) Combination
(b) Double displacement
(c) Decomposition
(d) Displacement
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if two reactants formed one product.
(b) Correct if ions in two compounds exchanged partners.
(c) Correct because one reactant breaks down into two or more products.
(d) Correct if a more reactive element displaced a less reactive one.
**118. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to zinc pieces taken in a test tube:**
(a) Pungent smelling gas is emitted
(b) The color of the solution becomes yellow
(c) No change takes place
(d) Small bubbles of hydrogen appear on the surface of zinc pieces.
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if sulfur dioxide or ammonia was produced.
(b) Correct if a yellow precipitate or solution like iron chloride was formed.
(c) Correct if a noble metal like gold was placed in the acid.
(d) Correct because metal + acid yields salt + hydrogen gas (bubbles).
**119. Acids react with bases to form salt and water. This action is known as:**
(a) Neutralization
(b) Decomposition
(c) Combination
(d) Reduction
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the reaction canceling out acidic and basic properties.
(b) Correct if a compound split into simpler substances.
(c) Correct if two elements combined into one.
(d) Correct if the reaction involved a gain of electrons.
**120. Pyridine is an example of:**
(a) Aldehydes
(b) Ketones
(c) Heterocyclic
(d) Alkenes
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if it contained a -CHO group.
(b) Correct if it contained a C=O group internal to a carbon chain.
(c) Correct because pyridine is a ring structure containing a nitrogen atom replacing a carbon.
(d) Correct if it was a simple hydrocarbon with a double bond.
**121. Language learning is basically a:**
(a) Natural process
(b) Habit formation process
(c) Usual process
(d) None of the above
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the question asked about First Language *Acquisition*.
(b) Correct if referring to the behaviorist view of *learning* (L2) through drill and practice.
(c) Correct if it lacked a specific pedagogical definition.
(d) Correct if all options were unrelated.
**122. Which of the following is graphical representation of speech?**
(a) Speaking
(b) Listening
(c) Reading
(d) Writing
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the oral production of language.
(b) Correct if asked for the auditory reception of language.
(c) Correct if asked for decoding graphical representations.
(d) Correct if asked for encoding speech into visual symbols/text.
**123. The natural ability to learn a language is known as ---------------- aptitude.**
(a) Reading
(b) Language
(c) Writing
(d) Oral
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if it was an aptitude solely for text decoding.
(b) Correct if asked for the innate cognitive capacity for language acquisition.
(c) Correct if it was an aptitude for fine motor penmanship.
(d) Correct if it was strictly a speaking talent.
**124. Radio, Television and news papers are examples of:**
(a) Mass communication
(b) Organisational communication
(c) Small group communication
(d) One to one communication
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the media distributes information to large, anonymous audiences.
(b) Correct if it was an internal company newsletter.
(c) Correct if it was a committee meeting.
(d) Correct if it was a phone call between two people.
**125. Which of the following is internal barrier of communication?**
(a) Polluted environment
(b) Noise
(c) Poor background terms of previous learning
(d) Improper functioning of audio-visual equipment
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a physical/environmental barrier.
(b) Correct if asked for an external acoustic barrier.
(c) Correct if asked for a cognitive/psychological barrier within the receiver's mind.
(d) Correct if asked for a technological barrier.
**126. Which of the following is not a characteristic of good hand writing?**
(a) Legibility
(b) Simplicity
(c) Uniformity
(d) No attention to punctuation
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asking for the most basic requirement of handwriting.
(b) Correct if asking for a trait preventing overly complex flourishes.
(c) Correct if asking for consistency in letter size and spacing.
(d) Correct if asking for a negative trait (good handwriting requires proper punctuation).
**127. Which of the following sub skill of writing is concerned with use of articles, prepositions and various forms of tenses their agreement?**
(a) Visual perception
(b) Organization
(c) Grammar
(d) Purpose
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if it dealt with spatial awareness and letter formation.
(b) Correct if it dealt with paragraph structure and logical flow.
(c) Correct if it deals with the syntactic rules and structure of language.
(d) Correct if it dealt with the intent of the text (persuade, inform, etc.).
**128. Which of the following type of reading is done while students gather facts or arrive at some conclusions based on the facts?**
(a) Loud reading
(b) Silent reading
(c) Intensive reading
(d) Extensive reading
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if reading for pronunciation practice.
