Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
• Corporate Office : 45, 2nd Floor, Maharishi Dayanand Marg, Corner Market,
Malviya Nagar, New Delhi-110017
Tel. : 011-49842349 / 49842350
Typeset by Disha DTP Team
DISHA PUBLICATION
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
© Copyright Publisher
No part of this publication may be reproduced in any form without prior permission of the
publisher. The author and the publisher do not take any legal responsibility for any errors or misrepresentations
that might have crept in. We have tried and made our best efforts to provide accurate up-to-date information in this
book.
For further information about the books from DISHA,
Log on to www.dishapublication.com or email to info@dishapublication.com
By :
Fkujc Gzrgtv
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
1. The Living World 1-7
2. Biological Classification 8-15
3. Plant Kingdom 16-26
4. Animal Kingdom 27-37
5. Morphology of Flowering Plants 38-47
6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants 48-59
7. Structural Organisation in Animals 60-69
8. Cell: The Unit of Life 70-80
9. Biomolecules 81-88
10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division 89-95
11. Transport in Plants 96-102
12. Mineral Nutrition 103-110
13. Photosynthesis 111-120
14. Respiration in Plants 121-128
15. Plant Growth and Development 129-136
16. Digestion and Absorption 137-145
17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 146-153
18. Body Fluids and Circulation 154-161
19. Excretory Products and their Elimination 162-169
20. Locomotion and Movement 170-178
21. Neural Control and Coordination 179-188
22. Chemical Coordination and Integration 189-196
CONTENTS
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
23. Reproduction in Organisms 197-203
24. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 204-211
25. Human Reproduction 212-225
26. Reproductive Health 226-232
27. Principles of Inheritance & Variation 233-241
28. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 242-251
29. Evolution 252-260
30. Human Health and Disease 261-269
31. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 270-275
32. Microbes in Human Welfare 276-281
33. Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 282-288
34. Biotechnology and its Applications 289-294
35. Organisms and Population 295-302
36. Ecosystem 303-309
37. Biodiversity and its Conservation 310-315
38. Environmental Issues 316-323
HINTS & SOLUTION S-1-S-212
MOCK TESTS
Mock Test-1 with solutions MT-1-MT-10
Mock Test-2 with solutions MT-11-MT-20
Mock Test-3 with solutions MT-21-MT-30
Mock Test-4 with solutions MT-31-MT-42
Mock Test-5 with solutions MT-43-MT-55
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 1
Vjg Îkøkpé Yqtnæ
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following are unique features of living
organisms?
(a) Growth and reproduction
(b) Reproduction and ability to sense environment
(c) Metabolism and interaction
(d) All of the above
2. Cell division occurs _______ in plants and _______ in
animals.
(a) continuously, only upto a certain age
(b) only upto a certain age, continuously
(c) continuously, never
(d) once, twice
3. In unicellular organisms, with respect to growth and
reproduction following can be true.
1. Growth and Reproduction are inclusive events.
2. unicellular organisms grow by cell division.
3. Both are exclusive
(a) Only 1 correct (b) Only 2 correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct (d) Only 3 correct
4. In majority of higher animals and plants, _____ and _____
are mutually exclusive events.
(a) growth; nutrition
(b) nutrition; consciousness
(c) growth; reproduction
(d) reproduction; consciousness
5. Non-living objects1. Grows from external surface by collecting substance
on it.
2. Grows from internal surface like living.
3. Do not grow at all.
Which of the followings option is correct?
(a) Only 1 correct (b) Only 2 correct
(c) Only 3 correct (d) All 1, 2, 3 correct
6. In multicellular organisms, _____ refers to the production
of progeny possessing features more or less similar to
those of parents.
(a) growth (b) reproduction
(c) metabolism (d) consciousness
7. The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of mosses,
all easily multiply by _____.
(a) budding (b) fission
(c) regeneration (d) fragmentation
8. Which of the following factors exclusively affects
reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and
animals?
(a) Water (b) Temperature
(c) Photoperiod (d) All of these
9. The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in
our body is known as
(a) metabolism (b) growth
(c) regeneration (d) reproduction
10. Which of the following term is used to refer the number of
varieties of plants and animals on earth ?
(a) Taxonomy (b) Identification
(c) Biodiversity (d) Classification
11. ICBN stands for
(a) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(b) International Congress of Biological Names
(c) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(d) Indian Congress of Biological Names
12. Binomial nomenclature means
(a) one name given by two scientists.
(b) one scientific name consisting of a generic and
specific epithet.
(c) two names, one latinized, other of a person.
(d) two names of same plant.
13. In printed scientific names, only the ______ is capitalized.
(a) class (b) species
(c) genus (d) family
14. Each category of taxonomic hierarchy refers to as a unit
of ______.
(a) systematic (b) identification
(c) nomenclature (d) classification
15. Systematics refers to the
(a) identification and classification of plants and
animals.
(b) nomenclature and identification of plants and
animals.
(c) diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship.
(d) different kinds of organisms and their classification.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
2 Biology
16. Taxon is a
(a) unit of classification.
(b) species.
(c) highest rank of classification.
(d) group of closely related organisms.
17. The practical purpose of classification of living organisms is
to
(a) explain the origin of living organsims.
(b) trace the evolution of living organsims.
(c) name the living organisms.
(d) facilitate identification of unknown organisms.
18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of life?
(a) Reproduction
(b) Complex chemical organization
(c) Adaptation to environmental changes
(d) Differentiation from cells to tissues
19. Families are characterized on which of the following
features of plant species?
(a) External morphology
(b) Anatomy of parts
(c) Vegetative and reproductive parts
(d) Seasonal similarities and variations
20. The order generally ends with
(a) ales (b) aceae
(c) eae (d) none of these
21. Which of the following taxonomic aid provides
information for the identification of names of species
found in an area?
(a) Monograph (b) Manual
(c) Flora (d) Periodical
22. Which one of the taxonomic aids can give comprehensive
account of complete compiled information of any one
genus or family at a particular time?
(a) Taxonomic key (b) Flora
(c) Herbarium (d) Monograph
23. Which one of the following taxonomical aid is used for
identification of plants and animals based on similarities
and dissimilarities?
(a) Flora (b) Keys
(c) Monographs (d) Catalogues
24. Herbarium is a
(a) garden where medicinal plants are grown.
(b) garden where herbaceous plants are grown.
(c) dry garden.
(d) chemical to kill plants.
25. The famous botanical garden ‘Kew’ is located in
(a) England (b) Lucknow
(c) Berlin (d) Australia
26. Keys are generally _______ in nature.
(a) physical (b) chemical
(c) analytical (d) qualitative
27. Each statement in the key is called _______.
(a) lead (b) catalogues
(c) manuals (d) monographs
28. The keys are based on contrasting characters generally
in a pair called _______.
(a) flora (b) couplet
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) manuals
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only living organisms grow.
(b) Plants grow only up to a certain age.
(c) The growth in living organisms is from inside.
(d) All of the above.
30. Growth in living organisms occurs by
(a) division of cells.
(b) increase in biomass.
(c) accumulation of materrial by external agency.
(d) both (a) and (b).
31. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants
for reference.
(b) A museum has collection of photographs of plants
and animals.
(c) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens.
(d) Herbarium is a store house that contains dried,
pressed and preserved plant specimens.
32. Which two points are known as the twin characteristics
of growth?
(i) Increase in mass
(ii) Differentiation
(iii) Increase in number of individuals
(iv) Response to stimuli
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
33. Which of the following statements regarding
nomenclature is correct?
(a) Generic name always begins with capital letter
whereas specific name with small letter.
(b) Scientific name should be printed in italics.
(c) Scientific name when typed or handwritten should
be underlined.
(d) All of the above
34. Which of the following statements are correct about
herbarium?
(a) It is a store house of collected plant specimens that
are dried and preserved on sheets.
(b) Herbarium sheets contain information about date and
place of collection, names, family, collector’s name,
etc.
(c) It serves as quick referral systems in taxonomical
studies.
(d) All of the above
35. Which of the following statements regarding growth is
incorrect?
(a) In plants, growth by cell division is seen only upto a
certain stage.
(b) Growth exhibited by non-living objects is by
accumulation of material on the surface.
(c) A multicellular organism grows by cell division.
(d) Growth in in vitro culture of unicellular organisms
can be observed by counting the number of cells.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
The Living World 3
36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for
Metabolism ?
(a) It is the sum total of all physical reactions taking
place inside a living system.
(b) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit
metabolism.
(c) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are not living
but are living reactions.
(d) All of the above
37. Which one of the following statements is correct about
biodiversity ?
(a) It is the occurrence of varied type of organisms on
earth.
(b) Each different kind of plant, animal or organism
represents a species.
(c) The number of species that are known and described
range between 1.7–1.8 million.
(d) All of the above
38. Which of the following statements are not correct ?
(i) Lower the taxon, more are the characteristics that
the members within the taxon share.
(ii) Order is the assemblage of genera which exhibit a
few similar characters.
(iii) Cat and dog are included in the same family Felidae.
(iv) Binomial nomenclature was introduced by Carolus
Linnaeus.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
39. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Genus comprises a group of related species.
(ii) Taxon represents a taxonomic group of individual
organisms.
(iii) Family comprises a group of related genera.
(iv) Taxonomic category class includes related orders.
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct ?
(i) Reproduction is the production of progeny
possessing features dissimilar to their parents.
(ii) The fungi, the filamentous algae, the protonema of
mosses, all multiply by budding.
(iii) Many organisms like mules, sterile worker bees do
not reproduce.
(iv) Reproduction is not an all-inclusive defining
characteristic of living organisms.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iv) (d) All of these
41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(i) All living organisms have ability to respond the
environment stimuli which could be physical,
chemical or biological.
(ii) Plants respond to external factors like light, water,
temperature, other organisms, pollutants, etc.
(iii) Photoperiod affects the process of reproduction.
(iv) Human being is the only organism who has self
consciousness.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) All of these
42. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(i) Classification is the providing of standardize names
to the organisms such that a particular organism
known by the same all over the world.
(ii) Taxonomy is the correct description of an organism
and to recognition in its scientific name.
(iii) The system of naming with two components
(binomial nomenclature) is proposed by Carolus
Linneaus.
(iv) Zoological names are based on International Code
for Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN).
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (iii) and (iv)
(c) Only (iv) (d) All of these
43. Which of the following taxonomic categories is being
described by the given statements (i-iii) ?
(i) It is the basic unit of classification.
(ii) It is defined as the group of individuals which
resemble in their morphological and reproductive
characters and interbreed among themselves and
produce fertile offsprings.
(iii) Human beings belong to the species sapiens which
is grouped in the genus Homo.
(a) Species (b) Genus
(c) Order (d) Family
44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct ?
(i) Genus comprises a group of related species which
has more characters in common in comparison to
species of other genera.
(ii) Three different genera such as Solanum, Datura and
Petunia are placed in the family malvaceae.
(iii) In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters
are assigned to a higher category called phylum.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
45. Which of the following taxonomical aids is being described
by the given statements (i-iv) ?
(i) They generally established in educational institutes.
(ii) They have collections of preserved plant and animal
specimens for study and reference.
(iii) Insects are preserved in boxes after collecting, killing
and pinning.
(iv) They often have collections of skeletons of animals
too.
(a) Herbarium (b) Museum
(c) Zoological parks (d) Botanical gardens
46. Which of the following statements regarding growth is
incorrect?
(a) In animals growth is seen up to a certain age.
(b) Increase in body mass is considered as growth.
(c) Growth by cell division occurs continuously
throughout their life span in animals.
(d) Increase in mass and number of individuals is the
characteristics feature of animal growth.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
4 Biology
47. Select the correct statements (i-v) regarding taxonomic
categories.
(i) Each step or rank in hierarchy is called taxonomic
category.
(ii) Species is a group of individual organisms with
fundamental similarities capable of breeding among
themselves.
(iii) Taxonomic studies of all unknown organisms have
led to the development of common categories like
kingdom, phylum or division, class, order, family,
genus and species.
(iv) Lower the category, greater is the difficulty of
determining the relationship to other taxa at the same
level.
(a) (i) & (ii) only (b) (ii) & (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) only (d) All of the above
48. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The scientific name for humans is Homo sapiens.
(b) Organisms placed in the same genus are least closely
related.
(c) Moving from species to kingdom, more different
species are included in each higher category.
(d) Species that are in the same genus share very specific
characteristics.
49. Study the following statements and select the correct
description of botanical garden.
(i) Plant species are grown for identification purposes.
(ii) Labeling of each plant consists of its botanical name/
scientific name and its family.
(iii) Specimens are preserved in the jars and containers.
(iv) It is a type of store house which contains dried,
pressed and preserved plant specimens on sheet.
(v) Plant specimen contains a labeling of information
about date and place of collection.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) All the five statements.
50. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the
various steps of Herbarium formation?
(1) Drying (2) Poisoning (3) Collection
(4) Labelling (5) Mounting (6) Deposition
\(7) Stitching
(a) 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 4, 6 (b) 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 1
(c) 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 6, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 7, 5, 6, 4
51. Which of the following pair is correctly matched.
(i) Fungi – Regeneration
(ii) Mossess – Fragmentation
(iii) Planaria – Budding
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) only (ii) (d) only (iii)
52. Dicotyledons like mango, brinjal and monocotyledons like
Wheat and Rice are placed under a taxonomic category
known as
(a) Phylum – Angiospermae
(b) Division – Angiospermae
(c) Class – Angiospermae
(d) Sereis – Polypetalae
53. Amongst the given taxonomic aids, how many are
associated with preservation of specimens?
Monograph, Flora, Key, Museums, Botanical Gardens,
Catalogue, Herbarium, Manual
(a) One (b) Three
(c) Two (d) Four
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
54. Assertion : Taxon and category are different things.
Reason : Category shows hierarchical classification.
55. Assertion : The species is reproductively isolated natural
population.
Reason : Prokaryotes cannot be kept under different
species on the basis of reproductive isolation.
56. Assertion: Information given on the label of herbarium
sheets does not include family.
Reason: Families are characterized on the basis of
reproductive features of plant species only.
57. Assertion: Flora contains the actual account of habitat
and distribution of plants of a given area.
Reason : Flora helps in correct identification.
58. Assertion : Panthera is a polytypic genera.
Reason : Panthera has specific epithets like leo, tigris
and pardus.
59. Assertion : Biological concept of species is based on
reproductive isolation.
Reason : Most accepted species concept was given
by Linnaeus.
60. Assertion : Botanical Gardens are ex-situ conservation
strategy of plants.
Reason : National botanical Garden is situated at
Howrah.
61. Assertion : Scientific names for plants have been
standardized through ICBN.
Reason : Naming system which used three word format
was given by Linnaeus.
62. Assertion : Two plants A and B are treated as two
taxonomic species.
Reason : Both A and B are different in correlated
characters.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
The Living World 5
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
63. Match the common name given in column I with their
taxonomic category order given in column II and choose
the correct combination from the options given below.
A. Wheat I. Primata
B. Mango II. Diptera
C. Housefly III. Sapindales
D. Man IV. Poales
Column-I Column-II
(Taxonomic
category–Order)
(Common name)
(a) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
64. Match the common name given in column I with their
taxonomic category family given in column II and choose
the correct combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Common Name) (Taxonomic category–
Family)
A. Man I. Poaceae
B. Datura II. Anacardiaceae
C. Mango III. Solanaceae
D. Wheat IV. Hominidae
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
65. Match column-I (Biological name) with column-II (Class)
and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Biological name)
(Class)
A. Homo sapiens I. Dicotyledonae
B. Musca domestica II. Mammalia
C. Mangifera indica III. Monocotyledonae
D. Triticum aestivum IV. Insects
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
66. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. National Botanical I. Carolus Linneaus
Research Institute
B. Indian Botanical II. Taxon
Garden
C. Binomial III. Howrah (India)
Nomenclature
D. A unit of IV. Lucknow
classification
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
67. Match column I with column II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Family I. tuberosum
B. Kingdom II. Polymoniales
C. Order III. Solanum
D. Species IV. Plantae
E. Genus V. Solanaceae
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – I
(b) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – I; E – III
(c) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – I; E – III
(d) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – IV
68. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched
with its particular named taxonomic category ?
(a) Tiger – Tigris, the species
(b) Cuttle fish – Mollusca, a class
(c) Humans – Primata, the family
(d) Housefly – Musca, an order
69. Which of the following taxonomic category of housefly
is incorrectly matched?
(a) Genus – Musca
(b) Family – Muscidae
(c) Order – Primata
(d) Class – Insecta
70. Which of the following organisms is not correctly matched
with its particular ?
(a) Human beings – Sapiens, species
(b) Lion – Panthera, genus
(c) Cats – Felidae, genus
(d) Datura – Solanaceae, family
71. In the given columns, column I contains the terms and
column II contains its description. Select the correct match
from the option given below.
A. Growth I. Production of offspring.
B. Reproduction II. Composed of one or more cells.
C. Metabolism III. Increase in mass and increase in
number of individuals.
D. Cellular
organization
IV. Sum total of all chemical reactions
occurring in body.
Column I Column II
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) III I II IV
(c) III I IV II
(d) II IV III I
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
6 Biology
72. Match the taxonomic categories given in column I with
their feature given in column II.
Column I Column II
A . Taxon I. Bas ic unit of classification
B. Species II. A taxonomic group of any rank
C. Phylum III. Division is the s ame category in
case of plants
D. Genus IV. Identified based on a number of
s imilar characters
E. Order V. Group of related s pecies having
more character in common with
others s pecies
A B C D E
(a) V II IV III I
(b) III I IV II V
(c) II I III V IV
(d) III II IV I V
73. Select the correct taxonomic aids given in column I with
their feature given in columns II.
Column I Column II
A . Herbarium I. Includes those specimens which
can be eas ily clas sified on their
obs ervable characters.
B. Botanical
garden
II. Preserved specimens on sheets
become a store house for future
use.
C. Museum III. Generally s et up in educational
institutes.
D. Zoological
Park
IV. Includes those animals which are
identified based on their aggregates
of characters.
E. Key V. A ll animals provided similar
conditions to their natural habitat.
VI. Includes animals of related orders .
VII. Includes collection of living plants
for reference.
VIII. It identifies animals and plants on
the bas is of their similarities and
dissimilarities.
A B C D E
(a) I II VIII V III
(b) III I IV II V
(c) II VII III V VIII
(d) II III VII I IV
74. Select the correct Match.
Column I Column II
A . Ex-situ conservation I. Central national
Herbarium
B. Quick referral system II. M useum
C. Preserved plants and
A nimals
III. Flora
D. A ccount of habitat
and distribution of
plant in an area.
IV. Royal Botanical
Garden, Kew.
A B C D
(a) II III IV I
(b) I IV II III
(c) IV I III IV
(d) IV I II III
DIAGRAM BASED QUESTIONS
75. Consider following diagram and fill the following blank
spaces/boxes.
Phylum/Division
Class
Family
C
B
Genus
A
(a) A-Strain, B-Order, C-Sub kingdom
(b) A-species, B-order, C-kingdom
(c) A-subspecies, B-Tribe, C-Domain
(d) A-species, B-Cohort, C-Subdivision
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
76. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories.
(a) Species ® Genus ® Order ® Class ® Family ®
Phylum/Division ® Kingdom
(b) Species ® Genus ® Family ® Class ® Phylum/
Division ® Order ® Kingdom
(c) Species ® Genus ® Family ® Order ® Class ®
Phylum/Division ® Kingdom
(d) Species ® Genus ® Family ® Order ® Class ®
Phylum/Division ® Kingdom
77. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the
same species if they
(a) have same number of chromosomes.
(b) can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.
(c) have more than 90 per cent similar genes.
(d) look similar and possess identical secondary
metabolites.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
The Living World 7
78. ‘Taxa’ differs from ‘taxon’ due to being
(a) a higher taxonomic category than taxon.
(b) lower taxonomic category than taxon.
(c) the plural of taxon.
(d) the singular of taxon.
79. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
(a) step-wise arrangement of all categories for
classification of plants and animals.
(b) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the
nomenclature of plants and animals.
(c) a list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on
taxonomy of a species or group.
(d) classification of a species based on fossil record.
80. Two animals which are the members of the same order
must also be the members of the same __________.
(a) class (b) family
(c) genus (d) species
81. One of the most important functions of botanical
gardens is that
(a) they provide a beautiful area for recreation.
(b) one can observe tropical plants there.
(c) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm.
(d) they provide the natural habitat for wildlife.
82. The disadvantage of using common names for species is
that
(a) the names may change.
(b) one name does not apply universally.
(c) one species may have several common names and
one common name may be applied to two species.
(d) all of the above
83. The most important feature of all living systems is to
(a) utilize oxygen to generate energy.
(b) replicate the genetic information.
(c) produce gametes.
(d) utilize solar energy for metabolic activities.
84. The common characteristics between tomato and potato
will be maximum at the level of their__________.
(a) genus (b) family
(c) order (d) division
85. Which one of the following is the first step in taxonomy ?
(a) Naming (b) Description
(c) Identification (d) Classification
86. Which of the following is the only taxonomic categories
that has a real existence?
(a) Phylum (b) Species
(c) Genus (d) Kingdom
87. In angiosperm, characters of flowers are used in
classification because
(a) flowers are attractive.
(b) flowers are large.
(c) character of flowers are conserved.
(d) none of the above.
88. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic
hierarchy, the number of common characteristics
(a) will decrease.
(b) will increase.
(c) remain same.
(d) may increase or decrease.
89. Genus represents
(a) an individual plant or animal.
(b) a collection of plants or animals.
(c) group of closely related species of plants or animals.
(d) none of the above.
90. The taxonomic unit ‘phylum’ in the classification of
animals is equivalent to which hierarchial level in
classification of plants ?
(a) Class (b) Order
(c) Division (d) Family
91. Which of the following is less general in characters as
compared to genus?
(a) Species (b) Division
(c) Class (d) Family
92. If an organism is in the same class but not in the same
family then it may belong to same
(a) genus (b) species
(c) variety (d) order
93. Refer the botanical name of wheat "Triticum aestivum"
and identify the statement which correctly describes it.
(a) The second word belongs to genus and starts with a
small letter.
(b) Both the words "Triticum aestivum" denote the
specific epithet.
(c) The first word Triticum denotes the genus which
starts with a capital letter.
(d) The first word Triticum denotes the specific epithet
while the second word denotes the genus.
94. Which of the following characters given below displays
the description of lowest taxonomic category of organisms
in the plant and animal kingdom?
(a) It includes one or more than one order.
(b) It is a group containing one or more families.
(c) It is a group of related organisms that resemble one
another.
(d) It is a group of organisms that are closely related
and share similar characteristics.
95. Which of the following shows the correct example of
taxonomic category - Genus?
(a) Potato, tomato and brinjal belong to Solanum.
(b) Monkey, gorilla and gibbon are placed in Mammalia.
(c) Solanum, Petunia, and Datura are placed in Solanacea.
(d) Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and Panthera
leo.
96. "X" being a higher category is the assemblage of families
which exhibit a few "Y" characters. The "Z" characters
are less in a number as compared to different genera
included in a family. Identify "X", "Y", and "Z".
(a) X - Order; Y - Similar; Z - Similar
(b) X - Genus; Y - Similar; Z - Different
(c) X - Species; Y - Different; Z - Similar
(d) X - Class; Y - Different; Z - Different
97. Couplet represents the choice made between two opposite
options which results in
(a) rejection of both the option.
(b) acceptance of both the option.
(c) either acceptance or rejection of both the option.
(d) acceptance of only one and rejection of the other.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 2
Biological Classification
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following characteristic(s) is/are used by
Whittaker for the classification of organisms ?
(a) Mode of nutrition
(b) Thallus organisation
(c) Phylogenetic relationships
(d) All of the above
2. Organisms of which of the following kingdom do not
have nuclear membrane ?
(a) Protista (b) Fungi
(c) Monera (d) Plantae
3. Protists are
(a) single-celled eukaryotes.
(b) multicellular eukaryotes.
(c) single-celled prokaryotes.
(d) single-celled akaryote.
4. Which of the following pigment is present in
cyanobacteria?
(a) Chlorophyll ‘a’ (b) Chlorophyll ‘b’
(c) Chlorophyll ‘c’ (d) Chlorophyll ‘d’
5. Which of the following is the smallest living cell and can
live without oxygen?
(a) Mycoplasma (b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Euglena (d) Trypanosoma
6. Which of the following processes are involved in the
reproduction of protists ?
(a) Binary fission and budding
(b) Cell fusion and zygote formation
(c) Spore formation and cyst formation
(d) All of the above
7. Which of the following pairs come under the group
chrysophytes?
(a) Diatoms and Euglena
(b) Euglena and Trypanosoma
(c) Diatoms and Desmids
(d) Gonyaulax and Desmids
8. Which of the following is an example of amoeboid
protozoans ?
(a) Trypanosoma (b) Paramecium
(c) Gonyaulax (d) Entamoeba
9. Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on the mustard
plant ?
(a) Albugo (b) Puccinia
(c) Yeast (d) Ustilago
10. Which of the following is used extensively in biochemical
and genetic work ?
(a) Agaricus (b) Alternaria
(c) Neurospora (d) Mucor
11. Which of the following is/are example(s) of
deuteromycetes?
(a) Alternaria (b) Colletotrichum
(c) Trichoderma (d) All of these
12. Which group of fungi is commonly known as imperfect
fungi ?
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Ascomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
13. Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are examples of
(a) insectivorous plants (b) parasitic plants
(c) N2
– rich plants (d) aquatic plants
14. The subunit of capsid is called
(a) core (b) nucleotide
(c) amino acid (d) capsomere
15. Which of the following is not a viral disease ?
(a) AIDS and mumps (b) Small pox and herpes
(c) Influenza (d) Cholera
16. The symbiotic association between fungi and algae is
called
(a) lichen (b) mycorrhiza
(c) rhizome (d) endomycorrhiza
17. The genetic material of virus includes
(a) only RNA.
(b) only DNA.
(c) RNA and DNA both
(d) RNA or DNA , i.e., one nucleic acid in a virus.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biological Classification 9
18. Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature of
(a) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
(b) phycomycetes and basidiomycetes.
(c) ascomycetes and phycomycetes.
(d) phycomycetes and zygomycetes.
19. Clamp connection is found in
(a) basidiomycetes (b) ascomycetes
(c) saccharomycetes (d) haplomycetes
20. Plasmogamy is the fusion of
(a) two haploid cells including their nuclei.
(b) two haploid cells without nuclear fusion.
(c) sperm and egg.
(d) sperm and two polar nuclei.
21. Which scientist classified plants into trees, shrubs and
herbs and animals into two groups based on absence or
presence red blood cells?
(a) Aristotle (b) R. H. Whittaker
(c) D. J. Ivanowsky (d) W. M. Stanley
22. Fungi are filamentous with the exception of "X" which is
unicellular. Identify X.
(a) Yeast (b) Albugo
(c) Mucor (d) Lichen
23. The bacteria which oxidize various inorganic substances
and use the released energy for the synthesis of food are
called _______________.
(a) Archaebacteria
(b) Heterotrophic bacteria
(c) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
(d) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
24. Which of the following statements is not correct for
viruses?
(a) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(b) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the
living cells.
(c) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial filters.
(d) Viruses are made up of protein and DNA or RNA
(never both DNA and RNA).
25. Which of the following statements is correct for archaea?
(a) Archaea resemble eukaryotes in all respects.
(b) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in
other prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(c) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and
eukaryotes.
(d) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes.
26. Which of the following statements is not correct for
methanogens?
(a) They are archaebacteria.
(b) They live in marshy areas.
(c) Methane is their preferred carbon source.
(d) They are present in guts of several ruminant animals
(cow, buffaloes) and produce biogas (CH4
) from the
dung of these animals.
27. Which of the following statements is correct for both
blue-green algae and bacteria ?
(a) Both show anaerobic respiration.
(b) Both have chlorophyll pigment.
(c) Both are devoid of true nucleus.
(d) None of the above
28. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) TMV has a double-stranded RNA molecule.
(b) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses.
(c) The bacteriophage has double-stranded DNA.
(d) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses.
29. Which of the following statement is/ are correct for bacteria?
(a) They are the members of the kingdom monera.
(b) They live in extreme habitats such as hot springs,
deserts, snow and deep oceans.
(c) They show the most extensive metabolic diversity.
(d) All of the above
30. Which of the following statements is a characteristic
feature of chrysophytes?
(a) They are parasitic forms which cause diseases in
animals.
(b) They have a protein rich layer called pellicle.
(c) They have indestructible cell wall layer deposited
with silica.
(d) They are commonly called dinoflagellates.
31. Which of the following statements is correct for
dinoflagellates flagella ?
(a) A single flagellum lies in the transverse groove
between the cell plates.
(b) A single flagellum lies in the longitudinal groove
between the cell plates.
(c) Two flagella, one lies longitudinally and the other
transversely in a furrow between the wall plates.
(d) Flagella are absent.
32. Choose the correct statements (i – v) regarding
mycoplasma
(i) Mycoplasma has no cell wall.
(ii) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism known.
(iii) Mycoplasma cannot survive without O2
.
(iv) Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and plants.
(v) A sort of sexual reproduction occurs in bacterium by
adopting a primitive DNA transfer from one bacterium
to the other.
(a) Only (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), and (v) (d) All of the above
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
10 Biology
33. Read the given statements and answer the question.
(i) It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi.
(ii) In multicellular forms, hyphae are branched and
septate.
(iii) Conidiophore produces conidia (spores)
exogenously in chain.
(iv) Sexual spores are ascospores produced
endogenously in chain.
(v) Fruiting body is called ascocarp.
Identify the correct class of fungi which have all the above
given characteristics.
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Sac fungi
(c) Club fungi (d) Fungi imperfecti
34. T. O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent that was
smaller than viruses and have the following
characteristics.
(i) It causes potato spindle tuber disease.
(ii) It has free RNA.
(iii) Molecular weight of RNA is low.
Identify the infections agent.
(a) Viruses (b) Viroids
(c) Virion (d) Mycoplasma
35. Consider the following statements with respect to
characteristic features of the kingdom.
(i) In animalia, the mode of nutrition is autotrophic.
(ii) In monera, the nuclear membrane is present.
(iii) In protista, the cell type is prokaryotic.
(iv) In plantae, the cell wall is present.
Of the above statements, which one is correct ?
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only (d) (iv) only
36. Which of the following are the characters of
dinoflagellates?
(i) They are planktonic golden yellow algae with soap
box like structure.
(ii) They are marine red biflagellated protista.
(iii) They appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red in
colour.
(iv) They are biflagellated organisms with pellicle.
(v) They are saprophytic (or) parasitic unicellular forms.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iv) and (v)
37. The given characters are seen in which of the following
group?
(i) Unicellular, colonial, filamentous, marine or terrestrial
forms.
(ii) The colonies are surrounded by a gelatinous sheath.
(iii) Some can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells
called heterocysts.
(iv) They often form blooms in water bodies.
(a) Archaebacteria (b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Chrysophytes (d) Dinoflagellates
38. Which of the following group of kingdom protista is being
described in the statements given below ?
(i) This group includes diatoms and golden algae.
(ii) They are microscopic and float passively in water
currents (plankton).
(iii) Most of them are photosynthetic.
(iv) They have deposits in their habitat; this accumulation
over billion of years is referred to as ‘diatomaceous
earth’.
(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Chrysophytes
(c) Euglenoids (d) Slime moulds
39. The given statements are some characters of a particular
group of Kingdom protista.
(i) Most of them are fresh water organisms found in
standing water.
(ii) They have a protein rich layer (called pellicle) which
makes their body flexible.
(iii) They have two flagella, a short and a long one.
(iv) Though they are photosynthetic in the presence of
sunlight, but in the absence of sunlight they behave
like heterotrophs by predating on other smaller
organisms.
Identify the correct group on the basis of these characters.
(a) Protozoans (b) Chrysophytes
(c) Slime moulds (d) Euglenoids
40. Which of the following class of fungi is being described
by the given statements ?
(i) They are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying
wood in moist and damp places.
(ii) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic.
(iii) Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores
(motile) or by aplanospores (non-motile).
(iv) Some common examples are Mucor, Rhizopus and
Albugo.
(a) Ascomycetes (b) Phycomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
ascomycetes ?
(i) Neurospora, which is used in biochemical and
genetic work is a member of this class.
(ii) They are mostly multicellular, e.g., Yeast, or rarely
unicellular, e.g., Penicillium.
(iii) They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic or
coprophilous.
(iv) Some examples are Aspergillus, Claviceps and
Neurospora.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biological Classification 11
42. Read the following statements and answer the question
given below
(i) They are saprophytic protists.
(ii) Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation
(called plasmodium) which may grow and spread over
several feet.
(iii) During unfavourable conditions, the plasmodium
differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing
spores at their tips.
Which of the following class of protists is being described
by the above statements ?
(a) Euglenoids (b) Dinoflagellates
(c) Slime moulds (d) Protozoans
43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
class basidiomycetes ?
(i) They are commonly known as imperfect fungi
because only the asexual or vegetative phases of
these fungi are known.
(ii) They grow in soil, on logs and tree stumps and in
living plant bodies as parasites, e.g., rusts and smuts.
(iii) The mycelium is branched and septate.
(iv) Some common members are Agaricus, Ustilago and
Puccinia.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
44. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) Some members are saprophytes or parasites while a
large number of them are decomposers of litter and
help in mineral cycling.
(ii) They reproduce only by asexual spores known as
conidia.
(iii) Mycelium is septate and branched.
(iv) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma are
examples of this class.
Which of the following class of fungi is being described
by the above statements ?
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Deuteromycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Ascomycetes
45. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(i) Reproduction in fungi can take place by vegetative
means – fragmentation, fission and budding.
(ii) Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy.
(iii) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or nonmotile gametes is called karyogamy.
(iv) Meiosis in zygote results in diploid spores.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
46. Which of the following statements regarding
cyanobacteria is incorrect?
(a) It is also called blue green algae.
(b) They are chemosynthetic autotrophs.
(c) It forms blooms in polluted water bodies.
(d) It is unicellular, colonial or filamentous, marine or
terrestrial bacteria.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
47. Assertion : Euglena can be placed in the plant knigdom
due to the presence of chlorophyll.
Reason : Euglena cannot be classified on the basis of two
kingdom system of classification.
48. Assertion : Outside a living cell, viruses have must
crystalline statements.
Reason : Viroids have a protein coat.
49. Assertion : TMV is a virus which causes mosaic disease.
Reason : TMV has RNA as genetic material.
50. Assertion : Lichen is important for chemical industries.
Reason : Litmus and Orcein are formed from lichens.
51. Assertion : Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae
are used in baking industry.
Reason : Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation
causes bread dough to rise by thermal expansion.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
52. Match the class of fungi given in column-I with their
common name given in column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(Class of fungi) (Common name)
A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi
C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti
D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi
(a) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(b) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
53. Match the terms given in column-I with their examples
given in column-II and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
(Terms) (Examples)
A. Ascus I. Spirulina
B. Basidium II. Penicillium
C. Protista III. Agaricus
D. Cyanobacteria IV. Euglena
E. Animalia V. Sponges
(a) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – V, E – IV
(c) A – II, B – V, C – III, D – I, E – IV
(d) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I, E – V
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
12 Biology
54. Match the class of fungi given in column I with their
examples given in column II and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
(Class of fungi) (Examples)
A. Ascomycetes I. Rhizopus
B. Basidiomycetes II. Penicillium
C. Deuteromycetes III. Ustilago
D. Phycomycetes IV. Alternaria
(a) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
(b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(d) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
55. Match column I (Kingdom) with column II (Class) and
select the correct options
Column-I Column-II
(Kingdom) (Class)
A. Plantae I. Archaebacteria
B. Fungi II. Euglenoids
C. Protista III. Phycomycetes
D. Monera IV. Algae
(a) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(d) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
56. Match the scientists given in column I with their
discovery given in column II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(Scientists) (Discovery)
A. Ernst Mayr I. Discovered Viroids
B. Whittaker II. Gave the name virus
C. Pasteur III. Proposed five kingdom
classification
D. Diener IV. Darwin of the
20th century
(a) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(b) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(d) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
57. Match column I (containing fungus name) with column II
(common name) and choose the correct options.
Column-I Column-II
(Fungus name) (Commonly called)
A. Puccinia I. Yeast
B. Ustilago II. Mushroom
C. Agaricus III. Smut fungus
D. Saccharomyces IV. Rust fungus
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
58. Match the type of protozoans given in column-I with their
examples given in column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Type of Protozoans) (Examples)
A. Amoeboid protozoans I. Paramecium
B. Ciliated protozoans II. Plasmodium
C. Flagellated protozoans III. Amoeba
D. Sporozoans IV. Trypanosoma
(a) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(b) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(c) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(d) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
59. Match column-I (Characters/feature) with column-II
(examples) and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Characters/features) (Examples)
A. Red dinoflagellates I. Rhizopus
B. Unicellular fungi used to II. Gonyaulax
make bread and beer
C. Source of antibiotics III. Yeast
D. Bread mould IV. Penicillium
(a) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
(b) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
(c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(d) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
60. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Anabaena – Cyanobacteria
(b) Amoeba – Protozoa
(c) Gonyaulax – Dinoflagellates
(d) Albugo – Chrysophytes
61. Which of the following groups of protozoan is not
correctly matched with its feature?
(a) Amoeboid - Marine forms have silica shells on their
surface.
(b) Flagellated - Either free living or parasitic.
(c) Ciliated - Actively moving organisms due to presence of
cilia.
(d) Sporozoans - Move and capture their prey with the
help of false feet.
62. Select the correct match from the given option.
(a) Occurrence of dikaryotic stage - ascomycetes and
basidiomycetes.
(b) Saprophytes - They are autotrophic and absorb
soluble organic matter from dead substrates.
(c) Vegetative mean of reproduction in fungi -
fragmentation, budding and sporangiophores.
(d) Steps involved in asexual cycle of fungi - plasmogamy,
karyogamy and meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid
spores.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biological Classification 13
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
63. Refer to the given figures of bacteria cell and Nostoc and
choose the option which shows correct label for the
structures marked as A, B, C, D and E ?
(a) A – Cell wall, B – Cell membrane, C – Heterocyst,
D – DNA, E – Mucilagenous sheath
(b) A – Cell wall, B – Cell membrane, C – DNA,
D – Heterocyst, E – Mucilagenous sheath
(c) A – Mucilagenous sheath, B – Cell membrane,
C – DNA, D – Heterocyst, E – Cell wall
(d) A – Cell membrane, B – Cell wall, C – DNA,
D – Heterocyst, E – Mucilagenous sheath
64. Choose the correct names of the different bacteria given
below according to their shapes.
(a) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(b) A – Bacilli, B – Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(c) A – Spirilla, B – Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio
(d) A – Spirilla, B – Vibrio, C – Cocci, D – Bacilli
65. Identify the figures A, B and C given below.
(a) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus
(b) A – Euglena, B – Planaria, C – Agaricus
(c) A – Planaria, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus
(d) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Aspergillus
66. The figure given below shows the structure of a
bacteriophage. Identify its parts labelled as A, B, C and D.
A B C D
(a) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar
(b) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres
(c) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres
(d) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath
67. The given figure shows the structure of filamentous blue
green algae. Nostoc with a structure marked as "X". Select
the option which shows the correct identification of "X"
with its feature.
(a) Spores - Reproduction
(b) Heterocysts - Nitrogen fixation
(c) Pellicle - Recycling of nutrition
(d) Mucilaginous sheath - Photosynthesis
68. The given figure shows some structures labelled as A, B,
C and D. Which structure has the protein coat that
encloses the nucleic acid?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
14 Biology
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
69. Bacteria lack alternation of generation because there is
(a) neither syngamy nor reduction division.
(b) no distinct chromosomes.
(c) no conjugation.
(d) no exchange of genetic material.
70. Yeast is not included in protozoans but are placed fungi
because
(a) it has no chlorophyll.
(b) some fungal hyphae grow in such a way that they
give the appearance of pseudomycelium.
(c) it has eukaryotic organization.
(d) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food
material is starch.
71. A virus can be considered a living organism because it
(a) responds to touch stimulus
(b) respires
(c) reproduces (inside the host)
(d) can cause disease
72. Lichens indicate SO2
pollution because they
(a) show association between algae and fungi.
(b) grow faster than others.
(c) are sensitive to SO2
.
(d) flourish in SO2
rich environment.
73. When a moist bread is kept exposed in air, it becomes
mouldy and black because
(a) spores are present in the water.
(b) spores are present in the bread.
(c) spores are present in the air.
(d) the bread decomposes.
74. In some viruses, RNA is present instead of DNA indicating
that
(a) their nucleic acid must combine with host DNA
before replication.
(b) they cannot replicate.
(c) there is no hereditary information.
(d) RNA can transfer heredity material.
75. Ustilago causes plant diseases (called smuts) because
(a) they parasitize on cereals.
(b) they lack mycelium.
(c) they develop sooty masses of spores.
(d) their affected parts becomes completely black.
76. A fungus contains cells with two nuclei from different
genomes. The nuclei do not fuse but divide independently
and simultaneously as new cells are formed. This fungus
belongs to
(a) phycomycetes (b) zygomycetes
(c) deuteromycetes (d) basidiomycetes
77. Which of the following organisms is\are correctly
assigned its/their taxonomic group?
(a) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same
kingdom as that of Penicillium.
(b) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the
symbiotic association of an alga and a protozoan.
(c) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus.
(d) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista.
78. Bacteria are found to be primitive organisms because they
(a) are small, microscopic which are not seen with naked
eye.
(b) cause serious diseases to human being, domestic
animals and crop plants.
(c) produce endospores which are very resistant to
adverse conditions.
(d) possess incipient nucleus and show amitotic
division.
79. Food can be kept for a longer time in cold house than in
normal conditions because
(a) insect cannot enter.
(b) bacterial multiplication stops.
(c) bacterial multiplication is reduced.
(d) there is plasmolysis at low temperature.
80. Mycorrhizae are useful for plants because they
(a) fix atmospheric nitrogen.
(b) enhance absorption of nutrients from the soil.
(c) kill insects and pathogen.
(d) provide resistance against abiotic stresses.
81. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in
making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are
categorised as
(a) cyanobacteria
(b) archaebacteria
(c) chemosynthetic autotrophs
(d) heterotrophic bacteria
82. A specimen of fungus is brought by a student for
identification. Upon close examination, he discovered that
its hyphae are completely septate and it has gills on the
underside of the pileus. To which fungal group does it
most likely belong ?
(a) Basidiomycetes (b) Zygomycetes
(c) Ascomycetes (d) Chytrids
83. How many bacteria are produced in four hours if a
bacterium divides once in half an hour ?
(a) 8 (b) 64
(c) 16 (d) 256
84. Fungi show asexual reproduction by all of the following
kinds of spores except
(a) conidia (b) oospores
(c) sporangiospores (d) zoospores
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biological Classification 15
85. Assume that two normal hyphal cells of different fungal
mating types unite. After a period of time, the cell between
these cells will dissolve producing a
(a) mycelium
(b) fruiting body
(c) zygote
(d) dikaryotic cell, which is also heterokaryotic
86. Protozons are not included in kingdom animalia because
they are
(a) mostly asymmetrical.
(b) unicellular eukaryotes.
(c) heterotrophic in nature.
(d) multicellular prokaryotes.
87. Bacteria and yeast are similar in all the following features
except that
(a) both are unicellular.
(b) both are prokaryotes.
(c) both are capable of causing fermentation.
(d) both produce spores.
88. Which of the following is the correct sequence of three
steps in the sexual cycle of fungi?
(a) Mitosis ® Meiosis ® Fertilization
(b) Plasmogamy ® Karyogamy ® Meiosis
(c) Mitosis ® Plasmogamy ® Karyogamy
(d) Karyogamy ® Plasmogamy ® Meiosis
89. An "X" reproduces in such a great numbers that the water
may appear, producing a red tides and kills large marine
animals like "Z". "X" belongs to "Y". Identify "X", "Y"
and "Z".
(a) X - Gonyaulax ; Y - Dinoflagellates; Z - Fishes
(b) X - Paramecium ; Y - Protozoa ; Z -
Crocodiles
(c) X - Trypanosoma ; Y - Protozoa ; Z - Frogs
(d) X - Plasmodium ; Y - Euglenoids ; Z - Oysters
90. Identify the basis of classification of fungi into
phycomycetes, ascomycetes, basidiomycetes and
deuteromycetes.
i. Fruiting bodies
ii. Nature of habitat
iii. Morphology of mycelium
iv. Mode of spore formation
(a) i & ii only (b) ii & iii only
(c) i, iii, & iv only (d) All of these
91. Which class of fungi lacks sex organs but the process of
plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative
or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes?
(a) Sac fungi (b) Bracket fungi
(c) Imperfect fungi (d) Phycomycetes
92. Refer to the statement and answer the question.
"Once the sexual stage of members of deuteromycetes
were discovered, they were often moved to X and Y."
Identify X and Y.
(a) X - Monera ; Y - Protista
(b) X - Basidiomycetes ; Y - Phycomycetes
(c) X - Ascomycetes ; Y - Basidiomycetes
(d) X - Phycomycetes ; Y - Archaebacteria
93. A scientist "X" demonstrated that extract of infected
plants of "Y" could cause infection in healthy plants and
called the fluid as "Contagium vivum fluidum".
Identify X and Y.
X Y
(a) W. M. Stanley Potato
(b) M. W. Beijerinek Tobacco
(c) D. J. Ivanowsky Cauliflower
(d) Pasteur Tomato
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The natural system of classification for flowering plants
was given by
(a) Carolus Linnaeus (b) Bentham and Hooker
(c) Engler and Prantl (d) R. H. Whittaker
2. Phylogenetic classification system is based on the
(a) morphological characters of various organisms.
(b) anatomical characters of various organisms.
(c) physiological characters of various organisms.
(d) evolutionary relationships between the various
organisms.
3. Cytological information like chromosome number,
structure, behaviour are related with
(a) numerical taxonomy (b) cytotaxonomy
(c) chemotaxonomy (d) all of these
4. Flagellate isogametes and anisogametes are found in
(a) Spirogyra (b) Fucus
(c) Volvox (d) Chlamydomonas
5. Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed
as _______.
(a) isogamous (b) oogamous
(c) anisogamous (d) agamous
6. Algin, carrageen and proteins are obtained from
(a) red algae, brown algae, green algae respectively.
(b) brown algae, red algae, green algae respectively.
(c) red algae, green algae, brown algae respectively.
(d) green algae, brown algae, red algae respectively.
7. Which of the following class of algae is rarely found in
fresh water ?
(a) Chlorophyceae (b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Rhodophyceae (d) Both (a) and (b)
8. Which of the following class of algae is mostly found in
salt water ?
(a) Phaeophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Chlorophyceae (d) Both (a) and (b)
Chapter 3
Plant Kingdom
9. What is the number and position of insertions of flagella
in rhodopyceae class of algae ?
(a) 2 - 8, equal, apical
(b) 2, unequal, lateral
(c) 2 - 6, equal, lateral
(d) Flagella are absent in Rhodophyceae
10. In class phaeophyceae, the plant body is usually attached
to the substratum by a A and has a stalk, the B
and leaf like photosynthetic organ-the C .
(a) A – holdfast, B – stipe, C – frond
(b) A – stipe, B – holdfast, C – frond
(c) A – frond, B – stipe, C – holdfast
(d) A – stipe, B – frond, C – holdfast
11. Which of the following groups of plants play an important
role in plant succession on bare rocks/soil ?
(a) Algae (b) Bryophytes
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms
12. _______ represent the reproductive organs amongst
gymnosperms.
(a) Prothallus (b) Capsules
(c) Setae (d) Cones
13. In bryophytes, male and female sex organs are called
______ and ______ respectively.
(a) microsporangia; macrosporangia
(b) male strobili; female strobili
(c) antheridia; archegonia
(d) androecium; gynoecium
14. Laminaria (Kelp) and Fucus (Rock weed) are examples of
(a) green algae (b) brown algae
(c) red algae (d) golden brown algae
15. Pyrenoids in green algal cells are related to
(a) starch formation (b) protein storage
(c) general metabolism (d) enzyme secretion
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Plant Kingdom 17
16. The heterosporous pteridophyte belonging to the class
lycopsida is
(a) Selaginella (b) Psilotum
(c) Equisetum (d) Pteris
17. Which of the following pteridophytes belong to class
pteropsida?
(a) Equisetum and Psilotum
(b) Lycopodium and Adiantum
(c) Selaginella and Pteris
(d) Pteris and Adiantum
18. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having
(a) seeds (b) motile sperms
(c) cambium (d) vessels
19. Protonema and leafy stage are the predominant stage of
the life cycle of
(a) moss (b) dicots
(c) liverwort (d) gymnosperm
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
20. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(a) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and
leafy stage.
(b) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free-living.
(c) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present
in pteridophytes.
(d) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes.
21. Why rhodophyta exhibit a red colour ?
(a) Since most rhodophyta grow at great depths, the
chlorophyll can only absorb light in the red area of
the spectrum.
(b) The wavelengths of light that are absorbed by
chloro- phyll are passed to phycoerythrin (a red
pigment).
(c) Red pigment of rhodophyta absorbs all the light
waves.
(d) The light reaching the greatest depth in water is in
the blue-green region of the spectrum, is absorbed
by phycoerythrin.
22. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) Double fertilization is unique to gymnosperms and
monocotyledons.
(b) Sequoia, a gymnosperm, is one of the tallest tree
species.
(c) Phaeophyceae members possess chlorophyll a and
c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.
(d) Moss is a gametophyte which consists of two stages
namely, protonemal stage and leafy stage.
23. Which one of the following is the major difference
between mosses and ferns ?
(a) Ferns lack alternation of generation while mosses
show the same.
(b) Mosses are facultative aerobes while ferns are
obligate aerobes.
(c) Vascular bundles of ferns show xylem vessels while
those of mosses lack it.
(d) Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as compared
to the sporophytes of mosses.
24. What is the similarity between gymnosperms and
angiosperms?
(a) Phloem of both have companian cells.
(b) Endosperm is formed before fertilization in both.
(c) Origin of ovule and seed is similar in both.
(d) Both have leaves, stem and roots.
25. Which one of the following terms is correctly matched
with their definition in Pinus ?
(a) Monoecious – Male (microsporangiate) and female
(megasporangiate) cones are produced on same
plant.
(b) Monoecious – Male and female sporophylls borne
on same strobilus.
(c) Dioecious – Male and female cones are produced on
different plants.
(d) Monoecious – Micro and megasporocarp develop
on same plant.
26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
mosses ?
(a) The predominant stage of its life cycle is the
gametophyte which consists of two stages –
protonema and leafy stages.
(b) Leafy stage are attached to the soil through
multi-cellular and branched rhizoids.
(c) Sex organs-antheridia and archegonia are produced
at the apex of the leafy shoots.
(d) All of the above
27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(a) In angiosperms, each embryo sac has a three-celled
egg apparatus – one egg cell and two synergids,
three antipodal cells and two polar nuclei.
(b) All seed – bearing plants i.e., gymnosperms and
angiosperms follow dipontic life patterns of plants.
(c) In gymosperms, roots in some genera have fungal
association in the form of mycorrhiza (Pinus) while
in some others (Cycas) small specialized roots called
coralloid are associated with N2
– fixing
cyanobacteria.
(d) All of the above
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
18 Biology
28. Which one of the following statements concerning the
algae is incorrect ?
(a) Most algae are photosynthetic.
(b) Algae can be classified according to their pigments.
(c) All algae are filamentous.
(d) Spirogyra does not produce zoospores.
29. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(i) In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is retained
on the parent sporophyte.
(ii) In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not independent.
(iii) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than
that in Polytrichum.
(iv) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One
30. Consider the following statements regarding
gymnosperms and choose the correct option.
(i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes
have an independent existence.
(ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained
within the megasporangium.
(iii) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
Of these statements
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is incorrect
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) is incorrect
(c) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect but (i) is correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct but (i) is incorrect
31. Which of the following statements with respect to algae
are correct.
(i) Fusion between one large, non-motile female gamete
and a smaller, motile male gamete is termed as
oogamous.
(ii) Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size is termed as
oogamous.
(iii) Fusion of two gametes similar in size is called
anisogamous.
(iv) In chlorophyceae, the major pigments are chlorophyll
a and b , and the food is stored as starch.
(v) In rhodophyceae, the major pigments are chlorophyll
a and d , and the food is stored as mannitol.
(a) (i) and (v) (b) (iii) and (v)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) and (iv)
32. Which of the following statements with respect to
gymnosperms and angiosperms is/are correct?
(i) The process of double fertilization is present in
gymnosperms.
(ii) Angiosperms range in size from microscopic Wolffia
to tall trees of Sequoia.
(iii) In gymnosperms, the seeds are not covered.
(iv) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes
have an independent free living existence.
Of the above statements
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
33. Read the following statements and choose the correct
option.
(i) In rhodophyceae, food is stored in the form of
mannitol and laminarin.
(ii) The ovules of gymnosperms are not enclosed by
ovary wall.
(iii) Salvinia is heterosporous.
(iv) In the diplontic life-cycle, the free living gametophyte
represents the dominant phase.
(a) (ii) and (iii) are correct but (i) and (iv) are incorrect.
(b) (ii) and (iv) are correct but (i) and (iii) are incorrect.
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) and (iv) are incorrect.
34. Consider the following statements regarding the major
pigments and stored food in the different groups of algae
and choose the correct option
(i) In chlorophyceae, the stored food material is starch
and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a and d.
(ii) In phaeophyceae, laminarian is the stored food and
major pigments are chlorophyll-a and b.
(iii) In rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food
and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a, d and
phycoerythrin.
(a) (i) is correct, but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct, but (iii) is incorrect
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct, but (ii) is incorrect
(d) (iii) is correct, but (i) and (ii) are incorrect
35. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Green algae are the members of chlorophyceae.
(ii) Brown algae are found primarily in marine habitates
(iii) Some red algae are found in fresh water, mostly occur
in salt water, some are found in brackish water.
(iv) The food in red algae is stored as floridean starch.
(v) Red alga may occur in both well-lighted regions close
to water-surface and also at great depths in oceans
where light penetration is little.
(a) (i) and (v) only
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above
36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
gemmae ?
(i) These are specialised structures by which asexual
reproduction take place in liverworts.
(ii) They are green, multicellular and asexual buds.
(iii) They develop in small receptacles called gemma cups.
(iv) They detach from parent body and germinate to form
new individuals.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Plant Kingdom 19
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
37. Which of the following branch of science is being
described by the given statements ?
(i) It can easily done by using computers based on all
observable characters.
(ii) Numbers and codes are assigned to all the characters
and the data are then processed.
(iii) Each character is given equal weightage and at the
same time hundred of characters can be considered.
(a) Cytotaxonomy (b) Numerical taxonomy
(c) Chemotaxonomy (d) b-taxonomy
38. Which of the following statements about algae is/are
correct?
(i) Algae are chlorophyll – bearing simple, thalloid,
heterotrophic and aquatic (both fresh water and
marine) organisms.
(ii) Algae reproduce by vegetative means only.
(iii) Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size is termed as
oogamous.
(iv) A few of the massive forms of algae such as kelps,
form massive plant bodies.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (iv) (d) All of these
39. The following statements are associated with one class
of algae. Identify the class of algae.
(i) One or more storage bodies called pyrenoids located
in the chloroplasts are present in the members of
this class.
(ii) They have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of
cellulose and an outer layer of pectose.
(iii) Asexual reproduction is by flagellated zoospores
produced in zoosporangia.
(iv) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirogyra and
Chara are commonly found members of this class.
(a) Chlorophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae (d) None of these
40. Refer to the following statement(s) and identify the group
of plant which is being described by the given statements?
(i) They include various mosses and liverworts that are
found commonly growing in moist shaded areas in
the hills.
(ii) They lack true roots, stem or leaves.
(iii) The main plant body is haploid.
(iv) They produce a multicellular body sporophyte which
is not free living but attached to the photosynthetic
gametophyte and derives nourishment from it.
(a) Algae (b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes (d) Pteridophytes
41. Which of the following group of plant is being described
by the given statements ?
(i) The plant body is thalloid.
(ii) Asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation
of thalli, or by the formation of specialized structures
called gemmae.
(iii) The sporophyte is differentiated into a foot, seta
and capsule.
(iv) They grow usually in moist and shady habitats.
(a) Liverworts (b) Moss
(c) Fern (d) Gymnosperm
42. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
pteridophytes ?
(i) The main plant body is a sporophyte which is
differentiated into true roots and leaves.
(ii) The leaves are small (microphylls) as in ferns or large
(macrophylls) as in Selaginella.
(iii) Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia which produce
two kinds of spores–macro (large) and micro (small)
spores, are known as heterospores.
(iv) Common examples are Funaria, Polytrichum and
Sphagnum.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
43. Which of the following group of plant is being described
by the given statements ?
(i) They are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed
by any ovary wall and remain exposed before and
after fertilization.
(ii) The giant red wood tree Sequoia is one of the tallest
tree species of the group.
(iii) The roots are generally tap roots.
(iv) They are heterosporous and they produce haploid
microspores and megaspores.
(a) Algae (b) Bryophytes
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Pteridophytes
44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
angiosperms ?
(i) In angiosperms or flowering plants, the pollen grains
and ovules are developed in specialised structure
called flowers.
(ii) They are divided into two classes : the dicotyledons
and the monocotyledons.
(iii) The male sex organ in a flower is the pistil or the
carpel.
(iv) The female sex organ is the stamen.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
20 Biology
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iv) (d) All of these
45. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) Sporophytic generation is represented only by the
one-celled zygote.
(ii) Meiosis in the zygote results in the formation of
haploid spores.
(iii) The dominant, photosynthetic phase in such plants
is free-living gametophyte.
(iv) Many algae such as Volvox, Spirogyra and some
species of Chlamydomonas represent this pattern.
Which of the following pattern of life cycle of plant is
described by the above statements ?
(a) Haplontic (b) Diplontic
(c) Haplo-diplontic (d) None of these
46. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(i) Agar, one of commercial products obtained from
Laminaria and Sargassum are used to grow
microbes and in preparations of ice-creams and jellies.
(ii) In phaeophyceae, major pigments are chl a, d and
phycoerythrin.
(iii) Pteridophytes classified into four classes : Psilopsida,
Lycopsida, Sphenopsida and Pteropsida.
(iv) Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual buds, which
develop in small receptacles called gemma cups
located on the thalli.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iv)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
47. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Pyrenoids contain protein besides starch.
(b) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, oogamous
and anisogamous in green and brown algae.
(c) Some of the members of algae also occur in
association with fungi (lichen) and animals (eg, on
sloth bear).
(d) The leaves in pteridophytes are well adapted to
withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and
wind.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
48. Assertion: Double fertilization is a characteristic feature
of angiosperms.
Reason: Double fertilization involves two fusions.
49. Assertion: Members of phaeophyceae vary in colour from
olive green to various shades of brown.
Reason: Phaeophyceae possess chlorophyll a, c,
carotenoids and xanthophylls.
50. Assertion: Mosses are evolved from algae.
Reason: Protonema of mosses is similar to some green
algae.
51. Assertion: Red algae contributes in producing coral reefs.
Reason: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium
carbonate over their walls.
52. Assertion: Coconut tree is distributed in coastal areas
over a large part of the world.
Reason: Coconut fruit can float and get dispersed over
thousands of kilometers before losing viability.
53. Assertion: Red algae contributes in producing coral reefs.
Reason: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium
carbonate over their walls.
54. Assertion: The peristome is a fringe of teeth-like
projections found at the mouth of the capsule.
Reason: It may be of two types nematodontous and
orthodontus.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
55. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Group of (Examples)
Plant Kindgdom)
A. Algae I. Solanum tuberosum
B. Fungi II. Equisetum
C. Angiosperm III. Cycas
D. Pteridophyte IV. Chlamydomonas
E. Gymnosperm V. Rhizopus
(a) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III
(b) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – III
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – II
56. Match the classes of pteridophytes given in column I
with their examples given in column II and choose the
correct option
Column -I Column-II
(Classes of pteridophytes) (Examples)
A. Psilopsida I. Selaginella
B. Lycopsida II. Psilotum
C. Sphenopsida III. Dryopteris
D. Pteropsida IV. Equisetum
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Plant Kingdom 21
57. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Phaeophyceae I. Have an elaborate
mechanism
of spore dispersal
B. Rhodophyceae II. first terrestrial plant with
vascular tissue-phloem
and xylem
C. Mosses III. Asexual reproduction by
biflagellate zoosposes
D. Pteridophytes IV. Polysiphonia, Porphyra,
Gracilaria
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
58. Match the column I with column II and choose the option
which shows its correct combination.
Column-I Column-II
(Pattern of (Examples)
life cycle in plant)
A. Haplontic I. Bryophytes,
life cycle Pteridophytes,
Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia,
Kelps
B. Diplontic II. Seed bearing plants
life cycle (Gymnosperm and
Angiosperm), Fucus
C. Haplo-diplontic III. Many algae (Volvox,
life cycle Spirogyra) and some
species of
Chlamydomonas
(a) A – III; B – II; C – I (b) A – I; B – II; C – III
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III (d) A – III; B – I; C – II
59. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(System of (Characteristics)
classification)
A. Artificial system I. Based on few
of classification morphological
characters
B. Natural system II. Based on evolutionary
of classification relationships between the
various organisms
C. Phylogenetic III. Based on natural affinities
system of among the organisms and
classification consider external as well as
internal features.
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III (b) A – I; B – III; C – II
(c) A – III; B – II; C – I (d) A – I; B – II; C – III
60. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Smallest flowing plant I. Eucalyptus
B. Male sex organ in II. Wolffia
flowering plant
C. Female sex organ III. Stamen
in flowering plant
D. Tallest tree IV. Pistil
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
61. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Amphibian of the I. Sphagnum
plant kingdom
B. Specialized structures II. Angiosperms
in liverworts for
asexual reproduction
C. Monocotyledons and III. Bryophytes
dicotyledons
D. A plant which has IV. Gemmae
capacity to holding water
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
62. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched ?
(a) Chlorophyceae – Major pigments are chl a and b.
(b) Phaeophyceae – Cell wall is made up of cellulose
and algin.
(c) Rhodophyceae – Stored food is mannitol.
(d) Chlorophyceae – Cell wall is made up of cellulose.
63. Select the correct match of the feature present in column
I with its respective terms given in column II.
Column-I Column-II
(features) (term)
A. Presence of tap roots (I) Bryophyte
and coralloid roots
B. The synergids and (II) Pteridophytes
antipodal cells
degenerates after
fertilization
C. The food is stored as (III) Red algae
floridean starch which
is very similar to
amylopectin and
glycogen in structure
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
22 Biology
D. Presence of sporophyte (IV) Angiosperms
which is not free living
but attached to the
photosynthetic
gametophytes and
derives nourishment
from it
E. Members of this group (V) Gymnosperms
are used for medicinal
purposes, as soil
binders and frequently
grown as ornamentals
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I
(c) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II ; E – IV
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – I; E – II
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
64. The given figures (A, B, C, D) represent the members algae. Identify the correct option for the given diagrams.
S. No. A B C D
(a) Porphyra Fucus Dictyota Polysiphonia
(b) Polysiphonia Porphyra Dictyota Fucus
(c) Fucus Dictyota Porphyra Polysiphonia
(d) Porphyra Polysiphonia Fucus Dictyota
65. Refer to the given figure (A, B, C and D) and answer the question. Which of the following figures are the members of green alga?
(a) A, B and D (b) A, B and C (c) B, C and D (d) C, D and A
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Plant Kingdom 23
66. The given figures represent the examples of bryophytes. In them few structures/parts are marked as A, B, C and D.
A
B
D
C
Identify the option which shows the correct labelling of A, B, C and D.
S . No. A B C D
(a) Gemma cup A rchegoniophore Sporophyte Sphagnum
(b) Archegoniophore Gemma cup Gametophyte Sphagnum
(c) Archegonia A ntheridia Gemma cup Sphagnum
(d) Antheridia A rchegonia Gemma cup Sphagnum
67. Which one of the following options correctly represents the type of life cycle patterns?
Sporophyte
(2n)
Zygote (2n)
Syngamy
(n)
Meiosis
Gametogenesis
A
B
Zygote
(2n)
Meiosis
Gametophyte (n)
Gametogenesis
Syngamy
Spores (n) C
Gametogenesis
Syngamy
Zygote (2n)
Sporophyte
(2n)
Meiosis
Spores (n)
Gametophyte (n)
(a) A - Diplontic, B - Haplodiplontic, C - Haplontic (b) A - Haplodiplontic,B - Haplontic, C - Diplontic
(c) A - Haplontic, B - Diplontic, C - Haplodiplontic (d) A - Diplontic, B - Haplontic, C - Haplodiplontic
68. Identify the plants (A, B, C and D) and choose their correct names from the options given below.
A
B
C
D
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
24 Biology
S . No. A B C D
(a) Equisetum Ginkgo Selaginella Lycopodium
(b) Selaginella Equisetum Salvinia Ginkgo
(c) Funaria Adiantum Salvinia Riccia
(d) Chara Marchantia Fucus Pinus
69. The given figure shows the life cycle of an angiosperm. Few plants are marked as A, B, C, D and E. Identify the correct
labelling from the given options.
A B
C
D
E
Microsporangium
Microspores
Microspore
(pollen grain)
Gametes Zygote
Embryo
Sporophyte
Flower
Ovary
Style Filament
Microspore
mother cells
Megasporangium
(ovule)
Megaspore
mother cell
SPOROPHYTIC
(2n)
GENERATION
GAMETOPHYTIC
(n)
GENERATION
(a) A–Stigma, B–Anther, C–Male gametophyte, D–Egg, E–Female gametophyte
(b) A–Stigma, B–Anther, C–Female gametophyte, D–Egg, E–Male gametophyte
(c) A–Stigma, B–Anther, C–Male gametophyte, D–Fertilized egg, E–Female gametophyte
(d) A–Stigma, B–Anther, C–Embryo sac, D–Egg, E–Female gametophyte
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
70. Which of the following example belong to the same class
of algae?
(a) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia
(b) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas
(c) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix
(d) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria
71. A bryophyte differs from pteridophytes in having
(a) archegonia.
(b) lack of vascular tissue.
(c) swimming antherozoids.
(d) independent gametophytes.
72. Fern plant is a
(a) haploid gametophyte
(b) diploid gametophyte
(c) diploid sporophyte
(d) haploid sporophyte
73. The unique feature of bryophytes compared to other plant
groups is that
(a) they produce spores.
(b) they lack vascular tissues.
(c) they lack roots.
(d) their sporophyte is attached to the gametophyte.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Plant Kingdom 25
74. If there are 4 cells in an anther, what will be the number of
pollen grains?
(a) 8 (b) 4
(c) 16 (d) 12
75. Bryophytes are different from fungi in having
(a) land habit.
(b) sterile jacket layers.
(c) multiflagellate gametes.
(d) gametophytic plant body.
76. Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers
and live plants to distant places because
(a) it reduces transpiration.
(b) it serves as a disinfectant.
(c) it is easily available.
(d) it is hygroscopic.
77. If the cells of root in wheat plant have 42 chromosomes,
then the no. of chromosome in the cell of pollen grain is
(a) 14 (b) 21
(c) 28 (d) 42
78. A research student collected certain alga and found that
its cells contained both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll d
as well as phycoerythrin. On the basis of his observation,
the students conclude that the alga belongs to
(a) rhodophyceae (b) bacillariophyceae
(c) chlorophyceae (d) phaeophyceae
79. Fruits are not formed in gymnosperms because of
(a) absence of pollination.
(b) absence of seed.
(c) absence of fertilization.
(d) absence of ovary.
80. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and
Ginkgo?
(a) Independent sporophyte
(b) Presence of archegonia
(c) Well developed vascular tissues
(d) Independent gametophyte
81. In angiosperms, a mature male gametophyte is derived
from a pollen mother cell by
(a) three mitotic divisions.
(b) one meiotic and two mitotic divisions.
(c) two meiotic divisions.
(d) a single meiotic division.
82. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct
groups then which of the following characters you should
choose for the classification ?
(a) Nature of habitat
(b) Structural organization of thallus
(c) Chemical composition of the cell wall
(d) Types of pigments present in the cell.
83. Protonema
(a) is a stage of gametophytic generation.
(b) is a creeping, green, branched and develops directly
from a spore.
(c) produces lateral bud which forms leafy plant body.
(d) All of the above
84. The spreading of living pteridophytes is limited and
restricted to narrow geographical region because
(a) gametophytic growth needs cool, damp and shady
places.
(b) it requires water for fertilization.
(c) due to absence of stomata in leaf and absence of
vascular tissue.
(d) both (a) and (b)
85. Classification of plants proposed by Carolus Linnaeus
was artificial because it was based on
(a) only a few morphological characters.
(b) evolutionary tendencies which are diverse.
(c) anatomical characters which are adaptive in nature.
(d) physiological traits alongwith morphological
characters.
86. Mosses are of great ecological importance because of
(a) its contribution to prevent soil erosion.
(b) its contribution in ecological succession.
(c) its capability to remove CO from the atmosphere.
(d) both (a) and (b)
87. You are given an unknown plant to study in the laboratory.
You find that it has chlorophyll, no xylem. Its multicellullar
sex organs are enclosed in a layer of jacket cells. Its
gametophyte stage is free living. The plant probably
belongs to
(a) chlorophyceae (b) bryophyte
(c) pteridophyte (d) gymnosperm
88. Mosses do not have ‘true leaves’ because their leaf-like
structures lack
(a) starch in their chloroplast.
(b) vascular tissues.
(c) chlorophyll.
(d) cellulose in their cell walls.
89. Place the following groups of plants in order, beginning
with those that first appeared on the earth and progressing
toward those that appeared most recently in time.
(a) Gymnosperms, angiosperms, ferns, moss, algae
(b) Algae, moss, ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms
(c) Moss, algae, ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms
(d) Algae, ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms, moss
90. Chemotaxonomy is connected with
(a) classification of chemicals found in plants.
(b) use of phytochemical data in systematic botany.
(c) application of chemicals on herbarium sheets.
(d) use of statistical methods in chemical yielding plants.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
26 Biology
91. In order to colonize land, plants needed to acquire which
of the following characteristics?
(a) A mechanism for moving water throughout the plant.
(b) A mechanism to prevent desiccation of tissues.
(c) An ability to screen ultraviolet radiation.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
92. Deep in the tropical rain forest, a botanist discovered an
unusual plant with vascular tissues, stomata, a cuticle,
flagellated sperm, cone-like reproductive structures
bearing seeds, and an alternation-of-generations life cycle.
He was very excited about this discovery because it would
be rather unusual for a plant to have both
(a) a cuticle and flagellated sperm.
(b) vascular tissues and alternation of generations.
(c) seeds and flagellated sperm.
(d) alternation of generations and seeds.
93. A universal feature of the life cycle of plants is
(a) morphologically identical haploid and diploid stages.
(b) genetically identical haploid and diploid stages.
(c) alteration of generations between heteromorphic
haploid gametophytes and diploid sporophytes.
(d) none of the above
94. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily
because of their
(a) power of adaptability in diverse habitat.
(b) property of producing large number of seeds.
(c) nature of self pollination.
(d) domestication of man.
95. A student was given a sample to observe under the
microscope. He observed and found that the sample is
the most common type of spore involved in asexual
reproduction in algae. Identify the spore.
(a) Zoospore (b) Endospore
(c) Hypnospore (d) None of these
96. Refer to the statement and answer the question.
“They usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation
and asexually by non - motile spores and sexually by non
- motile gametes.”
Identify the group of plants and its example.
(a) Mosses, Funaria
(b) Red algae, Polysiphonia
(c) Brown algae, Laminaria
(d) Pteridophytes, Selaginella
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 4
Animal Kingdom
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. When any plane passing through the central axis of the
body divides the organism into two identical halves, the
organism is called ___________.
(a) radially symmetrical
(b) bilaterally symmetrical
(c) asymmetrical
(d) metamerically segmented
2. Which of the following is not the common fundamental
feature for animal classification?
(a) Germinal layers.
(b) Pathway of water transport.
(c) Pattern of organization of cells.
(d) Serial repetition of the segments.
3. Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc. where the body
can be divided into identical left and right halves in only
one plane, exhibit___________symmetry.
(a) radial (b) bilateral
(c) asymmetrical (d) non- symmetrical
4. Which of the following is a fresh water sponge?
(a) Sycon (b) Euspongia
(c) Spongilla (d) Pleurobrachia
5. Few cnidarians like corals have a skeleton composed of
(a) calcium hydroxide (b) calcium sulphate
(c) calcium carbonate (d) sodium bicarbonate
6. Meandrina (brain coral) belongs to phylum
(a) porifera (b) coelenterata
(c) ctenophora (d) platyhelminthes
7. In ctenophora, the body bears _______ external rows of
ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion.
(a) five (b) six
(c) seven (d) eight
8. Flame cells present in platyhelminthes are specialized in
(a) respiration and absorption.
(b) osmoregulation and circulation.
(c) respiration and excretion.
(d) osmoregulation and excretion.
9. Polyp phase is absent in
(a) Hydra (b) Aurelia
(c) Physalia (d) Obelia
10. Which of the following group of animals reproduces only
by sexual means?
(a) Ctenophora (b) Cnidaria
(c) Porifera (d) Protozoa
11. __________ is responsible for maintaining the current
of water in sponge.
(a) Osculum (b) Porocytes
(c) Spongocoel (d) Choanocytes
12. Aquatic annelids (like Nereis) possess lateral appendages
called ______________, which help in swimming.
(a) visceral hump (b) parapodia
(c) radula (d) spicules
13. Which of the following belong to phylum arthropoda?
(a) Bombyx and Apis
(b) Laccifer and Anopheles
(c) Locusta and Limulus
(d) All of the above
14. Which of the following is a living fossil?
(a) Balanoglossus (b) Echinus
(c) Ancylostoma (d) Limulus
15. A file like rasping organ for feeding, called radula, present
in the phylum __________.
(a) arthropoda (b) mollusca
(c) echinodermata (d) chordata
16. In phylum arthropoda, excretion takes place through
(a) nephridia (b) flame cells
(c) malphigian tubules (d) gills
17. In phylum echinodermata, the adult echinoderms are
______A_________ but larvae are _______B______ .
(a) A – radially symmetrical; B – bilaterally symmetrical
(b) A – bilaterally symmetrical; B – radially symmetrical
(c) A – bilaterally symmetrical; B – asymmetrical
(d) A – metamerically segmented; B – asymmetrical
18. In which of the phylum, excretory organ like proboscis
gland is present?
(a) Hemichordata (b) Chordata
(c) Echinodermata (d) Annelida
19. Which of the following is not a chordate character?
(a) Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits
(b) Ventral heart
(c) Solid and ventral nerve cord
(d) Presence of post-anal tail
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
28 Biology
20. Which of the following possesses electric organs and
belongs to class chondrichthyes?
(a) Torpedo (b) Petromyzon
(c) Trygon (d) Exocoetus
21. Which of the following possesses poison sting and
belongs to class chondrichthyes?
(a) Labeo (b) Myxine
(c) Clarias (d) Trygon
22. Which of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless
fishes’?
(a) Mackerals and rohu
(b) Lampreys and hag fishes
(c) Guppies and hag fishes
(d) Lampreys and eels
23. In amphibians, respiration occurs through
(a) gills (b) lungs
(c) skin (d) all of these
24. In amphibians, heart is ________ chambered.
(a) two (b) three
(c) four (d) none of these
25. Heart is three - chambered in reptiles, except
(a) turtle (b) Chameleon
(c) Naja (Cobra) (d) crocodile
26. Which of the following is a poisonous snake?
(a) Naja (Cobra) (b) Bangarus (Krait)
(c) Viper (Viper) (d) All of these
27. Which of the following is a chordate feature and not
shared by the non-chordates ?
(a) Metamerism (b) Axial organization
(c) Bilateral symmetry (d) Pharyngeal gill slits
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
28. Which of the following statements (i – v) are incorrect?
(i) Parapodia are lateral appendages in arthropods used
for swimming.
(ii) Radula in molluscs are structures involved in
excretion.
(iii) Aschelminthes are dioecious.
(iv) Echinoderm adults show radial symmetry.
(v) Ctenophorans are diploblastic.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iv) and (v) (d) (iii) and (v)
29. Which of the following statements (i – v) are incorrect ?
(i) Circulatory system in arthropods is of closed type.
(ii) Parapodia in annelids helps in swimming.
(iii) Phylum mollusca is the second largest animal phylum.
(iv) Aschelminthes are dioecious.
(a) (i) only (b) (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
30. Which of the following phylum is being described by the
given statements?
(i) These are primitive multicellular animals and have
cellular level of organization.
(ii) Digestion is intracellular.
(iii) They have a water transport or canal system.
(iv) They reproduce asexually by fragmentation and
sexually by formation of gametes.
(a) Porifera (b) Ctenophora
(c) Coelenterata (d) Platyhelminthes
31. Which of the following statements (i - v) are correct ?
(i) The pelvic fins of female sharks bear claspers.
(ii) In Obelia, polyps produce medusae sexually and
medusae form the polyps asexually.
(iii) Flame cells in platyhelminthes help in osmoregulation
and excretion.
(iv) In non-chordates, central nervous system is ventral,
solid and double.
(v) Pinnae are present in mammals.
(a) (ii), (iv) and (v) (b) (i), (iii) and (v)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
32. Which one of the following statement regarding coelom
of given animals is correct?
(a) Round worms (aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates.
(b) Molluscs are acoelomates.
(c) Insects are pseudocoelomates.
(d) Flatworms (platyhelminthes) are coelomates.
33. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) They are exclusively marine, radially symmetrical,
diploblastic organisms with tissue level of
organisation.
(ii) Body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates,
which help in locomotion.
(iii) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
(iv) Reproduction takes place only by sexual means.
Which of the following phylum is being described by
above statements?
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Arthropoda
(c) Mollusca (d) Ctenophora
34. Which of the following phylum is being described by the
given statements?
(i) They are bilaterally symmetrical,triploblastic,
segmented and coelomate animals.
(ii) The body consists of head, thorax, abdomen and
have jointed appendages.
(iii) Circulatory system is of open type.
(iv) Excretion takes place through malphigian tubules.
(a) Arthropoda (b) Annelida
(c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata
35. The following statement are associated with the
occurrence of notochord. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) It is present only in larval tail in ascidians.
(b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog.
(c) It is absent throughout the life in humans from the
very beginning.
(d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Animal Kingdom 29
36. Which of the following characteristics is correct for
reptilia?
(a) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales
over the body are epidermal, they do not have external
ears.
(b) Body is covered with moist skin and is devoid of scales,
the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal,
urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common
cloaca.
(c) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton and
air-bladder regulate buoyancy.
(d) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton and
body is covered with placoid scales.
37. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Prawn has two pairs of antennae.
(b) Nematocysts are characteristic feature of the phylum
cnidaria.
(c) Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in each
segment of the body.
(d) Animals that belong to phylum porifera are
exclusively marine.
38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding class aves?
(i) The forelimbs are modified into wings and the
hindlimbs generally have scales and are modified for
walking, swimming or clasping the tree branches.
(ii) Heart is completely four-chambered.
(iii) They are warm- blooded (homoiothermous) animals
i.e., they are able to maintain a constant body
temperature.
(iv) They are oviparous and development is direct.
(a) Both (i) and (iii) (b) Both (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
39. Which one of the following categories of animals is
correctly described with no single exception in it?
(a) In chondrichthyes notochord is persistent
throughout life.
(b) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm
for breathing.
(c) All sponges are marine.
(d) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered
heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal).
40. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding
flatworms ?
(a) They are acoelomates.
(b) They are bilaterally symmetrical.
(c) They lack a digestive system.
(d) They have a circulatory system.
41. Which of the following is not a characteristic of phylum
echinodermata ?
(a) They have a water vascular system.
(b) They have an internal skeleton.
(c) They are protostomes.
(d) They have bilateral symmetry at larval stage.
42. Which of the follwoing statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Organ systems in different group of animals show
various patterns of complexities.
(ii) The digestive system in platyhelminthes has only a
single opening to the outside of the body that serve
as both mouth and anus, and is hence called
complete.
(iii) In open type of circulatory system, the blood is
pumped out of the heart and the cells and tissues are
directly bathed in it.
(iv) In closed type, the blood is circulated through a
series of vessels of varying diameters (arteries, veins
and capillaries).
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Animals in which the cells are arranged in two
embryonic layers, an external ectoderm and an
internal endoderm, are called diploblastic animals.
(ii) Notochord is an ectodermally derived rod like
structure formed on the ventral side during
embryonic development in some animals.
(iii) In some animals, the body cavity is not lined by
mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is present as
scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and
endoderm and such a body cavity is called
pseudocoelom.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding phylum coelenterata?
(i) They are aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or freeswimming, radially symmetrical animals.
(ii) They have a central gastro-vascular cavity with a
single opening called hypostome.
(iii) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
(iv) Examples are Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
45. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding phylum aschelminthes?
(i) The body is circular in cross-section hence the name
roundworms.
(ii) Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed
muscular pharynx.
(iii) Sexes are separate (dioecious), i.e., males and females
are distinct.
(iv) Nephridia help in osmoregulation and excretion.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
30 Biology
46. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding phylum mollusca?
(a) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and
coelomate animals.
(b) Body is covered by a calcareous shell and is
unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot and
visceral hump.
(c) The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for
feeding, called radula.
(d) All of the above
47. Which of the following class is being correctly described
by given statements (i - iv)?
(i) All living members of this class are ectoparasites on
some fishes.
(ii) They have a sucking and circular mouth without
jaws.
(iii) Circulation is of closed type.
(iv) They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh
water. After spawing, within a few days they die.
(a) Cyclostomata (b) Chondrichthyes
(c) Osteichthyes (d) Amphibia
48. Which of the following class is being described by the
given statements (i - iv)?
(i) They are found in a variety of habitats- polar icecaps, deserts, mountains, forests, grasslands and
dark caves.
(ii) Most unique mammalian characteristic is the
presence of mammary glands by which the young
ones are nourished.
(iii) Heart is four-chambered.
(iv) Sexes are separate and fertilization is internal.
(a) Reptilia (b) Aves
(c) Mammalia (d) Amphibia
49. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for class
amphibia?
(i) Body is divisible into head and trunk.
(ii) Respiration is through gills only.
(iii) The heart is two chambered i.e. one auricle and one
ventricle.
(iv) Fertilization is internal.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
50. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Platyhelminthes has incomplete digestive system.
(b) In coelenterates, the arrangement of cells is more
complex.
(c) Nereis is monoecious but earthworms and leeches
are dioecious.
(d) Simple and compound eyes are present in the animals
of those phylum whose over two-thirds of all named
species on earth are arthropods.
51. Refer the following statement and answer the question.
'Name of "X" is derived from stinging capsules. It exhibits
metagenesis containing two body forms in which sessile
and cylindrical form is called "Y" and umbrella shaped
and free swimming is called "Z".
Identify X, Y, and Z.
X Y Z
a. Coelenterate Polyp Medusa
b. Cnidarian Medusa Polyp
c. Ctenophora Radula Hypostome
d. Porifera Osculum Radula
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
52. Assertion : The duck-billed Platypus and the spiny anteater, both are egg-laying animals yet they are grouped
under mammals.
Reason : Both of them have seven cervical vertebrae and
12 pairs of cranial nerves.
53. Assertion : Torison can be seen in ctendium.
Reason : Ctenidium acts as the respiratory organ.
54. Assertion : Tapeworm, roundworm and pinworm are
endoparasites of human intestine.
Reason : Improperly cooked food is the source of intestinal
infections.
55. Assertion : Sponges have body organization of "cellular
level".
Reason : There is some physiological division of labour.
56. Assertion : Ambulacral system plays major role in
locomotion of echinoderm.
Reason : Hydraulic pressure of fluid and contraction of
muscle of tube feet make possible movement of
echinoderm.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
57. Match the types of animals given in column I with their
examples given in column II and choose the correct option.
Column -I Column -II
(Types of animals) (Examples)
A. Limbless reptiles I. Elephant
B. Jawless vertebrates II. Lamprey
C. Flightless bird III. Ichthyophis
D. Largest IV. Ostrich
terrestrial animal
E. Limbless amphibia V. Cobra
(a) A – II; B – V; C – IV; D – I; E – III
(b) A – V; B – II; C – IV; D – I; E – III
(c) A – V; B – II; C – I; D – IV; E – III
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – I; E – III
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Animal Kingdom 31
58. Column-I contains organisms and column-II contains their
exeretory structures. Choose the correct match form the
options given below.
Column- I Column -II
(Organism) (Excretory structures)
A. Cockroach I. Nephridia
B. Cat fish II. Malpighian tubules
C. Earthworm III. Kidneys
D. Balanoglossus IV. Flame cells
E. Flatworm V. Proboscis gland
(a) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – IV
59. Match the characteristic feature/terms given in column I
with the phylum to which they belongs given in column II
and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Characteristic (Phylum)
feature/term)
A. Choanocytes I. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidoblasts II. Ctenophora
C. Flame cells III. Porifera
D. Nephridia IV. Coelenterata
E. Comb plates V. Annelida
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – III
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III
(c) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – II; E – IV
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
60. Column I contains zoological names of animals and column
II contains their common name. Match the following and
choose the correct option.
Column -I Column- II
A. Physalia I. Sea anemone
B. Meandrina II. Brain coral
C. Gorgonia III. Sea fan
D. Adamsia IV. Portuguese man-of-war
(a) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
61. Match the organisms given in column-I with their common
name given in column-II and choose the correct option.
Column -I Column -II
(Organisms) (Comman name)
A. Pennatula I. Sea-lily
B. Antedon II. Sea- pen
C. Echinus III. Sea-urchin
D. Cucumaria IV. Sea - cucumber
(a) A – II; C – III; D – I; E – IV
(b) A – II; C – IV; D – I; E – III
(c) A – II; C – I; D – III; E – IV
(d) A – II; C – I; D – III; E – IV
62. Match the phylum given in column - I with their example
given in column - II and choose the correct option.
Column -I Column- II
(Phylum) (Examples)
A. Echinodermata I. Ascidia, Doliolum
B. Hemichordata II. Asterias, Ophiura
C. Urochordata III. Branchiostoma
D. Cephalochordata IV. Balanoglossus,
Saccoglossus
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
(d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
63. Match the phylum given in column - I with the special
features present in them given in column - II and choose
the correct option.
Column -I Column- II
(Phylum) (Special features
present)
A. Porifera I. Mammary glands
B. Mollusca II. Cloaca
C. Ctenophora III. Choanocytes
D. Amphibia IV. Radula
E. Mammalia V. Comb plates
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – I
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I
(d) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – II; E – I
64. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two
characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?
Genus Two characters Class/
name phylum
(a) Ascaris (i) Body segmented Annelida
(ii) Males and
females distinct
(b) Salamandra (i) A tympanum Amphibia
represents ear
(ii) Fertilization is
internal
(c) Pteropus (i) Skin possesses Mammalia
hair
(ii) Viviparous
(d) Aurelia (i) Cnidoblasts Coelenterata
(ii) Organ level of
organization
65. In which one of the following the genus name, its two
characters and phylum are not correctly matched ?
(a) Pila Mollusca
Echinodermata
Porifera
Arthropoda
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(b) Asterias
(c) Sycon
(d) Periplaneta
Body segmented
Spiny skinned
Pore bearing
Jointed appendages
Mouth with radula
Water vascular system
Canal system
Chitinous exoskeleton
Genus name Two characters Phylum
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
32 Biology
66. Match the animal name (column-I), with its characteristics
(column-II), and the phylum/class (column-III) to which it
belongs.
Column- I Column- II Column -III
(a) Ichthyophis Terres trial Reptilia
(b) Limulus Body
covered
by chitinous
exoskeleton
Pis ces
(c) Adamsia Radially
symmetrical
Porifera
(d) Petromyzon Ectoparas ite Cyclostomata
67. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly
matched with its characteristic feature without even a
single exception ?
(a) Reptilia : possess 3 - chambered heart with one
incompletely divided ventricle.
(b) Chordata : Possess a mouth provided with an upper
and lower jaw.
(c) Chondrichthyes : Possess cartilaginous
endoskeleton.
(d) Mammalia : Give birth to young one.
68. Column I contains the characteristics features and column
II contains the function/ location. Select the correct match
from the option given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Characteristic (Function/Location)
feature)
A. Water canal system (i) Sponges
B. Comb plates (ii) Help in swimming
C. Nephridia (iii) Present in mollusca
D. Jointed appendages (iv) Characteristics of
roundworm
E. Muscular foot (v) A body part of
arthropoda
(vi) Helps in reproduction
(vii) Platyhelminthes
(viii) Helps in osmoregulation
and excretion
(ix) Eight ciliated external
rows present in a body
of ctenophora.
A B C D E
(a) (i) (ix) (viii) (v) (iii)
(b) (iii) (i) (vi) (ii) (v)
(c) (ii) (v) (i) (iv) (ix)
(d) (iii) (vi) (iv) (v) (i)
69. Match the terms/feature given in column I with their
examples given in column II and select the correct match
from the option given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Term/Feature) (Examples)
A. Gregarious pest (i) Hirudinaria
B. Vector (ii) Planaria
C. Oviparous with (iii) Sepia
indirect development
D. Metameres (iv) Aedes
E. High regeneration (v) Locust
capacity
A B C D E
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(b) (iii) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iii) (i) (v) (ii) (iv)
(d) (v) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
70. Match the features given in column I with their examples
given in column II and choose the correct match from the
option given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Features) (Examples)
A. Pseudocoelomates (i) Hydra, Adamsia
B. Diploblastic (ii) Ctenoplana, Aurelia
C. Cellular level of (iii) Ascaris, Wuchereria
organization
D. Radial symmetry (iv) Sycon, Spongilla
E. Metamerism (v) Pheretima, Neries
A B C D E
(a) (v) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (v)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (v)
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
71. The given figures (A & B) shows the germinal layer.
Mesoglea Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
A B
The animals having structures shown in the figures are
respectively called
(a) diploblastic, triploblastic
(b) triploblastic, diploblastic
(c) diploblastic, diploblastic
(d) triploblastic, triploblastic
72. Refer the figures A, B, C and D given below. Which of the
following options shows the correct name of the animals
shown by the figures A, B, C and D ?
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Animal Kingdom 33
A B C D
(a) A – Locust, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – Pila
(b) A – Locust, B – Prawn, C – Scorpion, D – Pila
(c) A – Locust, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – Snail
(d) A – Butterfly, B – Scorpion, C – Prawn, D – Pila
73. Refer the given figures A, B, C and D and identify the
option which shows their correct name. D
A B C
A B C D
(a) Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast Aurelia Adamsia
(b) Aurelia Adamsia Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia
(c) Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia Adamsia Aurelia
(d) Adamsia Aurelia Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast
74. Examine the figures A, B and C. In which one of the four
options all the items A, B and C are correctly identified ?
A
B C
A B C
(a) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
(b) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
(c) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
(d) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla
75. Identify the figures and select the correct option.
A B
C
(a) A - Pseudocoelomate; B - Coelomate, C-Acoelomate
(b) A - Coelomate, B - Pseudocoelomate, C- Acoelomate
(c) A - Coelomate; B- Acoelomate; C - Pseudocoelomate
(d) A - Coelomate; B- Acoelomate; C-Eucoelomate
76. Identify the figure with its correct name and phylum.
(a) Sycon - Porifera
(b) Aurelia - Coelenterata
(c) Pleurobrachia - Ctenophora
(d) Tapeworm - Platyhelminthes
77. Identify the figures A, B and C and choose the correct
option.
A B C
(a) A - Male Ascaris, B - Hirudinaria (leech), C- Nereis
(b) A - Female Ascaris, B - Nereis, C-Hirudinaria (leech)
(c) A - Female Ascaris B- Hirudinaria (leech), C - Nereis
(d) A - Male Ascaris, B - Nereis, C- Hirudinaria (leech)
78. Identify the animals shown in the given figures A, B and C
from options given below.
A B C
(a) A - Octopus; B -Asterias, C- Ophiura
(b) A - Asterias; B - Ophiura, C- Octopus
(c) A - Echinus; B - Octopus C - Ophiura
(d) A - Ophiura; B - Echinus, C- Octopus
79. Identify the figure with its correct name and phylum.
(a) Cucumaria – Echinodermata
(b) Ascidia – Urochordata
(c) Balanoglossus – Hemichordata
(d) Hirudinaria – Annelida
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
34 Biology
80. The given figure shows some characteristic features
marked as chordates. Identify the correct labelling A,B,C
and D.
A B
D
C
(a) A-Notochord; B-Post-anal part; C-Gill slits; D-Nerve
cord
(b) A-Nerve cord; B-Notochord; C-Post-anal part; D-Gill
slits
(c) A-Notochord; B-Nerve cord; C-Gill slits; D-Post-anal
part
(d) A-Gill slits; B-Post-anal part; C-Nerve cord; DNotochord
81. Refer the figures A, B and C and choose the correct option
which shows animals that regulate buoyancy with the help
of air bladder.
A B C
(a) A and B (b) A and C
(c) B and C (d) All of the above.
82. The given figures A, B, C and D are the examples of first
true land vertebrates. They are dominant in mesozoic era
and belong to phylum ‘X’. Identify ‘X’ and the animals
which have four chambered heart.
A B
C D
(a) X – Reptile; B (b) X – Reptile; A
(c) X – Amphibia, C (d) X – Pisces; D
83. The given figures of animals (A & B) are distinguished on
the basis of symmetry. Select the correct option which
shows the type of symmetry and its description against
the animals.
A B
(a) A : Biradial, organisms is divided into unequal halves
by any plane through the central axis.
(b) B: Bilateral, body is divided into equivalent right and
left halves by only one plane.
(c) A: Asymmetrical, organisms is not divided into equal
halves by any plane through the central axis.
(d) B: Radial, in which any plane passing through the
central axis of the body divides the organism into two
identical halves.
84. The figure given below shows the germinal layers marked
as A, B, C and D. Identify the label showing undifferentiated
layer and its location?
A
B
C
D
(a) A, Between B & C (b) B, Between A & C
(c) C, Between C & D (d) D, Between A & B
85. The figure given below is the characteristic structure of
the phylum in which animals are aquatic, free swimming or
sessile, mostly marine, radially symmetrical. Identify the
phylum and correct function of the structure.
(a) Ctenophora; Emission of light.
(b) Porifera; Feeding, respiration and excretion.
(c) Cnidarian; Anchorage, Defense and food capturing
(d) Mollusca; Locomotion, transport of food and respiration.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Animal Kingdom 35
86. Which of the following feature is not correct regarding the
figure given below?
(a) It is an aquatic form.
(b) Circulatory system is of open type.
(c) It possesses parapodia for swimming.
(d) Neural system consists of paired ganglia connected
by lateral nerves to a double ventral nerve cord.
87. Which of the following animal's body is covered by
calcareous shell and unsegmented with a distinct head,
muscular foot, and visceral hump?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
88. Which of the following animal contains respiratory organs
like, gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
89. Identify the correct characteristic feature shown by the
given figure?
(a) Diploblastic in nature.
(b) Having radial symmetrical body.
(c) Dioecious with direct development.
(d) Presence of sensory tentacles on anterior head region.
90. Which of the following animals are bilaterally symmetrical?
1234
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 4
(c) 3 & 4 (d) 1 & 3
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
91. Which of the following pairs of animals are similar to each
other pertaining to the feature stated against them?
(a) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity
(b) Garden lizard and crocodile - Three chambered heart
(c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation
(d) Sea horse and flying fish - Cold blooded (poikilothermal)
92. Which of the following group of animals belongs to the
same phylum?
(a) Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm
(b) Prawn, scorpion, Locusta
(c) Sponge, Sea anemone, starfish
(d) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, mosquito
93. Which of the following traits is not shared by both sea
anemones and jellyfish ?
(a) A medusa as the dominant stage in the life cycle.
(b) Possession of a gastro vascular cavity.
(c) Sexual reproduction.
(d) Nematocysts present on the tentacles.
94. The combination of a true coelom and repeating body
segmentation allows the annelids (unlike the anatomically
“simpler” worms) to do which of the following?
(a) Attain complex body shapes and thus locomote more
precisely.
(b) Move through loose marine sediments.
(c) Be hermaphroditic.
(d) Inject paralytic poisons into their prey.
95. The transition from aquatic to terrestrial lifestyles required
many adaptations in the vertebrate lineage. Which of the
following is not one of those adaptations ?
(a) Switch from gill respiration to air-breathing lungs.
(b) Improvements in water resistance of skin.
(c) Alteration in mode of locomotion.
(d) Development of feathers for insulation.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
36 Biology
96. Which of the following features distinguish mammals from
other vertebrates ?
(a) Hairy skin and oviparity
(b) Hairy skin and mammary glands
(c) Mammary glands and teeth
(d) Pinna and teeth
97. Which of the following sets of animals give birth to young
ones?
(a) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus.
(b) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi.
(c) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, Loris.
(d) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich.
98. Which one of the following features is common in
silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn?
(a) Three pairs of legs and segmented body.
(b) Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae.
(c) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton.
(d) Cephalothorax and tracheae.
99. Which of the following is a correct match of a phylum
with its three examples?
(a) Platyhelminthes–Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius
(b) Mollusca – Loligo, Sepia, Octopus
(c) Porifera – Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
(d) Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
100. Hemichordates have now been placed with the nonchordates, close to echinoderms, because true
(a) notochord is absent.
(b) pharyngeal gill-slits are lacking.
(c) dorsal nerve cord is absent.
(d) heart is lacking.
101. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of
kingdom animalia ?
(a) Storage of carbohydrates as starch.
(b) Multicellularity.
(c) Obtaining nutrients by ingestion.
(d) Having eukaryotic cells without walls.
102. Which of the following characteristic distinguish
arthropoda from annelids and molluscs ?
(a) An external skeleton made of chitin (a
polysaccharide) and protein rather than a shell made
chiefly of mineral salts.
(b) Subdivision of the legs into movable segments.
(c) Distinct group of muscles, derived from many body
segments, that move the separate parts of the
exoskeleton.
(d) All of the above
103. Tracheae of cockroach and mammal are similar in having
(a) paired nature.
(b) non-collapsible walls.
(c) ciliated inner lining.
(d) origin from head.
104. A common characteristic of all vertebrates without
exception is
(a) the division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail.
(b) body covered with exoskeleton.
(c) the possession of two pairs of functional
appendages.
(d) the presence of well- developed skull.
105. The organisms attached to the substratum generally
possess
(a) one single opening to the digestive canal.
(b) cilia on the surface to create water current.
(c) radial symmetry.
(d) asymmetrical body.
106. Which of the following statements is without exception
in sponges ?
(a) They all have calcareous spicules.
(b) They have high regenerative power.
(c) They are found only in marine water.
(d) They are all radially symmetrical.
107. Which of the following characters is absent in all
chordates?
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Coelom
(c) Pharyngeal gill clefts
(d) Dorsal nerve cord
108. Which of the following features in birds indicates their
reptilian ancestory ?
(a) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(b) Scales on their hind limbs
(c) Four-chambered heart
(d) Two special chambers-crop and gizzard in their
digestive tract
109. Which of the following characteristic is probably most
responsible for the great diversification of insects on land?
(a) Segmentation
(b) Antennae
(c) Bilateral symmetry
(d) Exoskeleton
110. Which of the following is a connecting link between
invertebrates and non-invertebrates?
(a) Sphenodon
(b) Balanoglossus
(c) Tadpole larva
(d) Crocodile
111. A student brought home a strange animal which he found
outside under a rock. It had moist skin, a complete
digestive tract, a ventral nerve cord, and had gone through
torsion. Identify the phylum of the animal.
(a) Porifera (b) Annelida
(c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Animal Kingdom 37
112. Identify the correct characteristics of porifera.
(i) Commonly known as sea walnuts.
(ii) Presence of ostia and collar cells.
(iii) Exhibit tissue level of characteristics.
(iv) It is the largest phylum of animal kingdom.
(v) The body is supported by spicules and sponging
fibers.
(vi) Contains cnidocytes which is used for defense,
anchorage and capturing of prey.
(a) (ii), (v) only
(b) (i), (ii), (vi) only
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) only
(d) All of these.
113. A student was given a specimen to identify on the basis
of the characteristics given below.
(i) They are metamerically segmented.
(ii) They have closed circulatory system.
(iii) They have circular and longitudinal muscles for
locomotion.
Identify the specimen.
(a) Prawn (b) Pheretima
(c) Wuchereria (d) Ctenoplana
114. Refer the following animals and identify those which have
a fluid filled body cavity with a complete lining derived
from mesoderm.
(i) Sycon (ii) Butterfly
(iii) Nereis (iv) Sea fan
(v) Scorpion (vi) Pila
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) only
(d) All of these
115. Refer the types of cells present in some animals. Each cell
is specialized to perform a single specific function except
(a) Cnidocytes
(b) Choanocytes
(c) Interstitial cells
(d) Gastrodermal cells
116. Select the incorrect feature of mollusca from the given
statements.
(i) Terrestrial or aquatic animals having cellular system
level of organization.
(ii) Radial symmetrical and acoelomate animals and
possesses two germinal layers.
(iii) A file like rasping organ called radula is present.
(iv) Usually dioecious and viviparous animals.
(v) Examples include Pila, Octopus, and Dentalium.
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(d) All the five statements.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 5
Morphology of
Flowering Plants
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following plant parts elongates directly
and leads to the formation of primary roots?
(a) bud (b) radicle
(c) plumule (d) root hair
2. The primary roots and its branches constitute the
(a) fibrous root system.
(b) tap root system.
(c) adventitious root system.
(d) all of the above
3. Fibrous root system is found in
(a) monocotyledonous plants.
(b) dicotyledonous plants.
(c) bryophytes.
(d) gymnosperms.
4. Roots develop from parts of the plant other than radicle
are called
(a) tap roots (b) fibrous roots
(c) adventitious roots (d) nodular roots
5. Root hairs develop from
(a) region of maturation
(b) region of elongation
(c) region of meristematic activity
(d) root cap
6. The part of the root which is most active in water
absorption is called
(a) root cap (b) maturation zone
(c) meristematic zone (d) zone of elongation
7. Fibrous roots develop in maize from
(a) upper nodes (b) lower nodes
(c) upper internodes (d) none of these
8. Prop roots of banyan tree are meant for
(a) respiration.
(b) absorption of water from soil.
(c) providing support to big tree.
(d) all of the above.
9. Stilt roots occur in __________ .
(a) groundnut (b) rice
(c) sugarcane (d) wheat
10. Pneumatophores are found in
(a) the vegetation which is found in marshy and saline
lake.
(b) the vegetation which is found in saline soil.
(c) xerophytic condition.
(d) hydrophytic condition.
11. Which of the following plants grow in swampy areas,
where the roots come out of the ground and grow
vertically upwards?
(a) Potato (b) Opuntia
(c) Rhizophora (d) Grass
12. Root differs from stem in having
(a) nodes and internodes (b) axillary buds
(c) multicellular hairs (d) unicellular hairs
13. Which of the following plant parts is generally green
when young and later often becomes woody and dark
brown?
(a) stem (b) seed
(c) leaves (d) flower
14. The regions of the stem where leaves are borne are called
____________ while ____________ are the portions
between two ____________.
(a) nodes, nodes and internodes
(b) nodes, internodes and nodes
(c) internodes, nodes and nodes
(d) internodes, internodes and nodes
15. Which of the following groups of plants have
underground stems?
(a) Potato, ginger, turmeric, Euphorbia, zaminkand
(b) Potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia
(c) Potato, Citrus, Opuntia, zaminkand, Colocasia
(d) Potato, cucumber, watermelon, zaminkand,
Colocasia
16. Stem tendrils are found in
(a) cucumber (b) pumpkins
(c) grapevines (d) all of these
17. Which of the following is a modified stem for the
protection of plants from browsing animals?
(a) Tendrils (b) Thorns
(c) Rhizome (d) Tuber
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Morphology of Flowering Plants 39
18. A branch in which each node bearing a rossette of leaves
and a tuft of roots is found in aquatic plants like
_________ and _________.
(a) Hydrilla and Pistia
(b) Eichhornia and Hydrilla
(c) Pistia and Eichhornia
(d) Pistia and Vallisneria
19. In which of the following plants, a slender lateral branch
arises from the base of the main axis, and after growing
aerially arch downwards to touch the ground?
(a) Mint and jasmine (b) Banana and pineapple
(c) Grass and stawberry (d) Pistia and Eichhornia
20. Which of the following is the green expanded part of
leaf with vein and veinlets?
(a) Petiole (b) Node
(c) Stipule (d) Lamina
21. Leaves of dicotyledonous plants possess _________
venation, while _________ venation is the characteristic
of most monocotyledons.
(a) reticulate and parallel
(b) parallel and reticulate
(c) reticulate and perpendicular
(d) obliquely and parallel
22. Which of the following is an example of pinnately
compound leaf ?
(a) Cucumber (b) Papaya
(c) Cucurbita (d) Neem
23. The main purpose of phyllotaxy for the leaves is to provide
sufficient_______.
(a) soil (b) air
(c) water (d) light
24. Alternate type of phyllotaxy is found in
(a) china rose (b) mustard
(c) sunflower (d) all of these
25. Which type of function is performed by the fleshy leaves
of onion and garlic?
(a) Storage (b) Reproduction
(c) Photosynthesis (d) Protection
26. The flower is the reproductive unit in the ___________
meant for ___________ reproduction.
(a) angiosperms and sexual
(b) gymnosperms and sexual
(c) algae and asexual
(d) pteridophytes and asexual
27. When a flower has both androecium and gynoecium, it is
known as__________.
(a) asexual (b) bisexual
(c) unisexual (d) multisexual
28. When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves
in any radial plane passing through the centre, it is known as
(a) actinomorphic (b) zygomorphic
(c) asymmetric (d) bisymmetric
29. A sterile stamen is known as
(a) staminode (b) anther
(c) pollen grain (d) filament
30. Pollen grains are produced within the _________of
stamen.
(a) ovary (b) anther
(c) filament (d) connective
31. Which one of the following structure is not associated
with gynoecium?
(a) Ovary (b) Style
(c) Stigma (d) Filament
32. During the post-fertilization period, the ovules develop
into ___A_____ and the ovary matures into a ___B____.
(a) A - seeds; B - fruit (b) A - fruit; B - seeds
(c) A - flower; B - seed (d) A - seeds; B - flower
33. A scar on the seed coat through which the developing
seeds are attached to the fruit is called as ________.
(a) testa (b) tegmen
(c) hilum (d) micropyle
34. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in which
of the following plant group?
(a) walnut and tamarind
(b) cashew nut and litchi
(c) french bean and coconut
(d) groundnut and pomegranate
35. Floral formula of tomato/tobacco is
(a) K AG 4–5 10 (2)
(b) K CA 2+2 4 2+4 1 G
(c) P A2 31 G
(d) K C (5) 5 (2) (5)A G
36. Botanical name of Cauliflower is
(a) Brassica oleracea var. capitata
(b) Brassica campesteris
(c) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis
(d) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera
37. Botanical name of banana is
(a) Musa paradisica (b) Phaseolus vulgaris
(c) Ricinus communis (d) Ananas sativus
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
38. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Bulb of Allium cepa is a modified stem.
(b) Cloves of Allium sativum are fleshy scale leaves.
(c) Corm of Colocasia is a modified root.
(d) Tendril in Vitis vinifera is a modified axillary bud.
39. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Each stamen which represents the male
reproductive organ consists of a stalk or a filament
and an anther.
(b) An actinomorphic flower can be dissected into two
equal halves from any plane.
(c) Superior ovary is found in hypogynous flowers.
(d) When stamens are attached to petals, they are
epiphyllous as in brinjal.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
40 Biology
40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
calyx?
(a) Calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower and are
called sepals.
(b) Sepals are green, leaf like structure and protect the
flower in the bud stage.
(c) The calyx may be gamosepalous (sepals free) or
polysepalous (sepals united).
(d) Both (a) and (b)
41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
venation?
(i) The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in the
lamina of leaf is called venation.
(ii) Reticulate venation is the characteristic of monocots.
(iii) When the veinlets form a network, the venation is
termed as reticulate venation.
(iv) When the veins run parallel to each other within a
lamina, the venation is termed as parallel venation.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
42. Which one of the following are not true for parietal
placentation?
(a) Ovules are borne on central axis.
(b) Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes twochambered due to the formation of false septum.
(c) Examples are mustard and Argemone.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
43. Which one of the following characteristics is not related
to gynoecium?
(a) It is the female reproductive part of the flower.
(b) It is composed of stamens.
(c) Stigma is usually at the tip of the style and is the
receptive surface for pollen grains.
(d) Each ovary bears one or more ovules attached to a
flattened, cushion like placenta.
44. Study the following statements and select the correct
option
(i) Buds are present in the axil of leaflets of the
compound leaf.
(ii) Pulvinus leaf-base is present in some leguminous plants.
(iii) In Alstonia, the petioles expand, become green and
synthesize food.
(iv) Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in guava.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are correct but (i) and (iii) are incorrect.
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) and (iv) are incorrect.
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect.
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) is incorrect.
45. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) From the region of elongation, some of the epidermal
cells form root hairs.
(ii) Pneumatophores are seen in Rhizophora.
(iii) Adventitious roots are seen in the banyan tree.
(iv) Maize and sugarcane have prop roots.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
46. Consider the following statements regarding the root
system of angiosperms and choose the correct option
given below.
(i) In monocots, the fibrous root system arises from the
base of the stem.
(ii) The region of elongation is called the root hair region.
(iii) In sweet potato, the adventitious roots get swollen
and store food.
(iv) The stems of maize and sugarcane have supporting
roots called prop roots.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) and (iv) are wrong.
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct but (i) and (iv) are wrong.
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct but (i) and (iii) are wrong.
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) and (iv) are wrong.
47. Which of the following statement (s) is/are not correct?
(i) Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs of a flower.
(ii) Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two equal
radial halves in any radial plane.
(iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as bracteate.
(iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after fertilization of the
ovary.
(v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic.
(vi) Radical buds develop on roots.
(a) (i) , (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (v)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (vi) (d) (iv), (v) and (i)
48. Which of the following statements are correct about the
leaf?
(i) Leaf is a lateral, generally flattened structure borne
on the stem.
(ii) It develops at the node and bears a bud in its axil.
(iii) Leaves originate from root apical meristems and
arranged in an acropetal order.
(iv) They are the most important vegetative organs for
reproduction.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) all of these
49. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) Gynoecium is situated in the centre, and other parts
of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus
almost at the same level.
(ii) Ovary is half-inferior.
(iii) Examples are plum, rose and peach.
Which condition of flowers is being described by the
above statements ?
(a) hypogyny (b) perigyny
(c) epigyny (d) none of these
50. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) It is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem
or branch.
(ii) It is usually of three types - alternate, opposite and
whorled.
(iii) It is meant for getting maximum amount of light.
Which condition of plant is being described by the above
statements?
(a) Phyllotaxy (b) Venation
(c) Inflorescencew (d) Aestivation
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Morphology of Flowering Plants 41
51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
the fruit?
(i) Fruit is a mature or ripened ovary, developed before
fertilization.
(ii) It consists of a wall or pericarp and seeds.
(iii) When pericarp is thick and fleshy, it is differentiated
into outer mesocarp, middle epicarp and inner endocarp.
(iv) In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as a berry.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii) (d) All of these
52. Which of the following statement(s) is /are correct?
(i) Many plants belonging to the family fabaceae are
good ornamentals (Tulip, Gloriosa), source of
medicine (Aloe) and vegetables (Asparagus).
(ii) The plumule and radicle are enclosed in sheaths
which are called coleorhiza and coleoptile
respectively.
(iii) A flower having either stamens or carpels is unisexual.
(iv) Basal, alternate, linear, exstipulate with parallel
venation types of leaves is found in the family
liliaceae.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
53. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Imbricate aestivation is found in the papilionaceous
family.
(b) Generally, sepals are green, leaf like and protect the
flowers in the bud stage.
(c) In cymose type of inflorescence, the main axis
terminates in a flower, hence is limitless in growth.
(d) In axile placentation ovary is one chambered but it becomes
two cambered due to the formation of false septum.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
54. Assertion : A simple leaf has undivided lamina.
Reason : Leaves showing pinnate and palmate
venations have various type of incisions.
55. Assertion : Ginger has a prostrate-growing rhizome.
Reason : Shoot growth is not effected by gravity.
56. Assertion : Many plants are propagated vegetatively
even though they bear seeds.
Reason : Potatoes multiply by tubers, apple by cutting etc.
57. Assertion : Ginger has a prostrate growing rhizome.
Reason : Shoot growth is not effected by gravity.
58. Assertion :In fabaceae family monocarpellary, unilocular
ovary is present.
Reason : In fabaceae, placentation is parietal.
59. Assertion : In stem, pericycle take active part in
secondary growth.
Reason : In dicots, pericycle has the capacity to produce
lateral roots.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
60. Match column-I containing types of aestivation with their
examples given in column-II and choose the correct option.
Column - I Column-II
(Type of aestivation) (Examples)
A. Valvate I. Cotton
B. Twisted II. Calotropis
C. Imbricate III. Bean
D. Vexillary IV. Gulmohar
(a) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
61. Match the following placentation types given in column
I with their examples given in column II and choose the
correct combination from the options given below.
A. Basal I. Dianthus
B. Free central II. Pea
C. Parietal III. Lemon
D. Axile IV. Marigold
E. Marginal V. Argemone
(Placentation Types) (Examples)
Column-I Column-II
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V
(b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – V, D – III, E – II
(d) A – IV, B – III, C – V, D – I, E – II
62. Match the following stem modifications given in column
I with their examples given in column II and select the
correct combination from the options given below.
A. Underground stem I. Euphorbia
B. Stem tendril II. Opuntia
C. Stem thorns III. Potato
D. Flattened stem IV. Citrus
E. Fleshy cylindrical
stem
V. Cucumber
(Stem Modifications) (Found in)
Column-I Column-II
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – V, E – IV
(b) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – V, D – I, E – II
(d) A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – II, E – I
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
42 Biology
63. Match the andsoecium formula (given in column II) with
their family (given in column I) and choose the correct
combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Family) (Androecium formula)
A. Brassicaceae I. A3 + 3
B. Fabaceae II. A(5)
C. Solanaceae III. A(9) + 1
D. Liliaceae IV. A2 + 4
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
64. Match column I with column II and choose the correct
combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Position of floral parts (Represented in)
on thalamus)
A. Hypogynous I. Ray florets of sunflower
B. Perigynous II. Brinjal
C Epigynous III Peach
(a) A – II, B – I, C – III (b) A – I, B – II, C – III
(c) A – III, B – II, C – I (d) A – II, B – III, C – I
65. Match column I with column II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Bud in the I. Pitcher plant
axil of leaf and venus fly trap
B. Outer layer of II. Cacti
seed coat
C. Spines III. Testa
(modified leaves)
D. Leaves modified IV. Simple leaf
to catch insects
E. Fleshy leaves V. Garlic and onion
with stored food
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V
(b) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II, E – I
(c) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I, E – V
(d) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I, E – V
66. Match column-I with column-II and choose the option
which shows their correct combination.