(b) Correct if the focus was purely on internal vocalization speed.
(c) Correct if reading carefully for exact details, specific information, and deep comprehension.
(d) Correct if reading rapidly for general pleasure or overall gist.
**129. The most important among ---------------- skills of a language is speaking.**
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) four
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if language only had input/output divisions.
(b) Correct if reading was excluded.
(c) Correct if a fifth skill (like viewing) was officially counted in this specific curriculum.
(d) Correct if referring to the standard LSRW paradigm (Listening, Speaking, Reading, Writing).
**130. A good ---------------- learns a language more effectively and efficiently.**
(a) Speaker
(b) Listener
(c) Viewer
(d) Writer
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if output preceded input in language acquisition theory.
(b) Correct because active listening/receptive input is the foundation of acquiring new language patterns.
(c) Correct if language was purely visual/sign-based.
(d) Correct if language was learned purely through composition.
**131. Which of the following is a useful technique to get to know each other.**
(a) Group discussion
(b) Debate
(c) Interview
(d) Extempore speech
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the goal was to solve a problem collectively.
(b) Correct if the goal was to argue opposing viewpoints.
(c) Correct if the goal involves direct Q&A to learn personal details/opinions of another person.
(d) Correct if the goal was impromptu public speaking on a random topic.
**132. The receptive skills in language are:**
(a) Speaking and writing
(b) Reading and writing
(c) Reading and speaking
(d) Listening and reading
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the productive/expressive skills.
(b) Correct if asked for the literacy-based skills.
(c) Correct if asked for a mix of one receptive and one productive skill.
(d) Correct if asked for the skills where meaning is extracted from input.
**133. When students are asked to read short text and make points for discussion, what skill of the learners are being assessed?**
(a) Study skills
(b) Listening skills
(c) Speaking skills
(d) Writing skills
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct because note-taking, synthesizing, and summarizing are core study skills.
(b) Correct if they were listening to an audio track instead of reading.
(c) Correct if the assessment was on the discussion itself, not the note-making.
(d) Correct if they were composing a full essay instead of making points.
**134. In listening and speaking exercises, ---------------- is important for meaning of speech.**
(a) Fluency
(b) Apprehension
(c) Words
(d) Intonation
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if speed and smoothness were the only metrics.
(b) Correct if anxiety levels were being measured.
(c) Correct if only vocabulary choice mattered, disregarding tone.
(d) Correct because pitch variations (intonation) can completely change a sentence's meaning (e.g., statement vs question).
**135. The productive skills in language are:**
(a) Speaking and writing
(b) Reading and writing
(c) Reading and speaking
(d) Listening and reading
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the skills that involve producing/outputting language.
(b) Correct if asked for the text-based skills.
(c) Correct if asked for an arbitrary mix.
(d) Correct if asked for the receptive skills.
**136. Konkani is a language of:**
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Goa
(d) Assam
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the language was Malayalam.
(b) Correct if the language was Kannada.
(c) Correct if asked for the official state language of Goa.
(d) Correct if the language was Assamese.
**137. Dogri is a language of:**
(a) Nagaland
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) West Bengal
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the language was Angami or Ao.
(b) Correct if asked for the Indo-Aryan language spoken primarily in the Jammu region.
(c) Correct if the language was Bengali.
(d) Correct if the language was Nyishi.
**138. The oldest Indian language is:**
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Tamil
(c) Hindi
(d) Kannada
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the oldest Indo-Aryan language.
(b) Correct if asked for the Indian language with the oldest extant continuous literature/records.
(c) Correct if asked for the most spoken modern Indian language.
(d) Correct if asked for another ancient Dravidian language, but not the oldest.
**139. The official language of Madhya Pradesh is:**
(a) Hindi
(b) Marathi
(c) English
(d) Bangla
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the primary official language of this central Indian state.
(b) Correct if asked for the official language of Maharashtra.
(c) Correct if asked for the official language of Nagaland.
(d) Correct if asked for the official language of West Bengal.
**140. The language of discourses of Gautam Buddha was:**
(a) Pali
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Bhojpuri
(d) Mahadhi
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the vernacular Prakrit language used in the Tripitaka.
(b) Correct if asked for the language of later Mahayana texts or Hindu Vedas.