Column-I Column-II
A. Gamosepalous I. Flower of lily
B. Polysepalous II. Sterile anther
C. Gamopetalous III. Free petals
D. Polypetalous IV. Free sepals
E. Epiphyllous V. Fused petals
F. Staminode VI. Fused sepals
(a) A – IV, B – V, C – III, D – I, E – VI, F – II
(b) A – IV, B – III, C – V, D – I, E – II, F – VI
(c) A – VI, B – IV, C – III, D – V, E – I, F – II
(d) A – VI, B – IV, C – V, D – III, E – II, F – I
67. Matching colmun I with column II and choose the correct
option.
Column I Column II
A. Coleorhiza I. Grapes
B. Food storing tissue II. Mango
C. Parthenocarpic fruit III. Maize
D. Single seeded fruit IV. Radicle
developing from
monocarpellary
superior ovary
E. Membranous V. Endosperm
seed coat
(a) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II, E – V
(b) A – IV, B – II, C – V, D – I, E – III
(c) A – V, B – I, C – III, D – IV, E – II
(d) A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – III
68. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(Members of Fabaceae) (Economic importance)
A. Gram, sem, moong, I. Medicine
soyabean
B. Soyabean,groundnut II. Ornamental
C. Indigofera III. Fodder
D. Sunhemp IV. Fibres
E. Sesbania, Trifolium V. Dye
F. Lupin, sweet potato VI. Edible oil
G. Mulethi VII. Pulses
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V, F – VI, G – VII
(b) A – VII, B – VI, C – V, D – IV, E – III, F – II, G – I
(c) A – II, B – IV, C – VI, D – I, E – III, F – V, G – VII
(d) A – I, B – III, C – V, D – VII, E – II, F – IV, G – VI
69. Match column - I, II and III and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
A. Marginal I. p. Sunflower,
Marigold
B. Axile II. q. Dianthus,
Primrose
C. Parietal III. r. Mustard,
Argemone
D. Free central IV. s. China rose,
tomato, lemon
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Morphology of Flowering Plants 43
E. Basal V. t. Pea
(a) A - V, t; B - II, s; C -I, r; D -III, q; E -IV, p
(b) A - I, t; B - II, s; C - III, r; D - IV, p; E - V, q
(c) A - V, p; B - II, s; C - I, q; D - III, r; E - IV, t
(d) A - V, p; B - III, q; C - II, s; D - I, t; E - IV, r
70. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct
option.
Column I Column II
A. Placentation (i) Arrangement of
flowers
on the rachis
B. Aestivation (ii) Modified shoot for
sexual reproduction
C. Inflorescence (iii)Arrangement of
various whorls in the
bud
D. Flower (iv) Arrangement of
ovules within an ovary
A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
71. The given figure shows the regions of root tip with
labelling as A, B and C. Choose the option which shows
the correct labelling of A, B and C.
Region of mature cells
(a) A - Zone of elongation, B - Zone of meiosis, C -
Zone of mitosis.
(b) A - Zone of maturation, B - Zone of meristematic
activity, C - Zone of elongation.
(c) A - Zone of mitosis, B - Zone of elongation, C - Zone
of root cap.
(d) A - Region of maturation, B - Region of elongation,
C - Zone of meristematic activity.
72. The given figures (A and B) show the modificaiton of
roots.Which of the following statements regarding the
figures is correct ?
A B
(a) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of
sweet potato, get swollen and store food.
(b) Pneumatophores conducts water, minerals &
photosynthesis
(c) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that grow in
sandy soil.
(d) Turnip & carrot shows adventitious roots and sweet
potato shows tap root.
73. Which of the following option shows the correct
labelling of the parts of leaf marked as A, B, C and D.
A B C D
(a) Lamina Axillary bud Stipule Leaf base
(b) Lamina Stipule Axillary bud Leaf base
(c) Lamina Axillary bud Stipule Pedicel
(d) Leaflet Axillary bud Stipule Leaf base
74. Identify the inflorescence shown by the given figures A
and B.
(a) A-Cymose, B-Racemose
(b) A-Racemose, B-Cymose
(c) A-Racemose, B-Racemose
(d) A-Cymose, B-Cymose
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
44 Biology
75. Identify the different types of aestivation (A, B, C and D)
in corolla and select the correct option.
(a) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Vexillary
(b) A-Vexillary, B-Valvate, C-Twisted, D-Imbricate
(c) A-Imbricate, B-Vexillary, C-Valvate, D-Twisted
(d) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary, D-Valvate
76. Given figures (A, B and C) show the position of floral
parts on thalamus. (given as I, II and III) Select the correct
combination.
I. Hypogynous flower II. Perigynous flower
III. Epigynous flower
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III (b) A-I, B-III, C-II
(c) A-III, B-II, C-I (d) A-III, B-I, C-II
77. The given figures (A & B) show two types of compound
leaves. Choose the option which identity the correct
compound leaf and their example (c).
(a) A - Pinnately compound leaf, C - Neem
(b) A - Palmately compound leaf, C - Neem
(c) B- Pinnately compound leaf, C - Silk cotton
(d) B- Palmately compound leaf, C - Silk cotton
78. Identify the kind of phyllotaxy shown in the given figures
A, B, and C.
(a) A-Alternate, B - Opposite, C - Whorled
(b) A- Whorled, B - Opposite, C -Alternate
(c) A-Alternate, B - Whorled, C - Opposite
(d) A-Whorled, B -Alternate, C - Opposite
79. Which one of the following options shows the correct
labelling of the structure marked as A, B, C & D?
A B C D
(a) Gynoecium Megasporophyll Ovule Thalamus
(b) Gynoecium Stamen Seed Thalamus
(c) Microsporophyll Stamen Ovule Thalamus
(d) Gynoecium Stamen Ovule Thalamus
80. The given figure shows the parts of mango and coconut.
Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of
A, B, C and D marked in the figures.
A B C D
(a) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Seed, Endocarp
(b) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovule, Endocarp
(c) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovary, Endocarp
(d) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Embryo, Endocarp
81. Which one of the options shows the correct labelling of
the parts marked as A, B, C and D in a typical structure of
dicotyledonous seeds ?
(a) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Radicle, D - Cotyledon,
E - Plumule
(b) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule,
D - Cotyledon, E - Radicle
(c) A - Micropyle, B - Hilum, C - Plumule,
D - Cotyledon, E - Radicle
(d) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule, D - Radicle,
E - Cotyledon
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Morphology of Flowering Plants 45
82. The given figure shows a typical structure of
monocotyledonous seeds. Identify the parts A, B, C, D
and E marked in the given figures.
(a) A - Endosperm, B - Embryo, C - Scutellum,
D - Coleorhiza, E - Coleoptile
(b) A- Embryo, B - Endosperm, C - Scutellum,
D - Coleoptile, E - Coleorhiza
(c) A - Endosperm, B - Embryo, C - Scutellum,
D - Coleoptile, E - Coleorhiza
(d) A - Embryo, B - Endosperm, C - Scutellum,
D - Coleorhiza, E - Coleoptile
83. Identify the correct families of the given plant species
(A, B and C)
(A) (B) (C)
(a) A - Liliaceae, B - Compositae, C - Malvaceae
(b) A - Fabaceae, B - Solanaceae, C - Liliaceae
(c) A - Compositae, B - Malvaceae, C - Liliaceae
(d) A - Solanaceae, B - Fabaceae, C - Liliaceae
84. The given figure (A, B, and C) shows different types of
roots. Identify the root which is seen in wheat plant and
originate from the base of the stem?
Main root
Laterals
(A) (B)
(C)
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) Both A and B
85. The given figure shows the parts of flowering plant.
Which parts of the given figure were involved in the
following functions:
(i) Storing reserve food material
(ii) Synthesis of plant growth regulators.
(iii) Absorption of water and minerals from the soil.
(iv) Providing a proper anchorage to the plant parts
1
2
3
4
5
6
(a) 5 and 6 (b) 1, 2 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 4, 5 and 6
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
86. Floral features are mainly used in angiosperms
identification because
(a) flowers are of various colours.
(b) flowers can be safely pressed.
(c) reproductive parts are more stable and conservative
than vegetative parts.
(d) flowers are good materials for identification.
87. Aleurone layer helps in
(a) storage of food in endosperm.
(b) protection of embryo.
(c) utilization of stored food.
(d) all of the above.
88. Fibrous root system is better adopted than tap root system
for
(a) transport of organic matter.
(b) absorption of water and minerals.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
46 Biology
(c) storage of food.
(d) anchorage of plant to soil.
89. Main function of leaf is
(a) exchange of gases
(b) increase the beauty of a tree
(c) manufacturing of food
(d) nerve impulse induction
90. Rearrange the following zones seen in the regions of
root tip and choose the correct option.
(A) Root hair zone (B) Zone of meristems
(C) Root cap zone (D) Zone of maturation
(E) Zone of elongation
(a) C, B, E, A, D (b) A, B, C, D, E
(c) D, E, A, C, B (d) E, D, C, B, A
91. Which is not a stem modification ?
(a) Rhizome of ginger (b) Corm of Colocasia
(c) Pitcher of Nepenthes (d) Tuber of potato
92. Most prominent function of inflorescence is
(a) dispersal of seeds.
(b) formation of more fruits.
(c) formation of pollen grains.
(d) dispersal of pollens.
93. The character of flower which is represented by floral
formula but not by floral diagram is
(a) aestivation (b) placentation
(c) position of gynoecium (d) adhesion of stamen
94. The mature seeds of plants such as gram and peas possess
no endosperm because
(a) these plants are not angiosperms.
(b) there is no double fertilization in them.
(c) endosperm is not formed in them.
(d) endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo
during seed development.
95. Seeds are regarded as products of sexual reproduction
because they
(a) can be stored for a long time.
(b) are result of fusion of pollen tube.
(c) are result of fusion of gametes.
(d) give rise to new plants.
96. Which of the following is correct with reference to floral
character of the family solanaceae?
(a) Racemose, zygomorphic, unisexual, floral characters
(b) Racemose, zygomorphic, bisexual, polypetalous
(c) Axillary, bisexual, actinomorphic, epipetalous
(d) Axillary, actinomorphic, bisexual, epipetalous
97. Which of the following represents the floral characters
of liliaceae?
(a) Six tepals, zygomorphic, six stamens, bilocular ovary,
axile placentation.
(b) Actinomorphic, polyphyllous, unilocular ovary, axile
placentation.
(c) Tricorpellary, actinomorphic, polyandrous, superior
ovary, axile placentation.
(d) Bisexual, zygomorphic, gamophyllous, inferior ovary,
marginal placentation.
98. In flower (X), the gynoecium occupies the highest position
while the other parts are situated below it. The ovary in
such flowers is said to be Y. Identify X and Y and select
the correct option.
X Y
(a) Epigynous Inferior
(b) Perigynous Superior
(c) Hypogynous Superior
(d) Perigynous Half-inferior
99. Which of the following is not the characteristic features
of fabaceae?
(a) Tap root system, compound leaves and raceme
inflorescence.
(b) Flowers actinomorphic, twisted aestivation and
gamopetalous.
(c) Stamens 10, introrse, basifixed, dithecous.
(d) Monocarpellary, ovary superior and bent stigma.
100. How many plants in the list given below have marginal
placentation?
Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sunhemp,
Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin
(a) Four (b) Five
(c) Six (d) Three
101. Ginger is an underground stem. It is distinguished from
root because
(a) it lacks chlorophyll.
(b) it stores food.
(c) it has nodes and internodes.
(d) it has xylem and vessels.
102. Which one of the following is correct explanation for
the given floral formula ?
% O+
K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1
(a) Zygomorphic, bisexual, sepals five and
gamosepalous, petals five and papilionaceous,
anthers ten and monadelphous, ovary superior and
monocarpellary.
(b) Zygomorphic, unisexual, sepals five and
gamosepalous, petals five and polypetalous, anthers
nine united and one free, ovary superior and
monocarpellary.
(c) Zygomorphic, bisexual, sepals five and
gamosepalous, petals five and papilionaceous,
anthers ten and diadelphous, ovary superior and
monocarpellary.
(d) Zygomorphic, bisexual, sepals five and united,
petals five and united, anthers ten and diadelphous,
ovary superior and monocarpellary.
103.The main function(s) of root system is/are
(a) absorption of water and minerals from the soil
(b) storing reserve food material
(c) synthesis of plant growth regulators
(d) All of the above
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Morphology of Flowering Plants 47
104. The region of the root-tip whose cells undergo rapid
elongation and enlargement and are responsible for the
growth of the root in length is called the
(a) region of maturation.
(b) region of elongation.
(c) region of meristematic activity.
(d) root hairs.
105. The region of the root-tip which is involved in the formation
of root hairs by epidermal cells is called the
(a) region of maturation.
(b) region of meristematic activity.
(c) region of elongation.
(d) none of the above.
106. The X is small and situated in a groove at one end of the
endosperm. It consists of one large and shield shaped
cotyledon known as Y and a short axis with a plumule and
a Z. Identify X, Y and Z.
X Y Z
(a) Scutellum Embryo Radicle
(b) Embryo Scutellum Radicle
(c) Scutellum Radicle Embryo
(d) Radicle Embryo Scutellum
107. "X" is the outermost whorl of the flower and contains
"Y". Y is green, leaf like and protect the other whorls of
the flower.
Identify X and Y.
(a) X - Calyx; Y - Sepals
(b) X - Corolla; Y - Petals
(c) X - Gynoecium; Y - Fruit
(d) X - Androecium; Y - Ovary
108.It is a proteinous layer and the outer covering of
endosperm which separates the embryo. Identify the
layer.
(a) Tegmen
(b) Scutellum
(c) Hyaline layer
(d) Aleurone layer
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. A tissue is a group of cells which are
(a) similar in origin, but dissimilar in form and function.
(b) dissimilar in origin, form and function.
(c) dissimilar in origin, but similar in form and function.
(d) similar in origin, form and function.
2. Apical, intercalary and lateral meristems are differentiated
on the basis of
(a) origin (b) function
(c) position (d) development
3. Which of following helps bamboo and grasses to elongate ?
(a) Apical meristems (b) Lateral meristems
(c) Secondary meristems (d) Intercalary meristems
4. Which meristem helps in increasing girth?
(a) Lateral meristem (b) Intercalary meristem
(c) Primary meristem (d) Apical meristem
5. Cells of permanent tissues are specialized
(a) functionally.
(b) only structurally.
(c) both structurally and functionally.
(d) for mitosis.
6. The apical meristem of the root is present
(a) in all the roots.
(b) only in radicals.
(c) only in tap roots.
(d) only in adventitious roots.
7. During the formation of leaves and elongation of stem,
some cells ‘left behind’ from the shoot apical meristem,
constitute the
(a) lateral meristem (b) axillary bud
(c) cork cambium (d) fascicular cambium
8. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of
an embryonic shoot called axillary bud?
(a) Lateral meristem (b) Apical meristem
(c) Intercalary meristem (d) Both (b) and (c)
9. A plant tissue when stained showed the presence of
hemicellulose and pectin in cells wall of its cells. The tissue
is called
(a) collenchyma (b) sclerenchyma
(c) xylem (d) meristem
10. Various functions like photosynthesis, storage, excretion
performed by _____________.
(a) sclerenchyma (b) parenchyma
(c) collenchyma (d) aerenchyma
11. Sclerenchyma
usually___________and_____________
protoplasts.
(a) live, without (b) dead, with
(c) live, with (d) dead, without
12. The __________ occurs in layers below the epidermis in
dicotyledonous plants.
(a) parenchyma (b) sclerenchyma
(c) collenchyma (d) aerenchyma
13. Xylem functions as a conducting tissue for water and
minerals from _________to the ______and__________.
(a) roots, stems, leaves (b) stems, roots, leaves
(c) leaves, stems, roots (d) leaves, stems, leaves
14. Bast fibres are made up of _____________cells.
(a) sclerenchymatous (b) chlorenchymatous
(c) parenchymatous (d) aerenchymatous
15. Which one of the following have vessels as their
characteristic feature?
(a) Angiosperms (b) Gymnosperms
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Bryophytes
16. An organised and differentiated cellular structure having
cytoplasm but no nucleus is called _________.
(a) vessels (b) xylem parenchyma
(c) sieve tubes (d) tracheids
17. A vascular bundle in which the protoxylem is pointing to
the periphery is called __________.
(a) endarch (b) exarch
(c) radial (d) closed Chapter 6
Apãvqïû qh Ènqygtkpé
Rnãpvõ
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 49
18. In dicot root
(a) vascular bundles are scattered and with cambium
(b) vascular bundles are arranged in a ring and have
cambium
(c) xylem and phloem radially arranged
(d) xylem is always endarch
19. Pericycle of roots produces
(a) mechanical support
(b) lateral roots
(c) vascular bundles
(d) adventitious buds
20. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the
_____________
and the metaxylem lies towards the ____________ of
the organ.
(a) centre; periphery
(b) periphery; centre
(c) periphery; periphery
(d) centre; centre
21. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is
distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by
(a) presence of cortex.
(b) position of protoxylem.
(c) absence of secondary xylem.
(d) absence of secondary phloem.
22. Monocot leaves possess
(a) intercalary meristem
(b) lateral meristem
(c) apical meristem
(d) mass meristem
23. What is true about a monocot leaf ?
(a) Reticulate venation
(b) Absence of bulliform cells from epidermis
(c) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade and spongy
tissues
(d) Well differentiated mesophyll
24. Lignin is the important constituent in the cell wall of
(a) phloem (b) parenchyma
(c) xylem (d) cambium
25. Heartwood differs from sapwood in:
(a) presence of rays and fibres
(b) absence of vessels and parenchyma
(c) having dead and non–conducting elements
(d) being susceptible to pests and pathogens
26. How does autumn wood differ from spring wood ?
(a) Broad vessels & tracheids
(b) Narrow vessels & tracheids
(c) Red colour of xylem
(d) Cambium
27. Best method to determine the age of tree is to
(a) measure its diameter
(b) count number of leaves
(c) count number of annual rings at base stem
(d) number of branches
28. Cork cambium and vascular cambium are
(a) the parts of secondary xylem and phloem.
(b) the parts of pericycle.
(c) lateral meristems.
(d) apical meristems.
29. Phellogen and phellem respectively denote
(a) cork and cork cambium,
(b) cork cambium and cork,
(c) secondary cortex and cork,
(d) cork and secondary cortex,
30. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between phloem/
bark and wood of a dicot is
(a) cork cambium (b) vascular cambium
(c) endodermis (d) both (a) & (c)
31. Cork is formed from
(a) phellogen (b) vascular cambium
(c) phloem (d) xylem
32. Main function of lenticel is
(a) transpiration (b) guttation
(c) gaseous exchange (d) both (a) & (c)
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
33. Which of the following characteristic is correct about a
monocot leaf?
(a) Having reticulate venation.
(b) Absence of bulliform cells.
(c) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade and
spongy tissues.
(d) Well differentiated mesophyll cells are present.
34. Which is not correct about sclereids?
(a) These are parenchyma cells with thickened lignified
walls.
(b) These are elongated and flexible with tapered ends.
(c) These are commonly found in the shells of nuts and
in the pulp of guava, pear, etc.
(d) These are also called stone cells.
35. Which one of the following option is correct about
bulliform/motor cell ?
(a) It is seen in grasses.
(b) It is large-sized, thin-walled colourless, vacuolate
cells on the adaxial surface.
(c) It helps in rolling of leaf to minimise water loss when
it is flaccid.
(d) All of the above
36. All the following statements regarding sieve tube elements
are correct except that
(a) their end walls have perforated sieve plates which
become impregnated with lignin at maturity.
(b) they possess peripheral cytoplasm as well as a large
vacuole.
(c) distinct proteinaceous inclusions, the P-proteins are
seen evenly distributed throughout the lumen.
(d) long, slender, tube-like structures arranged in
longitudinal series.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
50 Biology
37. Which of the following statements is not correct for
stomatal apparatus?
(a) Inner walls of guard cells are thick and in elastic.
(b) Guard cells invariably possess chloroplasts and
mitochondria.
(c) Guard cells does not possess subsidiary cells.
(d) Stomata are involved in gaseous exchange.
38. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
simple permanent tissue ?
(a) The collenchyma occurs in layers below the
epidermis in monocotyledonous plants.
(b) Sclerenchyma cells are usually dead and without
protoplasts.
(c) Xylem parenchyma cells are living and thin walled
and their cell walls are made up of lignin.
(d) The companion cells are specialized
sclerenchymatous cells.
39. Which of the following statement is not correct about
xylem?
(a) It is a conducting tissue for water and minerals from
roots to the stem and leaves.
(b) It also provides mechanical strength to the plants
parts.
(c) It is composed of four different kinds of elements,
namely, tracheids, companion cells, xylem fibres and
xylem parenchyma.
(d) Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem.
40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
epidermal tissue system?
(a) It forms the outer-most covering of the whole plant
body and comprises epidermal cells, stomata and the
epidermal appendages - the trichomes and hairs.
(b) Epidermal cells are parenchymatous with a small
amount of cytoplasm lining the cell wall and a large
vacuole.
(c) Epidermis is often covered with a waxy thick layer
called the cuticle which prevents the loss of water.
(d) All of the above
41. Read the following statements and select the correct one(s).
(i) In flowering plants, tracheids and vessels are the
main water transporting elements.
(ii) The presence of vessels is a characteristic feature of
angiosperms.
(iii) Xylem fibres have highly thinned walls and their cell
walls are made up of cellulose.
(iv) Xylem parenchyma store food materials in the form
of starch or fat and other substances like tannins.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
42. Read the following statements and answer the questions.
(i) It is made up of elongated, tapering cylindrical cells
which have dense cytoplasm and nucleus.
(ii) The cell wall is composed of cellulose and has pits
through which plasmodesmatal connections exist
between the cells.
(iii) It is absent in most of the monocotyledons.
Which part of plant tissue is being described by the above
statements?
(a) Sieve tube elements (b) Companion cells
(c) Phloem parenchyma (d) Phloem fibres
43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
the ground tissue system?
(i) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
constitute the ground tissue.
(ii) It consists of xylem and phloem.
(iii) In leaves, it consists of thin – walled chloroplast
containing cells called mesophyll.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
44. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) They are present on the stem as epidermal hairs.
(ii) They are usually multicellular.
(iii) They may be branched or unbranched and soft or
stiff.
(iv) They help in preventing water loss due to
transpiration.
Which part of epidermal tissue system is being described
by the above statements?
(a) Stomata (b) Guard cells
(c) Epidermis (d) Trichomes
45. Which of the following statements are correct about
phloem?
(i) Phloem transports food materials, usually from roots
to the other parts of the plant.
(ii) It is composed of sieve tube elements, companion
cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres.
(iii) The companion cells are specialised parenchymatous
cells which are closely associated with phloem
parenchyma.
(iv) The first formed primary phloem consists of narrow
sieve tubes and referred to as protophloem and the
later formed phloem has bigger sieve tubes and
referred to as metaphloem.
(a) Both (i) and (iv) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iv) (d) All of these
46. Which anatomy of plants is being described by the
statements given below ?
(i) The cortex consists of several layers of thin-walled
parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 51
(ii) The tangential as well as radial walls of the
endodermal cells have a depostion of waterimpermeable, waxy material -suberin- in form of
casparian strips.
(iii) Secondary growth takes place.
(iv) Pith is small or inconspicuous.
(a) Dicotyledonous root
(b) Monocotyledonous root
(c) Dicotyledonous stem
(d) Monocotyledonous stem
47. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
dorsiventral (dicotyledonous) leaf ?
(i) The adaxial (upper surface) bears more stomata than
the abaxial (lower surface) epidermis.
(ii) Mesophyll, which possesses chloroplasts and carry
out photosynthesis, is made up of parenchyma.
(iii) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and
spongy parenchyma.
(a) Both (i) and (iii) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) All of these
48. Which of the following statement is correct about heart
wood/duramen ?
(i) It does not help in water and mineral conduction.
(ii) It is dark coloured but soft.
(iii) It has tracheary elements filled with tannins, resins,
gums, oil, etc.
(iv) It is a peripheral part.
(v) They are sensitive to microbes and insects, hence
least durable.
(a) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (iv) and (v) (d) (iii) and (iv)
49. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) Cambium is very active and produces a large number
of xylary elements having vessels with wider cavities.
(ii) It is also called early wood.
(iii) It is lighter in colour and has lower density.
Which type of wood is described by the above statements?
(a) Sap wood (b) Heart wood
(c) Spring wood (d) Autumn wood
50. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) It has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis, a large
number of scattered vascular bundles and a large
parenchymatous ground tissue.
(ii) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
(iii) Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller than
the centrally located ones.
(iv) Phloem parenchyma is absent, and water- containing
cavities are present within the vascular bundles.
Which plant anatomy is being described by the above
statements?
(a) Dicotyledonous root
(b) Monocotyledonous root
(c) Dicotyledonous stem
(d) Monocotyledonous stem
51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(i) Uneven thickening of cell wall is characteristic of
sclerenchyma.
(ii) Periblem forms cortex of the stem and the root.
(iii) Tracheids are the chief water transporting elements
in gymnosperms.
(iv) Companion cell is devoid of nucleus at maturity.
(v) The commercial cork is obtained from Quercus suber.
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (v) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) only (d) (ii), (iii) and (v) only
52. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Xylem transports water and minerals.
(ii) Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and companion cells
in phloem.
(iii) The first formed primary xylem is called metaxylem.
(iv) Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are made up of
collenchymatous cells.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
53. Which type of plant tissue is being described by the given
statements?
(i) It consists of long, narrow cells with thick and lignified
cell walls having a few or numerous pits.
(ii) They are dead and without protoplasts.
(iii) On the basis of variation in form, structure, origin
and development, it may be either fibres or sclereids.
(iv) It provides mechanical support to organs.
(a) Parenchyma (b) Sclerenchyma
(b) Collenchyma (d) Chlorenchyma
54. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
(i) Cork cambium is also called phellogen.
(ii) Cork is also called phellem.
(iii) Secondary cortex is also called periderm.
(iv) Cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are
collectively called phelloderm.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
55. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?
(i) Epidermal cell has small amount of cytoplasm and a
large vacuole.
(ii) Waxy cuticle layer is absent in roots.
(iii) Root hairs are unicellular, while stem hairs / trichomes
are multicellular.
(iv) Trichomes may be branched or unbranched, soft or
stiff and prevent transpiration.
(v) Guard cells are dumbell shaped in dicots and beanshaped in monocots (e.g. grass).
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
52 Biology
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (v)
56. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lenticels occur in most woody trees.
(b) Sclerenchymatous cells are usually present in cortex.
(c) The vascular tissue system is divided into three main
zones- cortex, pericycle and pith.
(d) The conjoint vascular bundles usually have the
xylem located only on the outer side of the phloem.
57. Which of the following pair of match is not correct?
(a) Pith - Large and well developed in
monocotyledonous root.
(b) Root hairs - Helps in preventing water loss due to
transpiration
(c) Sieve tube elements - Its functions are controlled by
the nucleus of companion cells.
(d) Stomatal apparatus - Consists of stomatal aperture,
guard cells and surrounding subsidiary cells
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
58. Assertion: Cambium is a lateral meristem and cause growth
in width.
Reason: Cambium is made up of fusiform and ray initials
in stem.
59. Assertion : Higher plants have meristematic regions for
indefinite growth.
Reason : Higher plants have root and shoot apices.\
60. Assertion : In woody stems, the amount of heart wood
continues to increase year after year.
Reason : The cambial activity continues uninterrupted.
61. Assertion : Vessels are more efficient for water
conduction as compared to tracheids.
Reason : Vessels are dead and lignified.
62. Assertion: Bulliform cells are useful in the unrolling of
leaf.
Reason: Bulliform leaves store water.
63. Assertion : Long distance flow of photoassimilates in plants
occurs through sieve tubes.
Reason : Mature sieve tubes have parietal cytoplasm and
perforated sieve plates.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
64. Match the elements of xylem given in column I with their
character given in the column II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Xylem vessels I. Store food materials
B. Xylem tracheids II. Obliterated lumen
C. Xylem fibres III. Perforated plates
D. Xylem parenchyma IV. Chisel-like ends
(a) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(b) A – III, B – II,C – I, D – IV
(c) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(d) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
65. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column -I Column -II
A. Bulliform cells I. Initiation of lateral roots
B. Pericycle II. Root
C. Endarch xylem III. Grasses
D. Exarch xylem IV. Dicot leaf
E. Bundle sheath cells V. Stem
(a) A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – I, E – II
(b) A – II, B – V, C – I, D – III, E – IV
(c) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III, E – V
(d) A – III, B – I, C – V, D – II, E – IV
66. Match the terms given in column I with their funciton
given in column II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Term) (Functions)
A. Meristem I. Photosynthesis, storage
B. Parenchyma II. Mechanical support
C. Collenchyma III. Actively dividing cells
D. Sclerenchyma IV. Stomata
E. Epidermal tissue V. Sclereids
(a) A – I, B – III, C – V, D – II, E – IV
(b) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – V, E – IV
(c) A – II, B – IV, C – V, D – I, E – III
(d) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II, E – I
67. Match the followings and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
A. Cuticle I. Guard cells
B. Bulliform cells II. Outer layer
C. Stomata III. Waxy layer
D. Epidermis IV. Empty colourless cell
(a) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(c) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(d) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
68. Match the names of the structures given in column-I with
the functions given in column-II, choose the answer which
gives the correct combination of the two columns :
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 53
Column-I Column-II
(Structure) (Function)
A. Stomata I. Protection of stem
B. Bark II. Plant movement
C. Cambium III. Secondary growth
D. Cuticle IV. Transpiration
V. Prevent the loss of water
(a) A – V, B – III, C – I, D – IV
(b) A – I, B – IV, C – V, D – III
(c) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – V
69. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Spring wood or I. Lighter in colour
early wood
B. Autumn wood or II. High density
late wood III. Low density
IV. Darker in colour
V. Larger number of xylem
elements
VI. Vessels with wider cavity
VII. Lesser number of xylem
elements
VIII. Vessels with small cavity
Which of the following combination is correct ?
(a) A – II, IV, VII, VIII; B – I, III, V, VI
(b) A – I, II, VII, VIII; B – III, IV, V, VI
(c) A – I, III, V, VI; B – II, IV, VII, VIII
(d) A – I, III, VII, VIII; B – II, IV, V, VI
70. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Stele I. Innermost layer of cortex
B. Endodermis II. Suberin
C. Casparian strips III. All the tissues exterior to
vascular cambium
D. Bark IV. All the tissues inner to
endodermis
(a) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(b) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
(c) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(d) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
71. Match the terms given in column I with their features
given in column II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Terms) (Features)
A. Fibres I. Cells are living and thin
walled with cellulosic cell
wall, store food materials in
the form of starch or fat
B. Sclereids II. Main water conductive cells
of the pteridophytes and
the gymnosperms
C. Tracheids III. Thick walled, elongated
and pointed cells, generally
occurring in groups
D. Vessels IV. Long cylindrical tube like
structure and cells are
devoid of protoplasm.
Characteristic feature of
angiosperms
E. Xylem parenchyma V. Reduced form of
sclerenchyma cells with
highly thickened lignified
cellular walls that form small
bundles of durable layers of
tissue in most plants.
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V
(b) A – III, B – V, C – II, D – IV, E – I
(c) A – III, B – I, C – V, D – II, E – IV
(d) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – I, E – II
72. In the given columns, column I contain structures of female
reproductive system and column II contain its feature.
Select the correct match.
Column-I Column-II
A. Lateral meristem I. Fascicular vascular
cambium, interfascicular
cambium and cork
cambium.
B. Apical meristem II. Produces dermal tissue,
ground tissues and
vascular tissue.
C. Bast fibres III. Generally absent in primary
phloem but found in
secondary phloem.
D. Sap wood IV. Involved in the conduction
of water and minerals from
the root to leaf.
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(b) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(c) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
(d) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
73. The given figure shows apical meristem of root apex with
few part marked as A, B and C. Identify the correct labelling
of A, B and C.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
54 Biology
(a) A – Vascular structure, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap
(b) A – Cortex, B – Endodermis, C – Root cap
(c) A – Cortex, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap
(d) A – Tunica, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap
74. Identify A, B and C in the given figure of shoot apical
meristem
(a) A – Leaf primordium, B – Shoot apical meristem,
C – Axillary bud
(b) A – Leaf primordium, B – Shoot apical meristem,
C – Apical bud
(c) A – Root hair primordium, B – Root apical meristem,
C – Axillary bud
(d) A – Root hair primordium, B – Root apical meristem,
C – Terminal bud
75. Identify the types of simple tissue indicated by A, B,
C and D and their function.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(a) A – Parenchyma, Photosynthesis, Storage and
Secretion.
(b) B – Sclerenchyma Scleriods; Transport food material
(c) C – Collenchyma; Provides mechanical support to
organs.
(d) D – Sclerenchyma Fibres; Provide Mechanical
support to the growing parts of the plant such as
young stem and petiole of a leaf.
76. The given figures are types of elements (A and B) which
constitute one type of complex tissue (c) of a plant . Identify
A, B and C.
A
B
C
(a) A – Tracheid, B – Vessel, C – Xylem
(b) A – Vessel, B – Tracheild, C – Phloem
(c) A – Fibre, B – Tracheid, C – Bark
(d) A – Fibre, B – Sclereid, C – Casparian strips
77. In the given figure of phloem tissue, identify the marked
part (A, B and C) which help in maintaining the pressure
gradient in the sieve tubes.
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) None of the above
78. The given diagrams show stomatal apparatus in dicots
and monocots. Which one is correct option for A, B and C?
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 55
(a) A – Epidermal cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C –
chloroplast
(b) A – Guard cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C – Stomatal
pore
(c) A – Guard cells; B – Epidermal cells; C – Guard cells
(d) A – Epidermal cells; B – Subsidiary cells; C – Guard
cells
79. Identify types of vascular bundles in given figures A, B and C.
(A)
(B)
(C)
A B C
(a) Radial; Conjoint clos ed; Conjoint open
(b) Conjoint closed; Conjoint open; Radial
(c) Conjoint open; Conjoint clos ed; Radial
(d) Bicollateral; Concentric; Radial
80. Choose the correct labelling of (A – J) in the given figure
of T.S. of monocot root.
A
C
D
F
G
H
I
B
E
(a) A – Root hair, B – Epiblema, C – Cortex,
D – Endodermis, E – Passage cell, F – Pericycle,
G – Pith, H – Phloem, I – Metaxylem.
(b) A – Root hair, B – Epiblema, C – Cortex,
D – Endodermis, E – Passage cell, F – Pith,
G – Pericycle, H – Metaxylem, I – Phloem.
(c) A – Root hair, B – Epiblema, C – Cortex,
D – Endodermis, E – Pericycle, F – Phloem,
G – Protoxylem, I – Metaxylem
(d) A – Root hair, B – Cortex, C – Epiblema,
D – Pericycle, E – Endodermis, F – Pith, G – Phloem,
H – Protoxylem, I – Metaxylem
81. The given figure shows the T.S of dicot root. Some parts
are marked as A, B, C, D, E, & F. Choose the option which
shows the correct labelling of marked part.
E
B
A
D
C
F
(a) A – Epiblema, B – Root hair, C – Cortex,
D – Endodermis, E – Pith, F – Pericycle
(b) A – Cortex, B – Pith, C – Epiblema, D – Endodermis,
E – Root hair, F – Pericycle
(c) A – Epiblema, B – Endodermis, C – Cortex, D – Root
hair, E – Pith, F – Pericycle
(d) A – Cortex, B – Epiblema, C – Pith, D – Endodermis,
E – Root hair, F – Pericycle
82. T.S. of dicot stem is given below, certain parts have been
marked by alphabets (A – I). Choose the option which
shows their correct labelling.
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
I
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
56 Biology
(a) A – Epidermis, B – Epidermal hair, C – Parenchyma,
D – Starch sheath, E – Hypodermis (collenchyma),
F – Vascular bundle, G – Bundle cap, H – Medulla or
pith, I – Medullary rays
(b) A – Epidermal hair, B – Epidermis, C – Hypodermis
(collenchyma), D – Parenchyma, E – Endoderm is
(Starch Sheath), F – Pericycle, G – Vascular bundle,
H – Medullary rays, I – Medulla or pith
(c) A – Epidermal hair, B – Epidermis, C – Hypodermis
(collenchyma), D – Starch sheath, E – Parenchyma,
F – Vascular bundle, G – Bundle cap, H – Medulla or
pith, I – Medullary rays
(d) A – Epidermal hair, B – Epidermis, C – Parenchyma,
D – Hypodermis (collenchyma), E – Starch sheath,
F – Vascular bundle, G – Bundle cap, H – Medulla or
pith, I – Medullary rays
83. The given figure shows T.S. of monocot stem. Identify
the correct labelling of A to F marked in the given figure.
(a) A – Epidermis, B – Hypodermis, C – Vascular
bundles, D – Phloem, E – Xylem, F – Ground tissue
(b) A – Cuticle, B – Epidermis, C – Sclerenchymatous
sheath, D – Sclerenchymatous hypodermis,
E – Parenchymatous sheath, F – Phloem
(c) A – Cuticle, B – Epidermis, C – Sclerenchymatous
hypodermis, D – Sclerenchymatous sheath,
E – Parenchymatous sheath, F – Phloem
(d) A – Cuticle, B – Epidermis, C – Sclerenchymatous
hypodermis, D – Sclerenchymatous sheath,
E – Parenchymatous sheath, F – Protoxylem
84. T.S. of dicot leaf passing through the midrib is given below.
Certain parts have been marked by alphabets (A to H).
Choose the option showing their correct labelling.
(a) A–Epidermis, B–Spongy mesophyll,
C– Palisade mesophyll, D – Stomata, E– Guard cells,
F–Phloem, G–Metaxylem, H–Protoxylem
(b) A–Epidermis, B–Palisade mesophyll, C– Spongy
mesophyll, D–Sub-stomatal cavity, E–Stoma,
F–Phloem, G– Xylem, H– Bundle sheath
(c) A – Epidermis, B – Palisade mesophyll,
C–Spongy mesophyll, D–Stomata, E– Guard cells,
F–Epidermis, G– Xylem, H–Phloem
(d) A–Epidermis, C–Palisade mesophyll,
C–Spongy mesophyll, D– Stomata, E– Guard cells,
F–Phloem, G– Metaxylem, H– Protoxylem
85. T.S. of monocot leaf is given below, certain parts have
been marked by alphabets (A – G). Which one is the option
showing there correct labelling?
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
(a) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Xylem, C – Mesophyll,
D – Sub-stomatal cavity, E – Abaxial epidermis,
F – Stoma, G – Phloem
(b) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Abaxial epidermis,
C – Xylem, D – Sub-stomatal cavity, E – Stoma,
F – Mesophyll, G – Phloem
(c) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Phloem, C – Mesophyll,
D – Sub-stomatal cavity, E – Abaxial epidermis,
F – Xylem, G – Stoma
(d) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Xylem, C – Stoma,
D – Sub-stomatal cavity, E – Abaxial epidermis,
F – Phloem, G – Mesophyll
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 57
86. The given figure shows the secondary growth in a dicot
stem. Their parts are marked as A, B, C, D, E & F. Choose
the correct labelling of the parts marked as A to F.
A
B
C
D
E
F
(a) A – Phellem, B – Phellogen, C – Medullary rays,
D – Secondary xylem, E – Secondary phloem,
F – Cambium ring
(b) A – Phellem, B – Phellogen, C – Medullary rays,
D – Secondary phloem, E – Secondary xylem,
F – Cambium ring
(c) A – Phellogen, B – Phellem, C – Medullary rays,
D – Secondary xylem, E – Secondary phloem,
F – Cambium ring
(d) A – Phellem, B – Phellogen, C – Cambium ring,
D – Secondary xylem, E – Secondary phloem,
F – Medullary rays
87. Which one of the followings option shows the correct
labelling of the parts marked as A, B, C and D in the given
figure of a lenticel?
(a) A – Epidermis, B – Secondary cortex, C – Cork
cambium, D – Cork
(b) A – Pore, B – Cork cambium, C – Secondary cortex,
D – Cork
(c) A – Pore, B – Cork, C – Complimentary cells,
D – Cork cambium
(d) A – Epidermis, B – Complimentary cells, C – Cork
cambium, D – Secondary cortex
88. Which one of the following option shows the correct
labelling of the parts marked as A, B, C and D in the given
figure of a typical dicot root?
(a) A – Primary phloem, B – Vascular cambium,
C – Secondary phloem, D – Primary xylem
(b) A – Secondary phloem, B – Vascular cambium,
C – Primary phloem, D – Primary xylem
(c) A – Primary phloem, B – Primary xylem,
C – Secondary phloem, D – Vascular cambium
(d) A – Secondary phloem, B – Primary xylem,
C – Primary phloem, D – Vascular cambium
89. Which of the following figure is a type of permanent tissue
having many different types of cell?
(a)
Irregularly Thickened Primary Cell Wall
Collenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
Tissue
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
58 Biology
(c)
Trachea types by cell wall
thickening perforation plate
trachea
tracheid
libriform fiber
annular spiral reticulate
(d)
Parenchyma
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
90. Trees at sea do not have annual rings because
(a) soil is sandy.
(b) there is climatic variation.
(c) there is no marked climatic variation.
(d) there is enough moisture in the atmosphere.
91. One of the primary function of the ground tissue in a
plant is
(a) photosynthesis.
(b) to protect the plant.
(c) to anchor the plant.
(d) water and sugar conduction.
92. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove
(a) periderm (b) epidermis
(c) cuticle (d) leaves
93. Why grafting is successful in dicots ?
(a) In dicots vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.
(b) Dicots have cambium for secondary growth.
(c) In dicots vessels with elements are arranged end to end.
(d) Cork cambium is present in dicots
94. The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane
is variable because of
(a) size of leaf lamina at the node below each internode
(b) intercalary meristem
(c) shoot apical meristem
(d) position of axillary buds
95. As secondary growth proceeds, in a dicot stem, the
thickness of
(a) sapwood increases.
(b) heartwood increase.
(c) both sapwood and heartwood increases.
(d) both sapwood and heartwood remains the same.
96. The trees growing in desert will
(a) show alternate rings of xylem and sclerenchyma.
(b) have only conjunctive tissue and phloem is formed
by the activity of cambium.
(c) show distinct annual rings.
(d) not show distinct annual rings.
97. Some vascular bundles are described as open because
these
(a) are surrounded by pericycle but not endodermis.
(b) are capable of producing secondary xylem and
phloem.
(c) possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and
phloem.
(d) are not surrounded by pericycle.
98. Apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristems
because
(a) they occur in the mature region of roots and shoots
of many plants.
(b) they made up of different kinds of tissues.
(c) they involved in secondary growth.
(d) they appear early in life of a plant and contribute to
the formation of the primary plant body.
99. Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of food because
they possess
(a) bordered pits.
(b) no ends walls.
(c) broader lumen and perforated cross walls.
(d) no protoplasm.
100. A piece of wood having no vessels (trachea) must be
belonged to
(a) teak (b) mango
(c) pine (d) palm
101. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal
cells in having
(a) cytoskeleton. (b) mitochondria.
(c) endoplasmic reticulum. (d) chloroplasts.
102. Cambium is considered as a lateral meristem because
(a) it gives rise to lateral branches.
(b) it causes increase in girth.
(c) it increases height and diameter of a plant.
(d) it adds bulk to a plant.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 59
103. Tissue(s) present in an annual ring is/are
(a) secondary xylem and phloem.
(b) primary xylem and phloem.
(c) secondary xylem only.
(d) primary phloem and secondary xylem.
104. The vessel elements of angiosperms differ from other
elements of xylem in having
(a) simple pits on their radial walls.
(b) bordered pits on their lateral walls.
(c) simple and bordered pits on their end walls.
(d) simple perforation on their end walls.
105. Which of the following are present in monocot root ?
(a) conjoint, collateral, open polyarch vascular bundle.
(b) exodermis, endarch, tetrarch closed vascular bundles.
(c) suberized exodermis, casparian strip, passage cells,
cambium.
(d) suberized exodermis, polyarch xylem, pith.
106. Tissues are classified into two main groups, namely
meristematic and permanent tissues on the basis of
(a) whether the cells being able to divide or not.
(b) position of the cells.
(c) whether they are living or dead.
(d) none of the above
107. A common structural feature of vessel elements and sieve
tube elements are
(a) pores on lateral walls. (b) presence of p-protein.
(c) enucleate condition. (d) thick secondary walls.
108. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes
because they lack
(a) cambium (b) phloem fibres
(c) thick-walled tracheids (d) xylem fibres
109. A student was given a tissue to observe under the
microscope. He observes the tissue and concludes that
the tissue is a type of simple plant tissue and provides
mechanical support to young stem and petiole of leaf.
Identify the tissue.
(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma (d) Xylem parenchyma
110. In an experiment, a student cut a transverse section of
young stem of a plant which he has taken from his school
garden. After observing it under the microscope how would
he ascertain whether it is a monocot stem or a dicot stem?
(a) With the help of bulliform cells.
(b) With the help of casparian strips.
(c) With the help of vascular bundles.
(d) With the help of stomatal apparatus.
111. Which of the following process helps the trichomes in
preventing water loss?
(a) Where companion cells helps in maintaining the
pressure gradient in the sieve tubes.
(b) Where plants absorb water through the roots and then
give off water vapor through pores in their leaves.
(c) Where activity of cork cambium builds pressure on
the remaining layers peripheral to phellogen and
ultimately these layers dies and slough off.
(d) None of the above
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of
blood vessels is
(a) cuboidal epithelium
(b) columnar epithelium
(c) ciliated columnar epithelium
(d) squamous epithelium
2. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans occur in
(a) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
(b) bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(c) bile duct and oesophagus
(d) fallopian tubes and urethra
3. Mast cells are associated with
(a) exocrine glands
(b) endocrine glands
(c) areolar connective tissue
(d) neural tissue
4. Epithelial tissue is distinguished from connective tissue,
muscular, or nervous tissue by its
(a) large extracellular matrix.
(b) contractibility.
(c) ability to carry action potentials.
(d) basement membrane.
5. Compound squamous epithelium is found in
(a) stomach (b) intestine
(c) trachea (d) pharynx
6. General function of gland is to
(a) protect the body.
(b) control the function of epithelial tissues.
(c) produce and secrete specialized compounds to
control and maintain different body functions.
(d) help to maintain blood pressure and nerve actions.
7. Which of the following type of cell junction is not found
in animal tissues ?
(a) Adhering junction (b) Tight junction
(c) Gap junction (d) Plasmodesmata
8. The only type of cell seen in a tendon is
(a) muscle fibres (b) reticular cells
(c) collagenous cells (d) fibroblasts
9. The chondrocytes of connective tissue are
(a) fibre secreting cells (b) bone forming cells
(c) cartilage cells (d) bone eating cells
10. The shape of a person’s ear is mainly due to
(a) dense regular connective tissue
(b) dense irregular connective tissue
(c) elastic cartilage
(d) fibrocartilage
11. Tendons and ligaments are the examples of
(a) areolar connective tissue
(b) adipose tissue
(c) dense regular connective tissue
(d) loose connective tissue
12. Muscle tissue cells are contractile, which means they
(a) are responsible for the production and secretion of
enzymes.
(b) are specialized in contraction and relaxation.
(c) help in the movement of involuntary organs only.
(d) all of the above
13. In all connective tissues, except which of the following,
the cells secrete fibres of collagen or elastin protein ?
(a) Bone
(b) Cartilage
(c) Areolar connective tissue
(d) Fluid connective tissue
14. Three essential components of most neurons are
(a) simple epithelium, extracellular matrix and nerves.
(b) axon, dendrites and cell body.
(c) nerve cells, synapse and neuroglia.
(d) mylein sheeth, node of Ranvier and Schwann cells.
15. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external
ears and in the nose tip are examples of
(a) ligament (b) areolar tissue
(c) bone (d) cartilage
16. The fibres of which of the following muscles are fusiform
and do not show striations
(a) Skeletal muscles (b) Cardiac muscles
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Smooth muscles Chapter 7
Uvtwevwtcn"Qticpkucvkqp"kp
Cpkocnu
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Structural Organisation in Animals 61
17. Intercalated discs are the communication junctions
between the cells of
(a) cardiac muscles (b) striped muscles
(c) adipose tissue (d) nerve and striated
muscles
18. Smooth muscles are______.
(a) voluntary, branched, uninucleate
(b) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(c) involuntary, cylindrical, multinucleate
(d) involuntary, spindle shaped, uninucleated, tapering
19. Neuroglia are
(a) excitable cells of neural tissue.
(b) supporting and non-excitable cells of neural tissue.
(c) two to three times in volume of neural tissue.
(d) protective and excitable cells of neural tissue.
20. Which one of the following pairs of structures
distinguishe a nerve cell from other types of cell ?
(a) Vacuoles and Fibres
(b) Flagellum and Medullary sheath
(c) Nucleus and Mitochondria
(d) Cell body and Dendrites
21. Spermathecae in Pheretima is located in the segments:
(a) 14 to 18 (b) 10 to 13
(c) 6 to 10 (d) 6 to 9
22. In earthworms setae are present in all segments except
(a) first and the last segments
(b) first segment and the clitellum
(c) first segment
(d) clitellum and last segments
23. About how many times does the nymph of the
Periplaneta americana undergo moulting before
becoming an adult?
(a) 4 (b) 2
(c) 17 (d) 13
24. Cockroaches are brown or black bodied animals that are
included in class _______ of phylum _______.
(a) reptilia; annelida (b) insecta; arthropoda
(c) insecta; annelida (d) reptilia; arthropoda
25. Male cockroach can be identified from the female by the
presence of
(a) long antennae (b) wingless body
(c) elongated abdomen (d) anal styles
26. In cockroach, the testes are present in
(a) 3, 4, 5 abdominal segments
(b) 4, 5, 6 abdominal segments
(c) 5, 6, 7 abdominal segments
(d) 6, 7, 8 abdominal segments
27. The mouth parts of cockroach are
(a) cutting and biting type.
(b) piercing and sucking type.
(c) sucking and rasping type.
(d) sucking and siphoning type.
28. Phallic organs in cockroach are related to
(a) male excretory system.
(b) male reproductive system.
(c) female excretory system.
(d) female reproductive system.
29. Gizzard (proventriculus) in cockroach lies between
(a) oesophagus and stomach
(b) crop and mesenteron
(c) mesenteron and ileum
(d) oesophagus and crop
30. A frog never drinks water but absorbs it through one of
its respiratory organ. Identify the organ.
(a) Skin (b) Lung
(c) Buccal cavity (d) None of the above.
31. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature
of frog?
(a) The skin is moist and slimy
(b) Each of the fore limbs and hind limbs end in five digits
(c) Hepatic portal and renal portal systems are present
(d) Skin, buccal cavity and lungs are the respiratory
organs
32. The sensory papillae in frogs are associated with
(a) smell (b) hearing
(c) respiration (d) touch
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
33. Which statement regarding anal cerci and anal style in
cockroach is correct?
(a) Anal cerci are absent but anal styles are present in male.
(b) Anal cerci are absent and anal styles are present in
female.
(c) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are present in
male.
(d) Anal styles are absent and anal cerci are present in
female.
34. Select the correct statement regarding Periplaneta
americana
(a) There are 16 very long malpighian tubules present at
the junctions of midgut and hindgut.
(b) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts.
(c) Nervous system is located ventrally and consists of
segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of
longitudinal connectives.
(d) Females bear a pair of short thread like anal styles.
35. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
cuboidal epithelium ?
(a) It is an epithelial tissue.
(b) It is composed of a single layer of cube-like cells.
(c) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air
sacs of lungs.
(d) Secretion and absorption are the main functions of
these tissue.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
62 Biology
36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding compound epithelium ?
(a) It is made of more than one layer of cells and thus
has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
(b) Their main function is to provide protection against
chemical and mechanical stresses.
(c) They cover the dry surface of the skin, moist surface
of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of
salivary glands and pancreatic ducts.
(d) All of the above
37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
muscle tissue ?
(a) Each muscle is made of many long, cylindrical fibres
arranged in parallel arrays.
(b) Muscle fibres contract (shorten) in response to
stimulation, then relax (lengthen) and return to their
uncontracted state in a coordinated fashion.
(c) Muscles play an active role in all movements of the
body.
(d) All of the above
38. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding
neural tissue ?
(a) It exerts the greatest control over the body’s
responsiveness to changing conditions.
(b) Chondrocytes, the unit of neural system are excitable
cells.
(c) Neuroglial cells protect and support neurons.
(d) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical
disturbance is generated.
39. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
Female reproductive system of earthworm ?
(a) It consists of two large ovaries, lying laterally in the
6
th – 7th abdominal segments.
(b) Each ovary is formed of a group of five ovarian
tubules or ovarioles, containing a chain of
developing ova.
(c) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 5th segment
which opens into the genital chamber.
(d) None of the above
40. Which of the following statement(s) regarding cell
junctions is/are correct ?
(a) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking
across a tissue.
(b) Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep
neighbouring cells together.
(c) Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with
each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining
cells, for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and
sometimes big molecules.
(d) All of the above
41. Consider the following statements regarding cockroach
and mark the correct option.
(i) Head is formed by the fusion of 6-segments.
(ii) Mouth parts are biting and chewing type.
(iii) Crop is the part of mid gut.
(a) Only (ii) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) Only (iii) is correct
42. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) It is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with
irregular boundaries.
(ii) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and air
sacs of lungs.
(iii) They are involved in functions like forming a diffusion
boundary.
Which of the following characteristics of tissue is being
described by the above statements ?
(a) Squamous epithelium (b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Ciliated epithelium (d) Compound epithelium
43. Which of the following type of tissue is being described
by the given statements ?
(i) They are named because of their special function of
linking and supporting other tissues/organs of the
body.
(ii) They include cartilage, bone, adipose and blood.
(iii) They provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to
the tissue.
(iv) They also secrete modified polysaccharides, which
accumulate between cells and fibres and act as matrix.
(a) Epithelial tissue (b) Connective tissue
(c) Muscle tissue (d) Neural tissue
44. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct ?
(i) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts,
macrophages and mast cells.
(ii) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective tissue
located mainly beneath the skin.
(iii) Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense
irregular connective tissue.
(iv) Cartilage, bones and blood are various types of
specialized connective tissue.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iv)
(c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
45. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(i) They have a hard and non-pliable ground substance
rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(ii) They support and protect softer tissues and organs.
(iii) Osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae.
(iv) They also interact with skeletal muscles attached to
them to bring about movements.
Which of the following type of tissue is being described
by above statements ?
(a) Cartilage (b) Bone
(c) Blood (d) Neurons
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Structural Organisation in Animals 63
46. Which of the following type of muscle tissue is being
described on the basis of given statements ?
(i) These muscle fibres taper at both ends and do not
show striations.
(ii) The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels,
stomach and intestine contain this type of muscle
tissue.
(iii) They are ‘involuntary’ as their function cannot be
directly controlled.
(a) Skeletal muscle (b) Smooth muscle
(c) Cardiac muscle (d) All of these
47. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
nervous system of cockroach ?
(i) It consists of a series of fused segmentally arranged
ganglia joined by paired longitudinal connectives
on the ventral side.
(ii) There are six ganglia lie in the thorax, and three in the
abdomen.
(iii) The sense organs are antennae, eyes, maxillary
pulps, labial pulps and anal cerci etc.
(iv) Each eye consists of about 5000 hexagonal ommatidia.
(a) Both (i) and (iii) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) All of these
48. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding respiratory system of cockroach ?
(i) It consists of a network of trachea, that open through
12 pairs of small holes called spiracles present on
the lateral side of the body.
(ii) Thin branching tubes carry oxygen from the air to all
the parts.
(iii) The opening of the spiracles is regulated by
sphincters.
(iv) Exchange of gases take place at the tracheoles by
diffusion.
(a) Only (i) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
49. Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding
digestive system of cockroach ?
(i) Mouth opens into a short tubular pharynx, leading
to a narrow tubular passage called oesophagus.
(ii) Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles.
(iii) A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric
caecae is present at the junction of foregut and
midgut, which secrete digestive juice.
(iv) At the junction of midgut and hindgut is present
another ring of 100-150 yellow coloured thin
filamentous malphigian tubules which help in removal
of excretory products from haemolymph.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) All of these
50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding excretory system of cockroach ?
(i) Excretion is performed by malphigian tubules.
(ii) They absorb nitrogenous waste products and
convert them into uric acid which is excreted out
through hindgut. Hence, this insect called
ammonetelic.
(iii) In addition, fat body, nephrocytes and uricose glands
also help in excretion.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding cockroaches ?
(i) The body of the cockroach is segmented and
divisible into three distinct regions – head, thorax
and abdomen.
(ii) Blood vascular system is of closed type.
(iii) They are monoecious and both sexes have well
developed reproductive organs.
(iv) The development of P. americana is
paurometabolus, meaning there is development
through nymphal stage.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iv) (d) All of these
52. Read the following statements.
(i) It is a contractile tissue present only in the heart.
(ii) Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of these
cells and make them stick together.
(iii) Communication juntions at some fusion points allow
the cells to contract as a unit, i.e., when one cell
receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also
stimulated to contract.
Which of the following type of tissue is being described
by the above statements ?
(a) Skeletal muscle (b) Cardiac muscle
(c) Smooth muscle (d) Cartilage
53. Which of the follwing statement(s) is/are correct ?
(i) Cockroaches are brown or black bodied animals that
are included in class insecta of phylum arthropoda.
(ii) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal styles
which are absent in females.
(iii) Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular
tube lying along mid dorsal line of thorax and
abdomen.
(iv) The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to
reach the adult form.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) All of the above
54. Which of the following statements regarding frog is not
correct?
(a) Fertilization is external and takes place in water.
(b) External ear and tympanum can be seen externally.
(c) In females the ureters and oviduct open separately
in the cloaca.
(d) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs
and vocal sac are present in male frog.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
64 Biology
ASSERTION/REASON QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
55. Assertion: Typhlosole increases the effective area of
absorption in the intestine.
Reason: Typhlosole, present in the intestine, is the
characteristic feature of cockroach.
56. Assertion : The squamous epithelium is made of a single
thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
Reason : They are found in walls of blood vessels and air
sacs of wings.
57. Assertion : Connective tissues are most aboundant and
help in linking and supporting other tissues organ of the
body.
Reason : In all connective tissues except blood the cells
secrete collagen or elastin.
58. Assertion : Basophils cells secrete histamine.
Reason : Histamine is a vasoconstrictor.
59. Assertion : Numerous minute pores called nephridio pores
open on the surface of the body of earthworm.
Reason : In each body segment, there are rows of S-Shaped
setae present.
60. Assertion: In cockroaches the development is
paurometabolous.
Reason : Nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to
reach the adult form.
61. Assertion : Intercalated discs are important regions of
cardiac muscle cells.
Reason : Intercalated discs function as boosters for muscle
contraction waves.
62. Assertion : Cartilage (protein matrix) and bone (calcium
matrix) are rigid connective tissue.
Reason : Blood is connective tissue in which plasma is
the matrix.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
63. Match the epithetial tissue given in column-I with its
location given in column-II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
(Epithelial tissue) (Location)
A. Cuboidal I. Epidermis of skin
B. Ciliated II. Inner lining of blood vessels
C. Columnar III. Inner surface of gall bladder
D. Squamous IV. Inner lining of fallopian tube
E. Keratinized V. Lining of pancreatic duct
squamous
(a) A – V; B– IV; C – II; D – III; E – I
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I
(c) A – V; B– IV; C – III; D – II; E – I
(d) A – III; B– IV; C – V; D – I; E – II
64. Match column-I (type of epithelium) with column-II
(Description) and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Types of epithelium) (Description)
A. Squamous I. It is composed of a
epithelium single-layer of cube-like
cells
B. Cuboidal II. Having cilia on their free
epithelium surface
C. Columnar III. It is composed of a single
epithelium layer of tall and slender
cells
D. Ciliated IV. It is made up of a single thin
epithelium layer of flattened cells with
irregular boundaries
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(b) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
65. Match the types of connective tissue given in column-I
with their examples given column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(Types of connective) (Examples)
A. Loose connective I. Tendons and ligaments
tissue
B. Dense regular II. Skin
tissue
C. Dense irregular III. Cartilage, bones, blood
tissue
D. Specialized IV. Fibroblasts, macrophages
connective tissue and mast cells
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(b) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
66. Match the terms given in column-I with their feature given
in column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Terms) (Features)
A. Exocrine gland I. They help to stop substances
from leaking across a tissue
B. Endocrine gland II. Hormones are secreted
directly into the fluid bathing
the gland
C. Tight junctions III. They perform cementing to
keep neighbouring cells
together.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Structural Organisation in Animals 65
D. Adhering junctions IV. Secretes mucus, saliva,
earwax, oil, milk, digestive
enzymes and other cell
products
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
67. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Periplaneta I. Hepatic caecae
americana
B. A ring of 6-8 blind II. Phylum arthropoda
tubules
C. Vascular system III. Spiracles
D. 10 pairs of small IV. Malpighian tubules
holes
E. Excretion V. Open type
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – II; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – IV
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I
68. Find the incorrectly matched pair.
(a) Unicellular glandular cells - Goblet cell
(b) Saliva - Exocrine secretion
(c) Fusiform fibres - Smooth muscle
(d) Cartilage - Areolar tissue
69. Which of the following types of connective tissue is
mismatched with its matrix ?
(a) Areolar – Loosely packed matrix of protein fibres
(b) Bone – Mineralized matrix
(c) Cartilage – Highly vascular matrix
(d) Blood – Liquid matrix
70. Match the description given in column I with their examples
given in column II and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
(Description) (Example)
A. Aquatic respiratory I. Skin
organ
B. Organ which acts II. Ureter
urogenital duct and
opens into the cloaca
C. A small median chamber III. Cloaca
that is used to pass faecal
matter, urine and sperms
to the exterior
D. A triangular structure IV. Sinus venosus
which joins the right
atrium and receives blood
through vena cava
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
71. The diagram given below represents the reproductive
organ of male cockroach. Choose the correct labelling of
the part of marked as A, B, C and D.
A
B
D
C
(a) A – 8th sternum, B - Anal cercus, C - 10th tergum,
D - Anal style
(b) A - 10th tergum, B - Anal cercus, C - Anal style,
D - 8th sternum
(c) A - Anal style, B - Anal cercus, C - 10th tergum,
D- 8th sternum
(d) A - Anal cercus, B - 8th sternum, C - 10th tergum,
D - Anal style.
72. In the given diagram of areolar connective tissue, the
different cells and parts have been marked by alphabets
(A, B, C & D). Choose the answer in which these alphabets
correctly match with the parts and cells they indicate.
A
B
C
D
Matrix
(a) A-Adipocyte, B-Collagen fibres, C-Microfilament,
D-Mast cells
(b) A-Macrophage, B-Collagen fibres, C-Microfilament,
D-Mast cells
(c) A-Macrophage, B-Collagen fibres, C-Microtubule,
D-RBC
(d) A-Macrophage, B-Fibroblast, C-Collagen fibres,
D-Mast cells
73. Identify figures-I and II.
Fig-I Fig-II
Matrix
Matrix
Fibroblast
Fibroblast
Collagen Fibre
Collagen
Fibre
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
66 Biology
Figure I Figure II
(a) Dense regular Dense irregular
connective tissue, connective tissue
(b) Loose irregular Loose regular
connective tissue, connective tissue
(c) Adipose tissue, Specialized connective tissue
(d) Connective tissue Areolar tissue
proper
74. The intercellular material of the given figure is solid and
resists compression. Identify the figure and the label
marked as A & B.
A
B
Fig
Fig. A B
Cartilage
Cartilage
Bone
Bone
Collagen
Collagen
Microtubule
Collagen fibres
Chondrocyte
Chondroclast
Chondroclast
Osteoblast
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
75. The following figure shows the extarnal features of
cockroach with few structures labelled as A, B, C, D, and E.
Identify A to E .
(a) A- Mesothorax, B-Pronotum, C-Metathorax,
D-Tegmina, E-Anal style
(b) A- Pronotum, B-Metathorax, C-Mesothorax,
D-Tegmina, E-Sterna
(c) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax,
D-Tegmina, E-Anal cerci
(d) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax,
D-Tegmina, E-Anal style
76. The figure given below shows the head region of
cockroach. Identify A to F.
Antennae A
B
C
D
E F
(a) A- Compound eye, B-Ocellus, C-Maxilla, DMandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium
(b) A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible, DMaxilla, E-Labrum, F-Labium
(c) A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible, DMaxilla, E-Labium, F-Labrum
(d) A- Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla, DMandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium
77. The given figure shows the digestive system of
cockroach with few structures marked as A, B, C and D.
Identify structures A to D.
(a) A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Hepatic caecae, D-Malpighian
tubules
(b) A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caecae, D-Malpighian
tubules
(c) A- Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Malpighian tubules, D-Hepatic
caecae
(d) A- Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules, D-Hepatic
caecae
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Structural Organisation in Animals 67
78. The given figure shows open circulatory system of
cockroach with structure marked as A, B and C. Which
structure is a 13 pair of wing shaped involuntary muscles
and mantain blood circulation?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) Both A nad B
79. Figure given below shows reproductive system of female
cockroach. The correct labellings indicated by alphabets
(A, B & C) are respectively
(a) A-Spermatheca, B-Collaterial glands, C-Gonapophyses
(b) A-Phallic gland, B-Collaterial glands, C-Gonapophyses
(c) A-Spermatheca, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Gonapophyses
(d) A-Spermatheca, B-Collateral glands, C-Tegmina
80. Identify the figure with its correct function
Fig :. Adipose connective tissue
(a) Areolar connective tissue – Serves as a support
framework for epithelium.
(b) Adipose tissue – Store fats and act as heat insulators.
(c) Dense regular tissue – Provide flexibility.
(d) Dense irregular tissue – Provide strength and elasticity.
81. The following figures A, B and C are types of muscle
tissue. Identify A, B and C.
(A) (B) (C)
(a) A – Smooth muscle, B – Cardiac muscle, C – Skeletal
muscle
(b) A – Skeletal muscle, B – Smooth muscle, C – Cardiac
muscle
(c) A – Cardiac muscle, B – Smooth muscle, C – Skeletal
muscle
(d) A – Smooth muscle, B –Skeletal muscle , C – Cardiac
muscle
82. The given figure shows the nephridial system of
earthworm and answer the question.
X
Select the option which shows the correct identification
and the function of the structure marked as "X".
(a) Lateral heart. It is a blood pumping organ.
(b) Calciferous glands. They neutralize the humic acid
present in humus.
(c) Nephridia. It regulates the volume and composition
of the body fluids.
(d) Blood glands. They produce blood cells and
haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma.
83. The figure given below shows the alimentary canal of
cockroach with few structures labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Identify
the correct identification of the structure which is also called
proventriculus and helps in grinding the food particles.
1
2
3
4
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
68 Biology
84. Refer the given figure and identify the correct
characteristic feature.
(i) It is a type of loose connective tissue.
(ii) It contains fibroblast, macrophages, collagen fibres
and mast cells.
(iii) The cells of this tissue are specialized to store fats.
(iv) The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels,
stomach and intestine contains this type of tissue.
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (iii) & (iv)
85. A student was given a sample of two tissues. He observes
the tissues under the microscope and draws their figures
(1 and 2) as shown below.
1 2
Identify the tissues (1 and 2).
(a) 1: Columnar cells bearing cilia; 2: Unicellular glandular
epithelium
(b) 1: Cuboidal cells bearing cilia; 2: Multicellular
glandular epithelium
(c) 1: Compound cells bearing cilia; 2: Unicellular
glandular epithelium
(d) 1: Columnar cells bearing cilia; 2: Multicellular
glandular epithelium
86. Refer the given figure of female reproductive system of
cockroach and identify the correct labels (marked as 1, 2,
3 and 4) which are collectively called genital pouch.
Spermatheca
gonapophyses
Ovary
Common
oviduct
or vagina
1
2
3
4
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 1 & 3
(c) 2 & 4 (d) 3 & 4
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
87. The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory pigment.
It means that
(a) cockroach does not respire.
(b) respiration is anaerobic.
(c) oxygen goes directly into tissues by diffusion.
(d) oxygen goes directly into tissues by intracellular
capillary system.
88. If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still be alive for
as long as one week. Their is because of
(a) the body which is covered with hard chitinous
exoskeleton.
(b) head which holds a bit of nervous system.
(c) head which is of no use.
(d) food capturing appratus which is found elsewhere.
89. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken?
(a) No movements at joints.
(b) Bones will become fixed.
(c) Bones will become unfixed.
(d) Bone will move freely at joints.
90. Four healthy people in their twenties faced injuries resulting
in damage and death of a few cells given below. Which of
the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?
(a) Liver cells
(b) Neurons
(c) Malpighian layer of the skin
(d) Osteocytes
91. In cockroach head can move in all directions due to
(a) absence of neck.
(b) fusion of all 6 segments of head.
(c) flexible neck.
(d) head is small and light weight.
92. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a
cockroach nymph?
(a) Development of anal cerci.
(b) Development of both forewings and hind wings.
(c) Development labium.
(d) Mandibles become harder.
93. Choose the correct sequence of alimentary canal of
Cockroach
(a) Gizzard ® Crop ® Malphigian tubules ® Hepatic
caeca ® Rectum.
(b) Gizzard ® Hepatic caeca ® Crop ® Rectum ®
Malphigian tubules.
(c) Crop ® Gizzard ® Hepatic caeca ® Malphigian
tubules ® Rectum.
(d) Crop ® Hepatic caeca ® Gizzard ® Rectum ®
Malphigian tubules.
94. Lack of blood supply and presence of the noncellular
basement membrane are the characteristics of the
(a) muscular tissue
(b) fluid connective tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) nervous tissue
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Structural Organisation in Animals 69
95. The secretions of endocrine glands are released directly
(a) into the skin surface (b) into the blood stream
(c) into a gland duct (d) into the brain tissue
96. Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following
an injury because
(a) cartilage cells cannot reproduce.
(b) they lack direct blood supplies.
(c) the intercellular material is missing.
(d) cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids.
97. When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack,
they are usually replaced by
(a) connective tissue cells
(b) new smooth muscle cells
(c) new cardiac muscle cells
(d) epithelial cells
98. Which of the following vertebrate tissues would be an
excellent source of collagen?
(a) Liver (b) Nerve
(c) Muscle (d) Tendon
99. Which of the following is involved in the production of
new blood cells ?
(a) Adipose cell (b) Bone marrow
(c) Liver (d) Matrix
100. The major functions of loose connective tissue include
(a) occupying spaces between organs and supporting
epithelia.
(b) supporting and surrounding blood vessels and
nerves
(c) cushioning organs, storing lipids and facilitating
diffusion.
(d) All of the above
101. Nervous tissue cells that play several supporting roles
but do not transmit impulses are called
(a) glial cells (b) dendrites
(c) nerve cells (d) neurons
102. Hair present in the skin are
(a) epidermal in origin and made of dead cells.
(b) epidermal in origin and made of living cells.
(c) dermal in origin and made of living cells.
(d) dermal in origin and made of dead cells.
103 In which one of the following preparations, cell junctions
come across most frequently ?
(a) Ligament (b) Tendon
(c) Cartilage (d) Ciliated epithelium
104. Non-ciliated simple columnar epithelium often contains
_______, which increase the surface area for secretion
and absorption.
(a) flagella (b) collagen fibres
(c) microvilli (d) all of these
105. What are the three basic components of connective
tissues?
(a) Ground substance, cells and basement membrane
(b) Cartilage, intercellular matrix and serum
(c) Cells, protein fibers and ground substance
(d) Collagen, elastin and reticular fibers
106. A student was given a sample of tissue. He observes and
concludes the following characters.
(i) The cells are composed of a single layer of tall and
slender cells.
(ii) Their nuclei are located at the base.
(iii) Free surface may have microvilli.
(iv) It is found in the lining of stomach and intestine
(v) They help in secretion and absorption.
Based on the above features identify the epithelium.
(a) Cuboidal epithelium
(b) Columnar Epithelium
(c) Squamous epithelium
(d) Glandular epithelium
107. Which of the following animal's sensory system does not
has eyes but does possess light and touch sensitive
organs (receptor cells) to distinguish the light intensities
and to feel the vibrations in the ground?
(a) Frog (b) Snake
(c) Earthworm (d) Cockroach
108. A student was given a specimen to identify on the basis
of the characteristics given below.
(i) They are metamerically segmented.
(ii) Presence of closed circulatory system.
(iii) They have circular and longitudinal muscles for
locomotion.
Identify the specimen.
(a) Frog (b) Pheretima
(c) Cockroach (d) Rabbit
109. Which of the following animals maintain ecological
balance?
(a) Frog (b) Rabbit
(c) Earthworm (d) Cockroach
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 8
Cgnn : Vjg ×pkv qh Îkhg
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Who proposed the theory that "Cells arise only from the
pre-existing cells"?
(a) Mohl (b) Virchow
(c) Haeckel (d) Brown
2. An organalle devoid of membrane covering is
(a) vacuole (b) ribosome
(c) peroxisome (d) lysosome
3. Difference between the prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
in having
(a) cell wall (b) nuclear membrane
(c) ribosome (d) none of these
4. Membranous extensions in blue green algae are known
as
(a) phytochrome (b) chromatophore
(c) mesosome (d) pneumatophore
5. Extension of plasma membrane in prokaryotic cell is
(a) mesosome (b) haploid
(c) ribosome (d) none of these
6. Polysome is a chain of
(a) oxysomes (b) sphaerosomes
(c) ribosomes (d) dictyosomes
7. Integral proteins of cell membrane occur on/in
(a) inner surfaces
(b) outer surfaces
(c) phospholipid matrix
(d) inner and outer surfaces
8. Active transport across biomembrane involves
(a) production of ATP (b) requirement of energy
(c) production of toxin (d) release of energy
9. The membrane of the erythrocytes has approximately
___% of proteins and ___% lipids.
(a) 42, 50 (b) 52, 40
(c) 50, 50 (d) 60, 40
10. The lipid component of the membrane mainly consists
of __________.
(a) polysaccharides (b) phosphoglyceride
(c) monosaccharaides (d) both (a) and (c)
11. The best material for study of structure of cell membrane
is
(a) RBC of human (b) RBC of frog
(c) cheek cell of human (d) liver cell of rat
12. In which of the following the cells are held together by a
Ca-pectate layer?
(a) Primary cell wall (b) Secondary cell wall
(c) Middle lamella (d) Tertiary cell wall
13. Which one of the following structures between two
adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?
(a) Plasmodesmata (b) Plastoquinones
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Plasmalemma
14. Which of the following will determines the shape of the
cells and provides a strong structural support to prevent
the bacterium from bursting or collapsing?
(a) Plasmids (b) Cell wall
(c) Mesosome (d) Cell membrane
15. Which one of the following is not considered as part of
the endomembrane system?
(a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome
(c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome
16. Function of RER is
(a) autolysis
(b) protein synthesis
(c) lipid synthesis
d) carbohydrate synthesis
17. Which of the following cell organelles were discovered
after the introduction of electron microscope?
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Both (b) and (c)
18. _______________ is the important site of formation
of glycoproteins and golycolipids.
(a) SER (b) Lysosome
(c) Golgi apparatus (d) Mitochondria
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Cell : The Unit of Life 71
19. Golgi apparatus is concerned with
(a) excretion (b) secretion
(c) ATP synthesis (d) RNA synthesis
20. Lysosomes contain
(a) carbohydrates (b) hormones
(c) nucleic acids (d) hydrolases.
21. Function of contractile vacuole in Amoeba is
(a) excretion and osmoregulation.
(b) digestion and respiration.
(c) osmoregulation and transportation.
(d) none of the above.
22. Both the membranes of mitochondrion are
(a) structurally different but functionally similar.
(b) structurally as well as functionally different.
(c) structurally similar but functionally different.
(d) structurally different but functionally similar.
23. Plastids are found in
(a) all animal cells.
(b) some animal cells.
(c) all plant cells.
(d) all plant cells and euglenoides.
24. Plastids storing fat are called
(a) Elaioplasts (b) Sphaerosomes
(c) Aleuroplasts (d) Pyrenoids
25. Grana are
(a) protein storing plastids.
(b) coloured plastids.
(c) stacks of thylakoids.
(d) individual thylakoids present in stroma.
26. A component of cytoskeleton is
(a) microtubule (b) bone
(c) chitin (d) cartilage.
27. The cytoskeleton is a proteinaceous network of fibres in
the cytoplasm. It is involved in
(a) mechanical support. (b) motility.
(c) maintenace of cell-shape. (d) all of these
28. Axoneme with 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement occurs in
(a) cilia (b) flagella
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) centriole
29. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella differ in the
(a) type of movement and placement.
(b) location and mode of functioning.
(c) microtubular structure and function.
(d) microtubular organization and type of movement.
30. Basal bodies are associated with the formation of
(a) phragmoplast (b) cilia and flagella
(c) cell plate (d) kinetochore
31. Centrioles and centrosomes occur in the cells of
(a) green plants
(b) animals
(c) bacteria and cyanobacteria
(d) both (b) and (c)
32. Nucleolus is
(a) rounded structure found in cytoplasm near nucleus.
(b) rounded structure inside nucleus and having rRNA.
(c) rod-shaped structure in cytoplasm near the nucleus.
(d) none of the above.
33. Satellite means
(a) terminal part of the chromosome beyond secondary
constriction.
(b) terminal part of the chromosome beyond primary
constriction.
(c) terminal part of chromosome beyond tertiary
constriction.
(d) none of the above
34. Chromosomes having equal or almost equal arms are
called
(a) metacentric (b) acrocentric
(c) polycentric (d) acentric.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
35. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
vacuole?
(a) It is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins
and lipids.
(b) It is membrane-bound and contains water and
excretory substances.
(c) It lacks membrane and contains air.
(d) It lacks membrane and contains water and excretory
substances.
36. Which of the following statement of a bacterial cell is/
are correct?
(i) Mesosome is formed by the extensions of plasma
membrane into the cell.
(ii) The pili are elongated tubular structures made up
of a protein.
(iii) Flagellum is composed of filament, hook and basal
body.
(iv) Ribosomes are about 30 nm by 50 nm in size.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) All of the above
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) None of the above
37. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
(a) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in
mitochondria.
(b) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in
cytoplasm.
(c) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclears
envelope and endoplasmic reticulum.
(d) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
72 Biology
38. According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic model” cell
membranes are semi-fluid, where lipids and integral
proteins can diffuse randomly. In recent years, this model
has been modified in several respects. In this regard,
which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Proteins in cell membranes can travel within the
lipid bilayer.
(b) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop movements in
the lipid bilayer.
(c) Proteins can remain confined within certain
domains of the membrane.
(d) Many proteins remain completely embedded within
the lipid bilayer.
39. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are
(a) specialized granules responsible for colouration of
cells.
(b) structures responsible for organizing the shape of
the organism.
(c) inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for
carrying out various metabolic activities.
(d) internal membrane system which becomes
extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria.
40. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) The ribosomes of a polysome translate the mRNA
into protein.
(b) Mitochondria divide by fragmentation.
(c) All cell arise from pre-existing cells.
(d) The lipid component of the membrane mainly
consists of phosphoglycerides.
41. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(a) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell (0.3 µ).
(b) Bacteria are 3 to 5 µm in size.
(c) The largest cell is the egg of an ostrich.
(d) Nerve cells are some of the smallest cells.
42. Select the incorrect statement about prokaryotic
ribosomes.
(a) 50S and 30S subunits unite to form 70S ribosomes.
(b) Polysome/polyribosome consists of many
ribosomes only.
(c) Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis.
(d) Polysome indicate the synthesis of identical
poolypeptide in multiple copies.
43. Select the statements which are related to Schwann.
(i) He reported that cells have a thin outer layer which
is today known as plasma membrane
(ii) Cell wall is a unique character of the plant cell.
(iii) Body of plants and animals are composed of cells
and products of cells.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
44. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(i) The shape of the cells may vary with the function
they perform.
(ii) Human RBC is about 7.0 mm in diameter.
(iii) Cytoplasm is the main area of cellular activities.
(iv) Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm to
keep the cell in the living state.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) Only (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iv) (d) None of the above
45. Study the following statements on cilium or flagellum
and answer the question.
(i) Cilium / Flagellum contains an outer ring of nine
doublet microtubules surrounding two singlet
microtubules.
(ii) Cilia are smaller which work like oars, causing the
movement of either the cells or surrounding fluid.
(iii) Flagella are comparatively longer and responsible
for cell movement.
(iv) Cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma
membrane.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
46. Which of the following is not the function of cell wall?
(i) Provides shape to the cell.
(ii) Protects the cell from mechanical damage and
infection.
(iii) Helps in cell to cell interaction.
(iv) Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv)
(c) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of the above
47. Read the folowing statements and identify the correct
option.
(i) Contractile vacuole takes part in osmoregulation
and excretion.
(ii) Food vacuole is formed by engulfing the food
particles.
(iii) The vacuole is bound by a double membrane called
tonoplast.
(iv) Vacuole can occupy upto 90 percent of the volume
of the cell.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) None of the above
48. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
(i) Plant cells have centrioles which are absent in
almost all animal cells.
(ii) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.
(iii) The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium
carbonate which holds the different neighbouring
cells together.
(iv) In animal cell, steroidal hormones are synthesized
by smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Of the above statements
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Cell : The Unit of Life 73
49. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(i) The endomembrane system includes plasma
membrane, ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and
vacuoles.
(ii) ER helps in the transport of substances, synthesis
of proteins, lipoproteins and glycogen.
(iii) Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.
(iv) Mitochondria help in oxidative phosphorylation and
generation of ATP.
(a) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (b) (i) only
(c) (ii) only (d) (iii) only
50. Choose the wrong statements regarding bacterial cell
(i) Glycocalyx is the outermost envelope in bacteria.
(ii) The glycocalyx could be a loose sheath called
capsule.
(iii) The glycocalyx may be thick and tough called slime
layer.
(iv) A special structure formed by the plasma membrane
is called mesosome.
(v) Small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the cell
are called fimbriae.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
51. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) In prokaryotic cells, a special membranous
structure formed by the extension of the plasma
membrane into the cell is known as polysome.
(ii) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site
for synthesis of glycoproteins.
(iii) RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the whole
biosphere.
(iv) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes are
not considered as part of endomembrane system.
Of the above statements
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
52. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct statement.
(i) The endomembrane system includes mitochondria,
chloroplast and peroxisomes.
(ii) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for
synthesis of lipid.
(iii) Rough endoplasmic reticulum is actively involved
in protein synthesis.
(iv) Mitochondrial matrix possesses single circular
DNA, a few RNA and 80S ribosomes.
Of the above statements.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
53. Given below are some characters of a cell organelle.
Identify the correct organelle which shows all the
characters described above.
(i) It is a membrane bound space found in the cytoplasm.
(ii) It is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast.
(iii) It contains water, sap, excretory products and other
materials not useful to the cell.
(iv) It has higher concentration of sap than the
cytoplasm.
(a) Golgi apparatus (b) Lysosomes
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Vacuoles
54. Read the statements given below with regard to the
functions performed by Golgi apparatus ?
(i) Transport and chemically modify the materials
contained within it.
(ii) Performs the function of packaging materials.
(iii) Important site of formation of glycoproteins and
glycolipids.
Which of the following is the correct answer ?
(a) (i) is wrong but (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) is wrong but (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are wrong but (i) is correct
(d) All are correct.
55. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Na+
/K+
pump is an example of active transport.
(b) In plant cells lipid like steroidal hormones are
synthesized in SER.
(c) In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy up to 10%
of the volume of the cell.
(d) Chlorophyll and leucoplast are responsible for
trapping light energy essential for photosynthesis.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
56. Assertion : Centrosomes and centrioles are related to
each other.
Reason : Centrosome usually contains two cylindrical
structures called centrioles.
57. Assertion : Cells vary greatly in their shape.
Reason : The shape of cell does not depend on the
function they perform.
58. Assertion : The middle lamella is a layer made up of
calcium pectate.
59. Assertion : The acrocentric chromosome has
centromere at the terminal position.
Reason : The metacentric chromosome has centromere
slightly away from the middle of the chromosome.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
74 Biology
60. Assertion : The quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral
movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.
Reason : This ability to move within the membrane is
called fluidity and is important for cell growth.
61. Assertion : Pili are nonmotile appendages of bacteria.
Reason : Pili take part in conjugation.
62. Assertion : A plant cell bursts if placed in water.
Reason : High turgor pressure causes bursting of plant
cells.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
63. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Tonoplast I. Contain digestive
enzyme
B. Contractile vacuole II. Store metabolic gases
C. Food vacuole III. Excretion
D. Air vacuole IV. Transport of ions in
plants
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
64. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(Chromosome) (Position of
Centromere)
A. Metacentric I. At the tip
B. Submetacentric II. Almost near the tip
C. Acrocentric III. At the middle
D. Telocentric IV. Slightly away from the
middle
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – I ; D – II
65. Match the items given in column-I with their role given
in column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. SER I. Increase the surface
area
B. Golgi apparatus II. Store oils or fats
C. Cristae III. Excretion
D. Peroxisome IV. Photorespiration
E. Elaioplasts V. Synthesis of lipid
(a) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – II
(b) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – I
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – V
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
66. Match column-I (scientists) with column-II (discovery)
and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Leeuwenhoek I. First saw and described a
living cell
B. Robert Brown II. Presence of cell wall is
unique to plant cells
C. Schleiden III. Discovered the nucleus
D. Schwann IV. All plants are composed of
different kind of cells
(a) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II
(b) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
67. Match column I (cell type) with column II (size) and
choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Cell type) (Size)
A. Viruses I. 1-2 mm
B. PPLO II. 10-20 mm
C. Eukaryotic cell III. About 0.1 mm
D. Bacterium IV. 0.02 - 0.2 mm
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
68. Match column-I (cell organelle) with column-II membrane
and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Mitochondria I. Without membrane
B. Lysosomes II. Single membrane
C. Ribosomes III. Double membrane
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II
(c) A – III; B – II; C – I
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I
69. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Golgi apparatus I. Storage
B. Mitochondria II. Photosynthesis
C. Vacuoles III. Transport
D. Grana IV. Secretion
V. Respiration
(a) A – IV; B – V; C – I: D – II
(b) A – I; B – II; C – IV: D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II: D – III
(d) A – I; B – II; C – III: D – IV
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Cell : The Unit of Life 75
70. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column - I Column - II
A. RER I. Intracellular and extracellular
digestion
B. Cell wall II. Provide structural support to
the cell
C. Flagella III. Protein synthesis and
secretion
D. Lysosomes IV Responsible for cell movement
(a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
71. Match column-I and column-II and select the correct
answer
Column-I Column-II
A. Bacteria without walls I. Lysosome
B. Small circular DNA II. Mycoplasma cells
C. Flattened sacs in III. Thylakoid
a chloroplast
D. A vesicle in which IV. Plasmid
hydrolytic enzymes
are stored
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – I ; D – II
72. Which of the following pair are correctly matched?
A. Microtubules – Structural components of cilia
B. Centrioles – Store hydrolytic enzymes
C. Amyloplasts – Store oil protein and starch in plants
(a) A, B and C (b) A and B
(c) A only (d) A and C
73. Choose the incorrect match.
(a) Nucleus — RNA
(b) Lysosome — Protein synthesis
(c) Mitochondria — Respiration
(d) Cytoskeleton — Microtubules
74. Which one of the following combination is mismatched?
(a) Glycocalyx – May be capsule or slime layer
(b) Pili – Reproduction
(c) Cell wall – Protective, determines shape, prevents
from bursting
(d) Flagella, pili and fimbriae – Surface structures of
bacterial cell
75. Which of these is wrongly matched?
(a) Chloroplasts – Chlorophyll
(b) Elaioplasts – Starch
(c) Chromoplasts – Carotenoids
(d) Amyloplasts – Carbohydrates
76. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly
matched?
(a) Cristae – The tubular structure formed by
the folding of the inner
membrane of the mitochondrion.
(b) Plasmodesmata – The membrane surrounding the
vacuole in plants.
(c) Grana – Membrane bound discs in
chloroplasts that contain
chlorophylls and carotenoids.
(d) Middle lamella – Layer between adjacent cells
walls in plants derived from cell
plate.
77. Which of the following pair are correctly matched ?
(I) Amyloplasts – Store proteins
(II) Mitochondrion – ‘Power house’ of the
cell
(III) Stroma – Chlorophyll pigment
(IV) Axoneme – 9 + 2 array
(a) (I) and (III) only (b) (II), (III) and (IV) only
(c) (III) and (IV) only (d) (II) and (IV) only
78. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly
matched with their characters ?
(a) Centrioles – Sites for active RNA synthesis.
(b) Lysosomes – Optimally active at a pH of about 8.5.
(c) Thylakoids – Flattened membranous sacs forming
the grana of chloroplasts.
(d) Ribosomes – Those on chloroplasts are larger
(80S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller
(70S).
79. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct
option.
Column I Column II
A. Centrioles I. Non-membrane bound
organelle which helps in
cell division
B. Fimbriae II. Special structure of
bacteria which help them to
attach with rocks in stream
and also to host tissue
C. Endomembrane III. Includes those organelles
system whose functions are
coordinated
D. Mitochondria IV. Divide by fission and site
of aerobic respiration
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – III ; D – II
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
76 Biology
80. Which of the following terms is NOT correctly matched
with its feature?
(a) Osmosis – Movement of water by diffusion.
(b) Nucleoplasm – Site of active synthesis of ribosomal
RNA.
(c) Mesosome – Infolding of cell membrane and
characteristics of eukaryotes.
(d) Pili – Elongated tubular surface structures (made
of special protein) of bacteria.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
81. Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the
given section of cilia/flagella showing different parts.
Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of
parts.
(a) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge,
C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke
(b) A – Plasma membrane, B – Arm, C – Central
microtubule, D – Radial spoke
(c) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge,
C – Hub, D – Radial spoke
(d) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge,
C– Hub, D – Arm
82. The given diagram shows the types of chromosomes
(labelled as A, B, C & D) based on the position of
centromere. Which one is the correct option for the
labelled chromosomes. A, B, C and D ?
A B C D
(a) A – Telocentric chromosome, B – Acrocentric
chromosome, C – Submetacentric chromosome,
D – Metacentric chromosome
(b) A – Acrocentric chromosome, B – Telocentric
chromosome, C – Metacentric chromosome,
D – Submetacentric chromosome
(c) A – Submetacentric chromosome, B – Metacentric
chromosome, C – Telocentric chromosome,
D – Acrocentric chromosome
(d) A – Metacentric chromosome, B – Submetacentric
chromosome, C– Acrocentric chromosome,
D – Telocentric chromosome.
83. Which of the following option correctly match A, B, C,
and D indicated in the given sectional view of
chloroplasts.
(a) A - Thylakoid, B-Stromal lamella, C - Stroma,
D - Granum
(b) A - Granum, B - Thylakoid, C - Stromal lamella,
D - Stroma
(c) A - Thylakoid, B - Granum, C - Stromal lamella,
D - Stroma
(d) A - Granum, B - Thylakoid, C - Stroma, D - Stromal
lamella
84. The given diagram shows the sectional view of a
mitochondrion.
(A)
(B)
(C) (D)
(E)
Ribosomes DNA
Tubuli
Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D & E
(a) A - Outer membrane, B - Inner membrane,
C - Matrix, D - Inter- membrane space, E - Crista
(b) A - Outer membrane, B - Inner membrane, C - Intermembrane space, D - Matrix, E - Crista
(c) A - Outer membrane, B - Inner membrane,
C - Matrix, D - Crista, E - Inter - membrane space
(d) A - Outer membrane, B - Inner membrane, C- Crista,
D - Matrix, E - Inter-membrane space
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Cell : The Unit of Life 77
85. Identify the components labelled as A, B, C, D and E in
the diagram given below from the list (i) to (viii).
A
B
E
D
C
(i) Cristae of mitochondria
(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(iii) Cytoplasm
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(vi) Mitochondrial matrix
(vii) Ribosome
(viii) Nucleus
A B C D E
(a) (viii) (v) (vii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (i) (iv) (vii) (vi) (iii)
(c) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii) (i)
(d) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
86. The following diagram shows some of the missing
structures in a plant cell marked as A, B, C, D and E.
Choose the option with their correct names.
(a) A - Plasmodesmata, B - Rough endoplasmic
reticulum, C - Golgi apparatus, D - Mitochondrion,
E - Ribosomes
(b) A - Desmosome, B - Rough endoplasmic reticulum,
C - Golgi apparatus, D - Mitochondrion,
E - Ribosomes
(c) A - Plasmodesmata, B - Smooth endoplasmic
reticulum, C - Golgi apparatus, D - Mitochondrion,
E - Ribosomes
(d) A - Tight junction, B - Rough endoplasmic reticulum,
C - Golgi apparatus, D - Mitochondrion,
E -Ribosomes
87. The diagram given below represent a filuid mosaic model
of plasma membrance. Match the components marked
as A, B, C, D and E in the diagram below from the list (i)
to (vii).
(i) Sugar (ii) Protein
(iii) Lipid bilayer (iv) Integral protein
(v) Cytoplasm (vi) Cell wall
(vii) External protein
(a) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv), E - (v)
(b) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv), E - (v)
(c) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv), E - (vi)
(d) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (vii), E - (v)
88. Identify the cell organelle given below. Which is an
important site of formation of glycoproteins &
glycolipids?
(a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Golgi body
(d) Mitochondria
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
78 Biology
89. The following diagram represents a structure
chromosome. Identify the structures marked as A, B and
C.
(a) A - Satellite, B - Primary constriction,
C - Acrocentric
(b) A - Satellite, B - Secondary constriction,
C - Metacentric
(c) A - Satellite, B - Centromere, C - Telocentric
(d) A - Satellite, B - Centromere, C - Submetacentric
90. The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion
with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Select the part correctly matched with its function.
(a) Part (D): Outer membrane – Gives rise to inner
membrane by splitting.
(b) Part (B): Inner membrane – Forms infoldings called
cristae.
(c) Part (C): Cristae – Possess single circular DNA
molecule and ribosomes.
(d) Part (A): Matrix – Major site for respiratory chain
enzymes.
91. Which one of the following organelle given below is
correctly matched with its function ?
Nucleus
Nuclear pore Rough
endoplasmic
reticulum
Ribosome
Smooth
Endoplamic
reticulum
(a) Golgi apparatus– Protein synthesis
(b) Golgi apparatus– Formation of glycolipids
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum– Protein synthesis
(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum– Formation of
glycoproteins
92. In the given figure of animal cell, one organelle is
marked as A. Select the correct identification and
function of the organelle ‘A’ from the given option.
A
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum– Synthesis of lipids.
(b) Mitochondria– Produce cellular energy in the form
of ATP.
(c) Golgi body– Provides packaging material.
(d) Lysosomes– Secrete hydrolytic enzymes.
93. The given figures show two types of cell. Which
structures are common to both the cells?
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Cell : The Unit of Life 79
Cell 1 Cell 2
(a) Nucleus and cell wall
(b) Nucleus and cytoplasm
(c) Ribosomes and flagella
(d) Ribosomes and cell wall
(Directions for 94 and 95): Refer the given figure of animal
cell with few structure marked as W, X, Y and Z. On the basis
of this figure answer the following questions.
W
X
Y
Z
94. Which cellular structure helps in transferring genetic
information from one generation to another?
(a) W (b) X
(c) Y (d) Z
95. Which function is carried out by the cell organelle 'X'?
(a) helps control the movement of substance in and out
of the cell
(b) passes information from the parent cell to newly
formed cell
(c) maintains the proper shape of the cell and serves as
a protective barrier
(d) helps the cell to make food with the help of
chlorophyll and sunlight
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
96. Microtubules are absent in
(a) mitochondria (b) centriole
(c) flagella (d) spindle fibres
97. Golgi apparatus is absent in
(a) higher plants
(b) yeast
(c) bacteria and blue-green algae
(d) None of the above
98. Most of water, in mature plant cells occurs in
(a) nucleus (b) cell wall
(c) vacuoles (d) cytoplasm
99. Which of the following lacks cell wall?
(a) Gametes (b) Amoeba
(c) Mycoplasma (d) All of these
100. What would happen if lysosomes get ruptured in a
cell?
(a) Cell dies (b) Cell shrinks
(c) Cell swell up (d) Nothing would happen
101. Cell sap is a
(a) living content of cytoplasm.
(b) nonliving content of cytoplasm.
(c) nonliving content of vacuole.
(d) living content of vacuole.
102. The fluidity of membranes in a plant in cold weather may
be maintained by
(a) increasing the number of phospholipids with
unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.
(b) increasing the proportion of integral proteins.
(c) increasing concentration of cholesterol in
membrane.
(d) increasing the number of phospholipids with
saturated hydrocarbon tail.
103. Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes?
(a) DNA (b) RNA
(c) Plasma membrane (d) Mitochondria
104. In which method of transport, plasma membrane does
not require carrier molecule?
(a) Active transport (b) Facilitated diffusion
(c) Simple diffusion (d) Na+
– K+
pump
105. pH of vacuolar cell sap is
(a) neutral and isotonic.
(b) alkaline and isotonic.
(c) acidic and hypertonic.
(d) equal to cytoplasm and isotonic.
106. Which of the following pair lack the unit membrane?
(a) Nucleus and E.R.
(b) Mitochondria and chloroplast
(c) Ribosome and nucleolus
(d) Golgi body and lysosome
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
80 Biology
107. The main organelle involved in modification and routing
of newly synthesized proteins to their destinations is
(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria
(c) lysosome (d) endoplasmic reticulum
108. Active transport differs from passive transport in that
active transport
(a) requires energy.
(b) always requires input of ATP.
(c) moves molecules against a concentration gradient.
(d) both (a) and (c)
109. Microtubules, motor proteins, and actin filaments are
all part of the
(a) mechanism of photosynthesis that occurs in
chloroplasts.
(b) rough ER in prokaryotic cells.
(c) cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells.
(d) process that moves small molecules across cell
membranes.
110. You are asked to examine a cell using a powerful light
microscope. The image you see has a clearly defined
nucleus and mitochondria. It also has a large central
vacuole and chloroplasts. From what group of organisms
did this cell most likely come?
(a) Bacteria (b) Protists
(c) Fungi (d) Plants
111. The best way to identify a cell as either prokaryotic or
eukaryotic is to determine whether
(a) it came from a single-celled or multicellular
organism.
(b) it has a nucleus.
(c) it has a plasma membrane.
(d) it has cytosol.
112. Which of the following organelles is directly connected
to the outer membrane of the nucleus in a eukaryotic
cell?
(a) Mitochondrion (b) Lysosome
(c) Golgi apparatus (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
113. Centrifugation of a cell results in the rupture of the cell
membrane and the contents compacting into a pellets in
the bottom of the centrifuge tube. Bathing this pellet
with a glucose solution yields metabolic activity
including the production of ATP. One of the contents of
this pellet is most likely which of the following?
(a) Cytosol (b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes (d) Golgi bodies
Directions for Q 114 and 115: A student was given cell
samples (A and B) to identify parts which are highlighted. He
observed the samples under the microscope and list down the
function of the part of cell sample. The information collected
by the student is listed in the table below, on the basis of which
the student infers that the samples contain the organelles.
Sample A Sample B
Make energy available for
cellular metabolism
Generates ATP and
synthesizes sugar
Absent in cell that carry
oxygen throughout the body
Present in plant cell
Called the energy currency of
cell
Source of all the food
energy
114. Identify the part highlighted in the sample A and B and
explain why they were called as semi-autonomous
organelles?
(a) Sample A - Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast;
because both the organelles are double membrane
bound structure.
(b) Sample A- Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast;
because they both are capable of synthesis of their
own proteins only.
(c) Sample A - Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast;
because they are capable of synthesis of their own
proteins and contain their own DNA.
(d) Sample A- Mitochondria, Sample B - Chloroplast;
because they contain their own DNA to transfer the
genetic information from one generation to another.
115. Explain why the samples were belonged to eukaryotic
cell and not prokaryotic cell? Because,
(a) eukaryotic cell have membrane bound organelles.
(b) eukaryotic cell have non - membrane bound
organelles.
(c) eukaryotic cell are smaller and multiply more
rapidly than prokaryotic cells.
(d) eukaryotic cell are larger and multiply more rapidly
than prokaryotic cells.
116. A student placed two cells in the same solution in two
different containers. The observation was given in the table.
Container Observation
1 Cell burst
2 Cell does not change its
shape
Which structure maintains the shape of the cell present
in container 2 and provides the most significant
difference between the two cells?
(a) Nucleus (b) Cell wall
(c) Chloroplast (d) Cell membrane
117. The cell theory was given in year 1839 by Schleiden and
Schwann. According to this theory all organisms are
composed of cell and cells are the basic unit of life.
How did this theory help in the field of science?
(a) It helped to study the working of cells.
(b) It helped in curing diseases caused by cell.
(c) It helped in restating the earlier theories on cell.
(d) It helped in introducing the use of microscopes to
study cell.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The acid used for preliminary separation of biomolecule
in a living tissue is
(a) trichlorobenzoic acid (b) benzoic acid
(c) trichloroacetic acid (d) acetic acid
2. Biomolecules are
(a) organic compounds
(b) inorganic compounds
(c) volatile compounds
(d) both (a) and (b)
3. Which of the following is the example of acidic amino
acid ?
(a) Lysine (b) Glutamic acid
(c) Aspartic acid (d) Both (b) and (c)
4. All the following amino acids are aromatic, except
(a) tyrosine (b) phenylalanine
(c) tryptophan (d) valine
5. The most basic amino acid is
(a) arginine (b) histidine
(c) glycine (d) glutamine
6. The simplest amino acid is _________.
(a) glycine (b) proline
(c) leucine (d) tryptophan
7. The charged molecule which is electrically neutral is
known as
(a) amino acid (b) zwitterion
(c) amide (d) peptide
8. Unsaturated fatty acids have
(a) palmitic acid (b) oleic acid
(c) high melting point (d) one or more double
bonds
9. Which of the following is/are essential fatty acid(s)?
(a) Linoleic acid (b) Linolenic acid
(c) Arachidonic acid (d) All of these
10. Phospholipids are important cell membrane constituents,
because they
(a) contain glycerol.
(b) can form bilayers in water.
(c) combine covalently with protein.
(d) contain polar and non-polar portions.
11. Glycerol is a
(a) tetrahydroxy propane (b) trihydroxy propane
(c) trihydroxy butane (d) tetrahydroxy butane
12. A fat has
(a) 3 glycerol and one fatty acid molecule.
(b) one glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules.
(c) 3 glycerol and 3 fatty acid molecules.
(d) one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule.
13. Lecithin is a
(a) phospholipid (b) carbohydrate
(c) protein (d) amino acid
14. A nucleotide is formed of
(a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(b) purine, sugar and phosphate
(c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
15. Building block of nucleic acid is ________.
(a) nucleotide (b) nucleoside
(c) amino acid (d) fatty acid
16. Inulin is a polymer of
(a) glucose (b) galactose
(c) fructose (d) arabinose
17. Primary structure of protein is due to the presence of
______.
(a) hydrogen bonds (b) peptide bonds
(c) – S – S – linkages (d) ionic bonds
18. Most abundant protein in human body is
(a) collagen (b) myosin
(c) actin (d) albumin
19. Quaternary structure is present in ________.
(a) haemoglobin (b) histone
(c) globulin (d) elastin
20. The bond between phosphate and hydroxyl group of
sugar in nucleic acid is _______.
(a) glycosidic bond (b) peptide bond
(c) ester bond (d) none of these
21. Turn over number of enzyme depends upon
(a) size of enzyme molecule.
(b) number of the active sites.
(c) concentration of substrate molecule.
(d) molecular weight of as enzyme. Chapter 9
Dkqoqngewngu
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
82 Biology
22. The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the substrate
concentration at which the reaction reaches to
(a) zero (b) 2 Vmax
(c) ½ Vmax (d) ¼ Vmax
23. Ribozyme is a/an
(a) enzyme whose cofactor is RNA.
(b) RNA with enzyme activity.
(c) enzyme by which RNA is formed.
(d) conjugated protein having ribose sugar.
24. Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by
(a) enzyme (b) substrate
(c) end product (d) intermediate end
products
25. Co-enzyme is
(a) always a protein.
(b) often a metal.
(c) always an inorganic compound.
(d) often a vitamin.
26. Which one of the following statements is correct, with
reference to enzymes ?
(a) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(c) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(d) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
27. Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at ________
temperature and ________ pressure.
(a) high, low (b) low, low
(c) low, high (d) high, high
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
28. Which of the following statement is not true about amino
acid?
(a) The amino group and carboxylic group of an amino
acid are attached to both amino and carboxylic groups
to alpha carbon.
(b) Amino acids have an N-terminus, C-terminus, and
R groups.
(c) Amino acid can be classified by the number of peptide
bond.
(d) Essential amino acids are not synthesized in the
body, therefore have to be provided in the diet.
29. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) Long chain molecules of fatty acids are formed by
polymerization of 2 carbon compounds.
(b) Lipid molecules are soluble in water.
(c) In lipid, R group may be –CH3
group, –C2H5
group
or higher number of –CH2
group (1 to 19 carbon).
(d) Oils have lower melting temperature.
30. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Amino acids are substituents methanes.
(b) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane.
(c) Lysine is a neutral amino acid.
(d) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
31. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Ribozymes are nucleic acids with catalytic power.
(b) Proteins are homopolymer made of amino acids.
(c) Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
(d) Glycogen is stored in liver and muscles.
32. Pick out the correct statement.
(a) Chitin is a homopolymer.
(b) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole
of the biosphere.
(c) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by
peptide bonds.
(d) In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides
are linked by a phosphodiester bond.
33. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding
chitin?
(a) It is a storage of polysaccharide.
(b) It is a heteropolysaccharide.
(c) It is a constituent of arthropods and fungal cell wall.
(d) It is a second most abundant carbohydrate on earth.
34. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
secondary metabolites ?
(a) Plant tissues produce only secondary metabolities.
(b) Secondary metabolities have restricted distribution
in the plant kingdoms.
(c) Abrin and ricin are secondary metabolities used as a
drugs.
(d) Some secondary metabolites have ecological
importance.
35. Which of the following statements about enzymes is
incorrect?
(a) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in
certain exceptional organisms. They are effective
even at 80° - 90°C.
(b) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity.
(c) Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids.
(d) Enzymes are highly specific.
36. Which statement is incorrect about coenzyme ?
(a) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is a
coenzyme.
(b) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every cofactor is
not a coenzyme.
(c) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides and are
composed of vitamins.
(d) Coenzymes are the active constituents of enzyme.
37. Study the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) Nitrogen bases are open chain hydrocarbons.
(ii) A nucleoside differ from nucleotide in not having
phosphate.
(iii) One turn of B-DNA has ten base pairs.
(iv) Length of one turn of DNA is 3.4 Å.
(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
(b) Statements (i) and (iv) are correct.
(c) Statements (ii) and (iii) are incorrect.
(d) Statements (i) and (iv) are incorrect.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biomolecules 83
38. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Chitin, a complex or heteropolysaccharide occuring
in exoskeleton consists of NAG.
(ii) Glucosamine and N-acetyl glucosamine are modified
sugar.
(iii) Cellulose shows blue colour when treated with I2
.
(iv) Starch in plants and glycogen in animals are store
houses of energy.
(v) Right end of polysaccharide is called reducing end
while left end is called non-reducing end.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) All except (iii) (d) All except (v)
39. Select false statements for an enzyme promoting a chemical
reaction by
(i) lowering the energy of activation.
(ii) causing the release of heat, which acts as a primer.
(iii) increasing molecular motion.
(iv) changing the free energy difference between
substrate and product.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
40. The steps in catalytic cycle of an enzyme action are given
in random order.
(i) The enzyme releases the products. Now enzyme is
free to bind another substrate.
(ii) The active sites, now in close proximity of substrate
breaks the bond of substrate and forms E-P complex.
(iii) Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its
shape fitting more tightly around the substrate.
(iv) The substrate binds to the active site of enzyme (i.e.,
fitting into the active site).
The correct order is
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(i) Nearly 1/3rd of all enzymes requires the presence of
metal ions for catalytic function.
(ii) Metal ions form coordinate bond with side chain at
active site of metalloenzyme and at the same time
form one or more coordinate bonds with the
substrate.
(iii) NAD and NAD (coenzymes) contain niacin (vit.B3
)
(iv) Coenzymes are organic compounds but their
association with the apoenzyme is only transient,
usually occurring during catalysis.
(a) All of these (b) Only (iii) and (iv)
(c) Only (iv) (d) None of these
42. Which of the given option is correct for the following
statements ?
(i) The metabolic pathway in which acetic acid is
converted into cholesterol is an endothermic one.
(ii) Anabolic pathway is endergonic while catabolic
pathway is exergonic.
(iii) Without metabolism there can not be a living state.
(a) All are correct (b) All are wrong
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct (d) Only (iii) is correct
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
43. Assertion: A coenzymes or metal ions that is very
tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic
group.
Reason: A complete, catalytically active enzyme together
with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.
44. Assertion: Glycosidic bonds are formed by dehydration.
Reason: In polysaccharides, individual monosaccharide
is linked by glycosidic bond.
45. Assertion: Human diet should compulsorily contain
glycine, serine and tyrosine.
Reason: Essential amino acids can be synthesized in the
human body.
46. Assertion : Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared
with the saturated fats.
Reason : Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their
structure.
47. Assertion :In a DNA molecule, A–T rich parts melt before
G–C rich parts.
Reason: In between A and T there are three
H–bond, whereas in between G and C there are two Hbonds.
48. Assertion: The amino acid glycine comes under the
category of nonessential amino acids.
Reason: This is due to the fact that it can not be
synthesised in the body.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
49. Match column I (organic compound) with column II
(examples) and choose the correct combination from the
given options.
Column-I Column-II
(Organic Compounds) (Examples)
A. Fatty acid I. Glutamic acid
B. Phospholipid II. Tryptophan
C. Aromatic amino acid III. Lecithin
D. Acidic amino acid IV. Palmitic acid
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III, D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II, D – I
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I, D – II
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
84 Biology
50. Match the biomoecules given in column I with their
examples given in column II and choose the correct answer.
Column I Column II
(Biomolecules) (Examples)
A. Carbohydrates I. Trypsin
B. Protein II. Cholesterol
C. Nucleic acid III. Insulin
D. Lipid IV. Adenylic acid
(a) A – III; B – I; C – IV, D – II
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I, D – II
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III
51. Match the protein given in column I with its function
given in column II and choose the right option.
Column I Column II
(Proteins) (Functions)
A. Collagen I. Glucose transport
B. Trypsin II. Hormone
C. Insulin III. Intercellular ground
substance
D. GLUT-4 IV. Enzyme
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
52. Match the column-I (component) with column-II (% of
the total cellular mass) and identify the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Component) (% of the total
cellular mass)
A. Water I. 3
B. Proteins II. 70-90
C. Carbohydrates III. 2
D. Lipids IV. 5-7
E. Nucleic acids V. 10-15
(a) A – V; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – I
(b) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – III; E – IV
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I
53. Match column I (category) with column II (secondary
metabolites)and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
(Category) (Secondary metabolites)
A. Pigments I. Concanavalin A
B. Terpenoides II. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes
C. Alkaloids III. Morphine, Cadeine
D. Lectins IV. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
54. Match column I with column II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Cotton fibre I. Chitin
B. Exoskeleton of II. Glycogen
cockroach
C. Liver III. Starch
D. Peeled potato IV. Cellulose
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
55. Match column I (function) with column II (Types of
enzymes) and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
(Function) (Types of enzymes)
A. Enzymes catalysing I. Isomerases
breakdown without
addition of water.
B. Enzyme catalyzes the II. Oxidoreductase
conversion of
an aldose sugar to
a ketose sugar.
C. Enzyme where III. Ligases
catalysis involves
transfer of electrons.
D. Enzyme catalysing IV. Lyases
bonding of two
components with the
help of ATP.
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(b) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
56. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of
nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category
mentioned against it ?
(a) Adenine, thymine – Purines
(b) Thymine, uracil – Pyrimidines
(c) Uracil, cytosine – Pyrimidines
(d) Guanine, adenine – Purines
57. Mark the odd pair in the followings
(a) Amino acid – Protein
(b) Nucleotide – DNA
(c) Glycerol – Fatty acid
(d) Monosaccharide – Cellulose
58. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Fungi – Chitin
(b) Phospholipid – Plasma membrane
(c) Enzyme – Lipopolysaccharide
(d) ATP – Nucleotide derivative
59. Find out the wrongly matched pair
(a) Primary metabolite – Ribose
(b) Secondary metabolite – Anthocyanins
(c) Chitin – Polysaccharide
(d) Cellulose – Heteropolymer
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biomolecules 85
60. Choose the mismatch pair
(a) Glutamic acid – Acidic
(b) Lysine – Basic
(c) Valine – Charged
(d) Phenylalanine – Aromatic
61. Find out the odd one from the given pair.
(a) Polysaccharide – Glycosidic bond
(b) Protein – Peptide bond
(c) Fat – Ester
(d) Polynucleotide – Hydrogen bond
62. Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
(a) Ribozyme – Proteinaceous in nature.
(b) Apoenzyme – The protein part of enzyme.
(c) Co-enzyme – Loosely attached organic
cofactor of haloenzyme
(d) Co-factors – Non-protein part of haloenzyme.
63. Find out the correct match.
(a) Inulin – Polymer of glucose
(b) Starch – Spiral secondary structure
(c) Cellulose – Component of cell wall
(d) Glycogen – Monosaccharide and reserved food of
plants
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
64. Which of the two groups (marked as 1, 2, 3, & 4) of
following formula involved in peptide bond between
different amino acids?
2
1 3
2
4
H
|
H N—C—COOH
|
R
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
65. What kinds of the structures of proteins are shown in the
given figure (A, B, C and D)?
N C
A B
C
N
C D
(a) A = 1º structure, B = 2º structure, C = 3º structure,
D = 4º structure
(b) A = 4º structure, B = 2º structure, C = 3º structure,
D = 1º structure
(c) A = 1º structure, B = 4º structure, C = 3º structure,
D = 2º structure
(d) A = 4º structure, B = 3º structure, C = 2º structure,
D = 1º structure
66. Identify the following molecule.
HO
(a) Phospholipid (b) Lecithin
(c) Cholesterol (d) Oleic acid
67. Refer the given structure of adenylc acid. In this identify
A.
HO – P – OCH2
O
||
|
OHA
N-base
O
(a) Glycosidic bond (b) Phosphate bond
(c) Ester bond (d) Ionic bond
68. The adjoining graph shows change in concentration of
substrate on enzyme activity. Identify A, B and C.
Y
A
V
B
[S] X
C
m max
max
m
max
max m
max
m max
(a) Ki K V
V
(b) K Ki
2
V (c) V K
2
V
(d) K V
2
AB C
69. The given structural formulas represent amino acids
(labelled by as X, Y and Z)
H
X
CH3
Y
CH – OH 2
Z
Identify the correct name of X, Y and Z.
(a) Alanine, serine and glycine respectively.
(b) Tyrosine, cysteine and glutamic acid respectively.
(c) Glycine, alanine and serine acid respectively.
(d) Cysteine, glutamic acid and tyrosine respectively.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
86 Biology
70. The structural formula given below belongs to
OH
OH OH
HO
CH OH 2
(a) glucose (b) ribose
(c) sucrose (d) deoxyribose
71. The given graph shows concept of activation energy with
labelled 1, 2, 3, & 4. Co-relate the statements I, II, III & IV
with 1, 2, 3 & 4.
E
nerg
y
1
4
3
C}2
A+B
Progress of the reaction
I. Segment representing the energy of activation.
II. Segment representing the amount of free energy
released by the reaction.