(c) Correct if asked for a modern language of the Bihar/UP region.
(d) Correct if referring specifically to Magadhi Prakrit (though Pali is the standard historical answer for Buddhist discourses).
**141. During respiration, exchange of Oxygen and Carbon dioxide takes in:**
(a) Pharynx
(b) Trachea
(c) Alveoli
(d) Larynx
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the common passage for food and air.
(b) Correct if asked for the windpipe.
(c) Correct if asked for the microscopic air sacs in lungs where gas exchange occurs.
(d) Correct if asked for the voice box.
**142. Which of the following enzyme gets mixed with food in our mouth?**
(a) Trypsin
(b) Amylase
(c) Pepsin
(d) Lipase
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for a pancreatic enzyme breaking down proteins in the small intestine.
(b) Correct if asked for the salivary enzyme that breaks down starch.
(c) Correct if asked for the gastric enzyme breaking down proteins in the stomach.
(d) Correct if asked for the enzyme breaking down fats.
**143. The autotropic mode of nutrition requires:**
(a) Carbon dioxide and water
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Sunlight
(d) All of these
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if only the raw chemical reactants were needed.
(b) Correct if only the biological catalyst pigment was needed.
(c) Correct if only the energy source was needed.
(d) Correct because photosynthesis requires all these components simultaneously.
**144. When water enters the guard cells the stomata:**
(a) opens
(b) closes
(c) either opens or closes
(d) no effect
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct because turgor pressure causes guard cells to swell and bow outward, opening the pore.
(b) Correct if water leaves the guard cells, making them flaccid.
(c) Correct if stomatal state was randomized.
(d) Correct if guard cells lacked structural elasticity.
**145. Involuntary actions including blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are controlled by ---------------- in the hind brain.**
(a) Pons
(b) Medulla
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebrum
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the part regulating sleep and respiratory rhythms.
(b) Correct if asked for the Medulla Oblongata, the autonomic control center.
(c) Correct if asked for the part controlling voluntary movement coordination and balance.
(d) Correct if asked for the forebrain part controlling conscious thought.
**146. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in different trophic levels is called:**
(a) Biological concentration
(b) Biological deposition
(c) Biological degradation
(d) Biological magnification
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if it merely referred to localized gathering of chemicals.
(b) Correct if the chemicals were just settling inertly.
(c) Correct if the chemicals were breaking down (the opposite problem).
(d) Correct if asked for the process where toxins increase in concentration moving up the food chain (Biomagnification).
**147. World Environment Day is celebrated on:**
(a) July 1
(b) June 1
(c) May 5
(d) June 5
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for National Doctor's Day (India).
(b) Correct if asked for Global Day of Parents.
(c) Correct if asked for Cinco de Mayo.
(d) Correct if asked for the UN day for encouraging awareness and action for the environment.
**148. Nature of the image formed by a convex mirror of an object positioned at infinity is:**
(a) Real inverted diminished
(b) Real inverted enlarged
(c) Virtual, erect, diminished
(d) Virtual, erect, enlarged
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if it was a concave mirror with object beyond C.
(b) Correct if it was a concave mirror with object between C and F.
(c) Correct because a convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image at the focal point.
(d) Correct if it was a concave mirror with object inside the focal length.
**149. Convex lens of appropriate power is used in the case of:**
(a) Astigmatism
(b) Myopia
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) Presbyopia
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if a cylindrical lens was used.
(b) Correct if a concave lens was used to correct short-sightedness.
(c) Correct if a convex lens was used to converge light earlier for long-sightedness.
(d) Correct if a bifocal lens was used.
**150. Which is not true regarding electric charge?**
(a) Electric charge is scalar quantity
(b) Charge on a body may be positive or negative
(c) S.I. Unit of the charge is Coulomb
(d) One electron has a charge of one coulomb
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if identifying a true property of charge.
(b) Correct if identifying the bipolar nature of charge.
(c) Correct if identifying the standard unit of charge.
(d) Correct if identifying the false statement (one electron has a charge of $1.6 \times 10^{-19}$ C).
**151. S.I. unit of magnetic field strength is:**
(a) Oersted
(b) Volt
(c) Ampere
(d) Ohm
**Correct Answer:** (a) (Note: Question is flawed; SI is A/m or Tesla for B-field. Oersted is CGS. Frequently in such Indian exams, Oersted/Ampere-turns are confused. Oersted is often the expected answer if Tesla/Weber are missing).