III. Transition state.
IV. Segment would be the same regardless of whether
the reaction were uncatalysed or catalysed.
I II III IV
(a) 13 2 4
(b) 12 3 2
(c) 13 2 4
(d) 12 4 3
72. What is denoted by X and Y in the given graph ?
Potential energy
Y
X
Progress of reaction
X Y
(a) Activation energy Activation energy with
without enzyme enzyme
(b) Activation energy Activation energy
with enzyme without enzyme
(c) Substrate concentration Substrate concentration
with enzyme without enzyme
(d) Substrate Substrate concentration
concentration with enzyme
without enzyme
73. Which one of the given graph shows the effect of pH on
the velocity of a typical enzymatic reaction (V) ?
(a)
pH
V
(b)
pH
V
(c)
pH
V (d)
pH
V
74. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with
relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate
concentration.) Identify the correct representation of two
axes (x and y).
x - axis y-axis
(a) Enzymatic activity pH
(b) Temperature Enzymatic activity
(c) Substrate concentration Enzymatic activity
(d) Enzymatic activity Temperature
75. The given diagrammatic representation shows one of the
categories of small molecular weight organic compounds
in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and
one blank component marked as “X” in it.
HOCH2
O X
OH OH
Category Component (X)
(a) Cholesterol Guanine
(b) Amino acid NH2
(c) Nucleotide Adenine
(d) Nucleoside Uracil
76. Which one of the following structural formulae (A & B) of
two organic compounds is correctly identified along with
its related function?
A.
R – C – O – CH 2
||
O
|
CH – O – C – R 2
||
O
|
CH – O – P – O – CH – CH 2 22 |
OH
|
N
|
CH3
|
|
CH3
CH3
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biomolecules 87
B.
N
N
(a) B : Adenine — A nucleotide that makes up nucleic
acids.
(b) A: Triglyceride — Major source of energy
(c) B : Uracil — A component of DNA
(d) A: Lecithin — A component of cell membrane
77. The given graph shows the effect of substrate
concentration on the rate of reaction of the enzyme
greengram-phosphatase. What does the graph indicate?
Velocity
O Substrate concentration
(a) The rate of enzyme reaction is directly proportional
to the substrate concentration.
(b) Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction
mixture.
(c) Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex.
(d) At higher substrate concentration the pH increases.
78. Which of the following shows zwitter ionic form?
(a) 3
R
|
H N CH COOH
+
- - (b) 3
R
|
H N CH COO
+
-
- -
(c) 2
R
|
H N CH COO-
- - (d) None of these
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
79. According to weight percentage, the first three elements
in human body are
(a) C > H > O (b) C > O > N
(c) O > N > C (d) O > C > H
80. In the composition of cellular mass, arrange the
components- proteins(P), carbohydrates(C), lipids(L) and
nucleic acids(N) in decreasing order of mass percentage.
(a) C > N > P > L (b) P > N > C > L
(c) P > C > L > N (d) P > N > L > C
81. If all the peptide bonds of a protein are broken down,
then what would remain?
(a) Amino acids (b) Peptides
(c) Polypeptides (d) Oligopeptides
82. Relation between amino acid and protein is similar to the
one found between
(a) glucose and fructose
(b) thymine and uracil
(c) nucleosides and nucleic acid
(d) nucleotides and nucleic acid
83. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each
nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by
(a) base-sugar-phosphate.
(b) base-sugar-OH.
(c) (base-sugar-phosphate)n
.
(d) sugar-phosphate.
84. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that
(a) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their
ends share the same position.
(b) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA
strands are in opposite position (pole).
(c) one strand turns clockwise.
(d) one strand turns anti-clockwise.
85. Which of the following is not an attribute of enzymes ?
(a) They are substrate specific in nature.
(b) They are proteinaceous in nature.
(c) They are used up in the reaction.
(d) They speed up rate of biochemical reaction.
86. “All enzymes are proteins.” This statement is now
modified because an apparent exception to this biological
truth is
(a) arylsulfatase (b) dehydrogenase
(c) ribozyme (d) nitroreductase
87. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecule on earth,
are produced by
(a) some bacteria, algae and green plant cells.
(b) fungi, algae and green plant cells.
(c) all bacteria, fungi and algae.
(d) viruses, fungi and bacteria.
88. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly
characterized?
(a) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell
membrane.
(b) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid with 18
carbon atoms.
(c) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose phosphate
molecule.
(d) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group and
an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.
89. The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by
(a) temperature.
(b) concentration of the substrate.
(c) original activation energy of the system.
(d) concentration of the enzyme.
90. Which of the following set is correctly match to the
category mentioned against them ?
(a) Lysine, glycine, thiamine – amino acids.
(b) Arachidonic acid, acetic acid, palmitic acid – Fatty
acids
(c) Thymidine, uridine, cytidilic acid – Nucleosides
(d) Cellulose, inulin, glycogen – Polysaccharides
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
88 Biology
91. The stored form of sugar in animal is a
(a) homopolysaccharide (b) heteropolysaccharide
(c) oligosaccharide (d) diasaccharide
92. Select the type of enzyme involved in the following
reaction.
S G S' S S' G - + ®+-
(a) Dehydrogenase (b) Transferase
(c) Hydrolase (d) Lyase
93. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during
an enzymatic reaction is.
(a) permanent but unstable. (b) transient and
unstable.
(c) permanent and stable. (d) transient but stable.
94. For a protein to have a quaternary structure, it must
(a) have four amino acids.
(b) consist of two or more polypeptide subunits.
(c) consist of four polypeptide subunits.
(d) have at least four disulphide bridges.
95. The quaternary structure of human haemoglobin is best
described as a
(a) dimer of identical subunits.
(b) dimer of different subunits.
(c) tetramer of four different subunits.
(d) tetramer of two different subunits.
96. At temperature near freezing point, the enzymes are
(a) inactivated (b) activated
(c) slightly activated (d) slightly inactivated
97. A nucleoside differs from nucleotide is not having
(a) sugar (b) nitrogen
(c) phosphate (d) phosphate and sugar
98. Hexokinase (Glucose + ATP ® Glucose 6-P + ADP)
belongs to the category
(a) transferases (b) lyases
(c) oxidoreductases (d) isomerases
99. Sugar-phosphate backbone in nucleic acid
(a) is hydrophilic in nature.
(b) is negatively charged.
(c) shows polarity.
(d) all of the above.
100. On hydrolysis, a nucleoside would not yield
(a) purine (b) pyrimidine
(c) pentose sugar (d) phosphoric acid
101. The information in a genetic nucleic acid resides in the
(a) number of nucleotides.
(b) kinds of nucleotides.
(c) sequence of nucleotides.
(d) all of the above.
102. Km is related to
(a) temperature (b) ES complex
(c) pH (d) none of these
103. When triglycerides are solid at ordinary room temperature,
they are called
(a) oils (b) gases
(c) fats (d) none of these
104. Natural lipids are readily soluble in
(a) oil (b) water
(c) mercury (d) none of these
105. Enzyme that break nucleic acids into nucleotides belongs
to which of the following class ?
(a) Oxidoreductases (b) Transferases
(c) Hydrolases (d) Lyases
106. Enzymes are sensitive to
(a) light (b) pH
(c) temperature (d) both (b) and (c)
107. Primary structure of polypeptide is stabilized or secondary
structure of polypeptide is maintained by
(a) disulphide bonds.
(b) ionic bonds.
(c) hydrogen bonds.
(d) hydrophobic interactions.
108. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be
compared by the
(a) Km value.
(b) pH optimum value.
(c) formation of the product.
(d) molecular size of the enzyme.
109. What will happen when the cofactor is removed from the
enzyme?
(a) Catalytic activity of the enzyme is lost.
(b) Enzyme preserves in a temporarily inactive state.
(c) The substurate molecules are not closely related to
enzymes molecules.
(d) Both b and c
110. "When glucose is degraded to lactic acid in skeletal
muscles energy is liberated".
Which of the following conclusion is correctly associated
with the above statement? enzyme?
(a) It is a catabolic pathway which releases energy.
(b) It is an anabolic pathway which releases energy.
(c) The energy, liberated during this degradation, is
trapped and stored in the form of chemical bonds
(ADP).
(d) None of the above.
111. Why the velocity of enzymatic reaction is not exceeded
by any further rise in the concentration of the substrate?
(a) The enzyme molecules are equal to the substrate
molecules.
(b) The enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate
molecules
(c) The substrate molecules are not closely resembled
to the enzyme molecules.
(d) Both b and c.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 10 Cgnn Cûeng ãpæ
Cgnn Dkøkõkqp
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in ______
(a) G1
phase (b) G2
phase
(c) Mitotic metaphase (d) S phase
2. Which phase of cell cycle is known as quiescent stage ?
(a) M phase (b) G0
phase
(c) G1
phase (d) S phase
3. Interphase includes all of the following except ______
(a) G1
phase (b) Anaphase
(c) S phase (d) G2
phase
4. Which of the following phase is called the resting phase
during which cell is preparing for division by undergoing
both cell growth and replication of DNA?
(a) M – phase (b) Prophase
(c) Go
phase (d) Interphase
5. Which of the following phase follows S and G2
phases of
interphase?
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase (d) Telophase
6. In mitosis, nucleolus and nuclear membrane disappear
at
(a) interphase (b) prophase
(c) metaphase (d) telophase
7. What is the stage of mitosis in which chromosomes are
arranged on the equator of spindle?
(a) Anaphase (b) Prophase
(c) Metaphase (d) Telophase
8. Best stage to observe shape, size and number of
chromosomes is ______
(a) interphase (b) metaphase
(c) prophase (d) telophase
9. In anaphase of mitosis,
(a) chromosomes get arranged in middle of cell.
(b) nuclear envelope disappears.
(c) chromosome fibres become clear.
(d) chromosomes aggregate at opposite poles to form
daughter nuclei.
10. Which of the following cellular structures always
disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
(a) Plastid and nuclear membrane
(b) Nucleolus and nuclear membrane
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum and plasma membrane
11. In meiosis, division is
(a) Ist reductional and IInd equational.
(b) Ist equational and IInd reductional.
(c) both reductional.
(d) both equational.
12. Interkinesis is a
(a) stage between meiosis I and meiosis II.
(b) stage between two mitotic divisions.
(c) interphase.
(d) both (b) and (c)
13. Synapsis occurs between
(a) spindle fibres and centromeres.
(b) mRNA and ribosomes.
(c) a male and female gamete.
(d) two homologous chromosomes.
14. During mitosis, nuclear envelope, nucleolous begin to
form and ER to reappear at ______
(a) prophase (b) late metaphase
(c) anaphase (d) telophase
15. The synaptonemal complex appears
(a) between homologous chromosomes.
(b) in zygotene stage.
(c) composed of DNA + protein.
(d) All of the above
16. Chromosome synapsis or bivalent formation occurs in
______
(a) leptotene (b) zygotene
(c) pachytene (d) diplotene
17. Crossing over occurs between
(a) sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(b) non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(c) sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes.
(d) non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
chromosomes.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
90 Biology
18. Crossing over occurs during ______
(a) leptotene (b) pachytene
(c) diplotene (d) diakinesis
19. Recombination involves
(a) crossing over
(b) chromosome duplication
(c) spindle formation
(d) cytokinesis
20. Chiasmata are first seen in ______
(a) leptotene (b) zygotene
(c) pachytene (d) diplotene
21. In which stage, the chromosomes appear thin and long
thread-like ?
(a) Zygotene (b) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene (d) Prophase
22. Terminalization occurs during ______
(a) mitosis (b) diakinesis
(c) meiosis II (d) cytokinesis
23. Electron micrographs of which stage indicate that
chromosomes accompanied by the formation of complex
structure called synaptonemal complex?
(a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene
(c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
24. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to a
specializes structure in the centromere region of each
chromosome called the __________.
(a) Telomere (b) Centriole
(c) Chromatin (d) Kinetochore
25. Cell plate grows from
(a) wall to centre (b) centre to walls
(c) one wall to another (d) simultaneously
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
26. Select the correct statement with respect to mitosis.
(a) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the
cell in anaphase.
(b) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in
telophase.
(c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still
visible at the end of prophase.
(d) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get
aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase.
27. Which one of the following precedes re-formation of the
nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle ?
(a) Decondensation from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina.
(b) Transcription from chromosomes, and re-assembly
of the nuclear lamina.
(c) Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of
the phragmoplast.
(d) Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription
from chromosomes.
28. Which of the following statement is not true for
homologous chromosome pairs ?
(a) They come from only one of the individual’s parents.
(b) They usually contain slightly different versions of
the same genetic information.
(c) They segregate from each other during meiosis I.
(d) They synapse during meiosis I.
29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ?
(a) Cell plate represents the middle lamella between the
walls of two adjacents cells.
(b) At the time of cytokinesis, organelles like
mitochondria and plastids get distributed between
the daughter cells.
(c) Cytokinesis in plant cell is centrifugal and takes place
by cell-plate formation while animal cells by
furrowing/cleavage and is centripetal.
(d) All of the above
30. Significance of mitosis involves
(a) the growth of multicellular organism.
(b) cell repair.
(c) production of diploid daughter cells with identical
genetic complement.
(d) all of the above
31. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
S-phase (synthetic phase) ?
(i) It occurs between G1
and G2 phase.
(ii) It marks the period during which DNA replicates.
(iii) At the end of this phase, DNA is doubled but the
number of chromosomes remains unchanged.
(iv) As the DNA is doubled in this phase number of
chromosomes is also doubled.
(v) Centrioles replicate in this phase.
(vi) Amount of DNA changes from 2C to 4C.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi)
(c) All of the above (d) Only (iv)
32. Which of the following statements related to G0 stage of
the cell cycle are correct?
(i) It is a quiescent stage.
(ii) In this phase, cell cycle is stopped.
(iii) G0
cells do not grow or proliferate but metabolically
active.
(iv) G0
cells can divide in response to some stimulus.
(a) (i), and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (i) and (iv) (d) All of the above
33. Which one is correct about bivalent ?
(i) Bivalent are tetrads.
(ii) A bivalent means 4 chromatids and 2 centromere.
(iii) One bivalent consists of 2 homologous
chromosomes each and sister chromatids.
(iv) Bivalents formation occurs in zygotene.
(a) All of these (b) Only (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (iv)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 91
34. Which one is correct about crossing over/genetic
recombination?
(i) It occurs in tetrad stage which occurs in pachytene
of prophase I of meiosis I.
(ii) It occurs between non-sister chromatids of
homologous chromosomes.
(iii) It is recombinase enzyme mediated process.
(iv) It is also the reciprocal transfer of genes between
the non-homologous chromosomes
(a) All of the above (b) All except (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
35. Read the following statements about cell division and
select the correct statements.
(i) M phase represents the phase when actual cell
division occurs and I phase represents the phase
between two successive M phase.
(ii) In the 24 hours, average duration of cell cycle of a
human cell, cell division proper lasts for only about
an hour.
(iii) M phase constitutes more than 95% of the duration
of cell cycle.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
36. Assertion: The stage between two mitotic divisions is
called interkinesis.
Reason: Interkinesis is generally short lived.
37. Assertion: Diplotene is characterized by the presence of
chiasmata.
Reason: Diplotene can last for months and years in
oocytes of some vertebrates.
38. Assertion: Interphase occupies 75-95% of the total
generation time.
Reason: Interphase (I-phase) is the long non-dividing
phase.
39. Assertion: Small disc-shaped structures at the surface of
the centromeres are called kinetochores.
Reason: Kinetochores serve as the sites of attachment of
spindle fibres to the centromeres.
40. Assertion: Karyokinesis follows cytokinesis.
Reason: Karyokinesis is the division of cytoplasm into
two daughter cells.
41. Assertion: The final stage of meiotic prophase 1 is
diplotene.
Reason: Diplotene is marked by terminalisation of
chiasmata.
42. Assertion: The crossing over is an enzyme-mediated
process.
Reason: The enzyme involved in crossing over is lyase.
43. Assertion: Metaphase II begins with splitting of
centromere of each chromosome into two.
Reason: In Anaphase II chromosomes align at the equator.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
44. Match the description (given in column I) with correct
stage of prophase I (given column II) and choose the
correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Chromosomes are moved I. Pachytene
to spindle equator
B. Centromere splits and II. Zygotene
chromatids apart
C. Pairing between homologous III. Anaphase
chromosomes takes place
D. Crossing between homologous IV. Metaphase
chromosomes
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
45. Match the terms (given in column I) with their explanation
(given in column II) and choose the correct combination
from the options given below.
Column I Column II
(Terms) (Explanation)
A. Terminalization I. Pairing of homologous
chromosomes.
B. Synapsis II. Point of attachment between
homologous chromosomes.
C. Chiasmata III. Nuclear protein complex that
helps in adherence of sister
chromatids and then
homologous chromosomes.
D. Synaptonemal IV. Shifting of chiasmata
outwards
complex towards the ends of a
bivalent.
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
92 Biology
46. Match the description given in column-I with their stapes
given in column-II and identify the correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
A. Initiation of the assembly I. Anaphase
of mitotic spindle
B. Proteins are synthesized in II. Prophase
preparation for mitosis while cell
growth continues.
C. Spindle fibres attach to III. Interphase
kinetochores of chromosomes.
D. Movement of chromatids IV. Metaphase
towards opposite poles
The correct match is
(a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
47. Select the correctly matched pair.
A. S phase – DNA replication
B. Zygotene – Synapsis
C. Diplotene – Crossing over
D. Meiosis – Both haploid and diploid cells
(a) A and B (b) C and D
(c) B and D (d) A and C
48. Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the correct
option.
A. Zygotene – Pairing of homologous
chromosomes
B. Pachytene – Dissolution of the complex
synaptonemal takes place
C. Diplotene – Bivalent chromosomes appear as
tetrads
D. Diakinesis – Terminalization of chiasmata
takes place
(a) A and C (b) A and D
(c) A and B (d) B and C
49. Choose the mismatch pair.
(a) Karyokinesis – Division of centromere
(b) Cytokinesis – Division of cytoplasm
(c) S-phase – DNA synthesis
(d) Synapsis – Pairing of homologous
chromosomes
50. Find out the wrongly matched pair of the stage of
prophase I with their feature.
(a) Zygotene – Synaptonemal complex
(b) Pachytene – Mutation
(c) Diplotene – Chiasmata
(d) Diakinesis – Terminalization
51. Mark the incorrect pair.
(a) Interphase – S-phase
(b) M phase – Metaphase
(c) Meiosis I – Diplotene
(d) Meiosis II – Diakinesis
52. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?
(a) G1
– Second growth phase
(b) S – Duplication phase
(c) G2
– Synthesis phase
(d) G0
– Quiescent stage
53. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?
(a) Anaphase I – Homologous chromosomes are
separated.
(b) Metaphase I – Pairing of maternal and paternal
chromosomes.
(c) Interphase – A nuclear envelop encloses each
haploid set of chromosomes.
(d) Prophase I – Non-homologous chromosomes are
separated.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
54. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases / stages
of cell cycle with few parts labelled as A, B, C & D.
Which one of the following is the correct indication of
the stage/phase in the cell cycle?
(a). C - Karyokinesis (b) D - Synthetic phase
(c) A - Cytokinesis (d) B - Metaphase
55. Which stages of cell division do the following figures A
and B represent respectively?
Fig. A Fig. B
(a) A - Metaphase ; B - Telophase
(b) A - Telophase ; B - Metaphase
(c) A - Late Anaphase ; B - Prophase
(d) A - Prophase ; B - Anaphase
56. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a
particular stage of a type of cell division. Which stage is
shown by the given figure?
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 93
(a) Prophase I during meiosis.
(b) Prophase II during meiosis.
(c) Prophase of mitosis.
(d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis.
57. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the
answer which gives correct identification of the stage
with its characteristics.
(a) Late anaphase Chromosomes move away from
equatorial plate, Golgi complex
is not present.
(b) Cytokinesis Cell plate is formed,
mitochondria distributed
between two daughter cells.
(c) Telophase Endoplasmic reticulum and
nucleolus not reformed yet
(d) Telophase Nuclear envelop reforms,
golgi complex reforms
58. The following diagram is of a typical cell cycle indicating
formation of two cells from one cell.
X
Cytokinesis
Telophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Prophase
Y
Z
M Phase
G0
Choose the correct option showing the correct
identification of X, Y, & Z.
(a) X - G1
; Y - S; Z - G2
(b) X - G2
; Y - S; Z - G1
(c) X - G0
; Y - S; Z - G2
(d) X - G1
; Y - G0
; Z - S
59. A stage of mitosis is shown in the given diagram. Identify
stage with its characteristics?
(a) Late prophase – Chromosomes move to spindle
equator.
(b) Metaphase – Spindle fibres attached to kinetochores,
centromeres split and chromatids separate
(c) Metaphase – chromosomes moved to spindle
equator chromosomes made up of two sister
chromatids
(d) Anaphase – centromeres split and chromatids
separate and start moving away
60. Choose the diagram which correctly depicts anaphase I.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
61. Identify the given figures (A, B & C) showing meiotic
phases and select the correct option.
A B
C
(a) A-Metaphase B-Anaphase C-Telophase
(b) A-Metaphase-I B-Anaphase-I C-Telophase-I
(c) A-Metaphase-II B-Anaphase-II C-Telophase-II
(d) A-Anaphase-I B-Metaphase-I C-Telophase-I
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
94 Biology
62. Identify the phases from the graph given below that shows
the change in DNA content during various phases (A to
D) of mitotic cell cycle.
A C B D
4C
2C
Time
D
N
A co
ntent
A B C D
(a) G2 G1 S M
(b) G2 S G1 M
(c) G1 S G2 M
(d) M G1 S G2
63. The diagram shows a cell whose diploid chromosome
number is four. Which one of the following option shows
correct stage of cell ?
(a) Metaphase
(b) Anaphase of mitosis
(c) Anaphase I of meiosis
(d) Anaphase II of meiosis
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
64. In the somatic cell cycle
(a) In G1
phase, DNA content is double the amount of
DNA present in the original cell.
(b) DNA replication takes place in S-phase.
(c) a short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase.
(d) G2
phase follows mitotic phase.
65. In which stage of the cell cycle, histone proteins are
synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?
(a) During G2
stage of prophase.
(b) During S-phase.
(c) During entire prophase.
(d) During telophase.
66. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to
make 128 cells?
(a) 7 (b) 14
(c) 28 (d) 64
67. During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis
do you expect to find the bivalents and DNA replication
respectively?
(a) Pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic
divisions).
(b) Pachytene and interphase (just prior to prophase I).
(c) Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to
prophase I).
(d) Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to
prophase I).
68. Significance of meiosis lies in
(a) reduction of chromosome number to one half.
(b) maintaining consistancy of chromosome number
during sexual reproduction.
(c) production of genetic variability.
(d) all of the above.
69. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 100
pollen grains ?
(a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 125
70. Mitosis and meiosis take place respectively in
(a) meristem and gametangia.
(b) gametangia and meristem.
(c) permanent tissues and secretory tissues.
(d) secretory tissues and permanent tissues.
71. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class
and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the
following stages can you most conveniently look into?
(a) Metaphase (b) Telophase
(c) Anaphase (d) Prophase
72. Which of the following is the result when karyokinesis is
not followed by cytokinesis ?
(a) Synaptonemal complex
(b) Syncytium
(c) Recombination nodules
(d) Terminalization
73. Which of the following occurs only once in life cycle ?
(a) Replication of histone.
(b) Replication of chromosomes.
(c) Mitosis
(d) Meiosis
74. “G0
” state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle denotes
(a) check point before entering the next phase.
(b) pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope with a
temporary delay.
(c) death of a cell.
(d) exit of cells from cell cycle.
75. Mitosis occurs in
(a) haploid individuals. (b) diploid individuals.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) in bacteria only.
76. Mitosis is the process by which eukaryotic cells
(a) expose the genes for protein synthesis.
(b) become specialized in structure and function.
(c) multiply.
(d) grow.
77. The major event that occurs during the anaphase of
mitosis, which brings about the equal distribution of
chromosomes is
(a) replication of the genetic material.
(b) splitting of the chromatids.
(c) splitting of the centromeres.
(d) condensation of the chromatin.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 95
78. In animal cells, cytokinesis involves
(a) the separation of sister chromatids.
(b) the contraction of the contractile ring of
microfilament.
(c) depolymerization of kinetochore microtubules.
(d) a protein kinase that phosphorylates other enzymes.
79. Which of the following will show simple cell division?
(a) Microspore mother cells
(b) Megaspore mother cells
(c) Archesporial cells
(d) All of the above.
80. In Meiosis,
(a) division of nucleus twice but DNA replicates only
once.
(b) division of nucleus twice and DNA replicates twice.
(c) division of nucleus once and replication of DNA is
also once.
(d) division of nucleus once and DNA - replication is
twice.
81. Four daughter cells formed after meiosis are
(a) genetically similar (b) genetically different
(c) anucleate (d) multinucleate
82. Number of bivalents are 8 in prophase I. What is the
number of chromosomes during anaphase II ?
(a) 8 (b) 4
(c) 13 (d) 32
83. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent cell as
well as amongst themselves due to
(a) segregation, independent assortment and crossing
over.
(b) segregation and crossing over.
(c) independent assortment and crossing over.
(d) segregation and independent assortment.
84. The separation of two chromatids of each chromosome at
early anaphase is initiated by
(a) the interaction of centromere with the chromosomal
fibres.
(b) the elongation of metaphasic spindle.
(c) the force of repulsion between the divided
kinetochores.
(d) All of the above.
85. Cell would normally proceed to mitosis without interruption
(a) once it has entered the S phase.
(b) once it has entered the G2
phase.
(c) at any time during cell division activity.
(d) none of the above
86. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous
chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain
associated at their centromeres.
(a) Metaphase I (b) Metaphase II
(c) Anaphase I (d) Anaphase II
87. In telophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle breaks down
and nuclear membranes form. This is essentially the
opposite of what happens in
(a) prophase (b) interphase
(c) metaphase (d) S phase
88. At which stage, the homologous chromosomes separate
due to repulsion, but are yet held by chiasmata ?
(a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene
(c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
89. A triploid nucleus cannot undergo meiosis because
(a) crossing over does not occur.
(b) karyokinesis can not occur.
(c) chromosomes do not replicate.
(d) not all of the chromosomes can form homologous
pairs.
90. Crossing over
(a) is important in genetic recombination.
(b) makes a cell become cancerous.
(c) is a key process that occurs during mitosis.
(d) is an important mechanism of chromosome repair.
91. It is important that the centromere not divide till the end
of metaphase because it
(a) is connected with nuclear membrane.
(b) contains genes that control prophase.
(c) holds the replicated DNA molecules together.
(d) produces spindle fibres.
92. Which of the following does not lead to genetic
variability?
(a) Random fertilization.
(b) Crossing over during meiosis.
(c) Division of chromosomes during anaphase of
mitosis.
(d) Orientation of chromosomes during metaphase I of
meiosis.
93. Which of the following carry the same genetic information?
(a) Sister chromatids
(b) X and Y chromosomes
(c) All autosomes
(d) Homologous chromosomes
94. 'X' ensures the production of 'Y' phase in the life cycle of
sexually reproducing organisms whereas fertilization
restores the 'Z' phase.
Identify X, Y and Z.
. (a) X- Mitosis, Y - haploid, Z - haploid
(b) X- Mitosis, Y - diploid, Z - diploid
(c) X- Meiosis, Y - haploid, Z - diploid
(d) X- Meiosis, Y - diploid, Z - diploid
95. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of
the new cell wall and also represents the middle lamella
between the walls of two adjacent cells?
(a) Cell plate (b) Cell inclusion
(c) Cell membrane (d) None of the above
96. The following events occur during the process of meiosis.
Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct
sequence.
I. Terminalization
II. Crossing over
III. Synapsis
IV. Disjunction of genomes
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, III, IV, I
(c) III, II, I, IV (d) IV, I, II, III
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 11 Transport in Plants
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. In a fully turgid cell
(a) ys
will be negative and yp will be positive.
(b) yp will be negative and ys will be positive.
(c) Both yp and ys will be positive.
(d) Both ys and yp will be negative.
2. Which of the following pairs of the cell structures are
important for determining the movement of molecules in
or out of the plant cell?
(a) Tonoplast + Vacuolar membrane
(b) Tonoplast + Cell membrane
(c) Cell wall + Cell membrane
(d) Cell wall + Tonoplasts
3. The process in which water moves out of the cell and the
cell membrane of a plant cell shrinks away from its cell wall
is known as
(a) diffusion (b) osmosis
(c) plasmolysis (d) bulk flow
4. Phenomenon of plasmolysis occurs when
(a) cells are kept in hypertonic solution.
(b) cells are kept in hypotonic solution.
(c) cells are kept in hypotonic solution.
(d) none of the above.
5. When a cell is plasmolysed, it becomes
(a) flaccid and its TP becomes zero.
(b) turgid and its TP becomes zero.
(c) turgid and TP becomes equal to OP.
(d) flaccid and DPD becomes zero.
6. Seed increase in its volume by the absorption of water
through
(a) osmosis (b) diffusion
(c) imbibition (d) plasmolysis
7. The process by which water is absorbed by solids like
colloids causing them to increase in volume is called
_______.
(a) osmosis (b) plasmolysis
(c) imbibition (d) diffusion
8. A cell swells up when kept in
(a) hypotonic solution (b) hypertonic solution
(c) isotonic solution (d) any of the three
9. Bulk flow of substances over the longer distances through
the vascular tissue is called
(a) simple diffusion (b) facilitated diffusion
(c) active transport (d) translocation
10. Movement that is aided by cytoplasmic streaming and
occurs from cell to cell through plasmodesmata is called
________.
(a) apoplast (b) symplast
(c) active transport (d) translocation
11. Casparian strip is made up of
(a) lignin (b) pectin
(c) suberin (d) cellulose
12. At which cell layer, water movement through the apoplast
pathway is restricted and is facilitated towards symplast
pathway?
(a) Cortex (b) Pericycle
(c) Epidermis (d) Endodermis
13. Which of the following organism helps in the absorption
of water and mineral ions from the soil?
(a) Nostoc (b) Anabaena
(c) Mycorrhiza (d) Spirullina
14. A pressure that is responsible for pushing up water to
small height in the stem is called
(a) positive root pressure
(b) turgor pressure
(c) pressure gradient
(d) negative root pressure
15. Guttation is loss of impure water which is the result of
(a) osmosis (b) diffusion
(c) root pressure (d) transpiration
16. Which of the following is the most acceptable theory for
movement of water through plants?
(a) Cohesion theory (b) Passive transport
(c) Root pressure (d) Capillarity
17. The force responsible for upward conduction of water
against gravity comes from _______.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Transport in Plants 97
(a) transpiration (b) translocation
(c) respiration (d) photosynthesis
18. Guard cells help in
(a) protection against grazing
(b) transpiration
(c) guttation
(d) fighting against infection
19. Which of the following wall of guard cells is thick?
(a) Side wall (b) Middle wall
(c) Inner (d) Outer
20. When a root absorbes minerals from a region of lower
concentration to a region of higher concentration, and
need energy then this type of absorption is called
(a) passive absorption (b) facilitated diffusion
(c) active absorption (d) osmosis
21. In root endodermis there is one way active transport of
ions because of presence of
(a) pericycle (b) suberin layer
(c) cortex (d) cellulosic layer
22. Sinks are related to
(a) transport of minerals (b) stomata
(c) hydathodes (d) phytochrome
23. Translocation of food in flowering plants occurs in the
form of
(a) starch (b) glyceraldehyde
(c) glucose (d) sucrose
24. During fruit development, photosynthesizing leaves would
be the __________ and the fruit would be __________
(a) sink, sink (b) source, source
(c) sink, source (d) source, sink
25. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place in
(a) xylem (b) phloem
(c) parenchyma (d) cambium
26. _______is mainly water and sucrose, but other sugars,
hormones and amino acids are also _______ through
phloem.
(a) xylem sap, loaded
(b) phloem sap, translocated
(c) xylem sap, translocated
(d) phloem sap, loaded
27. The hypothesis accepted for the translocation of sugar
from source to sink is__________.
(a) pressure gradient
(b) pressure flow hypothesis
(c) mass flow hypothesis
(d) both (b) and (c)
28. The process of loading at the source produces a
_________. condition in the phloem.
(a) hypertonic (b) isotonic
(c) hypotonic (d) hydroponic
29. Water in the adjacent xylem moves into the phloem by the
process of
(a) facilitated diffusion (b) acute transport
(c) simple diffusion (d) osmosis
30. Phloem tissue is composed of sieve tube cells, which form
long columns with holes in their end walls called ______.
(a) tracheids (b) sieve elements
(c) sieve plate (d) companion cell
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
31. Find out the incorrect statements.
(a) The process of plasmolysis is usually irreversible.
(b) The pressure exerted by the protoplasts due to entry
of water against the rigid walls is called yp
.
(c) The T.P. is responsible for enlargement and extension
growth of cells.
(d) Plant cells swell in hypotonic solutions.
32. Which of the following the statements regarding
mycorrhizae is incorrect?
(a) Mycorrhizal fungi form a network around the young
root and they penetrate the root cells.
(b) Mycorrhizae helps the plant to absorb water and
minerals.
(c) Root provides sugar and nitrogenous organic
compounds to the mycorrhizae.
(d) Pinus seed can germinate and establish without
mycorrhizae.
33. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
stomata?
(a) It helps in exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in
the leaf.
(b) It is open in the day time and close during the night.
(c) Opening or closing of the stomata is a change in the
turgidity of the guard cells.
(d) The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the stomatal
aperture is thin and rigid.
34. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Unlike water, all minerals cannot be passively
absorbed by roots.
(b) Most of the minerals enter the root by active transport.
(c) Ions are absorbed from soil by both passive and active
transport.
(d) All of the above
35. Which of the following statements is/are not incorrect?
(i) Water and minerals, and food are generally moved
by a mass or bulk flow system.
(ii) Bulk flow can be achieved either through a positive
hydrostatic pressure gradient or a negative
hydrostatic pressure gradient.
(iii) The bulk movement of substances through the
conducting tissues of plants is called translocation.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
98 Biology
(iv) Xylem translocates organic and inorganic solutes,
mainly from roots to the aerial parts of the plants.
(v) Phloem translocates water, mineral salts, some
organic nitrogen and hormones, from the leaves to
other parts of the plants.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (v) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iv) and (v) (d) (ii) and (v)
36. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) The apoplastic movement of water occurs exclusively
through the cell wall without crossing any
membranes.
(ii) The apoplastic movement occurs from cell to cell
through the plasmodesmata.
(iii) Endodermis is impervious to water because of a band
of suberised matrix.
(iv) Symplastic movement may be aided by cytoplasmic
streaming which occurs in Hydrilla leaf and
chloroplast.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
37. Which of the following factors affect transpiration?
(i) Number and distribution of stomata.
(ii) Percent of open stomata.
(iii) Water status of the plant.
(iv) Canopy structure.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
38. Which of the following statements, (i -v) regarding
transpiration is/are correct?
(i) It creates transpiration pull for absorption and
transport of plants.
(ii) It supplies water for photosynthesis.
(iii) It transports minerals from the soil to all parts of the
plants.
(iv) It heats leaf surfaces, sometimes 10 to 15 degrees.
(v) It maintains the shape and structure of the plants by
keeping cells turgid.
(a) Only (ii) (b) Only (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) All
39. The following statements are associated with translocation
of mineral ions.
(i) Mineral ions are slowly remobilised.
(ii) Younger leaves export most of their minerals content
to older leaves.
(iii) Elements most readily mobilised are P, S, N and K.
(iv) Some elements that are structural components like
calcium are not remobilised.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
40. Assertion : In symport both molecules cross the
membrane in the same direction at the same time.
Reason : In antiport both molecules move in the opposite
direction.
41. Assertion : More is the number of solute molecules, the
lower is yw.
Reason : Presence of solute particles reduces the free
energy of water and decreases the water potential.
42. Assertion : Osmosis is a special type of diffusion through
a semipermeable membrane.
Reason : The net rate and direction of osmosis depends
upon the pressure gradient.
43. Assertion : Stomata are usually open in the day time and
close during the night.
Reason : The opening or closing of stomata is due to the
change in the turgidity of the guard cells.
44. Assertion : Cohesion, adhesion and surface tension give
high tensile strength to water.
Reason : Capillarity is aided by small diameter of the
tracheary elements.
45. Assertion : Ions are absorbed from the soil only by active transport.
Reason : The proteins present in the membranes of root
hair cells passively pump ions from the soil into the
cytoplasm of the epidermal cells.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
46. Match column-I with column-II and find out the correct
option from the codes given below.
Column - I Column - II
A. Isotonic I. External solution is more
concentrated
B. Hypotonic II. Shrinkage of protoplasm
C. Hypertonic III. Solution is more dilute
than the cytoplasm
D. Plasmolysis IV Two solutions have the
same osmolarity
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Transport in Plants 99
47. Match the name of the activities given under column-I
with the description of activity given under column-II and
choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Cohesion I. The ability to rise in
their tubes.
B. Adhesion II. Loss of water
vapour from plant
parts.
C. Tensile strength III. Mutual attraction
between water
molecules
D. Capillarity IV. Attraction of water
molecules to polar
surfaces
V. An ability to resist a
pulling force.
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – III
48. Match the name of the activities given under column-I
with the description of activity given under column-II and
choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Transpiration I. Anaerobic respiration in
yeast
B. Guttation II. Active absorption of water
C. Exudation III. Loss of water vapour
from plant parts
D. Fermentation IV. Loss of liquid water from
leaves
V. Loss of water from
injured plant parts
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – V; C – II; D – III
49. Match column-I with column-II and find out the correct
answer from the code given below.
Column-I Column -II
A. Diffusion I. Hydrophilic substances
B. Osmosis II. Shrinkage of protoplasm
C. Imbibition III. Semipermeable
membrane
D. Plasmolysis IV. Free movement of ions
and gases
(a) A – II; B – I; C –IV; D – III
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
50. In the given figure, chamber A and B are separated by a
semipermeable membrane. Study the given figure and
choose the right option.
Semipermeable
membrane
(a) Chamber A has higher water potential and water will
move from A to B.
(b) Chamber B has lower solute potential and water will
move from A to B.
(c) Chamber A has higher solute potential and water will
move from B to A.
(d) Chamber B has lower water potential and water will
move from B to A.
51. Study the experiment shown below :
Y
X
Stands
Beaker Thistle funnel
Sugar solution
Semipermeable membrane
Pure water
After a few days, which of the following will have occured ?
(a) A rise in level X and Y
(b) A drop in level X and level Y
(c) A rise in level X and a drop in level Y
(d) A drop in level X and a rise in level Y
52. Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of
the parts marked as A, B, C, D and E in the given figure of
water movement in the leaf.
A
B
C
D
E Diffusion into
surrounding air
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
100 Biology
(a) A - Tracheids, B - Phloem, C - Mesophyll, D - Stomatal
pore, E - Guard cell
(b) A - Phloem, B - Xylem, C - Palisade, D - Guard Cell,
E - Water pore
(c) A - Xylem, B - Phloem, C - Palisade, D - Guard cell, E
- Stomatal pore
(d) A - Phloem, B - Xylem, C - Mesophyll cell, D - guard
cell, E - Water pore
53. Based on Munch’s pressure-flow hypothesis shown in
the given figure which of the following conditions would
increase the rate of translocation?
Sieve-tube elements
Companion sink (root cell)
cell
(a) An increase in the humidity in the outside air.
(b) A decrease in phloem unloading at the sink.
(c) An increase in sucrose production at the source.
(d) A decrease in photosynthesis.
54. The given figure represents symplastic and apoplastic
pathways of water & ion absorption & movement in roots.
Few parts are marked as A, B, C & D. At the endodermis,
water movement through the apoplast pathway is
obstructed by which part (marked as A, B, C & D)?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
55. Cell A and cell B are adjacent plant cells. In cell A,
ys
= – 20 bars and yp
= 8 bars. In cell B, ys
= – 12 bars and
yp
= 2 bars. Then
(a) water moves from cell A to cell B.
(b) there is no movement of water between cell A and
cell B.
(c) water moves from cell B to cell A.
(d) equal amount of water is simultaneously exchanged
between cell A and cell B.
56 . A plant cell placed in pure water will
(a) expand until the osmotic potential or solute potential
reaches that of water.
(b) becomes more turgid until the pressure potential of
cell reaches its osmotic potential.
(c) become more turgid until osmotic potential reaches
that of pure water.
(d) becomes less turgid until the osmotic potential
reaches that of pure water.
57. A boy is studying transport of a certain type of molecules
into cell. He finds that transport slows down when the
cells are poisoned with a chemical that inhibits energy
production. Under normal circumstances the molecules
studied by the boy is probably transported by
(a) simple diffusion (b) osmosis
(c) active transport (d) facilitated diffusion
58. Osmosis is a form of diffusion in which
(a) the solvent moves through a semipermeable
membrane from its region of higher chemical potential
to its region of lower chemical potential.
(b) the solvent moves through a semipermeable
membrane from its region of lower chemical potential
to its region of higher chemical potential.
(c) the solute moves through a semipermeable membrane from
a region of higher concentration to lower concentration.
(d) the solute moves through a semipermeable membrane
from a region of lower concentration to higher
concentration.
59. Water will move from its region of higher chemical potential
to its region of lower chemical potential until
(a) equilibrium is reached.
(b) amount of both solvent and solute in both regions
become equal.
(c) solvent amount in both regions become equal.
(d) solute amount in both regions become equal.
60. Read the given statement and answer the question :
“Osmosis is the diffusion of a solution of a weaker concentration
when both are separated by semipermeable membrane”.
What is the error in the statement ?
(a) The movement of solvent molecule is not specified.
(b) There is no mention of DPD.
(c) Behaviour of semipermeable membrane is not
specified.
(d) The exact concentration of solutions are not
indicated.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Transport in Plants 101
61. The net direction and rate of osmosis depends on both
the ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(a) X - Solute; Y - Solvent
(b) X - Pressure potential; Y - Solute potential
(c) X - Water potential; Y - Pressure gradient
(d) X - Pressure gradient; Y - Concentration gradient
62. Bacteria cannot survive in a highly salted pickle because
(a) salt inhibits reproduction of bacteria.
(b) they become plasmolysed and death occurs.
(c) nutrients in pickle cannot support life.
(d) enough light is not available for photosynthesis.
63. A cell is said to be flaccid when
(a) there is no net flow of water towards the inside or
outside.
(b) the external solution balances the osmotic pressure
of the cytoplasm.
(c) water flows into the cell and out of the cell and are in
equilibrium.
(d) the external solution is more dilute than the
cytoplasm.
64. Process of imbibition results in
(a) increase in the volume of imbibant but without
development of pressure.
(b) decrease in the volume of imbibant and development
of pressure.
(c) no change in volume of imbibant but pressure
develops.
(d) increases in volume of imbibant and development of
pressure.
65. Seeds when soaked in water, they imbibe because of
(a) OP inside the seed is low.
(b) OP of water is high.
(c) DPD of seed is very much low.
(d) water potential gradient between the seed coat and
water.
66. A bottle filled with previously moistened mustard seeds
and water was screw capped tightly and kept in a corner. It
blew up suddenly after about half an hour. The
phenomenon involved in this is
(a) diffusion (b) imbibition
(c) osmosis (d) D.P.D.
67. Dry wooden stakes, if driven into a small crack in a rock
and then soaked, can develop enough pressure to split
the rock. Such a pressure is built up through the
phenomenon of
(a) imbibition (b) transpiration
(c) turgor pressure (d) plasmolysis
68. A boy has taken fresh twig from a tree and then he placed
it into a coloured water. After a few hours he cut the surface
of the twig and examine it with a magnifying glass to study
the path of water movement. This experiment demonstrates
that movement of water occurs through
(a) xylem (b) phloem
(c) sieve tube (d) casparian strip
69. The movement of water from one cell of the cortex to the
adjacent one in roots is due to
(a) water potential gradient.
(b) chemical potential gradient.
(c) turgor pressure.
(d) mass flow.
70. ‘X’ breaks the continuity of the ‘Y’ pathway and forces
water and solutes to cross the endodermis by passing
through the plasma membrane. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(a) X - Suberin; Y - Tonoplast
(b) X - Suberin; Y - Symplast
(c) X - Casparian strip ; Y - Tonoplast
(d) X - Casparian strip ; Y - Apoplast
71. The path of water from soil upto secondary xylem is
(a) Soil ® Root hair cell wall ® Cortex ® Endodermis
® Pericycle ® Protoxylem ® Metaxylem
(b) Metaxylem ® Protoxylem ® Cortex ® Soil
® Root hair
(c) Cortex ® Root hair ® Endodermis ® Pericycle
® Protoxylem ® Metaxylem
(d) Pericycle ® Soil ® Root hair ® Cortex ® Endodermis
® Protoxylem ® Metaxylem
72. A Botanist discovered a mutant plant that was unable to
produce materials that form casparian strip. This plant would
(a) unable to transport water or solutes to the leaves.
(b) unable to use its sugar as a sugar sink.
(c) able to exert greater root pressure than the normal
plant.
(d) unable to control amounts of water and solutes it
absorbs.
73. Which of the following is correct regarding guttation?
(a) It occurs through stomata.
(b) It occurs through hydathodes.
(c) It occurs mostly during night and early morning.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
74. Which one of the following is not related to guttation?
(a) Water is given out in the form of droplets.
(b) Water given out is impure.
(c) Water is given out during daytime.
(d) Guttation is a process of universal occurrence.
75. Which of the following compound is used to study water
loss from a leaf and turns colour on absorbing water?
(a) Calcium chloride (b) Magnesium chloride
(c) Cobalt chloride (d) Sodium chloride
76. Stomata in angiosperms open and close due to
(a) their genetic constitution.
(b) effect of hormone.
(c) changes of turgor pressure in guard cells.
(d) pressure of gases inside the leaves.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
102 Biology
77. Stomata closes because
(a) guard cells lose turgidityand becomes flaccid
(b) of increased turgidity of the guard cells brought
about by exposure to light.
(c) O.P. of the guard cell increases
(d) of the movement of water from neighbouring cells
into guard cells.
78. Arrange the following events in a correct order that explains
the mass flow of materials in the phloem?
(i) Water diffuses into the sieve tube elements.
(ii) Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis.
(iii) Solutes are actively transported into the sieve
elements.
(iv) Sugar is transported from cell to cell in the leaf.
(v) Sugar moves down the stem.
(a) (ii) – (iv) – (iii) – (i) – (v)
(b) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii) – (v)
(c) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v)
(d) (iv) – (ii) – (i) – (iii) – (v)
79. If a stem is girdled,
(a) root dies first.
(b) shoot dies first.
(c) both die together.
(d) none of the above.
80. Stomata opens when
(a) guard cells swell due to a decrease in their water
potential.
(b) guard cells swell up due to an increase in their water
potential.
(c) guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of
potassium ions.
(d) guard cells swell by endosmosis due to influx of
hydrogen ions (protons).
81. Transpiration facilitates
(a) electrolyte balance
(b) absorption of water by roots
(c) opening of stomata
(d) excretion of minerals.
82. Which of the following will affect the active uptake of
water?
(a) Transpirational power of the root hairs.
(b) Typical tissue organization.
(c) Tension due to transpiration.
(d) Osmotic concentration of the cell sap of the leaves.
83. In part A of a plant, sugars are actively transported into
the phloem tissue. In part B, sugars are actively
transported out of the phloem. Which way will the phloem
sap move under these conditions?
(a) From A to B.
(b) From B to A.
(c) First from A to B; then, once the pressure builds up,
from B to A.
(d) First from B to A; then, once the pressure builds up,
from A to B.
84. If the external solutions balance the osmotic pressure of
cytoplasm, it is said to be
(a) isotonic (b) hypotonic
(c) atomic (d) hypertonic
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Hydroponics refers to the plant development
(a) without soil.
(b) in saline soil.
(c) in water without soil.
(d) without soil with alkaline pH.
2. Which of the following scientist for the first time
demonstrated the experiment on hydroponics?
(a) Von sachs (b) Arnon
(c) Knop (d) Skoog
3. More than ‘X’ elements of the ‘Y’ discovered so far are
found in different plants. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(a) X - 0; Y - 110 (b) X - 80; Y - 105
(c) X- 60; Y - 105 (d) X- 70; Y - 115
4. The essential elements which are required by plants in
large amounts are called________ and those required in
very small amount by the plants are called_________.
(a) micronutrients, macronutrients
(b) bulky elements, trace elements
(c) macronutrients, micronutrients
(d) trace elements, bulky elements
5. The amount of trace elements per kg dry matter is
(a) 10 m mole (b) above 10 m mole
(c) less than 10 m mole (d) 100 m mole
6. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms
is to act as
(a) binder of cell structure.
(b) co-factors of enzymes.
(c) building blocks of important amino acids.
(d) constituent of hormones.
7. Boron in green plants assists in
(a) sugar transport
(b) activation of enzymes
(c) acting as enzyme cofactor
(d) photosynthesis
8. Which of the following element activate an enzyme,
nitrogenase during nitrogen metabolism?
(a) SO4
2– (b) Mg2+
(c) K+
(d) Mo
9. _________ is an constituent of the ring structure of
chlorophyll and helps to maintain the ribosome structure.
(a) Manganese (b) Magnesium
(c) Molybdenum (d) Copper
10. Which of the following essential element is required for
photochemical reaction involved in photolysis of water?
(a) Cu2+ (b) Cl –
(c) Zn2+ (d) Mg2+
11. Which of the following elements are constituents of
protein?
(a) Nitrogen and phosphorus
(b) Nitrogen and chlorine
(c) Phosphorus and boron
(d) Chlorine and potassium
12. Which of the following elements in plants are relatively
immobile and are a part of the structural component of the
cell?
(a) Sulphur and calcium
(b) Sulphur and potassium
(c) Calcium and magnesium
(d) Potassium and magnesium
13. Which of the following element is necessary in plants for
protein synthesis and also it is a constituent of hormones
and many of the vitamins?
(a) Calcium (b) Phosphorus
(c) Nitrogen (d) Magnesium
14. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of
mineral nutrition?
(a) Necrosis (b) Chlorosis
(c) Etiolation (d) Shortening of
internodes
15. Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduces the
dry weight of tissues by about _______ is considered
toxic.
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) 40% Chapter 12 Okpgtcn"Pwvtkvkqp
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
104 Biology
16. The process by which mineral is absorbed is called
(a) passive absorption (b) active absorption
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
17. Denitrification is carried out by
(a) Nitrosomonas (b) Pseudomonas
(c) Nitrobacter (d) Nitrococcus
18. The bond in molecular nitrogen (N2
) is difficult to break,
because it is a
(a) double ionic bond.
(b) quadraplex hydrogen bond.
(c) triple covalent bond.
(d) triple ionic bond.
19. Which of the following represents the abiotic mode to
convert nitrogen to nitrogen oxides into the soil?
(a) Lightening (b) Temperature
(c) Ammonification (d) Nitrification
20. Conversion of N º N to NH3
occurs in plant cell by
(a) free-living bacteria (b) symbiotic bacteria
(c) anaerobic microbes (d) enzyme
21. The enzyme _______ which is capable of nitrogen
reduction is present exclusively in prokaryotes. Such
microbes are called_____.
(a) hydrogenase, N2
-fixers
(b) nitrogenase, N2
-fixers
(c) hydrogenase, aerobic microbes
(d) nitrogenase, aerobic microbes
22. Frankia produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots
of
(a) leguminous plants (b) n on - l e g u m i n ou s
plants
(c) Cycas (d) monocot
23. Which one of the following is free-living, anaerobic
nitrogen-fixer ?
(a) Beijernickia (b) Rhodospirillum
(c) Rhizobium (d) Azotobacter
24. The nodule in a plant root where nitrogen fixing bacteria
live forms from cells of the
(a) epidermis (b) cortex
(c) endodermis (d) vascular cylinder
25. Which of the following plants will enrich the soil with
nitrogen?
(a) Corn (b) Alfalfa
(c) Wheat grass (d) Beets
26. Leghaemoglobin helps in
(a) transport of food in plant.
(b) nitrogen fixation.
(c) protecting nitrogenase from O2
.
(d) nodule formation.
27. Pigment present in the root nodules of legume is
(a) chlorophyll-c (b) fucoxanthin
(c) phycoerythrin (d) leghaemoglobin
28. The primary amino acid from which other 17 amino acids
are formed through the process of transamination is
(a) glycine (b) aspartic acid
(c) glutamic acid (d) arachidonic acid
29. Asparagine and glutamine are the two most important
(a) amino acid (b) amides
(c) imino acid (d) proteins
30. Nitrogen fixation is a process of
(a) converting nitrogen in the air to form a usable form
by plants.
(b) recycling nitrogen from organic matter in the soil.
(c) absorbing nitrogen from the soil.
(d) conversion of NO3
to N2 .
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
31. Which of the following statements is not correct about
macro- nutrients?
(a) They are present in plant tissues in excess of 100 m
mole per kg of dry matter.
(b) They include C, H, O, N, P, S, K, Ca, Mg.
(c) Some elements attained from CO2
and H2O while the
others are absorbed from the soil.
(d) C, H & O are mainly obtained from CO2
and H2O.
32. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) Soil supplies minerals, harbours N2
-fixing bacteria
and other microbes, holds water, supplies O2
to root
at acts as matrix that stabilises the plant.
(b) Both macro and micronutrients forms component of
fertilizers and are applied as per need.
(c) Weathering and breaking down of rock enrich the
soil with dissolved ions and inorganic salts.
(d) Denitrification is not done by bacteria Pseudomonas
and Thiobacillus.
33. Which of the following statements about Rhizobium
legume nodule formation is not correct ?
(a) Rhizobium can only fix nitrogen after it becomes a
bacteroid within a root cortex cell.
(b) Rhizobium induces invagination of root hairs.
(c) Within an infection thread, Rhizobium is still
extracellular to the plant.
(d) The infection thread can fuse with any root cell of an
appropriate legume species.
34. Which of the following statements about nitrification is
not correct ?
(a) Nitrobacter oxidizes nitrite to nitrate.
(b) Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus convert
ammonium ions to nitrite.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mineral Nutrition 105
(c) Nitrification reactions are energy-producing
(exergonic) reactions.
(d) Heterotrophic plants are more directly dependent on
the nitrifying bacteria for usable nitrogen than
autotrophic plants.
35. Which of the following statements about nitrogen fixation
is correct ?
(i) Nitrogenase is only catalytic under anaerobic
conditions.
(ii) The energy for nitrogen fixation can be provided by
either photosynthesis or respiration.
(iii) In nitrogen fixation, nitrogen is reduced by the
addition of three successive pairs of hydrogen atoms.
(iv) Most nitrogen fixing microbes are aerobic.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (d) All of the above
36. Read the following statement and answer the question
Infected thread carries the bacteria to the inner ‘X’ cells.
The bacteria get modified into rod-shaped bacteroids and
cause inner ‘X’ and ‘Y’ cells to divide. Division and growth
of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ cells lead to nodule formation.
Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(a) X-pericycle, Y - cortical
(b) X - cortical, Y - pericycle
(c) X - endodermis, Y - cortical
(d) X - epidermis, Y -pericycle
37. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Magnesium competes with iron and manganese for
uptake and with iron for binding with enzymes.
(ii) Magnesium inhibit calcium translocation in shoot
apex.
(iii) Excess of manganese may induce deficiencies of iron,
magnesium and calcium.
(iv) Symptoms of manganese toxicity may actually be
the deficiency symptoms of iron, magnesium and
calcium.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
38. How many of the given statements are correct?
(i) The deficiency of any element can cause multiple
symptoms.
(ii) Same symptoms may be caused by the deficiency of
one or several different elements.
(iii) The concentration of the essential element below
which plant growth is retarded is termed as critical
concentration.
(iv) Chlorosis is the loss of chlorophyll due to deficiency
of N, K, Mg, Fe, S, Mn, Zn Mo.
(v) Different plants respond differently to the deficiency
of the same element.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Conversion of organic nitrogen to NH4
+ by soil
microbes is called ammonification.
(ii) Ammonia is first oxidized to nitrite by Nitrosomonas
and Nitrosococcus.
(iii) The nitrite is further oxidized to nitrate with the help
of the bacterium Thiobacillus.
(iv) In leaves, nitrate is reduced to form ammonia that
finally forms the –NH2
group of amino acids.
(v) Nitrosomonas, Nitrosococcus and Nitrobacter are
Chemoautotrophs.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
40. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
(i) The morphological changes are indicative of certain
element deficiencies and are called deficiency
symptoms.
(ii) The part of plants that show the deficiency
symptoms depend on the mobility of the element in
the plant.
(iii) Deficiency symptoms appear first in the young
tissues whenever the element are relatively mobile.
(iv) The deficiency symptoms of Cl, Z, N, O, are visible
first in the senescent leaves.
Of the above statements.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
41. Read the following statements (i to v) and answer the
following question.
(i) Nitrogen is very essential for the sustenance of life.
(ii) N2
- fixation requires a strong reducing agent.
(iii) N2
- fixation is accomplished with the help of nitrogen
fixing microbes, mainly Frankia.
(iv) The enzyme nitrogenase which plays an important
role in biological N2
fixation is very sensitive to carbon
dioxide.
(v) The energy, ATP, required is provided by the
respiration of the host cells.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iv) and (v)
42. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Solution culture/hydroponics contains all essential
minerals except one, the usefulness of which is to be
determined.
(ii) Na, Si, Co and selenium are beneficial element
required by higher plants.
(iii) Zn is the activator of nitrogenases while Mo is the
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
106 Biology
activator of alcohol dehydrogenase.
(iv) Zn is needed for auxin synthesis.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (ii), (iv)
(c) All of these (d) None of these
43. Ion transport in root occurs
(i) passively through channels.
(ii) actively through channels.
(iii) actively through carriers.
(iv) through both symplast and apoplast.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
44. Refer the given statements and answer the question.
(i) The element must be absolutely necessary for
supporting normal growth and reproduction.
(ii) The requirement of the element must be specific and
not replaceable by another element.
(iii) The element must be directly involved in the
metabolism of the plant.
The above statements apply to
(a) Criteria for hydroponics (b) Criteria for essentiality
(c) Role of micronutrients (d) Role of macronutrients
45. Which of the following mineral is associated with the
characters/functions given below ?
(i) Helps in formation of middle lamella.
(ii) Needed in mitotic spindle formation.
(iii) Accumulates in older leaves.
(iv) Involves in normal functioning of the cell membranes.
(v) Activate certain enzymes.
(vi) Plays an important role in regulating metabolic
activities.
(a) K+
(b) Fe3+
(c) NO3
–
(d) Ca2+
46. The functions given below are performed by which of the
following mineral ?
(i) An important constituent of proteins involved in
ETS.
(ii) Activator of catalase.
(iii) Essential for chlorophyll synthesis.
(a) N (b) Mg
(c) Fe (d) Cd
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
47. Assertion : Deficiency of sulphur causes chlorosis in plants.
Reason : Sulphur is a constituent of chlorophyll, protein
and nucleic acids.
48. Assertion : Macromtrients are generally present in plant tissues
in large amounts (in excess of 10 mmole kg-1 of dry matter)
Reason : Macronutrient includes iron manganese copper,
molybdenum, zinc, boron, chlorine and nickel
49. Assertion : Nitrogen is the essential nutrient element
requird by plants in the greatest amount.
Reason : Nitrogen is absorbed mainly as NO3
-
though
some are also taken up NO2
–
or NH4
+
50. Assertion : Chlorosis is the loss of chlorophyll leading to
yellowing of leaves.
Reason : This symptom is caused by the deficiency of
elements N,K, Mg, S, Fe and Mo.
51. Assertion :Ammonia is first oxidized to nitrate by the
bacteria Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus.
Reason : These nitryfying Bacteria are chemoheterotrophs .
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
52. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column - I Column -II
(Nutrients) (Functions)
A. Mg2+ I. Activator of
dehydrogenase
B. Zn2+ II. Activator for both Ru BP
carboxylaseoxygenase and PEP are
C. K+
III. Required for all
Phosphorylation
reactions
D. H2
PO4
–
IV. Plays an important role
in opening and closing
of stomata
(a) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(b) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(c) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(d) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
53. Match the items given in column-I with their examples
given in column-II and choose the correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
A. Free living aerobic I. Anabaena and Nostoc
nitrogen fixers
B. Anaerobic nitrogen II. Pseudomonas and
fixers Thiobacillus
C. Nitrogen fixing III. Nitrosomonas and
cyanobacteria Nitrococcus
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mineral Nutrition 107
D. Denitrifying bacteria IV. Azotobacter and
Beijernickia
E. Nitrifying bacteria. V. Rhodospirillum
(a) A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – III
(b) A – V, B – IV, C – I, D – III, E – II
(c) A – IV, B – V, C – II, D – III, E – I
(d) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II, E – V
54. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Manganese I. Component of various
enzymes and participate
in nitrogen metabolism.
B. Zinc II. Required for pollen
germination and
carbohydrate
translocation
C. Molybdenum III. Helps in splitting of
water to liberate oxygen
during photosynthesis
D. Boron IV. Needed in the synthesis
of auxin
(a) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – IV
(b) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
55. Match the column-I containing minerals with the functions
given in column-II and choose the correct combination
given.
Column-I Column-II
(Minerals) (Functions)
A. K I. Stomatal opening
B. Mo II. Constituent of cell membrane
C. P III. Photolysis of water
D. Mn IV. Free ion
V. Component of nitrogenase
and nitrate reductase
A B C D
(a) I, IV V II III
(b) I, V IV III II
(c) I , V IV II III
(d) IV I III II, V
56. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
combination from the option given below.
Column -I Column-II
A. Zinc I. Chlorophyll
B. Sulphur II. IAA
C. Magnesium III. Nitrate reductase
D. Molybdenum IV. Cysteine
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(b) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(c) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(d) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
57. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. P I. Found in some amino acids
B. S II. All phosphorylation reaction
C. I III. Not important for plants
D. Mn IV. Required for photolysis of
water
(a) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(c) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(d) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
58. Which of the following bacteria is correctly matched with
their function ?
A. Nitrosomonas – Nitrite to nitrate
B. Thiobacillus – Dentrification
C. Nostoc – Free-living nitrogen-fixer
D. Azotobacter – Anaerobic nitrogen-fixer
(a) A and B (b) C and D
(c) B and C (d) B and D
59. Which of the following is the mismatched pair?
Mineral elements Form that is absorbed by plant
(a) Nitrogen NO3
–
(b) Phosphorus H2
PO4
–
(c) Sulphur H2
SO4
(d) Iron Fe3+
60. Which of the following is an incorrect match of essential
element and function?
(a) Manganese - Structural component of chlorophyll.
(b) Calcium - Component of the middle lamella.
(c) Zinc - Enzyme activator.
(d) Iron - Component of ferredoxin.
61. Find the incorrectly matched pair.
(a) Rhizobium ® Alfalfa
(b) Frankia ® Alnus
(c) Rhodospirillum ® Aerobic
(d) Bacillus ® Free -living
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
62. The given figure shows a typical set up with their parts
marked as A, B and C. Identify A, B and C and determine
which experiment is demonstrated in the given figure?
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
108 Biology
A
B
C
A B C D
(a) Funnel for Aerating Nutrient Hydroponics
adding water tube solution
and nutrients
(b) Funnel for Aerating Nutrient Aeroponics
adding water tube solution
only
(c) Funnel for Aerating Water Tissue
adding tube culture
nutrients only
(d) Funnel for Aerating Water Hydroponics
adding water tube
and nutrients
63. The given diagram shows hydroponic/soilless plant
production. Plants are grown in a tube or trough placed on
a slight incline. The arrows indicate the direction of flow
of nutrient solution.
Nutrient solution is sent to the elevated end of the tube
from the reservoir by X and it flows back to the
reservoir due to Y . Identify X and Y.
(a) pump, pump (b) gravity, gravity
(c) pump, gravity (d) gravity, pump
64. Refer the figure given below and select the option which
gives correct labelling for all the four blanks A, B, C and D.
A B C D
(a) K Ammonification Animal Plant
biomass biomass
(b) NH3 Ammonification Plant Animal
biomass biomass
(c) CO2 Denitrification Animal Plant
biomass biomass
(d) CHO Nitrification Plant Animal
biomass biomass
65. The given diagram shows the development of root nodule
in soyabean. Thus structures are marked as A, B, C and D.
A
B
C
D
Identify the correct labelling of A, B, C & D.
(a) A-Rhizobial bacteria; B-Cortex cell; C-Outer cortex;
D-Infection thread containing virus.
(b) A-Rhizobial bacteria; B-Cortex cell; C-Inner cortex
and pericycle cells; D-Infection thread containing
bacteria
(c) A-Rhizobial bacteria; B-Endodermal cell; C-Inner
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mineral Nutrition 109
endodermis; D-Infection thread containing virus
(d) A-Nitrosomonas bacteria; B-Cortex cell; C-Inner cortex
and pericyele cells; D-Infection thread containing
bacteria.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
66. Plants absorb nitrogen from soil mainly in the form of
(a) N2
-gas (b) nitric acid
(c) nitrite (d) nitrate
67. Which of the following element is involved in plants for
protein synthesis?
(a) Potassium (b) Calcium
(c) Iron (d) Zinc
68. An important essential element which is required by plants
in the greatest amount is
(a) nitrogen (b) iron
(c) sulphur (d) copper
69. The minerals involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA,
for maintenance of the turgidity of cells and for the
activation of the enzyme catalase are respectively
(a) potassium, magnesium, chlorine
(b) sulphur, potassium, iron
(c) phosphorus, potassium, chlorine
(d) magnesium, potassium, iron
70. The term critical concentration means
(a) essential element concentration below which plant
remains in the vegetative phase.
(b) essential element concentration below which the
plant growth is retarded.
(c) essential element concentration above which the
plant growth is stunted.
(d) non-essential element concentration below which
plant growth is retarded.
71. Which one of these do plants require for the formation of
adenosine triphosphate?
(a) N, Cu (b) N, Ca
(c) N, P (d) N, K
72. In an active process, the entry or exit of ions to and from
the symplast requires
(a) ATP (b) cyclic AMP
(c) NADH (d) NADPH
73. A small aquatic plant was put in each of the petridishes -
X, Y & Z, containing different culture solutions. After six
weeks the plant in dish X had the same number of leaves
as it had previously & were all small and yellowish. Plant
in dish Y had more leaves of normal size and dark green
colour. Plants in dish Z had more leaves of normal size but
very pale. Which of the following show the element
missing in the culture?
X Y Z
(a) Magnesium Phosphorus Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus Magnesium Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorus Nitrogen Magnesium
(d) Magnesium Nitrogen Phosphorus
74. Some bacteria such as ‘X’ and ‘Y’ occur in soil which
reduce nitrate to nitrogen by the process of ‘Z’. Identify
‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’
(a) ‘X’-Nitrogen, ‘Y’-Pseudomonas, ‘Z’-Ammonification
(b) ‘X’-Nitrosomonas, ‘Y’-Thiobacillus, ‘Z’-Ammonification
(c) ‘X’-Pseudomonas, ‘Y’-Thiobacillus, ‘Z’-Nitrification
(d) ‘X’-Pseudomonas, ‘Y’-Thiobacillus, ‘Z’-
Dentrification
75. Biological nitrogen fixation is the
(a) reduction of nitrogen to ammonia by living
organisms.
(b) oxidation of nitrogen to ammonia by living organism.
(c) conversion of nitrogen to ammonia by UV radiation.
(d) conversion of ammonia to nitrogen by electrical
discharge.
76. All are free-living nitrogen fixers except
(a) Azotobacter (b) Beijernickia
(c) Anabaena (d) Rhizobium
77. Plant absorbs nitrogen from the soil in the form of
(a) ammonia (b) N2
(c) nitrite (d) nitrate
78. Which of the following is an anaerobic N2 fixing
bacterium?
(a) Azotobacter (b) Bacillus
(c) Rhodospirillum (d) Beijernickia
79. N2
+ 8e–
+ 8H+
+ 16 ATP ® 2NH4
+ H2
+ 16ADP + 16Pi
The above equation refers to
(a) ammonification (b) nitrification
(c) nitrogen fixation (d) denitrification
80. Nitrogen fixation by organisms requires conditions that
are
(a) aerobic (b) anaerobic
(c) saturated with sunlight (d) free of water
81. Which of the following bacteria can fix nitrogen for plants
such as clover and beans ?
(a) Denitrovibri (b) Rhizobium
(c) Pseudomonas (d) Nitrobacter
82. At physiological pH, for the formation of ammonium ion,
ammonia is
(a) protonated (b) deprotonated
(c) carbonylated (d) decarbonylated
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
110 Biology
83. Which of the following expression describes nitrogen
fixation?
(a) N2
+ 3H2 ® 2NH3
(b) 2NH+
4
+ 2O2
+ 8e– ® N2
+ 4H2O
(c) 2NH3 ® N2
+ 3H2
(d) 2N2
+ glucose ® 2 amino acids
84. A gardner purchases a commercial fertilizer. The label says
that it is 10-20-10. This label refers to the
(a) percentage of nitrogen, phosphate and potassium.
(b) percentage of nitrogen, carbon and oxygen.
(c) rate at which nitrogen is released from the fertilizer.
(d) ratio of organic to inorganic matter in the fertilizer.
85. The deficiencies of micronutrients, not only affects growth
of plants but also vital functions such as photosynthetic
and mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list given
below, which group of three elements shall affect most,
both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron
transport?
(a) Co, Ni, Mo (b) Ca, K, Na
(c) Mn, Co, Ca (d) Cu, Mn, Fe
86. Which of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen ?
(a) Albugo (b) Cystopus
(c) Saprolegnia (d) Anabaena
87. Which of the following is a free living aerobic nonphotosynthetic nitrogen-fixer?
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter
(c) Azospirillum (d) Nostoc
88. In plant nutrition, elements are classified as major or minor
nutrients depending on
(a) their availability in the soil.
(b) their relative production in the ash obtained after
burning the plants.
(c) the relative amounts required by the plants.
(d) their relative importance in plant growth.
89. Minerals are known to enter the plant root by means of a
number of mechanisms, including all except one of the
following. Which one of the following is a mechanism for
moving minerals into roots?
(a) Foliar feeding (b) Active transport
(c) Proton (H+
) pump (d) Cation exchange
90. The most abundant gas in our atmosphere cannot be
utilized by plants directly in its atmospheric form and is,
therefore, captured by certain bacteria that live
symbiotically in the nodules of roots. Identify the gas?
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Neon (d) Hydrogen
91. Legume’s roots have swellings called nodules that
(a) produce antibiotics that protect the plant from soil
bacteria.
(b) provide a steady supply of sugar to the host plant.
(c) increases the surface area for water uptake.
(d) contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
92. In plants a common symptom caused by deficiencies of
Cu, K, Ca and Mg is the
(a) formation of anthocyanin.
(b) bending of leaf tip.
(c) poor development of vasculature.
(d) appearance of dead necrotic tissues.
93. A boy notices that the young leaves of his tomato plants
are very yellow. Deficiency of which of the following
nutrient does this suggest ?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Carbon
(c) Water (d) Iron
94. Which of the following groups contain no species that
are able to fix nitrogen ?
(a) Cyanobacteria in the ocean and fresh water.
(b) Soil bacteria including Rhizobium.
(c) Cyanobacteria in lichens.
(d) Aerobic bacteria in the genera Bacillus and
Pseudomonas.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Photosynthesis is a/an
(a) physio-chemical process.
(b) physical process.
(c) chemical process.
(d) energy wasting process.
2. Photosynthesis is important because
(a) it is the primary source of food on earth.
(b) it is responsible for release of O2
into the atmosphere
by green plants.
(c) it is responsible for release of water vapour into the
atmosphere.
(d) both (a) and (b)
3. Half leaf experiment proves that
(a) light is essential for photosynthesis.
(b) CO2
is essential for photosynthesis.
(c) O2
releases during photosynthesis.
(d) chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.
4. One of the earliest experiments on photosynthesis was
done in 1770 by Joseph Priestley. He demonstrated that
(a) sun is the ultimate source of energy.
(b) water is essential for life.
(c) plants & animals “restore” the air for each other.
(d) chlorophyll captures light energy.
5. Contribution of Ingen-Housz in elucidation of process of
photosynthesis is that
(a) only green parts of plants exposed to light can convert
foul air (CO2
) into pure air (O2
).
(b) green plants convert light energy into chemical
energy
(c) plants have the capacity to purify foul air.
(d) sunlight is the ultimate source of energy for plants
and animals.
6. The experiment material used by Van Neil, to prove that
O2
comes out from water was studied on
(a) Chlorella pyrenoidosa
(b) Cladophora
(c) purple & green sulphur bacteria
(d) blue green algae
7. Which one represents the correct empirical equation of
photosynthesis?
(a) C6H12O6
+ 6O2 ® 6CO2
+ 6H2O + energy
(b) C6H12O6
+ 6O2
+ 6H2O ® 6CO2
+ 12H2O + energy
(c) 6CO2
+ 6H2O
Light
Chlorophyll
¾¾¾® 6O2
+ C6H12O6
(d) 6CO2
+ 12H2O
Light
Chlorophyll
¾¾¾® 6O2
+ C6H12O6
+ 6H2O
8. How can we separate leaf pigments of any green plant?
(a) Column chromatography
(b) Paper chromatography
(c) Electrophoresis
(d) Radio-isotopes
9. What is/are the function(s) of accessory pigments?
(a) They enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming
light to be utilized for photosynthesis.
(b) They absorb light and transfer the energy to reaction
centre.
(c) They protect reaction centre from photo-oxidation.
(d) All of the above
10. The light harvesting complex (LHC) is made up of
(a) one molecule of Chl a.
(b) very few molecules of Chl a.
(c) hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins.
(d) Chl a + Chl c + protein + DNA.
11. In a plant cell, which of the following pigments participates
directly in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
(a) Chlorophyll a (b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Chlorophyll d (d) Carotenoids
12. In PS-I, the reaction centre Chl a has absorption maxima at
_____________, while in PS-II the reaction centre Chl a
has absorption maxima at ___________. Chapter 13 Rjqvqõûpvjgõkõ
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
112 Biology
(a) P680, P700 (b) P700, P680
(c) P800, P600 (d) P700, P900
13. An energy diagram for the transfer of electrons in the
light reactions of photosynthesis in plants is
(a) cyclic photo-phosphorylation
(b) Z-band
(c) Z-Scheme
(d) non-cyclic photo-phosphorylation
14. Electrons are picked up by an electron acceptor which
passes them to an electron transport system consisting of
(a) phytochromes (b) cytochromes
(c) Z-scheme (d) redox potential scale
15. Splitting of water is related with
(a) photosystem I
(b) photosystem II
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) cyclic photo-phosphorylation
16. Correct equation that represents the photolysis of water
is
(a) 2H2O ® 4H+
+ O2
+ 4e–
(b) H2O ® 4H+
+ O2
+ 4e–
(c) 4H2O ® 4H+
+ O2
+ 4e–
(d) 2H2O ® 4H+
+ 2O2
+ 2e–
17. The chemiosmotic mechanism mediates
(a) ATP synthesis.
(b) splitting of water.
(c) reduction of NADP+.
(d) flow of electrons from PS - II to PS - I
18. ATP synthesis, in photosynthesis involves the
(a) establishment of a protein gradient.
(b) oxidation of water.
(c) reduction of NADP+
.
(d) flow of electrons.
19. In photosynthesis, protons accumulate in the
(a) inner membrane space of mitochondria.
(b) matrix of mitochondria.
(c) lumen of thylakoid.
(d) stroma of thylakoid.
20. The light-driven synthesis of ATP & NADPH, provides
energy and reducing power for the
(a) conversion of inorganic carbon into organic carbon.
(b) fixation of CO2
into trioses.
(c) for the production of sugars.
(d) all of the above.
21. No. of carbons in the primary CO2
fixation product of C4
plant is
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
22. Which was the first CO2
fixation product formed, in the
Calvin experiment, using radioactive labelled 14C in green
algal?
(a) 2-carbon organic compound
(b) 3-carbon organic compound
(c) 4-carbon organic compound
(d) 5-carbon organic compound
23. In Calvin cycle, RuBisCO incorporates CO2
into ribulose,
1, 5-bisphosphate which rapidly splits into
(a) 2 molecules of 3-PGA (b) 2 molecules of 2-PGA
(c) 3 molecules of 3-PGA (d) 3 molecules of 2-PGA
24. The total requirement of ATP & NADPH for each molecule
of CO2
fixed & reduced in photosynthesis in the Calvin
cycle is
(a) 2 ATP & 2 NADPH (b) 2 ATP & 3 NADPH
(c) 3 ATP & 2 NADPH (d) 4 ATP & 3 NADPH
25. Which is the primary CO2
fixation product in C4
plant?
(a) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (b) Oxaloacetic acid
(c) Phosphoenol pyruvate (d) RuBP
26. Site of photosynthesis in C4
plant is
(a) mesophyll cells (b) bundle sheath cells
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Cytosol
27. The primary CO2
acceptor in C4
plant is
(a) RuBP (b) phosphoenol pyruvate
(c) PEP carboxylase (d) PGA
28. Chloroplast movement is influenced by
(a) light exposure (b) dark condition
(c) atmospheric condition (d) number of mesophyll cells
29. Fixation of CO2
molecule through Hatch and Slack pathway
requires an enzyme called _________ .
(a) PEPcase (b) RuBisCO
(c) RuBP carboxylase (d) oxygenase
30. Bundle sheath cells
(a) are rich in RuBisCO.
(b) are rich in PEP carboxylase.
(c) lack RuBisCO.
(d) lack both RuBisCO and PEP carboxylase.
31. In the leaves of C4
plants, malic acid formation during
CO2
fixation occurs in the cells of
(a) bundle sheath (b) phloem
(c) epidermis (d) mesophyll
32. By looking at which internal structure of a plant can you
tell whether a plant is C3
or C4
?
(a) Kranz anatomy
(b) Distribution of mesophyll cells
(c) Bundle sheath cells only
(d) Both (a) and (b)
33. In C4
plants, the process by which C4
acid is converted
into C3
acid in the bundle sheath cell is known as
(a) carboxylation (b) regeneration
(c) reduction (d) decarboxylation
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Photosynthesis 113
34. A process that creates an important difference between
C3
& C4
plants is called____________.
(a) Calvin benson cycle (b) photosynthesis
(c) photorespiration (d) transpiration
35. Photorespiration is a wasteful process because
(a) there is no synthesis of sugars.
(b) there is no synthesis of ATP or NADPH.
(c) there is no synthesis of phosphoglycerate.
(d) both (a) and (b)
36. Photorespiration
(a) occurs because oxygen rather than carbon dioxide
links to the rubisco enzyme in the Calvin cycle.
(b) occurs more in C4
than in C3
plants under identical
conditions.
(c) describes the uptake of CO2
& the release of oxygen
in chloroplasts.
(d) All of the above
37. The principle of limiting factors was proposed by
(a) Blackman (b) Hill
(c) Arnol (d) Liebig
38. Plant factors affecting photosynthesis include
(a) number, age, size, and orientation of leaves,
mesophyll cells and chloroplast, internal CO2
conc.,
the amount of chlorophyll .
(b) nature of leaves, size of mesophyll cells and light.
(c) mesophyll cells, distribution and temperature.
(d) quantity of chlorophyll, size of leaves and CO2
.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
39. Which one of the following is incorrect about the activities
associated with PS - I and PS - II in non-cyclic
photophosphorylation ?
(a) Water is oxidised in PS - II, but not in PS - I.
(b) Photons (light) are needed to activate both PS - I and
PS - II.
(c) Photolysis of water, formation of ATP + NADPH + H
occur.
(d) Production of NADPH + H+
is associated with PS -
II, but not with PS - I.
40. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Site of photosynthesis is mesophyll cells of
chloroplast.
(b) In Z-scheme, movement of electrons is uphill in terms
of redox potential scale.
(c) In Z-scheme of photosynthesis, the electrons flow
from H2O to NADP+
.
(d) ATP synthesis is linked to development of a proton
gradient across a membrane.
41. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
pigments?
(a) Pigments are substances that have an ability to
absorb light, at specific wavelengths.
(b) Chlorophyll b is the chief pigment associated with
photosynthesis.
(c) Leaf pigments can be separated by chromatography.
(d) Accessory pigments protect chlorophyll a from
photo-oxidation.
42. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Photosystem-I receives electrons from photosystem-II.
(b) Photosystem-II receives electrons from photolytic
dissociation of water.
(c) Formation of NADPH is associated
with photosystem -II.
(d) Reaction centre of photosystem I is P700.
43. Which among the following sentence is incorrect about
light reaction?
(a) It is also known as ‘photochemical’ phase.
(b) It includes light absorption, water splitting, oxygen
release, and the formation of high-energy chemical
intermediates.
(c) Reaction centre consist of single molecule of chl a
but 2 molecules of chl b.
(d) The pigments are organised into two discrete
photochemical light harvesting complexes (LHC)
within PS - I and PS - II.
44. Which one of the following statement correctly describes
the cyclic photophosphorylation?
(a) Cyclic photophosphorylation has both PS-I and PS-II.
(b) Cyclic phosphorylation produces neither ATP nor
NADPH + H+
.
(c) Water is the ultimate source of e–
in cyclic
phosphorylation.
(d) Electrons are cycled in cyclic photophosphorylation.
45. All of the following statements are incorrect for non-cyclic
electron transport system, except
(a) Electron transport between PS -II to PS-I produces
ATP by substrate level phosphorylation.
(b) In PS-II, the oxidation of two water molecules
produces four electrons, four proteins, & a single O2
.
(c) Water is oxidized & electrons are released by PS-I.
(d) PS - II reduces NADP+
to NADPH.
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) H2
S, not H2O, is involved in photosynthesis of
purple sulphur bacteria.
(b) Light and dark reactions are stopped in the absence
of light.
(c) Calvin cycle occurs in the grana of chloroplast.
(d) ATP is produced during light reaction via
chemiosmosis.
47. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
RuBisCO?
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
114 Biology
(a) It catalyzes the fixation of CO2
.
(b) It has oxygenation & carboxylation both activity.
(c) It is the most abundant protein on earth.
(d) All of the above
48. Which of the following statements given below is incorrect ?
(a) The C4
plants respond to higher temperatures while
C3
plants have a much lower temperature optimum.
(b) Tropical plants have a higher temperature optimum
than the plants adapted to temperate climates.
(c) Some C3
plants are allowed to grow in CO2
enriched
atmosphere that leads to higher yields.
(d) Water stress causes the stomata to remain open
hence enhancing the CO2
availability.
49. Which one of the following statement is incorrect in
relation to photorespiration?
(a) It is a characteristic of C3
plants.
(b) The RuBP binds with O2
to form one molecule of
phosphoglycerate and phosphoglycolate.
(c) There is synthesis of ATP or NADPH.
(d) It occurs in daytime only.
50. Which of the following statement best support the fact
that photorespiration commonly occurs in C3
plants?
(a) C3
plants don’t possess Kranz anatomy.
(b) C3
plants have usually high CO2
compensation
species.
(c) C3
plants are less efficient in photosynthesis.
(d) C3
plants are characterized by RuBP oxygenase
activity under high oxygen supply.
51. Which of the following statements (i-iv) regarding
“Splitting of water” is/are correct.
(i) It is photolysis of water which provides H+
ions for
synthesis of NADPH.
(ii) It provides electrons for photophosphorylation &
activation of NADP+
.
(iii) O2
is evolved during this process.
(iv) It replenishes O2
consumed by living beings and
combustion.
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) All
52. Identify the correct statements for ATP synthase.
(i) This enzyme consists of two parts: hydrophobic
membrane bound portion called F0
& a portion that
sticks out into stroma called F1
.
(ii) F0
appears to form a channel across the membrane
through which proton can pass.
(iii) The conformational change in the F1
portion of the
complex synthesizes ATP.
(iv) The proton motive force that drives the synthesis of
ATP is associated with this enzyme.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) only (d) All of these
53. Why C4
plants are special ? Because,
(i) they have a special type of leaf anatomy.
(ii) they tolerate higher temperatures.
(iii) they show a response to high light intensities.
(iv) they lack a process called photorespiration.
(v) they have greater productivity of biomass.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
54. Consider the following statements with respect to
photosynthesis and identify the correct statements.
(i) The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4
cycle is PGA.
(ii) In C3
plants, the first stable product of
photosynthesis during dark reaction is RuBP.
(iii) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation
of ATP.
(iv) Oxygen which is liberated during photosynthesis
comes from water.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
55. Assertion : 6 molecules of CO2
and 12 molecules of
NADPH+ + H+
and 18 ATP are used to form one hexose
molecule.
Reason : Light reaction results in formation of ATP and
NADPH2
.
56. Assertion: C4
pathway of CO2
fixation is found in some
tropical plants.
Reason: In this pathway, CO2
is fixed by 3C compound.
57. Assertion : Mitochondria helps in photosynthesis
Reason : Mitochondria have enzymes for dark reaction.
58. Assertion: Bacterial photosynthesis occurs by utilizing
wavelength longer than 700 nm.
Reason: Here reaction centre is B-890.
59. Assertion: Six molecules of CO2
and twelve molecules of
NADPH+ + H+
and 18 ATP are used to form one hexose
molecule.
Reason: Light reaction results in the formation of ATP
and NADPH2
.
60. Assertion : Cyclic pathway of photosynthesis first
appeared in some eubacterial species.
Reason : Oxygen started accumulating in the atmosphere
after the non-cyclic pathway of photosynthesis evolved.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Photosynthesis 115
61. Assertion : C4
photosynthetic pathway is more efficient
than the C3
pathway.
Reason : Photorespiration is suppressed in C4
plants.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
62. Match the scientests given in column-1 with their work,
given in column-II & select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Priestley I. Determined the action
spectrum of chlorophyll
B. Jan Ingenhousz II. Provided evidence that in
green parts of plant glucose
is made & stored as starch
C. Sachs III. Plants purify air only in the
presence of light
D. Engelmann IV. Demonstrated that
photosynthesis is
essentially a light-dependent
reaction
E. Niel V. Revealed the essential role of
air in the growth of plants
(a) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – IV
(b) A – V; B – I; C – II; D – III; E – IV
(c) A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – III; E – II
(d) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – IV; E – II
63. The given figure shows the graph of light intensity (on xaxis) on the rate of photosynthesis (on y-axis). Few points
are marked as A, B, C, D and E.
Match the marked alphabets given in column I with these
correct interpretation given in column II.
Column - I Column - II
A. Limiting factor I. Some factor other than
in region A light intensity is
becoming
the limiting factor
B. B represents II. Light is no longer
limiting factor
C. C represents III. Light intensity
D D represents IV. Maximum rate of
photosynthesis
E. E represents V. Saturation point for
light intensity
The correct option is
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – III; E – I
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I
64. Match the column-1 with column II and choose the correct
answer using the codes given below.
Column -I Column -II
A. Emerson effect I. C4
cycle
B. Hill reaction II. Photolysis
C. Calvin cycle III. C3
cycle
D. Hatch & Slack cycle IV. Photosystem I & II
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
65. Which of the following pair is mismatched?
(a) Photosystem I – Uses the P700 molecule in its
photocenter.
(b) Antenna complex – Contains hundreds of pigment
molecule.
(c) PGA – 3- carbon compound.
(d) Dark reaction – Takes place in the grana of the
chloroplast.
66. Match the parts given in column I with the events given
in column II and choose the correct combination from the
options given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Grana of chloroplast I. Kreb's cycle
B. Stroma of chloroplast II. Light reaction
C. Cytoplasm III. Dark reaction
D. Mitochondrial matrix IV. Glycolysis
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
67. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
combination from the options given below.
Column -I Column -II
A. Oxygen evolving I. Pigments
complex ferric oxalate
B. Proton gradient II. High oxygen
concentration
C. Absorb light at III. ATP synthesis
specific wavelengths.
D. Photorespiration IV. Photolysis of water
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(c) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
116 Biology
68. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(a) C3
plant – Maize (b) C4
plant – Kranz anatomy
(c) Calvin cycle – PGA
(d) Hatch and Slack pathway – Oxaloacetic acid
69. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Sorghum — Kranz anatomy
(b) PS - II — P700
(c) Photorespiration — C3
plants
(d) PEP carboxylase — Mesophyll cells
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
70. The given figure of calvin cycle shows the carbon
assimilation in C3
plants. Choose the correct labelling of
the carbohydrate molecule (Marked as I, II and III)
involved in the Calvin cycle.
(I)
(II)
(III)
(I) (II) (III)
(a) RuBP Triose PGA
phosphate
(b) PGA RuBP Triose
phosphate
(c) PGA Triose RuBP
phosphate
(d) RuBP PGA Triose
phosphate phosphate
71. The given diagram represents the Calvin cycle.
P
Q
R
S
GP(PGA)
triose
phosphate
hexose
phosphate starch
RuBP
At which stage (inducated by P, Q, R and S)is CO2
incorporated?
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) S
72. The given figure shows the diagramatic representation of
the Hatch & Slack pathway few labelling are marked as P,
Q and R.
Mesophyll
cell
Atmospheric CO2
Plasma
membrane
Cell wall
HCO3
–
Phosphoenolpyruvate
Fixation Regeneration
P
Transport
C acid 4
Q
CO2
C acid 3
Fixation by
Calvin cycle
Transport
R
Plasmodesmata
Bundle
sheath cell
Which of the following option shows the correct labeling of P,
Q, and R
?
P Q R
(a) C3 acid Reduction C4 acid
(b) Fixation C4 acid Regeneration
(c) C4 acid Decarboxylation C3 acid
(d) Carboxylation C3 acid Reduction
73. The diagram below represents an experiment with isolated
chloroplasts. The chloroplasts were first made acidic by
soaking them in a solution at pH 4. After the thylakoid
space reached pH 4, the chloroplasts were transferred to
a basic solution at pH 8. The chloroplasts are then placed
in the dark. Which of these compounds would you expect
to be produced?
(a) ATP
(b) NAD
(c) G3
P
(d) C6H12O6
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Photosynthesis 117
74. The diagram given below shows ATP synthesis through
chemiosmosis.
Which option shows the correct labelling of A, B, C and
D in the diagram ?
(a) A - F1
, B - Thylakoid membrane,
C - Photosystem (I), D - Photosystem (II)
(b) A - F0
, B - Thylakoid membrane,
C - Photosystem (I), D - Photosystem (II)
(c) A - F1
, B - Thylakoid membrane,
C - Photosystem (II), D - Photosystem (I)
(d) A - F0
, B - Thylakoid membrane,
C - Photosystem (II), D - Photosystem (I)
75. Given below is the pathway (2-scheme) of light reaction.
Identify the blanks indicated by A, B, C and D.
Light B
LHC
LHC
e acceptor –
A
C
D
Electron transport
system
ATP
ADP + iP
H O 2e + 2H + [O] 2 →
– +
76. Study the given graph which shows the action spectrum
of A. Superimposed on B spectrum of chlorophyll a.
Identify A & B in the graph.
A
B
Wavelength of light in nanometres (nm)
400 500 600 700
Light absorbed
A B
(a) Rate of respiration Action spectrum
(b) Rate of respiration Absorption
(c) Rate of photosynthesis Action spectrum
(d) Rate of photosynthesis Absorption
77. The given figure shows the diagrammatic representation
of a section of chloroplast. Few plants are marked as A, B, C,
D & E.
A
B
C
D
E
Combination of which parts is responsible for trapping
the light energy & also the synthesis of ATP and NADPH?
(a) A, B, C (b) B, C, D
(c) C, D, E (d) A, D, E
78. Which one of the following correctly identifies X and Y
and and their functions in the given figure of chloroplast ?
X
Y
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
118 Biology
Structure Function Structure Function
(a) Grana Photolysis
of water Stroma CO2
fixation
(b) Grana CO2
fixation Stroma Photolysis of
water
(c) Stroma
Photolysis
of water Grana CO2
fixation
(d) Stroma CO2
fixation Lamellae Photolysis of
water
X Y
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
79. In non-cyclic reactions of photosynthesis, electrons from
chlorophyll molecules in photosystem-I are used in the
formation of NADPH. What is the source of such
electrons?
(a) Light
(b) NADPH
(c) Photosystem-I
(d) Photosystem-II, which splits water molecule
80. The reactions of Calvin cycle not directly dependent on
light, but they usually do not occur at night. Why?
(a) Night is often too cold for these reactions to occur.
(b) CO2
concentration in night is too high for these
reactions to occur.
(c) Plants usually open their stomata at night.
(d) Calvin cycle is dependent on the products of light
reaction.
81. To make 100 molecules of glucose, how many molecules
of ATP & NADPH are required?
(a) 1800 and 1200 respectively.
(b) 1200 and 1800 respectively.
(c) 1800 and 600 respectively.
(d) 200 and 600 respectively.
82. Chloroplasts are disrupted and the stroma separated from
the lamellae. The isolated stroma will fix CO2
if it is supplied
with
(a) O2
(b) RuBisCO
(c) light (d) ATP + NADPH
83. The correct sequence of Calvin cycle is
(a) Decarboxylation ® Oxidation ® Regeneration
(b) Decarboxylation ® Regeneration ® Oxidation
(c) Carboxylation ® Reduction ® Regeneration
(d) Carboxylation ® Reduction ® Regeneration
84. Which of following ratio is correct for the production of
one molecule of glucose through 6 rounds of Calvin cycle?
CO2
ATP NADPH2
(a) 1 2 2
(b) 6 18 12
(c) 6 12 18
(d) 5 6 9
85. Which of the following combination is correct for C4
plants?
(a) PEPcase C4
-cycle RuBisCO C3
-cycle
(b) PEPcase Calvin cycle RuBisCO C4-cycle
(c) RuBisCO C4
-cycle PEPcase C3
-cycle
(d) RuBisCO C2
-cycle PEPcase C3
-cycle
Mesophyll Bundle Sheath
86. In an experiment, the CO2
available to a C4
plant was labelled
with a radioactive isotope and the amount of radioactivity
in the chloroplast was measured. As photosynthesis
preceeded, in which of the following molecules did the
radioactivity first appear?
(a) Oxaloacetic acid (b) PEP
(c) Malic acid (d) RuBP
87. Which of the following plant species have highest
photosynthetic yield?
(a) Species that perform photorespiration
(b) Species possessing C3
pathway
(c) Species possessing C4
pathway
(d) Same for all
88. According to Blackman’s law of limiting factor, at any given
time, photosynthesis can be limited by
(a) light only (b) CO2
concentration
only
(c) both light and CO2
concentration
(d) either by light or by CO2
89. During monsoon, the rice crop of eastern states of India
shows lesser yield due to limiting factor of
(a) CO2
(b) light
(c) temperature (d) water
90. Why, at higher light intensities, gradually photosynthesis
rate does not show further increase?
(a) Higher light intensity activate more chlorophylls.
(b) Higher light intensity causes more transpiration.
(c) No need of more sugar formation.
(d) Other factors become limiting.
91. Under water stress, the rate of photosynthesis declines
because of
(a) stomatal closure leading to decrease in CO2
supply.
(b) reduced water potential that decreases leaf surface
areas for photosynthesis.
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) turgidity of leaf.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Photosynthesis 119
92. In C4
(sugarcane plant) plant,14CO2
is fixed in malic acid
in which the enzyme that fixes CO2
is
(a) fructose phosphatase
(b) ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
(c) phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
(d) ribulose phosphate kinase
93. What will happen if the supply of oxygen is decreased to
an illuminated wheat plant?
(a) Its photosynthesis would decrease.
(b) Its respiration process would stop.
(c) All physiological process would stop.
(d) Its photosynthesis would increase.
94. A student sets up an experiment on photosynthesis as
follows:
He takes soda water in a glass tumbler and add chlorophyll
extracts into the contents and keeps the tumbler exposed
to sunlight hoping that he has provided necessary
ingredients for photosynthesis to proceed (viz., CO2
, H2O,
chlorophyll and light). What do you think what will
happen after, say, a few hours of exposure of light?
(a) Photosynthesis will take place and glucose will be
produced.
(b) Photosynthesis will take place and starch will be
produced which will turn the mixture turbid.
(c) Photosynthesis will not take place because CO2
dissolved in soda water escapes into the atmosphere.
(d) Photosynthesis will not take place because intact
chloroplasts are needed for the process.
95. The electrons that are released by the photolysis of water
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation, ultimately end
up in
(a) glucose (b) ATP
(c) H2O (d) NADPH
96. ADP is phosphorylated and NADP is reduced, this
happens during.
(a) dark phase of photosynthesis
(b) light phase of photosynthesis
(c) Photorespiration
(d) Calvin cycle
97. During light reaction, as electrons move through
photosystems, protons are transported across the
membrane. This happens because of
(a) the primary acceptor of e–
(located towards the outer
surface of the membrane) transfers its electron not
to an e–
carrier but to H carrier.
(b) the primary acceptor of e–
transfers only its e–
to e–
carrier.
(c) the primary acceptor of e–
transfers only H+
to the
next carrier.
(d) NADP - reductase is present in grana.
98. During the light stage of photosynthesis, the
photoactivated pigment removes an electron from the
hydroxylation derived from the water molecule.
The fate of the free hydroxyl radical is that it
(a) is broken down into oxygen and a free radical of
hydrogen.
(b) is used to raise the activation level of chlorophyll by
donating a positive charge.
(c) is used to produce adenosine triphosphate from
adenosine diphosphate.
(d) reduces carbon dioxide to sugar.
99. The function of water in photosynthesis is to
(a) absorb light energy.
(b) supply electrons in the light dependent reaction.
(c) transport H+
ions in the light independent reactions.
(d) provide O2
for the light-independent reactions.
100. Which of the following is not concern with cyclic
photophosphorylation?
(a) Liberation of oxygen.
(b) Synthesis of ATP.
(c) It occurs in certain photosynthetic bacteria.
(d) Electron expelled from P700 return to it after passing
through different electron acceptor
101. Cyclic and non-cyclic flow of e
–
is used in plants to
(a) meet the ATP demands of Calvin-cycle.
(b) avoid producing excess NADPH + H+
.
(c) balance ATP and NADPH + H+
ratio in chloroplasts.
(d) All of the above
102. Which one of the following event occurs both during
cyclic and non-cyclic modes of photophosphorylation?
(a) Involvement of both PS - I and PS - II.
(b) Formation of ATP.
(c) Release of O2
.
(d) Formation of NADPH.
103. In a crop field a weedicide is used to remove weeds in
order to increase the yield. But the effect of this weedicide
is that, it blocks electron transport from photosystem II to
photosystem I. This will result in
(a) enhancement of dark reaction.
(b) failure of ATP synthesis.
(c) lack of reduction of NADP+
.
(d) both (b) and (c)
104. Cooperation of the two photosystems of the chloroplast
is required for
(a) ATP synthesis.
(b) reduction of NADP+
.
(c) enhancement of dark reaction.
(d) generation of protein motive force.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
120 Biology
105. Reduction of NADP+
into NADPH during light reaction
occurs in stroma because
(a) NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma
side of membrane.
(b) PS - I reduces NADP+
to NADPH +H+
in the stroma.
(c) The pH of the stroma remains constant.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
106. Assume the thylakoid membrane within a chloroplast is
punctured so that there is no separation between lumen &
stroma of thylakoid. Which of these process would be
most affected?
(a) the splitting of water
(b) the synthesis of ATP
(c) reduction of NADP+
(d) the flow of electrons from PS - II to PS - I
107. Two groups of isolated thylakoids are placed in an acidic
bathing solution so that H+
diffuses into the thylakoids.
They are then transferred to a basic bathing solution, and
one group is placed in the light, while the other group is
kept in the dark.
Select the choice given below that describes what you
expect each group of thylakoids to produce.
In Light In Dark
(a) ATP only Nothing
(b) ATP, O2 ATP only
(c) ATP, O2
, glucose ATP, O2
(d) ATP, O2 O2
108. By which of the following complex, proton is pumped to
reach ATP synthase, to participate in ATP synthesis.?
(a) Cytochrome b6
f (b) Cytochrome c oxidase
(c) Cytochrome a - a3
(d) Cytochrome bc
109. Number of carbons in the primary CO2
fixation products in
C3
plant is
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
110. How many molecules of RuBP & CO2
respectively are
required for production of 6 molecules of 3-PGA?
(a) 3 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 3 (d) 3 and 1
111. Which of the following does not participate in the process
of photosynthesis?
(a) Red algae (b) Green algae
(c) Brown algae (d) None of these
112. Which part of the plant do not perform photosynthesis?
(a) Cactus stem (b) Guard cell of stomata
(c) Mesophyll cells of leaf (d) Leaf epidermis
113. Photosynthesis is the transformation of
(a) light energy to chemical energy.
(b) chemical energy to light energy.
(c) light energy to kinetic energy.
(d) solar energy to potential energy.
114. Accessory pigments
(a) play no role in photosynthesis.
(b) release e
–
and get oxidized.
(c) transfer of e
–
to NADP.
(d) allow plants to harvest visible light of wider range
wavelengths.
115. Chlorophyll is suited for the capture of light energy
because
(a) certain wavelengths of light raise it to an excited
state.
(b) in its excited state chlorophyll gives off electrons.
(c) chlorophyll’s structure allows it to attach to
thylakoid membranes.
(d) all of the above
116. The pigment molecules responsible for photosynthesis
are located in the
(a) cytoplasm of the cell.
(b) matrix of the mitochondria.
(c) thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast.
(d) All of the above
117. Light reaction of photosynthesis results in the formation
of
(a) O2
(b) NADPH + H+
(c) ATP (d) All of these
118. During photosynthesis, electrons are continuously lost
from the reaction centre of PSII. By which process these
electrons are replaced?
(a) Sunlight
(b) Photolysis of water
(c) Release of oxygen
(d) Redox reaction
119. Breakdown of water during the photosynthesis molecule
leads to release of
(a) electron and proton
(b) electron and oxygen
(c) proton and oxygen
(d) electron, proton and oxygen
120. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have
(a) thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no
chloroplasts.
(b) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number
of chloroplasts.
(c) thin walls, no intercullular spaces and several
chloroplasts.
(d) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few
chloroplasts.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Respiration is a/an
(a) anabolic + exergonic (b) catabolic + exergonic
(c) catabolic + endergonic (d) anabolic + endergonic
2. ATP is
(a) an energy currency
(b) a nucleotide
(c) formed in both respiration and photosynthesis
(d) all of the above
3. Cellular respiration includes the various pathways by
which carbohydrates and other metabolites are broken
down with the consecutive buildup of
(a) ATP (b) protein
(c) vitamins (d) none of these
4. During the process of respiration, which of the followings
are released as products?
(a) CO2
, H2O and O2
(b) CO2
, O2
and energy
(c) CO, H2O and energy (d) CO2
, H2O and energy
5. Glycolysis occurs in the ________ and
produces________, which in the presence of O2
enters
the____________.
(a) cytosol; pyruvate; mitochondrion
(b) cytosol; glucose; mitochondrion
(c) mitochondrion; pyruvate; chloroplast
(d) chloroplast; glucose; cytosol
6. The enzymes, involved in the chemical reactions of
glycolysis are located
(a) in the fluid matrix of cytoplasm.
(b) in the mitochondrial matrix.
(c) in the nuclear sap.
(d) on the cristae of a mitochondria.
7. In which of the following reaction of glycolysis, a molecule
of water is removed from the substrate ?
(a) Frucoste-6-phosphate ® Fructose 1, 6-phosphate
(b) 3-phosphate glyceraldehyde ®
1, 3-biphosphoglyceric acid
(c) PEP ® Pyruvic acid
(d) 2-phosphoglycerate ® PEP
8. Decarboxylation is not involved in
(a) electron transport system
(b) glycolysis
(c) Kreb’s cycle
(d) alcoholic fermentation
9. Conversion of phosphenol pyruvic acid to pyruvic acid
and ADP to ATP are examples of
(a) photophosphorylation.
(b) oxidative phosphorylation.
(c) photoelectric phosphorylation.
(d) substrate level phosphorylation.
10. When oxygen is not available to a muscle cell, NADH
formed during glycolysis does not pass electrons to the
ETS. Instead, it passes hydrogen atoms to
(a) acetyl CoA (b) pyruvic acid
(c) fructose (d) ADP
11. Which one of the following process releases a carbon
dioxide molecule?
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Lactic acid fermentation
(c) Alcohol fermentation
(d) Hydrolysis of glycogen
12. In the fermentation of one glucose molecule, there is a net
gain of ______________ molecules of ATP.
(a) one (b) two
(c) six (d) eight
13. In an anaerobic condition, yeast cells breakdown glucose
into
(a) CO2
+ H2O (b) C2H5OH and CO2
(c) CO2
+ lactic acid (d) CO2
+ pyruvic acid
14. The formation of acetyl coenzyme A from pyruvic acid
produces (in addition to acetyl coenzyme A) one molecule
of A , one molecule of B , and one molecule
(ion) of C , Identify A, B and C respectively.
B C
(a) H
+ CO2 NADH
(b) CO2 H
+ NADH
(c) NADH O2 H
+
(d) CO2 NADH H
+
A
15. Which of the following are not used in the conversion by
pyruvate to acetyl CoA?
(i) Oxidative dehydrogenation
(ii) Oxidative dehydration
(iii) Oxidative phosphorylation
(iv) Oxidative decarboxylation Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
122 Biology
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
16. Which one of the following reactions is an example of
oxidative decarboxylation?
(a) Conversion of succinate to fumarate.
(b) Conversion of fumarate to malate.
(c) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.
(d) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate.
17. Which one of the following is essential for the respiration
as well as photosynthesis ?
(a) Ubiquinone (b) Cytochrome
(c) RuBisCO (d) Plastocyanin
18. In which one of the following do the two names refer to
tricarboxylic acid cycle?
(a) a-ketoglutaric acid and Krebs cycle
(b) Malic acid cycle and Kornberg cycle
(c) Citric acid cycle and Krebs cycle
(d) Oxaloacetic acid and Kornberg cycle
19. Citrate synthase, an enzyme of TCA cycle is located in
(a) cytosol in prokaryotes.
(b) mitochondrial matrix in eukaryotes.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
20. In citric acid cycle, energy bond (GTP) is produced as a
result of conversion of
(a) citric acid to a-keto glutaric acid.
(b) succinic acid to malic acid.
(c) succinyl - CoA to succinic acid.
(d) succinic acid to succinyl - CoA.
21. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 32 ATP
molecules are formed from NADH/FADH2
in
(a) respiratory chain
(b) Krebs cycle
(c) oxidative decarboxylation
(d) EMP
22. Acceptor of acetyl Co-A in Kreb’s cycle is
(a) malic acid (b) fumaric acid
(c) a-keto glutaric acid (d) oxaloacetic acid
23. Total number of ATP consumed during Kreb’s cycle is
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
24. Electron Transport System (ETS) is present in
(a) inner mitochondrial membrane.
(b) mitochondrial matrix.
(c) chlorophyll.
(d) chloroplast.
25. In the electron transport system, the final acceptor of
proton is
(a) cytochrome b
(b) cytochrome a3
(c) oxygen
(d) ubiquinone (substance A)
26. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain which donates
electrons to oxygen is
(a) cyt. b (b) cyt. c
(c) cyt. (d) cyt. a3
27. A major site for synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi
is
(a) F1
headpiece in mitochondria.
(b) F0
.
(c) F1
– F0
.
(d) mitochondria.
28. The F1
headpiece is a
(a) peripheral membrane protein complex.
(b) integral membrane protein complex.
(c) transmembrane protein.
(d) carrier protein.
29. How many ATP molecules can be produced through
oxidative phosphorylation of 2NADH2
and 3 FADH2
?
(a) 15 (b) 24
(c) 6 (d) 12
30. The main purpose of electron transport chain is to
(a) cycle NADH + H+
back to NAD+
(b) use the intermediates from TCA cycle
(c) breakdown pyruvate
(d) all of the above
31. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts
and mitochondria is based on the
(a) membrane potential.
(b) accumulation of Na ions.
(c) accumulation of K ions.
(d) proton gradient.
32. The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP
synthesis is
(a) cyt a a b c (b) cyt b c a a3
(c) cyt b c a3
a (d) cyt c b a a3
33. Which of the following is amphibolic in nature?
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
(c) TCA cycle
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation
34. Refer the given equation and answer the question.
51 98 6 2 2 2 2(C H O ) 145O 102CO 98H O Energy + ¾¾® + +
The R.Q of above reaction is
(a) 1 (b) 0.7
(c) 1.45 (d) 1.62
35. If R. Q. is less than 1.0 in a respiratory metabolism, it
means that
(a) carbohydrates are used as respiratory substrate.
(b) organic acids are used as respiratory substrate.
(c) the oxidation of the respiratory substrate consumed
more oxygen than the amount of CO2
released.
(d) the oxidation of the respiratory substrate consumed
less oxygen than the amount of CO2
released.
36. The overall goal of glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle and the
electron transport system is the formation of
(a) ATP in one large oxidation reaction
(b) sugars
(c) nucleic acids
(d) ATP in small stepwise units
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Respiration in Plants 123
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
37. Which of the following statement regarding the process
of glycolysis is correct?
(a) Glucose undergoes complete oxidation to form two
molecules of pyruvic acid.
(b) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form one
molecule of pyruvic acid.
(c) Glucose undergoes complete oxidation to form one
molecule of pyruvic acid.
(d) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form two
molecules of pyruvic acid.
38. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Kreb’s
cycle?
(a) It is also known as tricarboxylic acid cycle.
(b) It occurs in mitochondria.
(c) It starts with six carbon compound.
(d) It does not involve any decarboxylation step.
39. Select the incorrect statement about NADH during cellular
respiration.
(a) It is synthesized in glycolysis.
(b) It is transferred into the mitochondria.
(c) It undergoes oxidative phosphorylation.
(d) It is reduced to NAD+.
40. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to
the ETS?
(a) It is present in the mitochondrial matrix.
(b) Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise to 2
molecules of ATP, while that of one molecule of
FADH2
produces 3 molecules of ATP.
(c) Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor.
(d) In respiration, light energy is utilized for the
production of proton gradient.
41. Which of the following statement about cellular energyharvesting pathway is incorrect?
(a) Pyruvate oxidation can only occur under aerobic
conditions.
(b) Autotrophs can produce their own food but must
obtain energy from it by glycolysis & cellular
respiration.
(c) Fermentation usually occurs under aerobic
conditions.
(d) All of the above
42. Which of the following statement regarding pyruvate
during aerobic respiration is incorrect?
(a) It is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of
carbohydrates in the mitochondrial matrix.
(b) It enters mitochondrial matrix & undergoes oxidative
decarboxylation.
(c) The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA is
catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase.
(d) Two molecules of NADH are produced from the
metabolism of two molecules of pyruvic acid.
43. Which of the following is a more accurate statement about
respiration ?
(a) O2
must always be available for respiration.
(b) O2
combines with carbon to form CO2
.
(c) O2
combines with hydrogen to form H2O.
(d) Air is inhaled and exhaled only from stomata.
44. Which of the following statement(s) concerning ATP
synthesis is/are correct?
(a) ATP can be synthesized through substrate level
phosphorylation, photophosphorylation and
oxidative phosphorylation.
(b) The proton-motive force is the establishment of
proton gradients and electrochemical potentials
across the inner membrane.
(c) Proton-motive force is essential for back flow of H+
from outer chamber of matrix of mitochondria through
proton channel (F0
) of F0 – F1
particle to produce
ATP.
(d) All of the above
45. Which of the following statement is/are the correct events
in aerobic respiration?
(i) The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise
removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three
molecules of O2
.
(ii). The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise
removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three
molecules of CO2
.
(iii) The passing on of the electrons removed as part of
the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2
with
simultaneous synthesis of ATP.
(iv) The passing on of the electrons removed as part of
the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2
with
simultaneous synthesis of ADP.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
46. Which of the following statements (i to v) regarding
glycolysis are correct.
(i) It is ten enzymatic reactions that convert a six-carbon
molecule to a three carbon pyruvate and result in a
net gain of 2 ATP molecules.
(ii) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form one
molecule of pyruvic acid.
(iii) Glucose is phosphorylated to give rise to glucose - 6
- phosphate by the activity of the enzyme
phosphofructokinase.
(iv) The scheme of glycolysis was given by Gustav
Embden, Otto Morrison, and J. Parnas and is often
referred to as the EMP pathway.
(v) ATP is utilized at two steps: first in the conversion
of glucose into glucose 6-phosphate & second in
the conversion of fructose - 6- phosphate to fructose
1 ,
6-disphosphate.
(a) (i), (iv) and (v) (b) (iii) and (v)
(c) (iv) and (v) (d) (ii) and (iv)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
124 Biology
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
47. Assertion : Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.
Reason : Enzymes for glycolysis are found in cytoplasm.
It is common in aerobic/anaerobic respiration.
48. Assertion : The atmospheric concentration of CO2
at
which photosynthesis just compensates for respiration
is referred to as CO2
compensation point.
Reason : The CO2
compensation point is reached when
the amount of CO2
uptake is less than that generated
through respiration because the level of CO2
in the
atmosphere is more than that required for achieving CO2
compensation point.
49. Assertion : Stomata are absent in submerged
hydrophytes.
Reason : Respiration occurs by means of air chambers in
submerged plants.
50. Assertion : Glycolysis is the first step of respiration in
which glucose completely breaks into CO2
and H2O.
Reason : In this process, there is net gain of twenty four
molecules of ATP.
51. Assertion : The inner membrane of mitochondria contains
systems involving electron transport.
Reason : The mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes of
Kreb's cycle.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
52. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Inner mitochondrial membrane I. Krebs cycle
B. Pyruvic acid is converted into II. ETC
CO2
and ethanol.
C. Cytoplasm III. Fermentation
D. Mitochondrial matrix IV. Glycolysis
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
53. In the given columns, column-I contain complexes and
column-II contain their alternative names. Select the correct
match from the option given below.
Column - I Column - II
A. Complex I I. Cytochrome bc 1 complex
B. Complex II II. NADH dehydrogenase
C. Complex III III. ATP synthetase
D. Complex IV IV. FADH2
dehydrogenase
E. Complex V V. Cytochrome c oxidase
(a) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II
(b) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – III
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – III
54. Match the number of carbon atoms given in column - I
with that of the compounds given in column - II and select
the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A. 4C compound I. Acetyl CoA
B. 2C compound II. Pyruvate
C. 5C compound III. Citric acid
D. 3C compound IV. a- ketoglutaric acid
V. Malic acid
(a) A – II; B – V; C – III; D – I
(b) A – V; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – II
55. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Protein ® Degarded by proteases
(b) Fats ® Fatty acid + PGAL
(c) Kreb’s cycle ® Carboxylation
(c) Respiratory pathway ® Amphibolic
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
56. The given figure shows the few steps of the pathway are
indicated by P, Q, R and S major pathway of anaerobic
respiration.
+ CO2
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Respiration in Plants 125
Identify P, Q, R and S.
P Q R S
(a) NAD+ Ethanol Lactic acid PEP
(b) Ethanol NAD+ Lactic acid ATP
(c) Lactic acid Ethanol Glucose ADP
(d) NAD Lactic acid Ethanol DHAP
57. Refer the figure of citric acid cycle and choose the correct
combination of labelling (P, Q, R, S and T) the number of
carbon compounds in the substrate molecules, involved
in the given figure.