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the CGS unit of magnetic field strength H (often the expected answer in flawed MCQs).
(b) Correct if asked for the unit of electric potential.
(c) Correct if asked for the unit of electric current.
(d) Correct if asked for the unit of electrical resistance.
**152. The frequency of the AC power supply used in India is:**
(a) 70 Hz
(b) 60 Hz
(c) 50 Hz
(d) 40 Hz
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the grid operated at an unusually high experimental frequency.
(b) Correct if asked for the standard AC frequency in the United States.
(c) Correct if asked for the standard AC frequency in India and most of Europe.
(d) Correct if asked for the frequency of older specific railway electrification systems.
**153. Metals that get magnatised by orientation of atomic magnetic moments in external magnetic field are called:**
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic
(d) Antimagnetic
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for materials that strongly align and retain magnetization (like iron).
(b) Correct if asked for materials that weakly align and don't retain it.
(c) Correct if asked for materials that create an opposing magnetic field.
(d) Correct if asked for materials displaying antiferromagnetism.
**154. Sound travels at 332 m/s in air. It means that:**
(a) The source of sound moves 332 m in one second
(b) The listener moves 332 m in one second
(c) Air moves 332 m in one second
(d) The disturbance in the air moves 332 m in one second
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the object creating the sound was flying at Mach 1.
(b) Correct if the observer was flying at Mach 1.
(c) Correct if there was a 332 m/s hurricane wind.
(d) Correct because sound is a mechanical wave (disturbance) propagating through the medium, not the medium itself moving.
**155. When ice melts its temperature:**
(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) either increases or decreases
**Correct Answer:** (a)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct because during a phase change (melting), added heat breaks bonds (latent heat) without raising temperature.
(b) Correct if heating liquid water after melting was complete.
(c) Correct if cooling liquid water.
(d) Correct if the substance had varying pressure constraints.
**156. The momentum of a given mass is proportional to its:**
(a) Volume
(b) Speed
(c) Shape
(d) Colour
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if density was constant and asked about mass.
(b) Correct because momentum $p = m \times v$, so for a fixed mass, it scales directly with velocity/speed.
(c) Correct if measuring aerodynamic drag coefficients.
(d) Correct if measuring light absorption.
**157. HCF of 8, 9, 25 is:**
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 25
(d) 1
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if all numbers were multiples of 8.
(b) Correct if all numbers were multiples of 9.
(c) Correct if all numbers were multiples of 25.
(d) Correct because 8 ($2^3$), 9 ($3^2$), and 25 ($5^2$) are pairwise co-prime and share no common factors other than 1.
**158. The product of non-zero rational and irrational number is:**
(a) rational
(b) irrational
(c) both rational and irrational
(d) none of these
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if multiplying two rational numbers.
(b) Correct because a non-zero fraction times a non-terminating/non-repeating decimal yields an irrational result.
(c) Correct if math rules were inconsistent.
(d) Correct if the product yielded an imaginary number.
**159. Which number is divisible by 11:**
(a) 1516
(b) 1452
(c) 1011
(d) 1121
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if $(1+1) - (5+6) = -9$, which is not divisible by 11.
(b) Correct because the alternating sum $(1+5) - (4+2) = 6 - 6 = 0$, which is divisible by 11.
(c) Correct if $(1+1) - (0+1) = 1$, not divisible by 11.
(d) Correct if $(1+2) - (1+1) = 1$, not divisible by 11.
**160. If the sum of three numbers in Arithmetic Progression is 9 and their product is 24, then the numbers are:**
(a) 2, 4, 6
(b) 1, 5, 3
(c) 2, 8, 4
(d) 2, 3, 4
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the sum was 12 and product 48.
(b) Correct if the numbers were not in AP.
(c) Correct if the sum was 14 and they were in GP.
(d) Correct because 2+3+4=9, 2×3×4=24, and difference is 1.
**161. In a rectangle, length is 8 cm, breadth is 6 cm, then the its diagonal is:**
(a) 9 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 12 cm
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the Pythagorean theorem gave 81.
(b) Correct if calculating length + breadth.
(c) Correct because $\sqrt{8^2 + 6^2} = \sqrt{100} = 10$.
(d) Correct if calculating 2 × breadth.
**162. A's age is 3 times that of B. In 12 years, A will be double the age of B. A's present age is:**
(a) 27 years
(b) 32 years
(c) 36 years
(d) 40 years
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if B was 9, but in 12 years (39 and 21), 39 is not double 21.
(b) Correct if A was not exactly 3 times B.
(c) Correct because B=12, A=36. In 12 years, B=24, A=48 (which is double).
(d) Correct if B was 13.33.
**163. A man sells his bike to his friend at 10% loss. If the friend sells it for Rs. 54,000 and gains 20%, the original CP of the bike was:**
(a) Rs. 25,000
(b) Rs. 37,500
(c) Rs. 50,000
(d) Rs. 60,000
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the friend bought it for 20,833.
(b) Correct if the math yielded a different base.
(c) Correct because friend's CP = 54000/1.2 = 45000. Original man's CP = 45000/0.9 = 50000.
(d) Correct if the original man sold at 25% loss instead of 10%.
**164. If the probability of winning a game is 0.3, the probability of losing it is:**
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.7
(c) 1
(d) 1.3
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if there was a 0.6 probability of a tie.
(b) Correct because total probability is 1, so $1 - 0.3 = 0.7$.
(c) Correct if losing was absolutely certain.
(d) Correct if probability could exceed 1.
**165. Mean of 100 numbers was calculated as 49. Later it was found that three numbers should have been 60, 70, 80 were wrongly read as 40, 20, 50 respectively. The correct mean is:**
(a) 48
(b) 49
(c) 50
(d) 60
**Correct Answer:** (c)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the numbers were misread too high instead of too low.
(b) Correct if the error canceled out to zero.
(c) Correct because the difference is $(60+70+80) - (40+20+50) = 210 - 110 = +100$. Added to the sum $4900 \rightarrow 5000 / 100 = 50$.
(d) Correct if the overall sum jumped by 1100.
**166. The volume of the cuboid whose length, breadth and beight is 12 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm, is:**
(a) 568 cu. cm
(b) 576 cu. cm
(c) 576 sq. cm
(d) 570 cu. cm
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if the multiplication resulted in 568.
(b) Correct because Volume = $12 \times 8 \times 6 = 576$ cubic cm.
(c) Correct if calculating surface area (which would be different anyway) but uses square units.
(d) Correct if addition/subtraction errors were made.
**167. The area of a circle is 154 cm². Its diameter is:**
(a) 7 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 21 cm
(d) 28 cm
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if asked for the radius ($22/7 \times r^2 = 154 \rightarrow r=7$).
(b) Correct because diameter is $2 \times r = 2 \times 7 = 14$.
(c) Correct if radius was 10.5.
(d) Correct if asked for $4 \times r$.
**168. A line segment drawn perpendicular from the vertex of a triangle to the opposite side is called the:**
(a) Bisector
(b) Median
(c) Perpendicular
(d) Altitude
**Correct Answer:** (d)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if it split the angle in half.
(b) Correct if it connected the vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side.
(c) Correct if it was just a general geometric term, but specific term is required.
(d) Correct because Altitude is the formal term for the height/perpendicular from vertex to base.
**169. The tangents drawn at the extremities of the diameter of a circle are:**
(a) Perpendicular
(b) Parallel
(c) Equal
(d) None of the above
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if tangents were drawn at adjacent points 90 degrees apart.
(b) Correct because the radii to the extremities form a straight line, and tangents are 90 degrees to radii, making them alternate interior angles of 90 degrees (thus parallel).
(c) Correct if referring to tangents drawn from a single external point.
(d) Correct if they intersected.
**170. If at some instant, the length of the shadow of a pole 30m high is 10√3 m, then the angle of elevation of the sun is:**
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 30°
(d) 90°
**Correct Answer:** (b)
*Facts:*
(a) Correct if shadow length equaled pole height.
(b) Correct because $\tan(\theta) = \frac{\text{Height}}{\text{Shadow}} = \frac{30}{10\sqrt{3}} = \frac{3}{\sqrt{3}} = \sqrt{3}$, so $\theta = 60^\circ$.
(c) Correct if the shadow was $30\sqrt{3}$ m.
(d) Correct if there was no shadow (sun directly overhead).