Oxaloacetic (P) (Q)
(R)
(S)
(T)
(a) (P) 4C, (Q) 6C, (R) 5C, (S) 4C, (T) 4C
(b) (P) 6C, (Q) 5C, (R) 4C, (S) 3C, (T) 2C
(c) (P) 2C, (Q) 5C, (R) 6C, (S) 4C, (T) 4C
(d) (P) 4C, (Q) 6C, (R) 4C, (S) 4C, (T) 5C
58. Refer the figure and identify X, Y and Z
Oxaloacetic acid = 4C
X Y Z
(a) GTP NADH2 CO2
(b) FADH2 NADH2 GTP
(c) NADH2 FADH2 GTP
(d) CO2 NADH2 ADP
59. In the given figure of electron transport chain - identify
P, Q, R, S and T.
Inner membrane
of mitochondria
Q
R
S
T
T
Cy c Cy a – a1
2e
–
2e
Cy c
UQ
H2
2e
UQ
T
1/2O2
2H
+
H O2
2e
FeS
2e
Cy b
UQ
H2
2e
UQ
2e
FeS Fes
2H
2H
FMN
T
T
P
(a) P - Matrix, Q - Outer membrane, R - RMNH2
, S -
NADH2
, T - 2H
(b) P - Inter membrane space, Q - Matrix, R - NADH+ H+
,
S - NAD+
, T - 2H+
(c) P - Outer membrane, Q - Cristae, R - NAD, S - NADH
+ H+
, T - H
(d) P - Cristae, Q - Outer chamber, R - NADH+ H+
, S -
NAD, T - 2H+
60. The given figure represents the interelationship among
metabolic pathways showing the respiration mediated
breakdown of different organic molecules to CO2
and H2O.
Now identify A to D.
A
B
D
Fatty
acids
Carbohydrates
Monosaccharides
E.g. Glucose
Glyceraldehyde
3-phosphate
Pyruvic acid
Glucose-6-phosphate
Fructose 1, 6 bis-phosphate
C
+ Glycerol Amino acids
Kreb’s
cycle
H O2 CO2
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
126 Biology
P Q R S
(a) 1,3 di PGA 3 PGA Fr.1,6 di P Fr. 6 P
(b) 3 PGA 1,3 di PGA Fr. 1,6 di P Fr.6 P
(c) Fr. 1,6 di P Fr. 6 P 3 PGA 1,3 di PGA
(d) Fr.6 P Fr. 1,6 di P 3 PGA 1,3 di PGA
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
62. Respiration substrates are
(i) the compounds that are oxidized to utilise energy.
(ii) the compounds that are reduced to utilise energy.
(iii) the compounds that are oxidized to release energy.
(iv) the compounds that are reduce to release energy.
(a) (i) only (b) both (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) only (d) Both (iii) and (iv)
63. Respiration is the breakdown of
(a) C-C bonds (b) C-H bonds
(c) H-H bonds (d) C-N bonds
64. Energy accumulate in ATP in
(a) disulphide bond
(b) hydrogen bonds
(c) high energy phosphate bond
(d) ester bond
65. Life without air would be
(a) reductional.
(b) free from oxidative damage.
(c) impossible.
(d) anaerobic.
66. What is the function of molecular oxygen in cellular
respiration?
(a) It causes the breakdown of citric acid.
(b) It combines with glucose to produce carbon dioxide.
(c) It combines with carbon from organic molecules to
produce carbon dioxide.
(d) It combines with hydrogen from organic molecules
to produce water.
67. During glycolysis, glucose split into
(a) two pyruvic acid molecules.
(b) two coenzyme A molecules.
(c) two lactic acid molecules.
(d) one lactic acid plus one ethanol molecule.
68. Which one is correct sequence in glycolysis?
(a) G 6-P ® PEP ® 3-PGAL ® 3-PGA
(b) G 6-P ® 3-PGAL ® 3-PGA ® PEP
(c) G 6-P ® PEP ® 3-PGA ® 3-PGAL
(d) G 6-P ® 3-PGA ® 3-PGAL ® PEP
69. Which of the following is correct sequence in Kreb’s
cycle?
(a) Isocitric acid ® Oxalosuccinic acid ®a-ketoglutaric
acid
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid ® Isocitric acid ®a-ketoglutaric
acid
(c) a-ketoglutaric acid ® Isocitric acid ® Oxalosuccinic
acid
(d) Isocitric acid ®a-ketoglutaric acid ® Oxalosuccinic
acid
70. In glycolysis, there is one step where NADH + H+
is
formed from NAD+
, this is when 3-
phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) is converted to 1, 3-
bisphosphyglycerate (BPGA). This reaction shows
(a) oxidative dehydrogenation
(b) oxidative phosphorylation
(c) oxidative dehydration
(d) oxidation reduction
71. If hexokinase, an enzyme that catalyzes the first step
reaction in glycolysis is blocked then what will be its
impact on glycolytic pathway ?
(a) Glycolysis will speed up.
(b) Glycolysis will slow down.
(c) Glycolysis will stop.
(d) Glycolysis will occurs normally.
72. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated
from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of
one mole of glucose to CO2
and H2O yields 686 kcal and
the useful chemical energy available in the high energy
phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal ?
(a) Thirty (b) Fifty seven
(c) One (d) Two
73. How many molecules of ATP are produced during
glycolysis?
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Respiration in Plants 127
74. The reasons for the involvement of different enzyme in
each step of glycolysis is that
(a) each step occurs in a different compartment of a cell.
(b) each step occurs in a different cells.
(c) each step involves a different chemical reaction.
(d) each step involves a different change in potential
energy.
75. For bacteria to continue growing rapidly when they are
shifted from an environment containing O2
to an anaerobic
environment, they must
(a) produce more ATP per mole of glucose during
glycolysis.
(b) produce ATP during oxidation of glucose.
(c) increase the rate of glycolysis.
(d) increase the rate of TCA cycle.
76. In alcoholic fermentation, NAD+
is produced during the
(a) reduction of acetyldehyde to ethanol.
(b) oxidation of glucose.
(c) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA.
(d) hydrolysis of ATP to ADP.
77. Fermentation takes place
(a) under anaerobic conditions in many prokaryotes and
unicellular eukaryotes.
(b) under aerobic conditions in many prokaryotes and
unicellular eukaryotes.
(c) under anaerobic conditions in all prokaryotes and
unicellular eukaryotes.
(d) under aerobic conditions in all prokaryotes and
unicellular eukaryotes.
78. In the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl coenzyme A,
NAD+
is
(a) oxidized
(b) reduced
(c) broken into one-carbon units
(d) isomerized
79. Initial step of TCA cycle to yield citric acid starts with the
condensation of
(a) acetyl group with OAA & H2O & catalyzed by the
enzyme citrate synthase.
(b) acetyl group with pyruvate & H2O & catalysed by
the enzyme citrates synthase.
(c) acetyl group with OAA & H2O & is independent of
the enzyme.
(d) none of the above.
80. End products of Krebs cycle from one molecule of glucose
is
(a) 2ATP, 2NADH, 2FADH2
, CO2
and H2O
(b) 2ATP, 8NADH, 2FADH2
, CO2
and H2O
(c) 8ATP, 4NADH, FADH2
, CO2
and H2O
(d) ATP, 4NADH, FADH2
, CO2
and H2O
81. In Kreb’s cycle, the conversion of succinyl CoA to
succinic acid requires
(a) Acetyl CoA + GDP + iP (b) CoA + GTP + iP
(c) Acetyl CoA+ GTP + iP (d) GDP + iP
82. Single turn of citric acid cycle yields
(a) 2FADH2
, 2NADH2
, 2GTP
(b) 1FADH2
, 2NADH2
, 1GTP
(c) 1FADH2
, 4NADH2
, 1GTP
(d) 1FADH2
, 1NADH2
, 2GTP
83. Which one of the following is complex V of the ETS of
inner mitochondrial membrane?
(a) NADH dehydrogenase
(b) ATP synthetase
(c) Succinate dehydrogenase
(d) Ubiquinone
84. O2
is used by
(a) citric acid cycle
(b) electron transport chain
(c) substrate level phosphorylation
(d) ATP synthase
85. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the
(a) outer membrane (b) inner membrane
(c) inter membrane space (d) matrix
86. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative
phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate
(ATP) is formed because
(a) high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial
proteins.
(b) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the
intermembrane space.
(c) a proton gradient forms across the inner membrane.
(d) there is a change in the permeability of the inner
mitochondrial membrane toward adenosine
diphosphate (ADP).
87. Reduced form of ubiquinone is
(a) ubiquinine (b) ubiquinol
(c) ubiquitine (d) all of the above
88. Cytochrome oxidase contain
(a) Fe (b) Mg
(c) Zn (d) Cu
89. Acetyl CoA is formed by the breakdown of
(a) fats (b) fatty acid
(c) glycerol (d) PGAL
90. In some succulent plants like Opuntia the R. Q. is zero
because
(a) CO2
is released without any absorption of O2
.
(b) O2
is absorbed but CO2
is not released.
(c) there is often compensation point in these plants
due to thick phylloclades.
(d) none of the above
91. In alcoholic fermentation
(a) oxygen is the electron acceptor.
(b) triose phosphate is the electron donor while
acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor.
(c) triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic
acid is the electron acceptor.
(d) there is no electron donor.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
128 Biology
92. Which one of the following is not included in glycolysis
?
(a) Substrate level phosphorylation occur.
(b) The end products are CO2
and H2O.
(c) ATP is formed.
(d) ATP is used.
93. Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow
which pathway ?
(a) Glycolysis ® NADH ® Oxidative phosphorylation
® ATP ® O2
(b) Krebs’ cycle ® FADH2 ® ETS ® ATP
(c) ETS ® Krebs’ cycle ® ATP ® O2
(d) Krebs’ cycle ® NADH + H+ ® Electron transport
chain ® O2
94. The expressions given below shows the summary
equations I, II and III.
(I)
(II) C6H12O6
+ NAD+
+ 2ADP + 2Pi
® 2C3H4O3
+ 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H+
(III) Pyruvic acid + 4NAD+
+ FAD+
+ 2H2O + ADP + Pi
® 3CO2
+ 4NADH + 4H+
+ ATP + FADH2
Categorise the summary equations under respective
phases.
I II III
(a) Krebs’ cycle Glycolysis Fermentation
(b) Glycolysis Krebs’ cycle Fermentation
(c) Fermentation Krebs’ cycle Glycolysis
(d) Fermentation Glycolysis Krebs’ cycle
95. Fermentation is represented by the equation
(a) C6H12O6
+ 6O2® 6CO2
+ 6H2O + 673 k cal
(b) C6H12O6 ® 2C2H5OH + 2CO2
+ 18 k cal
(c) 6CO2
+ 12H2O Light
Chlorophyll ¾¾¾¾¾® C6H12O6
+ 6H2O +
6O2
(d) 6CO2
+ 6H2O ® C6H12O6
+ 6O2
96. The common phase between aerobic and anaerobic
respiration is called
(a) tricarboxylic acid cycle
(b) Oxidative phosphorylation
(c) Embden, Meyerhof, Parnas cycle (Glycolysis)
(d) Fermentation
97. Conversion of phosphoglyceraldehyde to 1, 1-biphosphoglyceric acid is a
(a) primary reaction only
(b) redox reaction only
(c) primary and redox reaction
(d) substrate level phosphorylation reaction
98. In respiration, largest amount of energy is produced in
(a) anaerobic respiration
(b) Krebs’ cycle
(c) glycolysis
(d) none of the above
99. In which one of the following reactions, substrate level
phosphorylation does not occur?
(a) 1, 3-biphosphoglyceric acid ® 3, phosphoglyceric
acid
(b) Glucose-6-phosphate ® Fructose 6 phosphate
(c) Succinyl CoA ® Succinic acid
(d) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid ® pyruvic acid
100. Which of the following processes make direct use of
oxygen?
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Fermentation
(c) Electron transport
(d) Krebs citric acid cycle
101. Lactic acid is formed by the process of
(a) fermentation (b) HMP pathway
(c) glycolysis (d) none of these
102. Oxidative phosphorylation refers to
(a) anaerobic production of ATP.
(b) the citric acid cycle production of ATP.
(c) production of ATP by chemiosmosis.
(d) alcoholic fermentation.
103. Cytochrome oxidase is a/an
(a) exoenzyme (b) endoenzyme
(c) proenzyme (d) coenzyme
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Growth is accompanied by
(a) anabolic process and energy
(b) catabolic process which occurs at the expense of
energy.
(c) metabolic processes which occur at the expense of
energy
(d) energy only
2. Germination takes place when the
(a) previously dormant embryo is activated.
(b) cotyledons emerge above the ground.
(c) hypocotyl or epicotyl emerges above the ground.
(d) vascular tissues begin to transport fluids.
3. The method that renders the seed coat permeable to
water so that embryo expansion is not physically retarded
is called
(a) vernalization (b) stratification
(c) denudation (d) scarification
4. In arithmetic growth rate, when length of the organ is
plotted against time, the nature of graph curve will be —
(a) linear (b) sigmoidal
(c) parabolic (d) hyperbolic
5. The measure of the ability of the plant to produce new
plant material is referred as —
(a) efficiency index (b) absolute growth rate
(c) arithmetic growth (d) linear growth
6. In which of the following process, the cell loose their
protoplasm to form tracheary element?
(a) Dedifferentiation (b) Redifferentiation
(c) Differentiation (d) Plasticity
7. The ability of plant to follow different pathways and
produce different structures in response to environment
and phases of life is termed as —
(a) elasticity (b) growth efficiency
(c) plasticity (d) heterophylly
8. Which one of the following is chemically identical to
ABA?
(a) Indole-3-acetic acid (b) Kinetin
(c) Dormin (d) 2, 4-D
9. The hormones which was first isolated from human urine
is.
(a) indole-3-acetic acid (b) gibberellin
(c) ethylene (d) kinetin
10. Which of the following is not an influence of auxins?
(a) Apical dominance (b) Parthenocarpy
(c) Phototropism (d) Fruit ripening
11. Auxin herbicide is —
(a) NAA (b) IAA
(c) 2, 4-D (d) IBA
12. Gibberellin was first extracted from —
(a) Gibberella fujikuroi (b) algae
(c) bacteria (d) roots of higher plants
13. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the plant with —
(a) cytokinin (b) gibberellic acid
(c) auxin (d) antigibberellin
14. Hormone responsible for bolting is —
(a) IAA (b) kinetin
(c) ABA (d) GA
15. Which one is the first Gibberellins to be discovered and
remains the most intensively studied form?
(a) GA1
(b) GA2
(c) GA3
(d) GA0
16. Which of the following is not a function of cytokinin?
(a) Promotes apical dominance.
(b) Promotes chloroplast development.
(c) Promotes movement of nutrients.
(d) Delay leaf senescence.
17. The most abundant natural cytokinin that is isolated from
corn kernels and coconut milk is —
(a) carotenoid derivative
(b) pyrimidine derivative
(c) inetin
(d) zeatin
18. Which of the following synthetic phytohormone was
discovered as a breakdown product of DNA?
(a) Kinetin (b) 2, 4-D
(c) NAA (d) Thidiazuron Chapter 15 Rnãpv Itqyvj ãpæ
Dgøgnqòïgpv
\\node-d-19\E\vinod\2017\Amit\NCERT Xtract-12th-Biology\Biology\division chapter\Volume - I
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
130 Biology
19. Highest concentration of cytokinin is found in
(a) area of continuous growth and meristematic region.
(b) meristematic region only.
(c) mature leaves.
(d) ripened fruit.
20. Gaseous hormone is
(a) ethylene (b) ethane
(c) acetylene (d) benzaldehyde
21. Senescence in plants can be promoted by applying.
(a) auxins (b) cytokinins
(c) GA (d) ethylene
22. Which of the following hormone is concerned with
climacteric respiration?
(a) Ethylene (b) Auxin
(c) GA1
(d) Cytokinin
23. Presence of which of the following compound
accelerates abscission of flower and fruits?
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Ethephon
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Zeatin
24. Lead abscission, fruit fall, bud dormancy occurs by which
of the following phytohormone?
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinins
(c) Gibberellins (d) Abscisic acid
25. Which of the following hormone closes stomata in
response to water stress?
(a) IAA (b) ABA
(c) NAA (d) GA3
26. ABA is antagonistic to
(a) GA (b) cytokinin
(c) ethylene (d) auxin
27. The movement of plant and its parts in response to light
is called
(a) photorespiration (b) photosynthesis
(c) phototropism (d)
photophosphorylation
28. Photoperiodism is
(a) recurrence of day and night.
(b) effect of day length on flowering of a plant.
(c) flowering plant.
(d) growth curvature in response to light.
29. The essential distinction between long-day and shortday plants is that flowering in long day plants is promoted
only when the day length exceeds a certain duration, called
the ______________.
(a) critical day length (b) short-long day length
(c) long-short day length (d) photoperiod
30. Plants requiring exposure to light for less than critical
period in order to flower are called ________.
(a) long day plants.
(b) day neutral plants.
(c) intermediate day plants.
(d) short day plants.
31. Day neutral plants relate to
(a) loss of activity during day time.
(b) flowering in all possible photoperiods.
(c) overactive during day time.
(d) no flowering in any photoperiods.
32. Effect of low temperature which shortens vegetative
period and hastens flowering is called _______.
(a) photoperiodism (b) transpiration
(c) vernalization (d) photolysis
33. Seed dormancy
(a) is the temporal delay to the process of germination.
(b) is the permanent delay to the process of
germination.
(c) minimizes seedling survival by preventing
germination.
(d) occurs due to the presence of growth inhibitors
only.
34. 6-furfuryl amino purine, 2, 4-dichlorophenoxy acetic
acid and indole-3 acetic acid are examples
respectively for
(a) synthetic auxin, kinetin and natural auxin.
(b) gibberellin, natural auxin and kinetin.
(c) natural auxin, kinetin and synthetic auxin.
(d) kinetin, synthetic auxin and natural auxin.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
35. Which of the following statement is not the
characteristic of growth of an organism?
(a) It is an irreversible permanent increase in size of an
organ / its part / an individual cell.
(b) It is accompanied by metabolic processes.
(c) It is quantitative and intrinsic.
(d) None of the above
36. Which of the following statement is not correct about
the conditions for plant growth?
(a) Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy
essential for growth activities.
(b) Nutrients are required by plants for the synthesis
of protoplasm and act as source of energy.
(c) Light and gravity affect certain stages of growth.
(d) Water oxidizes glucose to provide energy.
37. Which one of the following statement regarding auxin is
correct?
(a) IAA and IBA are natural but NAA, 2 4-D and 2, 4, 5-
T are synthetic auxins.
(b) IAA and NAA are natural but IBA, 2, 4, 5-T and 2, 4-
D are synthetic auxins.
(c) NAA and 2, 4, 5-T are natural but IAA, IBA and 2, 4-
D are synthetic auxins.
(d) IAA, NAA, IAB, 2, 4-D and 2, 4, 5-T are synthetic
auxins.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Plant Growth and Development 131
38. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
ethylene?
(a) It delayes senescence.
(b) It decreases the respiration rate during fruit ripening.
(c) It breaks seed and bud dormancy.
(d) It inhibits flowering in mango.
39. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Long day plants flower if the night length is shorter
than a critical period.
(b) Short-day plants flower when night length exceeds a
critical dark period.
(c) Day-neutral plants are insensitive to day length.
(d) The process of flowering does not occur in dayneutral plants.
40. Which of the following statement regarding vernalisation
is correct?
(a) Vernalisation refers to the promotion of flowering by
a period of low temperature.
(b) The spring variety of crops are normally planted in
the spring and come to flower before the end of the
growing season.
(c) It is not seen in biennial plants.
(d) Subjecting cold treatment to sugar beet will result in
flowering.
41. Identify the correct and incorrect statements from the
following.
(i) 17,500 new cells are produced per hour by a single
maize root apical meristem.
(ii) With the help of length, growth of pollen tube is
measured.
(iii) The growth of the leaf is measured in terms of volume.
(iv) Cells in a watermelon may increase in size by upto
3,50,000 times.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct and (iv) is incorrect.
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct and (iii) is incorrect.
(c) (ii), (iii) are correct and (i), (iv) are incorrect.
(d) (i), (iv) are correct and (ii), (iii) are incorrect.
42. Which of the following statements on phytohormones
& their action are correct?
(i) Cytokinins specially help in delaying senescence.
(ii) Auxins are involved in regulating apical dominance.
(iii) Ethylene is specially useful in enhancing seed
germination.
(iv) Gibberellins are responsible for immature falling of
leaves.
(a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (i) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only (d) (ii) and (iii) only
43. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Cytokinins promote senescence.
(ii) Auxins control apical dominance.
(iii) Gibberellins promote shoot elongation.
(iv) Abscissic acid enables seeds to withstand
desiccation.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
44. Refer the following statements.
(i) Promotes flowering in pineapple.
(ii) Used to prepare weed free lawn.
(iii) Promotes the abscission of older mature leaves and
fruits.
The above functions are carried out by
(a) GA (b) C2H4
(c) ABA (d) Auxin
45. Read the following statements (i-iv) regarding
“ethephon” and answer the question which follows them.
(i) Ethephon is sprayed in aqueous solution and is
readily absorbed and transported within the plant.
(ii) It hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples.
(iii) It can be used to induce fruit thinning in cotton, cherry
and walnut.
(iv) It is used to promote female sex expression in
cucumber and increase yield.
How many of the above statement(s) is/ are correct?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) All
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
46. Assertion : Cytokinins are antisenescent.
Reason : Effect of cytokinins is antagonistic to ethylene.
47. Assertion : 2, 4-D is extensively used in agricultural and
horticultural practices.
Reason : 2, 4-D is a herbicide.
48. Assertion : Auxins help to prevent fruits and leaves drop
at early stages.
Reason : Auxins promote the abscission of older mature
leaves and fruits.
49. Assertion : The most widely used compound as source
of ethylene is ethephon.
Reason : Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and
apples and accelerates abscission in stems and leaves.
50. Assertion : Decapitation is widely used in tea plantation
and hedge-making.
Reason : Removal of shoot tips usually results in the
growth of lateral buds.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
132 Biology
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
51. Match the plant hormones given in column I with their
function/other name given in column II and choose the
correct combination.
Column -I Column -II
(Plant hormone) (Function/other name)
A. Zeatin I. Flowering hormone
B. Florigen II. Synthetic auxin
C. IBA III. Cytokinin
D. NAA IV. Natural auxin
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
52. Match the growth regulators given in column I with their
action given in column II and choose the correct
combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Growth Regulator) (Action)
A. Abscisic acid I. Delays leaf senescence
B. Ethylene II. Inhibits seed
germination
C. Cytokinin III. Herbicide
D. Auxin IV. Hastens fruit ripening
(a) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III. (b) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(c) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I. (d) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
53. Match the plant hormones listed in column-I with their
major role listed in column-II. Select the correct option
from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Auxin I. Fruit ripening
B. Cytokinins II. Apical dominance
C. Abscisic acid III. Antagonistic to GAs
D. Ethylene IV. Stomatal opening and
closing
V. Growth of lateral buds
(a) A – IV; B – V; C – III; D – I
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – 1
(c) A – II; B – V; C – III; D – I
(d) A – III; IV B – V; C – II; D – I
54. Match the growth regulators given in column-I with the
processes given in column-II and choose the correct
combination.
Column-I Column-II
(Growth regulators) (Processes)
A Auxin I. Colouring test in lemon
B Gibberellin II. Cell division test
in plants
C Cytokinin III. Avena curvature test
D Ethylene IV. Dwarf corn test
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(b) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(d) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
55. Match Column-I (Discovery) and Column-II (Scientists)
and select the correct option.
A. Foolish seedling
disease of rice
I. Cousins
B. Crystallized the
Kinetic
II. F.W. Went
C. Release of ethylene
gas
III. Skoog and Miller
D. Bioassay of Auxin IV. E. Kurosawa
Column - I
(Discovery)
Column - II
(Name of scientists)
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
56. Refer the functions of the growth hormones given below.
I. Cell division II. Cell enlargement
III. Pattern formation IV. Tropic growth
V Flowering VI. Fruiting
VII. Seed germination VIII. Response to wound
IX. Response to stresses of biotic and abiotic origin
Identify the functions of growth promoters and growth
inhibitors from the above.
Functions of growth
promoters
Functions of growth
inhibitor
(a) I, II, VII, IX III, IV, V, VI, VII
(b) VIII, IX I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII
(c) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII VIII, IX
(d) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, IX VIII
57. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Abscisic acid — Stomatal closure
(b) Gibberellic acid — Leaf fall
(c) Cytokinin — Cell division
(d) IAA — Cell wall elongation
58. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly
matched?
(a) Adenine derivative - Kinetin
(b) Carotenoid derivative - ABA
(c) Terpenes - IAA
(d) Indole compounds - IBA
59. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) IAA - Indole compound
(b) GA - Terpenes
(c) ABA - Carotenoid derivatives
(d) C2H4
- Adenine derivatives
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Plant Growth and Development 133
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
60. The picture given below shows a graph drawn on the
parameters of growth versus time. Identify A, B, C marked
in the given graph.
B
C
A
Size
Time
A B C
(a) Exponential
phase
Log phase Stationary phase
(b) Stationary
phase
Lag phas e Log phase
(c) Log phase Stationary
phase
Logarithmic phase
(d) Log phase Lag phase Stationary phase
61. The given diagram represents the germination and seedling
development in beam.
D
B
A
C
Young leaves
Soil line
Cotyledons
Identify A, B, C and D marked in the given figure.
A B C D
(a) Plumule Cotyledons Hypocotyl Epicotyl
(b) Radicle Seed coat Epicotyl Hypocotyl
(c) Hypocotyl Cotyledons Epicotyl Root hair
(d) Root hair Cotyledons Plumule Hypocotyl
62. The following diagram shows four coleoptiles set up (I,
II, III & IV) at the start of an experiment.
I II III IV
Fig : Experiment used to demonstrate that tip of the coleoptile
is the source of auxin. Arrows indicate direction of light
Which two coleoptiles will both bend towards the light
source?
(a) I and II (b) I and IV
(c) II and III (d) III and IV
63. Which of the following shows the correct graph of
arithmetic growth?
(a)
Time
Growth
((b))
Time
Growth
(c)c)
Time
Growth
(d)(
Time
Growth
64. The graph given below shows a geometrical growth rate.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
134 Biology
Which of the following statement regarding the above
graph is incorrect?
(a) The initial growth is slow, thereafter exponential
phase and then stationary phase.
(b) A sigmoidal curve is a characteristic of living organism
growing in a natural environment.
(c) With limited nutrient supply, the growth rate
increases rapidly leading to a exponential phase.
(d) Geometrical growth is typical for all cells, tissues and
organs of a plant.
65. The given figure shows the comparison of growth rate
of two leaves (A and B) over the period of one day. Both
the leaves A and B have increased their area in a given
time to produce A’ and B’ leaves respectively. If AGR =
absolute growth rate and RGR = relative growth rate,
then select the correct option.
10 cm2
Time = 1 day
5 cm2
55 cm2
Time = 1 day
50 cm2
A'
B'
A B
AGR RGR AGR RGR
(a) 1% 1 2% 2
(b) 100% 5 10% 5
(c) 5 100% 5 10%
(d) 0.5 100% 1.5 100%
A-Leaf B-Leaf
66. Maryland Mammoth Tobacco is a short day plant. Its
critical duration of darkness is 10 hours. Under which
of the following conditions will Maryland Mammoth
tobacco not flower ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
24- hour
clock
critical
level
critical
level
critical
level
critical
level
light dark
67. The picture below shows three different types of plants
(marked as P-I, P-II and P-III) which flower on the basis
of their critical photoperiod. Now identify these plants
(P-I, II and III).
P-I P-II
P-III
(a) P-I = Long day plant; P-II = Short day plant;
P-III = Day neutral plant
(b) P-I = Short day plant; P-II = Long day plant;
P-III = Day neutral plant
(c) P-I = Short day plant; P-II = Short day plant;
P-III = Day neutral plant
(d) P-I =Long day plant; P-II = Long day plant;
P-III = Day neutral plant
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
68. Which of the following points is shown by cell at the
root or shoot apex ?
(a) Rich in protoplasm, possesses large conspicuous
triploid nucleus.
(b) Cell wall is cellulosic, primary in nature and with
abundant plasmodesmata.
(c) Rich in protoplasm with large conspicuous nucleus.
(d) Both (b) and (c).
69. Maximal size in terms of wall thickening and
protoplasmic modification are achieved by
(a) cells of divisional phase.
(b) cells of maturation phase.
(c) cells of elongation phase.
(d) cells of meristematic tissue.
70. Arithmetic growth is expressed as
(a) Lt
= L0
+ rt (b) L0
= L0
+ rt
(c) W1
= W0
ert (d) W0
= W1
ert
71. A sigmoidal curve is obtained in geometrical growth
because
(a) it has lag, log and then stationary phase.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Plant Growth and Development 135
(b) one daughter cell remains meristematic while the
other daughter cell differentiates and matures.
(c) of the effect of environment on mitosis.
(d) none of the above
72. Absolute growth rate is defined as the
(a) synthesis of new intercellular and extracellular
materials.
(b) measurement & the comparison of total growth per
unit time
(c) growth of the given system per unit time.
(d) increased growth per unit time.
73. The exponential growth can be expressed as W1
= W0
e
rt
.
What is ‘r’ in the expression ?
(a) Relative growth rate and depends on final size.
(b) Absolute growth rate & depends on initial size.
(c) Relative growth and also referred to as efficiency
index.
(d) None of the above
74. A primary root grows from 5 cm - 19 cm in a week.
Calculate the relative growth rate over the period.
(a) 20% (b) 40%
(c) 60% (d) 80%
75. De-differentiation is
(a) regaining the lost capacity of division by living cells.
(b) the ability of plant to produce different structures
in response to environment.
(c) the intrinsic factor affecting plant growth.
(d) none of the above.
76. Which of the following represents the correct sequence
of the development process in a plant cell?
(a) Cell division ® Elongation ® Senescence ®
Maturation
(b) Meristematic cell ® Maturation elongation ® Death
(c) Cell division ® Elongation ® Maturation ®
Plasmatic growth
(d) Cell division ® Differentiation ® Maturation ®
Senescence
77. A phytohormone is
(a) an ion that alters turgor pressure.
(b) small molecules of diverse chemical composition.
(c) a pigment responds to environmental changes.
(d) a secondary metabolic compound.
78. Experiments done by Charles Darwin and his son on plant
phototropism showed that
(a) auxin is produced in the tip of the coleoptile.
(b) the tip of the coleoptile is the light receptor of the
plant.
(c) within coleoptiles, auxin moves laterally away from
the source of the light.
(d) more cell elongation takes place on the shaded side
of the plant.
79. Ethylene is used for
(a) retarding ripening of tomatoes.
(b) ripening of fruits.
(c) slowing down ripening of apples.
(d) both (b) and (c).
80. Skoog and Miller stimulated cell division in tobacco
plant with degraded DNA. The active ingredient in
stimulants, which resembles cytokinins, was modified
(a) adenine (b) auxin
(c) terpenes (d) carotenoids
81. Which hormone is used to induce rooting from cut end
of the stem?
(a) Kinetin (b) Indole butyric acid
(c) GA3
(d) Abscisic acid
82. Plant hormone which is translocated to other parts for
growth of the plant is
(a) indole-3-acetic acid (b) gibberellins
(c) cytokinins (d) none of these
83. Flowering in pineapple is promoted by
(a) GA1
(b) C2H4
(c) NAA (d) Kinetin
84. Which one of the following promotes the abscission of
older mature leaves and fruits?
(a) Indole compounds
(b) adenine derivatives
(c) derivatives of carotenoids
(d) gaseous hormones
85. Removal of apical (terminal) bud of a flowering plant
(or pruning of a flowering plant) leads to
(a) formation of new apical buds.
(b) formation of adventitious roots on the cut side.
(c) early flowering (or stopping of floral growth).
(d) promotion of lateral branches.
86. Which one of the following hormone is used to eradicate
dicotyledonous weeds, but does not have its effect on
mature monocotyledonous plants?
(a) 2, 4-D (b) IAA
(c) NAA (d) IBA
87. The chemicals from an unlabelled bottle of plant
hormone when applied to a plant, a curvature induced by
light is found in the stem. The chemical is most probably a
(a) auxin (b) gibberellin
(c) kinetin (d) ABA
88. Which of the following acids is a derivative of terpenes?
(a) Gibberellic acid (b) Naphthalene acetic acid
(c) Abscissic acid (d) ‘a’ and ‘c’
89. The fruits can be left on the tree longer so as to extend
the market period. This is due to which function of GA ?
(a) Bolting (b) Delays senescence
(c) Internodal elongation (d) Parthenocarpy
90. Which of the following hormones causes fruits like apple
to elongate and improve its shape?
(a) GA (b) ABA
(c) NAA (d) 2, 4D
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
136 Biology
91. Which of the following hormone regulates the transition
from juvenile to adult phases in confers?
(a) Cytokinins (b) GA0
(c) ABA (d) IAA
92. Which form of gibberellic acid is used to speed up the
malting process in brewing industry?
(a) GA1
(b) GA2
(c) GA3
(d) None of these
93. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that premature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause
a decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most
beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?
(a) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the
remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5-trichlorophenoxy
acetic acid.
(b) Frequent irrigation of the crop.
(c) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with
small doses of nitrogenous fertilizer.
(d) Application of iron and magnesium to promote
synthesis of chlorophyll.
94. Ethylene is not directly applied in the field as a gas due
to its high diffusion rate. Which compound is used to
overcome this limitation?
(a) Ethephon (b) Agent orange
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) 2, 4, 5-T
95. Climacteric in the plants means
(a) increase in respiration rate before the ripening phase.
(b) decrease in respiration rate before the ripening
phase.
(c) increase in respiration rate after the ripening phase.
(d) decrease in respiration rate after the ripening phase.
96. Abscisic acid is a
(a) gaseous hormone (b) stress hormone
(c) volatile hormone (d) liquid-gas mixture
97. Which one of the following phytohormones is produced
under water deficient condition and plays an important
role in the tolerance response of plants to drought?
(a) Abscisic acid (b) Cytokinin
(c) Ethylene (d) Gibberellin
98. A long day plant flowers only if exposed to a light period
(a) more than its critical day length.
(b) less than its critical day length.
(c) equal to its critical day length.
(d) slightly less than its critical day length.
99. What type of plants will flower when short photoperiods
are followed by long photoperiods?
(a) Long-short day plants (b) Short-long day plants
(c) Intermediate plants (d) None of these
100. One set (I) of a plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12
hours night period cycles and it flowered while in the
other set (II) night phase was interrupted by flash of light
and it did not produce flower. Under which one of the
following categories will you place this plant (Set II)?
(a) Long day (b) Darkness neutral
(c) Day neutral (d) Short day
101. Which one of the following is not a mechanical method
for breaking seed dormancy?
(a) Abrasions with knives
(b) Abrasions with sandpaper
(c) Vigorous shaking into the flask
(d) By the action of microbes
102. Which of the following effects is brought about by
gibberellins but not by auxins?
(a) Inhibition of leaf abscission.
(b) Stimulation of cambial activity.
(c) Stimulation of fruit development.
(d) Breaking of dormancy in leaf buds.
103. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by
(a) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio.
(b) high auxin : cytokinin ratio.
(c) high cytokinin : auxin ratio.
(d) high gibberellin : auxin ratio.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Teeth of adult man, not present in milk dentition are
(a) molars (b) premolars
(c) canines (d) incisors
2. Mammalian teeth are
(a) acrodont (b) homodont
(c) thecodont (d) polyphyodont
3. Which of the following is a freely movable muscular organ
that is attached to the floor of the oral cavity by the
frenulum?
(a) Jaws (b) Teeth
(c) Tongue (d) Salivary glands
4. The function of tongue is to
(a) grind and crush the food.
(b) position food for swallowing.
(c) add enzymes and moisture to the food.
(d) protect the opening of the pharynx during
swallowing.
5. A "1" flap called "2" prevents the entry of food into the
glottis – opening of the "3" – during "4". Identify 1, 2, 3,
and 4.
1 2 3 4
(a) Cartilaginous Epiglottis Wind pipe Swallowing
(b) Bony Glissons
capsule
Stomach Digestion
(c) Bony Pharynx Oral cavity Ingestion
(d) Cartilaginous Oesophagus Trachea Mastication
6. The innermost layer of the digestive tract is the
(a) serosa membrane
(b) mucosa membrane
(c) submucosa membrane
(d) lumen
7. ____ are needed in the diet as components of teeth and
bone, regulators of acid-base balance and water balance,
and parts of certain enzymes.
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Fats
(c) Minerals (d) Nucleic acids
8. Crypts of lieberkuhn are present in
(a) intestine (b) stomach
(c) oesophagus (d) all of these
9. The sphincter of Oddi is present between
(a) oesophagus and cardiac stomach.
(b) pyloric stomach and duodenum.
(c) hepatic duct and cystic duct.
(d) hepatopancreatic duct and duodenum.
10. Which of the following does not produce any digestive
enzyme ?
(a) Acini of pancreas (b) Liver
(c) Stomach (d) Duodenum
11. The number of salivary glands present in human beings
is
(a) 5 pairs (b) 4 pairs
(c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs
12. Brunner’s glands are found in
(a) submucosa of stomach
(b) wall of rectum
(c) submucosa of duodenum
(d) mucosa of ileum
13. Function of gall bladder is
(a) storage of bile.
(b) formation of enzymes.
(c) synthesis of bile.
(d) formation of bile salts.
14. Where does bile go after it leaves the gall bladder?
(a) Duodenum (b) Jejunum
(c) Ileum (d) Caecum
15. Which of the following is the structural and function unit
of the largest digestive gland?
(a) Kupffer cells
(b) Hepatic lobules
(c) Glissons capsule
(d) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
16. The common bile duct in human is formed by the joining
of
(a) pancreatic duct and bile duct.
(b) cystic duct and hepatic duct.
(c) cystic duct and pancreatic duct.
(d) hepatic duct and pancreatic duct.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
138 Biology
17. The substrate for amylase is
(a) proteins (b) fats
(c) starch (d) cane sugar
18. Digestive enzymes responsible for breaking down
disaccharides includes
(a) pepsin, trypsin and trypsinogen.
(b) amylase, pepsin, and lipase.
(c) sucrase, lactase, and maltase.
(d) pepsin, trypsin, and chymotrypsin.
19. Salivary amylase is also known as
(a) ptyalin (b) gastrin
(c) glyoxylase (d) pepsin
20. pH of saliva is
(a) 6.5 (b) 8
(c) 7 (d) 9.5
21. Maltase converts
(a) maltose to glucose at pH greater than 7.
(b) maltose to glucose at pH lesser than 7.0.
(c) maltose to alcohol.
(d) starch to maltose at pH higher than 7.0.
22. Which digestive organ mechanically and chemically
transforms a food bolus into chyme?
(a) Oesophagus (b) Stomach
(c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine
23. The disaccharidases are secreted with
(a) saliva (b) gastric juice
(c) intestinal juice (d) pancreatic juice
24. Succus entericus is a term used for
(a) the junction of ileum and colon
(b) inflammation of intestine
(c) vermiform appendix
(d) digestive juice of intestine
25. Enzyme trypsin is secreted by
(a) duodenum (b) liver
(c) pancreas (d) stomach
26. The protein coated, water soluble fat globules are called
(a) chylomicrons (b) micelles
(c) chyle (d) monoglycerides
27. Milk protein is acted upon by a gastric enzyme in infant
mammals. The enzyme is ___________.
(a) rennin (b) caesinogen
(c) pepsinogen (d) pepsin
28. Pancreatic juice helps in the digestion of
(a) proteins and fats
(b) proteins and carbohydrates
(c) fats and carbohydrates
(d) proteins, fats and carbohydrates
29. Oxyntic cells are located in
(a) Islets of langerhans.
(b) gastric epithelium and secrete pepsin.
(c) kidneys and secrete renin.
(d) gastric epithelium and secrete HCl.
30. Enzyme trypsinogen is changed to trypsin by
(a) gastrin (b) enteropeptidase
(c) enterogastrone (d) secretin
31. Which of the following enzyme digest milk protein in
alkaline medium?
(a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin
(c) Rennin (d) Chymotrypsin
32. Most of the fat digestion occurs in
(a) rectum (b) stomach
(c) colon (d) small intestine
33. Muscular contraction in alimentary canal is called —
(a) deglutition (b) mastication
(c) peristalsis (d) none of these
34. Enterokinase takes part in conversion of
(a) pepsinogen to pepsin
(b) trypsinogen to trypsin
(c) protein into polypeptides
(d) caseinogen into casein
35. HCl of gastric juice
(a) inactivates ptyalin and activates pepsin.
(b) activates ptyalin and inactivates pepsin.
(c) inactivates both ptyalin and pepsin.
(d) activates both ptyalin and pepsin.
36. Rennin acts on milk protein and changes
(a) caesinogen into caesin.
(b) caesin into paracaesin.
(c) caseinogen into paracaesin.
(d) paracaesin into caesinogen.
37. Which cells of gastric mucosa secrete pepsinogen?
(a) Parietal (b) Oxyntic
(c) Chief cells (d) Goblet
38. Which enzyme initiates protein digestion ?
(a) Pepsin (b) Trypsin
(c) Aminopeptidase (d) Carboxypeptidase
39. Trypsin changes
(a) fats into fatty acids.
(b) proteins into peptones.
(c) starch and glycogen into maltose.
(d) maltose into its components.
40. Most of the chemical digestion of food in humans is
completed in the —
(a) small intestine (b) appendix
(c) ascending colon (d) stomach
41. End product of protein digestion is —
(a) sugar (b) amino acid
(c) nucleotide (d) ammonia
42. Which one of the following is the constituents of the
pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in
humans?
(a) Maltase (b) Enterokinase
(c) Trypsinogen (d) Chymotrypsin
43. Which homeostatic function of the liver is controlled and
monitored in the pancreas?
(a) Deamination of amino acids
(b) Release of glucose
(c) Release of iron
(d) Removal of toxins
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Digestion and Absorption 139
44. Diglycerides on digestion give
(a) one fatty acid and one glycerol
(b) two fatty acid and one glycerol
(c) two glycerol and one fatty acid
(d) two glycerols only
45. Semi - digested food in intestine is called
(a) chyle (b) chyme
(c) bolus (d) none of these
46. Which of the following enzyme is not present in pancreatic juice?
(a) Chymotrypsinogen (b) Steapsin
(c) Nuclease (d) Enterokinase
47. Emulsification refers to
(a) action of bile on breaking large fat droplets
(b) action of gastric lipase on proteins
(c) action of salivary amylase on starch
(d) action of pancreas on fat droplets
48. Protection of the walls of the stomach against the action
of its own digestive juice
(a) is controlled by a centre in the medulla of the brain.
(b) results from the nervous reactions of the lining of
the stomach.
(c) results from the presence of an anti-enzyme chemical
formed by the gastric gland.
(d) results from the neutralizing, buffering and coating
mucus covering its inner surface.
49. A good source of lipase is
(a) saliva (b) gastric juice
(c) bile (d) pancreatic Juice
50. Glucose, some amino acids and sodium are absorbed in
to blood by ________.
(a) simple diffusion
(b) active transport
(c) facilitated transport
(d) the statement is incorrect since they are absorbed in
lymph and not in blood.
51. The ______ is primarily a storage chamber within the
digestive system, while the ______ reabsorbs water, ions,
and generates the faeces.
(a) buccal cavity; midgut
(b) crop; midgut
(c) stomach; hindgut
(d) buccal cavity; hindgut
52. The main function of lacteals in the villi of small intestine
is the absorption of
(a) amino acids and glucose
(b) glucose and vitamins
(c) water and mineral salts
(d) fatty acids and glycerol
53. Under which of the following circumstances will insulin
be secreted?
(a) The blood sugar level in the liver is low.
(b) The blood sugar level in the hepatic portal vein is
low.
(c) The blood sugar level in the islets of Langerhans is high.
(d) The glycogen level in the skeletal muscle is high.
54. Jaundice may be caused by retarded function of —
(a) lungs (b) kidneys
(c) heart (d) liver
55. ____i_____ is a diseased condition in which a person
passes out watery stool frequently while
______ii_______ is known as infrequent elimination of
dry stool.
(a) i- Constipation, ii- Diarrhoea
(b) i- Diarrhoea, ii- Constipation
(c) i- Diarrhoea, ii- Vomiting
(d) i- Constipation, ii- Vomiting
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
56. How do nutrients, absorbed by the small intestine, travel
to the individual cells of the human body?
(a) The nutrients are absorbed from the small intestine
into the blood and move through the circulatory
system to the body cells.
(b) The nutrients move from the small intestine directly
to the liver and then move through the lymphatic
system to the body cells.
(c) The small intestine forces the nutrients into the
kidneys, where the nutrients are then dissolved in
fluids used by the body cells.
(d) The body cells send nerve impulses indicating a lack
of nutrients to the small intestine, and the small
intestine sends the nutrients back to the cells.
57. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
chylomicrons ?
(a) They are undigested proteins.
(b) They are undigested carbohydrates.
(c) They are fat droplets coated with phospholipids.
(d) They are fat droplets coated with glycerol and
proteins.
58. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
enterokinase?
(a) It is a hormone that prevents the secretion of gastric
juice.
(b) It is an enzyme that activates the enzymes of
pancreatic juice.
(c) It is an enzyme that activates the proteolytic enzymes
of succus entericus.
(d) It is a hormone that prevents the secretion of
pancreatic juice.
59. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) Brunner’s glands are submucosal.
(b) Rugae are the irregular folds of inner gastric mucosa.
(c) Glisson’s capsule is the connective tissue sheath of
hepatic lobule.
(d) Mesothelium or serosa lies in close proximity of the
sub-mucosa.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
140 Biology
60. Which of the following is not the function of HCl in
stomach?
(a) Breaking down proteins into peptones.
(b) Killing the bacteria ingested with food and drinks.
(c) Promoting the formation of pepsin.
(d) Softening fibrous food elements.
61. What is common among amylase, renin and trypsin?
(a) All are proteins.
(b) All are proteolytic enzymes.
(c) Produced in stomach.
(d) Act at pH lower than 7.
62. What will happen if bile duct gets choked ?
(a) Faeces become dry.
(b) Acidic chyme will not be neutralized.
(c) There will be little digestion in intestine.
(d) Little digestion of fat will occur.
63. Which one of the following statements is true regarding
digestion and absorption of food in humans?
(a) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary
amylase in our mouth.
(b) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme
pepsinogen.
(c) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through
intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like
Na+
.
(d) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are
transported from intestine into blood capillaries.
64. Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) Pepsin cannot digest casein.
(b) Trypsin can digest collagen.
(c) Pepsin cannot digest collagen.
(d) Chymotrypsin can digest casein.
65. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Saliva lubricates the food.
(b) Tongue helps in chewing of food.
(c) Salivary glands have protein digesting enzymes.
(d) Bile does not contain any digestive enzymes.
66. Which of the following is not the function of digestive
system?
(a) It allows your body to get the nutrients and energy
it needs from the food you eat.
(b) It breaks down large food molecules into smaller
molecules that can be used by cells.
(c) It converts foods to larger substances that can be
absorbed and used by the cells of the body.
(d) It converts food into soluble and diffusible products
that can be absorbed by the blood.
67. Which of the following statements are true regarding
human digestive system?
(i) Food is not digested in the gullet.
(ii) There is no digestive juice in the mouth.
(iii) Food is digested completely in the stomach.
(iv) The large intestine is shorter than the small intestine.
(v) Inside the large intestine, most of the water from the
undigested food is absorbed by the body.
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (iii) and (v) only
(c) (i), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
68. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
jaundice?
(i) It indicates liver damage.
(ii) It involves infrequent elimination of dry stool.
(iii) It involves yellowing of skin and eyes.
(iv) It increases absorption of food.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
69. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
absorption of fatty acids?
(a) It is absorbed into the bloodstream at the small
intestine.
(b) It is absorbed into the lymph vessels at the small
intestine.
(c) It is absorbed into the lymph vessels from the blood
stream.
(d) It is absorbed into the bloodstream at the large
intestine.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
70. Assertion : Starch is hydrolysed by ptyalin to maltose.
Reason : Sucrase hydrolyses sucrose to lactose.
71. Assertion : Presence of HCl in stomach is essential for
the process of digestion.
Reason : HCl kills and inhibits the growth of bacteria in
stomach.
72. Assertion : Chewing is one of the most important process
of digestion in animals.
Reason : Chewing helps in enzyme action.
73. Assertion : Glucose, Na+
and amino acids are absorbed
actively.
Reason : Na+
, glucose and amino acids move against the
concentration gradient and hence require energy.
74. Assertion : Water and electrolytes are almost fully
absorbed in the large intestine.
Reason : In large intestine, haustral contractions (slow
segmenting movements) roll the forming faeces over and
over, causing absorption of water and electrolytes.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Digestion and Absorption 141
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
75. Choose the correct matching pair.
(a) Renin – Protein
(b) Trypsin – Starch
(c) Invertase – Sucrose
(d) Amylase – Lactose
76. Identify the correct set which shows the name of the
enzymes from where it is secreted and substrate upon
which it acts
(a) Pepsin – Stomach wall – Protein
(b) Ptyalin – Intestine – Maltose
(c) Chymotrypsin – Salivary gland –Lactose
(d) Ptyalin – Pancreas – Lipid
77. Select the correct match of the digested products in
humans with their absorption site and mechanism.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Fructose, Na+ – Small intestine, passive
absorption
(b) Glycerol, fatty acids – Duodenum, move as
chylomicrons
(c) Cholesterol, maltose – Large intestine,
active absorption
(d) Glycine, glucose – Small intestine,
active absorption
78. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the
site of action of the given substrate, the enzyme acting
upon it and the end product?
(a) Stomach : Fats Lipase ¾¾¾¾® Micelles
(b) Duodenum : Triglycerides Trypsin ¾¾¾¾®
Monoglycerides
(c) Small intenstine : Starch µAmylase ¾¾¾¾¾®
Disaccharide
(Maltose)
(d) Small intestine : Proteins Pepsin ¾¾¾¾® Amino acid
79. Which one of the following four secretions is correctly
matched with its source, target and nature of action?
Secretion Source Target Action
(a) Enterokinase Duodenum Gall
bladder
Release of bile
juice
(b) Gastrin Stomach
lining
Oxyntic
cells
Production of
HCl
(c) Salivary
amylase
Salivary
gland
Mouth Breakdown of
starch into
maltose
(d) Rennin Saliva Small
intestine
Emulsification
of fats
80. Match column I (organs) with column II (functions) and
choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Organs) (Functions)
A. Mouth I. Reclaims water and salts
B. Stomach II. Carries out most of the
digestion and absorption of
nutrients.
C. Small intestine III. Releases amylase enzyme
that break down
carbohydrates.
D. Large intestine IV. An acidic compartment that
begins to break proteins
into larger polypeptides.
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
81. The given pair represent substrate-enzyme pair. Which
of the following pair is (are) correct?
A. Maltose – Lactase
B. Protein – Pepsin
C. Carbohydrate – Lipase
D. Casein – Renin
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only
(c) A and D only (d) B and D only
82. Match column I (food type) with column II their (enzymes)
and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Food type) (Enzymes)
A. Starch I. Nucleases
B. Protein II. Lipase
C. Fats III. Amylase
D Nucleic acid IV. Trypsin
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
83. Which of the following monomers are produced, when
lipids are broken down by lipase?
A. Nucleotides
B. Amino acids
C. Glycerol
D. Fatty acids
(a) A and C only (b) C and D only
(c) C only (d) D only
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
142 Biology
84. Match the following digestive processes given in column
I with their correct description given in column II and
then choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Digestive processes) (Description)
A. Ingestion I. Elimination of
digestible solids.
B. Mechanical digestion II. Enzymatic
degradation of food
stuffs into simpler
molecules.
C. Chemical digestion III. Taking food into the
digestive systems
D. Defecation IV. Chewing, mixing,
churning and
segmentation of
food.
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(d) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II
85. Match the following organic molecules given in column I
with their correct description given in column II and then
choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Organic molecules) (Description)
A. Carbohydrates I. It is made of fatty
acids and glycerol
B. Proteins II. It is mostly ingested
in the form of starch
C. Nucleic acids III. It is built of long
chains of amino
acids
D. Lipids IV. It is made of ribose
or deoxyribose
sugars and
nitrogenous bases.
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
86. Which of the following substances involved in organic
molecule digestion is correctly matched with their
descriptions?
(a) Salivary amylase- It begins lipid digestion in mouth.
(b) Trypsin- It emulsifies fats for digestion.
(c) Bile- It digests proteins in small intestine.
(d) Maltase- It is a brush border enzyme that acts on
disaccharides.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
87. The given flowchart shows the fate of carbohydrate
during digestion in the human alimentary canal. Identify
the enzymes acting at stages indicated as A, B, C and D.
S
(a) A= amylase, B = maltase, C = lactase, D = invertase
(b) A = amylase, B = maltase, C= invertase, D= lactase
(c) A = amylase, B = invertase, C = maltase, D= lactase
(d) A = amylase, B = lactase, C = maltase, D = invertase.
88. The diagram given below shows the human digestive
system. Few structures are marked as I, II, III and IV.
Which region of the human digestive system releases
bile juice?
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
89. The given figure shows a section of small intestinal
mucosa showing villi. What is the function of structure
marked as I in the given figure?
(I)
(a) To absorb amino acids.
(b) To carry blood.
(c) To transport fat
(d) To transport glucose
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Digestion and Absorption 143
90. Refer the given diagram of digestive system to answer
the question.
x
Which of the following is associated with the structure
marked as "X"?
(a) It is a small blind sac which hosts some symbiotic
microorganisms.
(b) The undigested, unabsorbed substances enter into
this structure through ileo-ceacal valve.
(c) It helps in mechanical churning and chemical
digestion of food.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Directions (Qs. 91 and 92): Refer the given figure and answer
the questions. This figure shows the diagrammatic
representation of T.S of gut with few structures marked as 1, 2,
3 and 4
1
Inner-circular
Outer-longitudinal
3
4
2
91. Which of the following structure forms glands in the
stomach and crypts in between the bases of villi?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
92. Which of the following part is made up of a thin
mesothelium with some connective tissue?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Directions (Qs. 93 and 94): The given diagram shows the duct
systems of liver, gall bladder and pancreas in which few
structures are marked as 1.2.3 and 4. On the basis of this figure
answer the questions.
93. Sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of digestive juice by
guarding which duct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
94. Which two ducts are responsible for the formation of a
duct that carry bile from the gall bladder and conduct it
into the first section of the small intestine?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 1
95. Which of the following best describes the role of the
structure marked as Y in the given figure?
Y
(a) Serves a minor role in the chemical digestion of fats.
(b) Mucus is secreted to protect the oesophagus from
the stomach enzymes.
(c) Digestive enzymes are secreted as food passes from
the oesophagus to the stomach.
(d) Connects the mouth to the stomach and has no
function in chemical digestion.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
96. In pancreatic juice, which of the followings are secreted
in inactive form as proenzymes ?
(a) Trypsin, chymotrypsin & carboxypeptidases
(b) Pepsin, trypsin and chymotrypsin
(c) Trypsin only
(d) Trypsin and chymotrypsin only
97. If the bile-pancreatic duct is blocked then which of the
following will not be affected ?
(a) Digestion of proteins
(b) Emulsification of fats
(c) Level of blood glucose
(d) Digestion of starch
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
144 Biology
98. Which of the following is the correct chronological order
for flow of food from mouth to anus?
(a) Oesophagus ® Stomach ® Small intestine ® Large
intestine
(b) Large intestine ® Oesophagus ® Stomach ® Small
intestine
(c) Small intestine ® Large intestine ® Oesophagus ®
stomach
(d) Stomach ® Small intestine ® Large intestine ®
Oesophagus
99. Which of the following occurs in the duodenum?
(a) Absorption of vitamins and minerals.
(b) Mixing of food with pancreatic juice and bile.
(c) Mastication of food.
(d) Absorption of water.
100. From deep to superficial, what are the tunics of the
intraperitoneal portions of the alimentary canal?
(a) Serosa, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa
(b) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and serosa
(c) Adventia, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa
(d) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and adventia
101. If for some reason our goblet cells becomes nonfunctional then this will adversely affect
(a) production of somatostatin.
(b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands.
(c) maturation of sperms.
(d) smooth movement of food down the intestine.
102. The digestion of butter begins with
(a) saliva
(b) gastric juice
(c) pancreatic juice
(d) intestinal juice
103. Removal of gall bladder in man would lead to
(a) impairment of digestion of fats.
(b) impairment of digestion of protein.
(c) jaundice
(d) increased acidity in intestine.
104. During prolonged fasting
(a) first fats are used up, followed by carbohydrates
from liver and muscles and proteins in the end.
(b) first carbohydrates are used up, followed by fat and
proteins towards end.
(c) first lipids, followed by proteins and carbohydrates
towards end.
(d) none of the above.
105. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5 gm raw sugar,
4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adultrated with 2
gm vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5
gm lignin. How many calories he is likely to get?
(a) 144 (b) 126
(c) 164 (d) 112
106. If pH of stomach is 7 then which component of food would
be affected?
(a) Starch (b) Protein
(c) Fat (d) Sucrose
107. In case of taking food rich in lime juice, the action of
ptyalin on starch is
(a) enhanced (b) reduced
(c) unaffected (d) stopped
108. If the chyme of a person who had orally consumed only
starch as food is analysed before it enters the duodenum,
it will show the presence of
(a) maltose and glucose
(b) dextrin and maltose
(c) starch, dextrin and maltose
(d) starch, dextrin and glucose
109. An adolescent human below 17 years of age normally has
dental formula as
(a)
2, 1, 2, 0
2, 1, 2, 0 (b)
2, 1, 2, 2
2, 1, 2, 2
(c)
2, 1, 3, 2
2, 1, 3, 2 (d)
2, 2, 3, 2
2, 2, 3, 2
110. Which of the following is the correct chronological order
for the enzyme activity of some enzymes taking part in
protein digestion?
(a) Pepsin Trypsin Peptidase ® ®
(b) Pepsin Peptidase Trypsin ® ®
(c) Trypsin Pepsin Peptidase ® ®
(d) Peptidase Trypsin Pepsin ® ®
111. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric
glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
(a) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal
mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted into
trypsin.
(b) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin.
(c) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen.
(d) In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen
is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin.
112. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes
eaten by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves
down the alimentary canal?
(a) Salivary maltase ® Carboxypeptidase ®
Trypsinogen
(b) Pancreatic amylase ® Salivary amylase ® Lipases
(c) Disaccharidase like maltase ® Lipases ® Nucleases
(d) Salivary amylase ® Pancreatic amylase ®
Disaccharidases
113. A person who is on hunger strike and is surviving only
on water, will have
(a) less amino acids in his urine.
(b) more glucose in his blood.
(c) less urea in his urine.
(d) more sodium in his urine.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Digestion and Absorption 145
114. If the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially
non-functional, what is likely to happen?
(a) The pancreatic enzymes, specially the trypsin and
lipase will not work efficiently.
(b) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly.
(c) Steapsin will be more effective.
(d) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin
into proteases and peptones.
115. What happens to the food when it enters from oesophagus
to stomach?
(a) Food mixes with juices and protein digestion starts.
(b) Food mixes with juices and carbohydrate digestion
starts.
(c) Food quickly moves into small intestine.
(d) Food quickly moves into large intestine.
116. The hydrochloric acid secreted by the gastric glands
activates the enzyme _____i_____ while the
_____ii_____ secreted by gastric glands protects the
lining of the stomach from the action of acid.
(a) i- pepsin, ii- mucus
(b) i- pepsin, ii- trypsin
(c) i- amylase, ii- trypsin
(d) i- amylase, ii- rennin
117. Which digestive processes takes place in the mouth?
(a) Both chemical and physical digestion.
(b) Chemical digestion only.
(c) Physical digestion only.
(d) Neither chemical nor physical digestion.
118. Following are given parts of small and large intestine.
(i) Cecum (ii) Colon
(iii) Jejunum (iv) Rectum
(v) Duodenum (vi) Ileum
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in the
order food passes through them from the small intestine
to the anus.
(a) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi)
(b) (v) – (iii) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv)
(c) (iv) – (v) – (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi)
(d) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (ii) – (i) – (iv)
119. Which part is infected when a person is suffering from
diarrhoea ?
(a) Small intenstine (b) Large intestine
(c) Stomach (d) None of these
120. Which process transported the bolus into the pharynx
and then into the oesophagus?
(a) Deglutition (b) Peristalsis
(c) Vomiting (d) All of these
121. If the epiglottis does not function correctly, then what
will happen to the human being ?
(a) One might congest.
(b) Peristalsis will discontinue.
(c) Acid reflux disease will damage the oesophagus.
(d) Swallowing will be difficult or impossible.
122. Study the statement given below and answer the question.
“Even though the contents of stomach are very acidic,
the stomach usually does not cause damage to itself”.
Identify the reasons (i to iv) given below which are
responsible for the above statement.
(i) The release of gastric juices is controlled to avoid
too high a concentration.
(ii) The stomach lining is quick to repair itself.
(iii) Mucus forms a thick protective coating for the
stomach.
(iv) Food and water dilute the gastric juices
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) All of the above
123. If the large intestine becomes irritated and peristalsis
increases then which of the following will result?
(a) Indigestion (b) Diarrhoea
(c) Constipation (d) Vomiting
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 17 Btgãvjkpé ãpæ Ezejãpég
qh Iãõgõ
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following has no specialized respiratory
structures ?
(a) Crab (b) Earthworm
(c) Salmon (d) Ant
2. The structure which prevents the entry of food into the
windpipe is
(a) gullet (b) glottis
(c) tonsil (d) epiglottis
3. Lungs are present in
(a) mediastinum (b) pleural cavity
(c) pericardial cavity (d) thoracic cavity
4. The structure which does not contribute to the breathing
movements in mammals is
(a) larynx (b) ribs
(c) diaphragm (d) intercostal muscles
5. Intercostal muscles are found attached with
(a) diaphragm (b) ribs
(c) pleura (d) lungs
6. Membrane separating air in pulmonary alveoli from blood
capillaries is
(a) alveolar epithelium
(b) cardiac epithelium
(c) endothelium of blood capillaries
(d) both (a) and (c)
7. The nose produces ____________ to put moisture in
the air and catch dust and bacteria.
(a) mucus (b) bronchi
(c) cilia (d) oxygen
8. The smallest and thinnest tube in the lung is
(a) trachea (b) larynx
(c) bronchi (d) bronchiole
9. The path that leads from the throat to the lungs is known as
(a) trachea (b) oesophagus
(c) epiglottis (d) larynx
10. The amount of air remaining in the air passages and alveoli
at the end of quiet respiration is called
(a) tidal volume
(b) inspirating reserve volume
(c) inspiratory capacity
(d) functional residual capacity
11. The total volume of air a person can expire after normal
inspiration is called
(a) residual volume
(b) vital capacity
(c) expiratory capacity
(d) functional residual capacity
12. Functional residual capacity can be represented as
(a) TV + ERV (b) ERV + RV
(c) RV + IRV (d) ERV + TV + IRV
13. The total lung capacity is represented by
(a) Tidal volume + Vital capacity
(b) Tidal volume + Residual volume
(c) Vital capacity + Residual volume
(d) Inspiratory + Expiratory reserve volumes
14. When 1200 mL air is left in the lungs, it is called
(a) vital capacity
(b) tidal volume
(c) residual volume
(d) inspiratory reserve volume
15. The volume of air breathed in and out during normal
breathing is called
(a) vital capacity
(b) inspiratory reserve volume
(c) expiratory reserve volume
(d) tidal volume
16. In anaerobic respiration
(a) O2
is taken in. (b) CO2
is taken in.
(c) O2
is given out. (d) CO2 is given out.
17. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers following amount
of O2
to the tissues under normal physiological contition.
(a) 5 ml (b) 25 ml
(c) 50 ml (d) More than 50 ml
18. What will be the pO2
and pCO2
in the atmospheric air as
compared to that of alveolar air ?
(a) pO2
lesser and pCO2
higher
(b) pO2
higher and pCO2
lesser
(c) Both pO2
and pCO2
lesser
(d) Both pO2
and pCO2
higher
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Breathing and Exhange of Gases 147
19. As blood becomes fully O2
saturated, haemoglobin
combines with____ molecule(s) of oxygen.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 8
20. What percentage of oxygen is carried by haemoglobin ?
(a) 90 (b) 98
(c) 23 (d) 73
21. Partial pressure of oxygen in inspired and expired air is
……. and ……. mm of Hg.
(a) 100, 46 (b) 158, 40
(c) 158, 90 (d) 100, 95
22. p50 value denotes
(a) percentage of oxygen
(b) partial pressure of O2
(c) percentage of haemoglobin
(d) percentage of oxyhaemoglobin
23. Most oxygen is carried by the blood __(i)__. Most carbon
dioxide is carried by the blood __(ii)__.
(a) (i) attached to haemoglobin. (ii) in the form of
bicarbonate ions.
(b) (i) dissolved in plasma . (ii) dissolved in plasma.
(c) (i) in the form of H+
ions . (ii) in the form of bicarbonate
ions.
(d) (i) attached to haemoglobin. (ii) attached to
haemoglobin.
24. Which of the following gases makes the most stable
combination with the haemoglobin of RBCs?
(a) CO2
(b) CO
(c) O2
(d) N
25. In mammals, carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to
respiratory surface by
(a) plasma (b) R.B.C.
(c) W.B.C. (d) both (a) and (b)
26. __(i)__ in CO2
in your blood, which causes __(ii)__ in
pH, would cause your breathing to speed up.
(a) (i) An increase, (ii) a rise
(b) (i) An increase, (ii) a drop
(c) (i) A decrease, (ii) a rise
(d) (i) A decrease, (ii) a drop
27. Carbonic anhydrase is found in high concentration in
(a) leucocytes (b) blood plasma
(c) erythrocytes (d) lymphocytes
28. Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin can be promoted by
(a) low pCO2
(b) high pCO2
(c) low body temperature (d) high blood pH
29. Which of the following structures is the actual gas
exchange surface in the mammalian respiratory system ?
(a) Bronchus (b) Alveolus
(c) Bronchiole (d) Trachea
30. Residual air mostly occurs in
(a) alveoli (b) bronchus
(c) nostrils (d) trachea
31. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately _________________.
(a) 5ml of CO to the alveoli
(b) 6ml of CO2
to the plasma
(c) 4ml of CO2
to the alveoli
(d) 7ml of CO to the plasma
32. Asthma is caused due to
(a) infection of lungs.
(b) spasm in bronchial muscles.
(c) bleeding into pleural cavity.
(d) infection of trachea.
33. Emphysema developes mainly because of
(a) allergy or hypersensitization.
(b) spasm of the smooth muscles of bronchioles.
(c) cigarette smoking.
(d) inflammation of the alveoli
34. Respiratory mechanism is controlled by
(a) central nervous system
(b) sympathetic nervous system
(c) parasympathetic nervous system
(d) autonomic nervous system
35. The respiratory centre, which regulates respiration, is
located in
(a) cerebral peduncle (b) vagus nerve
(c) pons varolii (d) medulla oblongata
36. The pneumotaxic centre that can moderate the function
of respiratory rhythm centre is located in
(a) dorsal side of medulla
(b) ventral side of medulla
(c) aortic arch and carotid artery
(d) pons varolii
37. Which of the following normally contains the highest
concentration of oxygen ?
(a) Body cells
(b) Inhaled air
(c) Air in the pulmonary trunk
(d) Blood entering the lungs
38. The volume of the air that leaves the lungs in human is
measured by
(a) respirometer
(b) spirometer
(c) sphygmomanometer
(d) monometer
39. Which of the following organ receives electrical messages
from the brain for breathing in and out?
(a) Diaphragm (b) Bronchi
(c) Bronchioles (d) Alveoli
40. Which of the following group are supported by incomplete
cartilaginous rings?
(a) Pharynx, primary & tertiary bronchi and initial
bronchioles.
(b) Trachea, primary & secondary bronchi, and initial
bronchioles.
(c) Larynx, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi, and
initial bronchioles.
(d) Trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi, and
initial bronchioles.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
148 Biology
41. Thoracic chamber is formed (A) by the vertebral column,
(B) by the sternum, (C) by the ribs and on the (D) side by
the dome shaped diaphragm.
Identify A, B, C and D.
(a) A – dorsally, B – ventrally, C – laterally, D – lower
(b) A – ventrally, B – laterally, C – dorsally, D – upper
(c) A – laterally, B - ventrally, C – dorsally, D – lower
(d) A – dorsally, B - laterally, C – ventrally, D – upper
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
42. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Tracheal rings are of hyaline cartilage .
(b) Dorsal side of thoracic chamber is formed by sternum.
(c) Expiration occurs when there is negative pressure in
lungs.
(d) All of the above
43. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Diffusion membrane is made up of 3-major layers.
(b) Solubility of CO2
is higher than O2
by 25 times.
(c) Breathing volumes are estimated by spirometer.
(d) High conc. of hydrogen ions favours
oxyhaemoglobin formation.
44. With reference to human respiration, which is correct?
(a) Pulmonary ventilation is equal to alveolar ventilation.
(b) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary
ventilation.
(c) Alveolar ventilation is less than pulmonary
ventilation.
(d) Pulmonary ventilation is less than alveolar
ventilation.
45. Which of the following statement correctly defines Bohr
effect?
(a) Rise in p50 with a decrease in CO2
conc.
(b) Rise in p50 with decrease in pH.
(c) Rise in p50 with increase in O2
.
(d) Fall in p50 with decrease in pH.
46. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) All animals require a medium for cellular respiration.
(b) In all animals oxygen is transported by blood.
(c) All animals need oxygen for respiration.
(d) All of the above
47. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin
is that it
(a) maintains blood sugar level.
(b) acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood.
(c) functions as a catalyst for biological reactions.
(d) forms antibodies and offers resistance to diseases.
48. Identify the correct statement with reference to transport
of respiratory gases by blood ?
(a) Haemoglobin is necessary for transport of carbon
dioxide and carbonic anhydrase for transport of
oxygen.
(b) Haemoglobin is necessary for transport of oxygen and
carbonic anhydrase for transport of carbon dioxide.
(c) Only oxygen is transported by blood.
(d) Only carbon dioxide is transported by blood.
49. Which one of the following is the correct statement for
respiration in humans?
(a) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries
may suffer from lung fibrosis.
(b) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2
) is carried by
haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.
(c) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi.
(d) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region
of brain can increase the duration of inspiration.
50. Mark the correct statement.
(a) Volume of residual air is higher than tidal volume.
(b) Volume of complementary air is higher than tidal
volume.
(c) Volume of supplementary air is lower than residual
capacity.
(d) All of the above
51. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Inspiration is a passive process whereas expiration
is active.
(b) Inspiration is active process whereas expiration is passive.
(c) Inspiration and expiration are active process.
(d) Inspiration and expiration are passive process.
52. Which of the following conditions is responsible for
increase in ventilation rate of lungs ?
(a) Increase of CO2
content in inhaled air.
(b) Increase of CO2
content in exhaled air.
(c) Decrease in O2
content of inhaled air.
(d) Decrease in O2
content of exhaled air.
53. What happens during breathing?
(i) Size of our chest increases.
(ii) Size of our chest decreases.
(iii) Carbon dioxide is removed out from body.
(iv) Air enters our lungs.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
54. Air travels through
(i) Nose (ii) Skin
(iii) Trachea (iv) Mouth
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (i) and (iv)
(c) only (i) (d) only (ii)
55. Which of the following statements are true/false?
(i) The blood transports CO2
comparatively easily
because of its higher solubility.
(ii) Approximately 8 -.9% of CO2
is transported being
dissolved in the plasma of blood.
(iii) The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses
passively into the blood stream and passes into red
blood corpuscles and react with water to form H2CO3
(iv) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2
) of the erythrocytes is
basic.
(v) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the
erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) are true; (ii) and (iv) are false.
(b) (i), (iii) and (v) are false; (ii) and (iv) are true.
(c) (i), (ii), and (iv) are true; (iii) and (v) are false.
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false; (iii) and (v) are true.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Breathing and Exhange of Gases 149
56. Read the following statements and select the correct
option.
(i) Carbonic anhydrase is present in the erythrocytes .
(ii) In erythrocytes the carbon dioxide combine with
water and is transported.
(a) Statement (i) is correct and is responsible for
statement (ii).
(b) Statement (i) is not correct but statement (ii) is
correct.
(c) Both statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
(d) Statement (i) is correct but not involved in statement (ii).
57. Which one of the followings statements is not correct?
(a) Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal
inspiration is called expiratory capacity.
(b) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily
related to partial pressure of CO2
.
(c) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately 4 ml of CO2
to the alveoli.
(d) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around
5 ml of O2
to the tissues under normal physiological
conditions.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
58. Assertion: A sigmod curve is obtained when percentage
saturation of haemoglobin with O2
is plotted against the
pO2
.
Reason: Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver
around 5mL of O2
to the tissues under normal
physiological conditions.
59. Assertion: If two men, expire the same volume of air after
normal inspiration, they have the same expiratiory capcity.
Reason: Expirtory capacity includes tidal valume and
inspiratory reserve volume.
60. Assertion: A rise in pCO2
, H+
ions and temperature shifts
the HbO2
dissociation curve to right.
Reason: A rise in pCO2
or fall in pH decreases oxygen
affinity fr haemoglobin.
61. Assertion: The abdominal muscles are primarily involved
in generating pressure gradient between the lungs and
the atmosphere.
Reason: The strength of inspiration and expiration can
be increased by additional muscles in diaphragm and
intercostal muscles.
62. Assertion: Emphysema is the permanent abnormal
inflation of air space of teminal bronchioles or alveolar
sacs.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
63. Match the column I (Animals) with column II (Mode of
respiration) and choose the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(Animals) (Mode of respiration)
A. Earthworm I. Pulmonary
B. Human II. Branchial
C. Prawn III. Tracheal
D. Insects IV. Cutaneous
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
64. Match the disorders given in column - I with symptoms
under column - II. Choose the answer which gives the
correct combination.
Column-I Column-II
(Disorders) (Symptoms)
A. Asthma I. Inflammation of nasal
tract
B. Bronchitis II. Spasm of bronchial
muscles
C. Rhinitis III. Fully blown out alveoli
D. Emphysema IV. Inflammation of
bronchi
V. Cough with blood
strained sputum
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – I
(b) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
65. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (A-D) in
column I and four jumbled respiratory volume of a normal
human adult in column II.
Column -I Column-II
(Respiratory capacities) (Respiratory volumes)
A. Residual volume I. 2500 mL
B. Vital capacity II. 3500 mL
C. Inspiratory reserve volume III. 1200 mL
D. Inspiratory capacity IV. 4500 mL
Which one of the following is the correct matching of two
capacities and volume?
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV.
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II.
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I.
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
150 Biology
66. Match the column I (Organs) with column II (Functions)
and choose the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
(Organs) (Functions)
A. Nose I. Stops food from going
down into lungs.
B. Epiglottis II. Produces sound.
C. Pharynx III. Traps bacteria as well as
dust.
D. Larynx IV. Allows air to pass from
nose to oesophagus.
(a) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
67. Which one of the following four organs of respiratory
system is correctly matched with its characteristics?
A. Bronchi – Two branches of the trachea that
brings air into the lungs.
B. Trachea – Small flap that prevents food from
entering
C. Diaphragm – Dome shaped muscle that pushes
on the lungs during exhalation.
D. Alveoli – Pair of organs that inflate as you
inhale and deflate as you exhale.
(a) A and B only (b) C and D only
(c) A and C only (d) B and D only
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
68. The given diagram represents the human respiratory
system with few structures labelled as I, II, III and IV.
II
heart
I
IV
III
The exchange of gases takes place in which labelled
structure?
(a) I ® trachea (b) II ® Bronchi
(c) III ® bronchioles (d) IV ® alvedi
69. In the given diagram of human respiratory system what is
the funciton of structure marked as X ?
heart
X
(a) To prevent food from entering into trachea.
(b) To filter and warm the air.
(c) To help in exchange of gases.
(d) To catch dust and bacteria.
70. In the given diagarm of human respiratory system which
marked label (I, II, III & IV) is the common passageway
where the nasal and oral cavities meet?
II
IV
I
III
(a) I ® nasal-cavity (b) II ® pharynx
(c) III®trachea (d) IV®lungs
71. In which one of the options given below, the one part A,
B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function?
B
C
D
A
(a) A- Alveolar cavity- It is the main site of exchange of
respiratory gases.
(b) B- Red blood cell- It transports mainly carbon dioxide.
(c) C- Arterial capillary- It passes oxygen to tissues.
(d) D- Capillary wall- Here, exchange of O2
and CO2
takes
place.
72. In the given diagram of human respiratory system, few
parts are marked as I, II, III, IV, V & VI. Choose the correct
combination of labelling from the given options.
2
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Breathing and Exhange of Gases 151
(a) I- Nose, II- Bronchus, III- Larynx, IV- Diaphragm,
V- Trachea, VI- Lung
(b) I- Nose, II- Larynx, III- Bronchus, IV- Lung,
V- Diaphragm, VI- Trachea
(c) I- Mouth, II- Trachea, III- Larynx, IV-Lung,
V- Diaphragm, Vi- Bronchus.
(d) I- Mouth, II- Diaphragm, III- Trachea, IV- Bronchi,
V-Larynx, VI- Lung
73. In the given figure, label A represents ____________
while label B represents _________.
B
A
(a) A- Trachea, B- Bronchus
(b) A- Alveolus, B- Bronchiole
(c) A- Bronchiole, B- Trachea
(d) A- Trachea, B- Bronchiole
74. Refer the given figure and answer the question.
2 4 6 8 10 12 14
partial pressure
of oxygen (Kpa)
100
80
60
40
20
% saturation of
haemoglobin
Which of the following statement is correct regarding the
above figure?
(a) When percentage saturation of haemoglobin is
plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen, a
sigmoid curve is obtained.
(b) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily
related to partial pressure of carbon monoxide.
(c) The given graph illustrates the amount of HbO2
as
similar to Hb at different pO2
.
(d) None of the above.
75. The given figure shows the respiratory system. Identify
the correct structure marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 whose
contraction initiated the inspiration which in turn increases
the volume of thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior
axis.
1
2
4
heart 3
(a) 1-lung (b) 2-Diaphram
(c) 3-pleural (d) 4-Alveoli
76. The figure given below shows the mechanism of
breathing. Identify the stage (X) of breathing explained &
A, B and C marked in the figure.
Ribs and
sternum
A
Rib cage
Diaphragm
Volume of
thorax
C
B
(a) X – Expiration, A– raised, B – decreased, C – relaxed
(b) X – Inspiration, A – raised, B – decreased, C – relaxed
(c) X – Expiration, A – raised, B – increased, C –
contracted
(d) X - Inspiration, A– raised, B – increased, C –
contracted
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
77. About 70% of CO2
is transported as
(a) carbonic acid (b) darboxyhaemoglobin
(c) bicarbonates (d) carbamino compounds
78. Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and
deoxyhaemoglobin at
(a) low O2
pressure in tissue.
(b) high O2
pressure in tissue.
(c) equal O2
pressure inside and outside tissue.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
152 Biology
(d) all times irrespective of O2
pressure.
79. Even when there is no air in it, human trachea does not
collapse due to presence of
(a) bony rings (b) turgid pressure
(c) chitinous rings (d) cartilaginous rings
80. Dissociation curve shifts to the right when
(a) pH increases.
(b) CO2
concentration increases.
(c) O2
concentration decreases.
(d) 2, 3 D-P-G decreases.
81. During inspiration in mammals, the diaphragm becomes
(a) dome shaped (b) raised highly
(c) flat (d) static
82. During oxygen transport, the oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue
level liberates oxygen to the cells because in tissue
(a) O2
concentration is high and CO2
is low.
(b) O2
concentration is low and CO2
is high.
(c) O2
tension is high and CO2
tension is low.
(d) O2
tension is low and CO2
tension is high.
83. Combining of haemoglobin with O2
in lungs can be
promoted by
(a) decreasing CO2
concentration in blood.
(b) decreasing O2
concentration in blood.
(c) increasing CO2
concentration in blood.
(d) introducing CO2
into blood.
84. When CO2
concentration in blood increases, breathing
becomes
(a) slow and deep.
(b) faster and deeper.
(c) shallower and slow.
(d) there is no effect on breathing.
85. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic
(low pH)?
(a) Oxygen carying capacity of haemoglobin increases.
(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases.
(c) RBCs count increases.
(d) RBCs count decreases.
86. When, under certain conditions, the P50 value of
haemoglobin rises, the affinity of the pigment of combining
with O2
will
(a) remain same (b) rise
(c) fall (d) first rise and then fall
87. Low oxygen tension in the blood causes
(a) coughing (b) yawning
(c) hiccuping (d) sneezing
88. Arrange the following events in the correct order as they
occur during inspiration:
I. Air flows into the lungs.
II. Alveolar volume increases.
III. Thoracic volume increases.
IV. Pleural pressure decreases.
V. Alveolar pressure decreases.
(a) I – II – III – IV – V (b) III – IV – II – V – I
(c) II – V – I – III – IV (d) IV – V – II – I – III
89. Which of the following are the stages of respiration in
correct order?
A – Gaseous transport B – Cellular respiration
C – Tissue respiration D – Breathing
(a) A – D – C – B (b) D – A – C – B
(c) D – A – B – C (d) D – C – B – A
90. Vital capacity of our lungs is
(a) total lung capcity minus residual volume.
(b) inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume.
(c) total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume.
(d) inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve
volume.
91. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of air
(a) that can be filled in lungs by forceful inspiration.
(b) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration.
(c) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
(d) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration.
92. If a person is suffering from emphysema, his/her
(a) bronchioles are found damaged.
(b) alveolar walls are found damaged.
(c) the plasma membrane is found damaged.
(d) the respiratory muscle is found damaged.
93. Number of RBCs per unit volume of blood is likely to be
higher in a person living at high altitudes, because
(a) air is clean and unpolluted.
(b) more sunshine is available.
(c) air is less dense.
(d) vegetation gives out more O2
.
94. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity
of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following
conclusions is most likely to be correct? The patient has been
inhaling polluted air containing usually high content of
(a) chloroform (b) carbon dioxide
(c) carbon monoxide (d) carbon disulphide
95. Common feature in the alveoli of lungs and villi of intestine
in mammals is that both
(a) provide a large surface area.
(b) have ciliated epithelium.
(c) are suited for diffusion of gases.
(d) have rich supply of blood vessels and lymph ducts.
96. Presence of large number of alveoli around alveolar ducts
opening into bronchioles in mammalian lungs is
(a) inefficient system of ventilation with little of residual air.
(b) inefficient system of ventilation with high percentage
of residual air.
(c) an efficient system of ventilation with no residual air.
(d) an efficient system of ventilation with little residual air.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Breathing and Exhange of Gases 153
97. Maximum amount of oxygen is exchanged from the blood
in the ...............
(a) capillaries-surrounding tissue cells.
(b) arteries of the body.
(c) left auricle of the heart.
(d) capillaries surrounding the alveoli.
98. After taking a long deep breath, we do not respire for
some seconds due to
(a) more CO2
in blood (b) more O2
in blood
(c) less CO2
in blood (d) less O2
in blood
99. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human
blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2
(a) helps in releasing more O2
to the epithelium tissues.
(b) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise.
(c) raises the pCO2
of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(d) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%.
100. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us
in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?
(a) One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by
moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the
ribs at all.
(b) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully
breathing out all air from them.
(c) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
(d) One can breathe out air through Eustachian tubes
by closing both the nose and the mouth.
101. The urge to inhale in humans results from
(a) rising pCO2
(b) rising pO2
(c) falling pCO2
(d) falling pO2
102. The pharynx functions as a ___i___, whereas the larynx
functions as a ___ii___.
(a) i- common passage for air and food; ii- passageway
for food only.
(b) i- passageway for air only; ii- passageway for air and
food.
(c) i- common passageway for air and food; iipassageway for air only.
(d) i- block to bacteria; ii- passage for air and food.
103. In man and mammals, air passes from outside into the
lungs through
(a) nasal cavity ¾¾® pharynx ¾¾® larynx ¾¾®
trachea ¾¾® bronchioles ¾¾® bronchi ¾¾®
alveoli
(b) nasal cavity ¾¾® pharynx ¾¾® larynx ¾¾®
trachea ¾¾® bronchi ¾¾® bronchioles ¾¾®
alveoli
(c) nasal cavity ¾¾® larynx ¾¾® pharynx ¾¾®
trachea ¾¾® bronchi ¾¾® alveoli
(d) nasal cavity ¾¾® larynx ¾¾® pharynx ¾¾®
trachea ¾¾® bronchioles ¾¾® alveoli
104. The chloride shift in red blood cells is the movement of
(a) cations into the cell to balance its uptake of chloride
ions.
(b) chloride ions from the blood into the glomerular
filtrate for excretion.
(c) chloride ions out of the cell to balance the release of
hydrogencarbonate ions.
(d) chloride ions into the cell to balance its uptake of
hydrogencarbonate ions.
105. External gills, tracheae, and lungs all share which of the
following sets of characteristics ?
(a) Part of gas-exchange system, exchange both CO2
and O2
; increase surface area for diffusion.
(b) Used by water breathers; based on countercurrent
exchange; use negative pressure breathing.
(c) Exchange only O2
; are associated with a circulatory
system; found in vertebrates.
(d) Found in insects; employ positive-pressure pumping
based on crosscurrent flow.
106. Which of the following equation shows the role of
carbonic anhydrase enzyme in the transport of carbon
dioxide by blood?
(a) – CO H O H CO HCO H 2 2 23 3 ¾¾® ¾¾® +
+ + ¬¾¾ ¬¾¾
(b)
Oxidation
CH O 6 12 6 + 6 O2 6 CO2 + 6 H O2
Reduction
(c) C H O 2 C H OH 2 CO 6 12 6 6 5 2 ® +
(d) None of the above.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Lymph differs from blood in
(a) absence of RBC (b) absence of WBC
(c) excess of water (d) absence of protein
2. Lymph is modified blood that contains
(a) RBC and WBC
(b) RBC, WBC and protein
(c) WBC and all protein
(d) all contents of blood except RBC and certain protein
3. In blood
(a) WBCs are more than RBCs
(b) RBCs are more than WBCs
(c) RBCs are less than platelets
(d) Platelets are less than WBCs
4. Which one engulfs pathogens rapidly?
(a) Acidophils (b) Monocytes
(c) Basophils (d) Neutrophils
5. What is true about leucocytes ?
(a) Their sudden fall in number is indication of blood cancer
(b) These are produced in thymus
(c) These are enucleated
(d) These can squeeze out through the capillary walls
6. Which of the following is considered as the soldiers of
body?
(a) Lungs (b) Capillaries
(c) Red blood cells (d) White blood cells
7. Which of the following is responsible for ABO grouping?
(a) Presence or absence of clotting factors.
(b) Compatibility of blood groups during blood
transfusion.
(c) Presence or absence of surface antigens (A and B) on
WBCs.
(d) Presence or absence of two surface antigens (A and B)
on the RBCs.
8. What is correct for blood group ‘O’?
(a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present
(b) A antigen and b antibody
(c) Antigen and antibody both absent
(d) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies
9. Rh factor is named after
(a) monkey (b) Drosophila
(c) rat (d) man
10. When the blood of a foetus is agglutinated by its mother's
Rh antibodies, then which of the following condition arises
as a severe anaemia?
(a) Immunization
(b) Ectopic pregnancy
(c) Erythroblastosis foetalis
(d) Both (b) and (c)
11. __________ plays an important role in blood clotting.
(a) Sodium (b) Chlorine
(c) Calcium (d) Potassium
12. Which of the following cations is required for the
conversion of prothrombin into active thrombin by
thromboplastin?
(a) Cu2+ (b) Fe3+
(c) Fe2+ (d) Ca2+
13. Clotting of blood is to
(a) seal up wounds and prevent blood loss.
(b) slow down the movement of blood inside the blood
vessels.
(c) trap oxygen inside the blood so that it can be carried
around more easily.
(d) trap harmful germs inside the blood and prevent them
from harming the body.
14. Fish has ___(i)____ and ___(ii)___ circulatory system.
(a) (i)- open, (ii)- single
(b) (i)- open, (ii)- double
(c) (i)- closed, (ii)- single
(d) (i)- closed, (ii)- double
15. Open type blood vascular system is found in
(a) earthworm (b) lizard
(c) cockroach (d) toad
16. Which of the following set of animals has an incomplete
double circulation system ?
(a) Frog and crocodile (b) Shark and whale
(c) Lizard and pigeon (d) Toad and lizard Chapter 18 Bqæû Ènwkæõ ãpæ
Cktewnãvkqp
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Body Fluids and Circulation 155
17. Heart is covered by
(a) peritoneum (b) pleural membrane
(c) pericardium (d) visceral membrane
18. Nodal tissue/musculature in human heart has
(a) the ability to generate action potential due to any
external stimuli.
(b) two patches, one in atrium and other in ventricle.
(c) purkinje fibres throughout the ventricular
musculature.
(d) atrioventricular node, also called pacemaker.
19. Pulmonary vein, carrying oxygenated blood, opens into
(a) left auricle (b) right auricle
(c) left ventricle (d) right ventricle
20. The pacemaker of the human heart is
(a) SA node (b) tricuspid valve
(c) AV node (d) SV node
21. Which one of the following blood vessel is without
valves?
(a) Artery (b) Pulmonary aorta
(c) Vein (d) Systemic aorta
22. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins by the
command from
(a) Purkinje fibres (b) AV node
(c) chordae tendinae (d) SA node
23. The opening of auricles into ventricles on the right side is
guarded by which valve?
(a) Tricuspid (b) Bicuspid
(c) Semilunar (d) Mitral valve
24. Bicuspid valve allows blood from
(a) right auricle to left ventricle.
(b) right auricle to right ventricle.
(c) left auricle to left ventricle.
(d) post caval to heart.
25. ‘Bicuspid’ term is applied to
(a) a valve in heart and a bone of pelvic girdle.
(b) a muscle in upper arm and a valve in heart.
(c) a valve in heart and tooth surface.
(d) a valve in heart.
26. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following
organs in humans?
(a) Brain (b) Heart
(c) Kidney (d) Pancreas
27. Which of the following has the thickest walls?
(a) Right ventricle (b) Left ventricle
(c) Right auricle (d) Left auricle
28. A four-chambered heart is found in
(a) mammals only
(b) humans only
(c) all vertebrates
(d) some reptiles, all birds and mammals
29. Sinu-atrial node in human heart is embedded in the wall of
(a) sinus-venosus
(b) interatrial septum
(c) right atrium
(d) atrioventricular septum
30. Which term does not apply to human heart?
(a) Pacemaker (b) Four chambered
(c) Mitral valve (d) Neurogenic
31. What is the function of valve?
(a) To prevent blood from flowing into the aorta.
(b) To push blood into the ventricle.
(c) To push blood into the aorta.
(d) To prevent backflow of blood into the left ventricle.
32. A blockage in aortic valve would directly reduce blood
flow to the _______.
(a) heart (b) liver
(c) lungs (d) brain
33. In mammals the blood from the right ventricle goes to
(a) systemic aorta (b) precavals
(c) truncus arteriosus (d) pulmonary aorta
34. The heart sound ‘dupp’ is produced when
(a) tricuspid valve is opened.
(b) mitral valve is opened.
(c) mitral valve is closed.
(d) semi-lunar valves at the base of aorta get closed.
35. The first heart sound is
(a) ‘LUBB’ sound produced at the end of systole.
(b) ‘DUP’ sound produced at the end of systole.
(c) ‘LUBB’ sound produced at the beginning of systole.
(d) ‘DUP’ sound produced at the beginning of systole.
36. Closure of which of the following valves makes louder
sound of heart beat?
(a) Mitral valve (b) Seminular valve
(c) Auriculo-ventricular valve
(d) Tricuspid valve
37. Cardiac cycle in man takes about
(a) 0.5 seconds (b) 1.0 second
(c) 1.2 seconds (d) 0.8 seconds
38. The pattern of contraction and relaxation of the heart is
referred to as
(a) blood pressure (b) arterial flow
(c) blood flow (d) cardiac cycle
39. ‘P’ wave of ECG occurs before the
(a) onset of ventricular contraction.
(b) end of arterial contraction.
(c) beginning of atrial contraction.
(d) none of the above.
40. QRS is related to
(a) ventricular contraction
(b) auricular contraction
(c) cardiac cycle
(d) auricular relaxation
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
156 Biology
41. The largest artery in the body is
(a) aorta (b) precaval
(c) vena cava (d) pulmonary artery
42. Pulmonary artery arises from
(a) right atrium (b) left atrium
(c) right ventricle (d) left ventricle
43. Which circulation provides nutrients and oxygen to
cardiac muscle tissue?
(a) Pulmonary circulation
(b) Systemic circulation
(c) Lymphatic circulation
(d) Coronary circulation
44. Which structures are directly involved in the pulmonary
circulation?
(a) Right atrium, aorta and left ventricle.
(b) Left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava.
(c) Superior vena cava, right atrium and left ventricle.
(d) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium.
45. Which structures are directly involved in the "systemic
circulation"?
(a) Superior vena cava, right ventricle and left ventricle.
(b) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries and left atrium.
(c) Left ventricle, aorta and inferior vena cava.
(d) Right atrium, pulmonary trunk and left ventricle.
46. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood?
(a) Renal vein (b) Hepatic portal vein
(c) Hepatic vein (d) Pulmonary vein
47. Which of the following parts of heart possess semilunar
valves?
(i) Aorta (ii) Vena cava
(iii) Pulmonary artery (iv) Pulmonary vein
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
48. In adult man, normal BP is
(a) 100/80 mm Hg (b) 120/80 mm Hg
(c) 100/120 mm Hg (d) 80/120 mm Hg
49. Pulse beat is measured from
(a) capillaries (b) arteries
(c) veins (d) nerves
50. Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred to as
(a) heart failure (b) cardiac arrest
(c) atherosclerosis (d) angina
51. Hardening of the arteries due to deposition of cholesterol
is called
(a) thrombosis (b) atherosclerosis
(c) rhinitis (d) angina
52. In arteriosclerosis
(a) arterial walls become very thin and weak so that the
blood oozes out of the walls.
(b) sex linked heredity is involved.
(c) blood coagulates even in the arteries.
(d) arterial walls become inelastic and thickened.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
53. Mark the incorrect statement regarding normal ECG.
(a) Patient is connected to 3 electrical leads (one to each
wrist and to the left ankle).
(b) ‘T’ wave represents atrial repolarization.
(c) Q marks the beginning of ventricular systole.
(d) R represents ventricular depolarization.
54. Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human
blood circulatory system
(i) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as
compared to veins.
(ii) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood
circulation to the brain is reduced.
(iii) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to
any person with any blood group under ABO system.
(iv) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood
clotting.
Which two of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) & (iv) (b) (i) & (ii)
(c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (iii) & (iv)
55. What is true about RBCs in humans?
(a) They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2
.
(b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2
.
(c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and
the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved
state in blood plasma.
(d) They do not carry CO2
at all.
56. Find out the incorrect statement from the following.
(a) Veins are typically larger in diameter than arteries.
(b) Because of their small size, capillaries contain blood
that is moving more quickly than in other parts of
the circulatory system.
(c) The walls of arteries are elastic, enabling them to
stretch and shrink during changes in blood pressure.
(d) Veins contain more blood than any other part of the
circulatory system.
57. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding
blood pressure?
(a) 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and
kidney.
(b) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires
treatment.
(c) 120/80 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure.
(d) 105/50 mmHg makes one very active.
58. Cardiac output is/are
(i) Product of heart rate and stroke volume.
(ii) Product of auricular and ventricular volume.
(iii) A process in which blood pumped in one minute.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Body Fluids and Circulation 157
Which of the above statements is true ?
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (i) and (iii)
59. Which of the following statements is/are correct for blood
group?
(i) Blood group O is universal donor.
(ii) Blood group AB is universal acceptor.
(iii) Blood group A contains antigen B and anti-A
antibodies.
(iv) Blood group B contains antigen B and anti-A
antibodies.
(a) Only (i) and (ii). (b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii).
(c) Only (i), (ii) and (iv). (d) Only (i), (iii) and (iv).
60. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
joint diastole?
(a) Both atria relax but ventricles contract.
(b) Both ventricles relax but atria contract.
(c) Both semilunar valves are open.
(d) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open.
61. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
pulmonary artery ?
(a) It carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs.
(b) It carries deoxygenated blood from lungs to heart.
(c) It carries oxygenated blood from heart to lungs.
(d) It carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart.
62. Which one of the statement is correct with reference to
the circulation of blood in a mammal?
(a) Left auricle receives oxygenated blood.
(b) Pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood to the
lungs.
(c) Blood from the lungs is returned to heart through
2-veins, one from each lung.
(d) None of the above.
63. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
lymph?
(a) It transports oxygen to brain.
(b) It transport CO2
to lungs.
(c) It returns interstitial fluid to blood.
(d) It returns RBCs and WBCs to lymph nodes.
64. Which of the folowing statement best defines artery?
(a) It carries blood from one visceral organ to another
visceral organ.
(b) It carries oxygenated blood to the different organs.
(c) It carries blood away from the heart to different
organs.
(d) It breaks up into capillaries which reunite to form a
vein.
65. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
blood cells?
(a) A healthy individual has 12 - 16 gms of haemoglobin
in every 200ml of blood.
(b) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after which
they are destroyed in the spleen.
(c) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells
which destroy foreign organisms entering the body.
(d) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to clotting
disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood
from the body.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
66. Assertion : SAN is called the pacemaker of heart.
Reason : The SAN can generate the maximum number of
action potentials and is responsible for initiating and
maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.
67. Assertion : Lub is a heart sound which is produced during
each cardiac cycle.
Reason : It is associated with the closure of the tricuspid
and bicuspid valves.
68. Assertion : Saline water is not given to patients with
hypertension.
Reason: Saline water can cause vomiting and may drop
blood pressure suddenly causing cardiac arrest.
69. Assertion : Blood pressure is arterial blood pressure.
Reason : Blood pressure is measured by
sphygmomanometer.
70. Assertion: WBCs accumulate at the site of wounds by
diapedesis.
Reason: It is squeezing of leucocytes from endothelium.
71. Assertion : Blood coagulates in uninjured blood vessels.
Reason : Uninjured blood vessels release an anticoagulant
heparin.
72. Assertion : Prothrombinase enzyme acts as antiheparin.
Reason : Heparin prevents coagulation of blood in blood
vessels.
73. Assertion : When there is a fall in the blood pressure due
to loss of blood volume, this is compensated by
vasoconstriction of veins.
Reason : Veins hold the extra amount of blood which can
be shifted to the arteries as required.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
74. In which of the following options the types of heart is
correctly matched to their respective group of animals?
(a) Two chambered heart- Fishes and amphibians
(b) Three chambered heart- Amphibians and birds
(c) Four chambered heart- Birds and mammals
(d) Three chambered heart- Reptiles and mammals
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
158 Biology
75. Which one of the following is a matching pair?
(a) Lubb-Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of
ventricular systole.
(b) Dup-Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the
beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery-Valves in the blood
vessels.
(d) Purkinje fibres-Initiation of the heart beat.
76. In a standard ECG, which one of the following alphabets
is the correct representation of the respective activity of
the human heart?
(a) P-Depolarization of the atria
(b) R-Repolarization of ventricles
(c) S-Start of systole
(d) T-End of diastole
77. Match the following descriptions (given in column-II) of
each type of blood cell to their names (given in column-I).
Column-I Column-II
(Blood cell) (Description)
A. Erythrocyte I. Most abundant white
blood cell, and the main
phagocytic cell of the
blood.
B. Eosinophil II. Least abundant white
blood cell; releases
histamine granules.
C. Lymphocyte III. Resist infections and
are associated with
allergic reactions.
D. Neutrophil IV. Blood cell that contains
haemoglobin and
transports oxygen.
E. Basophil V. Specialized antibodyproducing white blood
cells.
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – II
(b) A – I; B – II, C – III; D – IV; E – V
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – IV
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III; E – V
78. Which of the following term (column-I) is correctly
matched with its functions (column-II)?
Column-I Column-II
(Term) (Functions)
(a) Plasma Straw coloured fluid that
consists of suspended blood
cells
(b) Heart Site where exchange of
nutrients and gases occur
(c) Capillary A red colour fluid that
provides food to the cells
(d) Blood Pumping station of the body
79. Match each area of the heart (column-I) with the structure
(column-II) from which it receives blood.
Column-I Column-II
(Area of heart) (Receives blood from)
A. Right atrium I. Left atrium
B. Right ventricle II. Vena cavae
C. Left atrium III. Right atrium
D. Left ventricle IV. Pulmonary veins
(a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
80. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct
answer from the option given below.
Column-I Column -II
A. Cardiac cycle I. 72 / min
B. Plasma II. 120/80 mmHg
C. Systolic/Diastolic III. 0.8 seconds
D. Haemoglobin IV. 12 -16 gms in every 100 ml
of blood
E. Heart beat V. 55 % of the blood
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I
(c) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – I; E – II
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
81. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.
Which one of its components is correctly interpreted?
(a) Peak P and Peak R together - Systolic and diastolic
blood pressures
(b) Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(c) Complex QRS - One complete pulse
(d) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac contraction
82. The given diagram represents human heart with four
chambers labelled as I, II, III & IV?
II
I
III
IV
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Body Fluids and Circulation 159
Which labelled structure receives carbon dioxide rich
blood from the body?
(a) I- Left atrium (b) II- Left ventricle
(c) III- Right atrium (d) IV- Right ventricle
83. In the given diagram of human heart the mitral valve is
located between which two parts of the heart?
A
B
D C
E
(a) D and E (b) B and C
(c) D and C (d) E and B
84. In the human heart, blood from the lungs enters the heart
through the left atrium, pumps into the left ventricle, out
the aorta and through the body, and then returns into the
right atrium, pumps into the right ventricle and exits to
the lungs.
Using the diagram, which set of letters (A, B, C, D, E)
correctly represents the process describe above?
A
B
D C
E
(a) E, D, A, B, C (b) B, C, A, E, D
(c) C, D, A, B, E (d) D, C, A, E, B
85. Refer the given figure of human heart and identify the
chamber (marked as 1, 2, 3 & 4) which receives most of the
blood returning from the brain.
1
3 2
4
(a) I- Left atrium (b) II- Left ventricle
(c) III- Right ventricle (d) IV- Right atrium
86. The given figure represents the pathway of blood
throughout the body.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Lungs
Heart
Body
tissues
Identify the correct match of marked number 1, 2, 3 and 4.
(a) 1- Artery (b) 2- Pulmonary vein
(c) 3- Pulmonary artery (d) 4- Vein
87. The given figure represents diagrammatic presentation
of an ECG. Each peak in the ECG is identified with a letter
from P to T that corresponds to a specific electrical activity
of the heart.
Which of the following letter shows the incorrect activity
of heart?
(a) QRS - Depolarization of the ventricles
(b) R wave - Marks the beginning of the systole.
(c) P- Electrical excitation (or depolarization) of the atria
(d) T wave - Return of the ventricles from excited to
normal state (repolarization).
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
88. What is true about leucocytes ?
(a) Their sudden fall in number is indication of blood
cancer.
(b) These are produced in thymus.
(c) These are enucleated.
(d) These can squeeze out through the capillary walls.
89. Which is the correct route through which pulse making
impulse travels in the heart?
(a) SA node ® AV node ® Bundle of His ® Purkinje
fibres
(b) AV node ® Bundle of His ® SA node ® Purkinje
fibres ® heart muscles
(c) AV node ® SA node ® Purkinje fibres ® Bundle of
His ® heart muscles
(d) SA node ® Purkinje fibres ® Bundle of His ® AV
node ® heart muscles
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
160 Biology
90. If nerves of heart are cut, then heart will
(a) beat rhythmically (b) stop
(c) beat arhythmically (d) shrink
91. Which one of the following will be the cardiac output (in
litres per minute) of a heart that has a stroke volume of
0.07 litres and is beating at a rate of 90 per minute?
(a) 63.30 (b) 63.00
(c) 00. 63 (d) 06.30
92. The blood returning to the heart through pulmonary vein
has more
(a) RBC (b) haemoglobin
(c) oxygen (d) nutrient
93. First heart sound (LUBB) coincides with which wave of
ECG?
(a) R-wave (b) T-wave
(c) P-wave (d) Q-wave
94. What happens when the pacemaker becomes nonfunctional?
(a) Only the auricles will contract rhythmically.
(b) The cardiac muslces do not contract in a coordinated
manner rhythmically.
(c) Only ventricles will contract rhythmically.
(d) Auricles and ventricles contract simultaneously.
95. Maximum amount of oxygen is lost from the blood in the
(a) capillaries surrounding the tissue cells.
(b) arteries of the body.
(c) capillaries surrounding the alveoli.
(d) left auricle of the heart.
96. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on
four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
(a) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
(b) Blood plasma
(c) Blood serum
(d) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
97. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid
valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what
will be the immediate effect?
(a) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be
reduced.
(b) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.
(c) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.
(d) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.
98. Which of the following set of events can occur
simultaneously?
(a) Auricular depolarization, ventricular depolarization,
auricular systole.
(b) Ventricular depolarization, auricular systole,
ventricular diastole.
(c) Auricular depolarization, ventricular repolarization,
auricular diastole.
(d) Auricular depolarizaion, ventricular diastole,
auricular systole.
99. If a person is loosing blood continuously due to injury
then what will be the effect on his pulse and BP initially?
(a) Pulse and BP both will fall.
(b) Pulse will fall and BP will rise.
(c) Both pulse and BP will rise.
(d) Pulse will rise and BP will fall.
100. During systemic circulation, blood leaves the ___(i)____
and _________(ii)______.
(a) (i)- left ventricle, (ii)- goes directly to the aorta
(b) (i)- right ventricle, (ii)- goes directly to the aorta
(c) (i)- right ventricle, (ii)- moves to the lungs.
(d) (i)- left ventricle, (ii)- moves to the lungs
101. In normal human blood pressure, what does the "120"
represent?
(a) The maximum pressure that can be sustained by the
arteries before bursting.
(b) The lowest pressure in the arteries that will keep
someone from fainting when they stand up.
(c) The highest ideal arterial pressure for someone at
rest.
(d) The pressure in the veins.
102. If a person had two-chambered heart (one atrium, and
one ventricle) with the vena cava entering the atrium and
the aorta leaving the ventricle then which of the following
statement would be correct?
(a) No oxygen would reach the cells.
(b) No blood would reach the head and neck.
(c) The blood would be unable to carry food to the cells.
(d) There would be no blood circulation.
103. Sinus venosus is/are present in which of the following
animals?
(i) Fishes (ii) Amphibians
(iii) Reptiles (iv) Birds
(v) Mammals
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
104. In order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to left
ventricle in mammalian heart, it must flow through
I. Right ventricle II. Pulmonary veins
III. Left atrium IV. Lungs
V. Pulmonary arteries
(a) I- V- IV- II- III (b) I- II- III- IV- V
(c) III- V- I- II- IV (d) III- II- I- IV-V
105. Which of the following is not correct for blood pressure?
(i) It is not affected by atherosclerosis.
(ii) It is typically lower in veins than in arteries.
(iii) Diastolic pressure is higher than systolic pressure.
(iv) It is usually refers to as venous pressure of the
systemic circulation.
(a) (i) & (iii) (b) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (i), (iii) & (iv)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Body Fluids and Circulation 161
106. Mother-foetus Rh blood type incompatibility disorder can
occur if the mother is _____ and her foetus is ____.
(a) Rh positive; Rh positive
(b) Rh positive; Rh negative
(c) Rh negative; Rh positive
(d) Rh negative; Rh negative
107. "X" is a fibrous tissue of the membranous septum of the
heart just above the septal cusp of the tricuspid valve. It
separates the atrium and the ventricle of the same side.
Identify "X".
(a) Sino atrial node
(b) Atrioventricular septum
(c) Atrioventricular node
(d) Interventricular septum
108. Which area allows the atria to completely empty as the
ventricles fill with blood?
(a) A-V node (b) A-V bundle
(c) S-A node (d) Purkinje fibers
109. When a leopard runs after you, the increase in heart rate
is probably due to the __________.
(a) hypothalamus
(b) sympathetic nerves
(c) increase in blood pressure
(d) medullary accelerator centre
110. The state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively
enough to meet the needs of the body is called _____.
(a) angina (b) cardiac arrest
(c) heart attack (d) heart failure
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found in
(a) reptiles and bird
(b) birds and annelids
(c) amphibians and reptiles
(d) insects and amphibians
2. Ammonia is the main nitrogenous excretory material in
(a) amphibians (b) turtles
(c) tadpoles (d) reptiles
3. Mechanism of uric acid excretion in a nephron is
(a) osmosis (b) diffusion
(c) ultrafiltration (d) secretion
4. Why bony fishes, aquatic amphibian and aquatic insects
are called ammonotelic animals?
(a) They excrete ammonia as their excretory product.
(b) They excrete ammonia as a least toxic nitrogenous
waste product.
(c) They excrete uric acid in the form of pellet and paste
with a minimum loss of water.
(d) These animals have nephridia as their excretory organ
which helps to remove nitrogenous waste and
maintain a fluid and ionic balance.
5. Excretion of nitrogenous waste product in semi-solid form
occur in
(a) amniotes (b) desert animals
(c) ureotelic animals (d) uricotelic animals
6. The projections of renal pelvis are called
(a) hiluses
(b) calyces
(c) medullary pyramids
(d) renal columns
7. The number of nephrons in a kidney is equal to
(a) the number of Bowman’s capsules.
(b) sum of Bowman’s capsules and glomeruli.
(c) double the number of Bowman’s capsules.
(d) sum of Bowman’s capsules and Malpighian
corpuscles.
8. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule constitute
(a) nephrotome (b) renal corpuscle
(c) renal capsule (d) malpighian tubule
9. In which part of the excretory system of mammals you
can first use the term urine for fluid it contains?
(a) Bowman’s capsule (b) Loop of Henle
(c) Collecting tubule (d) Ureter
10. Columns of Bertini in the kidneys of mammals are formed
as extensions of
(a) Cortex into medulla
(b) Cortex into pelvis
(c) Medulla into pelvis
(d) Pelvis into ureter
11. Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is called
(a) renal artery (b) renal vein
(c) efferent arteriole (d) afferent arteriole
12. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?
(a) Loops of Henle
(b) Peritubular capillaries
(c) Convoluted tubules
(d) Collecting ducts
13. The efferent arteriole emerging from the glomerulus forms
a fine capillary network around the renal tubule called the
______________.
(a) vasa recta (b) loop of Henle
(c) collecting duct (d) peritubular capillaries
14. Juxta-glomerular apparatus is formed by cellular
modification in the
(a) afferent arteriole and DCT
(b) efferent arteriole and PCT
(c) afferent arteriole and PCT
(d) efferent arteriole and DCTChapter 19 Ezetgvqtû Rtqæwevõ ãpæ
Vjgkt Enkïkpãvkqp
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Excretory Products and Their Elimination 163
15. Which of the following accessory excretory structure
eliminates NaCl, lactic acid and urea?
(a) Kidney (b) Liver
(c) Sebaceous gland (d) Sweat gland
16. Which of the following components of blood does not
enter into the nephron?
(a) Urea (b) Water
(c) Glucose (d) Plasma protein
17. Kidney helps in the conservation of useful materials and
excretion of wastes and therefore they receive 20% of the
heart’s output of blood (as much as the heart and brain
combined). On a percentage basis which substance is most
completely reabsorbed by the kidneys?
(a) Water (b) Glucose
(c) Urea (d) Sodium
18. The site and principal mechanism for the passage of
glucose into the bloodstream in the human kidney is the
(a) collecting duct, by active secretion.
(b) distal convoluted tubule, by passive diffusion.
(c) glomerulus, by selective reabsorption.
(d) proximal convoluted tubule, by selective
reabsorption.
19. The part of the nephron impermeable to water is
(a) proximal tubule
(b) distal tubule
(c) ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(d) collecting duct
20. Reabsorption of chloride ions from glomerular filtrate in
kidney tubule occurs by
(a) active transport (b) diffusion
(c) osmosis (d) brownian movement
21. Colloidal osmotic pressure in blood plasma is mainly due
to
(a) albumin (b) globulin
(c) fibrinogen (d) sodium chloride
22. The ascending loop of Henle is permeable for
(a) ammonia (b) glucose
(c) sodium (d) water
23. Loop of Henle takes part in absorption of
(a) potassium (b) glucose
(c) water (d) urea
24. In comparison to blood plasma, percentage of glucose in
glomerular filtrate is
(a) higher (b) equal
(c) lower (d) nil
25. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy individual is
approximately
(a) 100 ml/minute, i.e., 180 liters per day.
(b) 125 ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day.
(c) 120 ml/minute, i.e., 100 litres per day.
(d) 130 ml/minute, i.e., 120 litres per day.
26. The maximum reabsorption of useful substances back into
the blood from filtrate in a nephron occurs in
(a) PCT (b) Loop of Henle
(c) DCT (d) collecting duct
27. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
(a) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
(b) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline.
(c) juxta - glomerular cells to release renin.
(d) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin.
28. The part of the nephron that helps in active reabsorption
of sodium is
(a) bowman’s capsule
(b) distal convoluted tubules
(c) ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(d) proximal convoluted tubules
29. Which region of the kidney nephron is the main site of
amino acid reabsorption?
(a) Glomerulus
(b) Bowman’s capsule
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule
(d) Distal convoluted tubule
30. Which of the following hormone is secreted from kidney ?
(a) ANF (b) Erythropoietin
(c) Rennin (d) Aldosterone
31. Which of the following is directly responsible for
increasing glomerular blood pressure and hence GFR?
(a) Aldosterone (b) ANF
(c) Angiotensin II (d) Renin
32. In the renal tubules the permeability of the distal
convoluted tubule and collecting duct to water is
controlled by
(a) aldosterone (b) vasopressin
(c) growth hormone (d) renin
33. The function of renin is
(a) degradation of angiotensinogen
(b) stimulation of corpus luteum
(c) to reduce blood pressure
(d) vasodilatation
34. Volume of urine is regulated by
(a) aldosterone
(b) aldosterone and ADH
(c) aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
(d) ADH alone
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
164 Biology
35. The hormone that promotes reabsorption of water from
glomerular filtrate is
(a) oxytocin (b) vasopressin
(c) calcitonin (d) relaxin
36. Juxta-glomerular cells of renal cortex synthesizes an
enzyme called
(a) ADH (b) oxytocin
(c) renin (d) urochrome
37. Which one is an important constituent of renin
angiotensinogen-aldosterone system?
(a) JGA cell (b) Macular cell
(c) Erythropoetin (d) Plasma cell
38. The voluntary response to the distension of urinary
bladder is
(a) polyurea (b) micturition
(c) mellitus (d) menstruation
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
39. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Vasa recta is not present in cortical nephrons.
(b) Maximum number of nephrons in kidney are juxtamedullary type.
(c) DCT of many nephrons open into collecting tubule.
(d) All of the above
40. Which of the following statement is not correct with
respect to human kidney?
(a) The peripheral region is called cortex and central
medulla.
(b) Malpighian capsules are present in the cortex region.
(c) Blood enters glomerulus through efferent arterioles.
(d) The concave part of kidney is called hilus.
41. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron
which of the following event is to be expected ?
(a) There will be no urine formation.
(b) There will be hardly any change in the quality and
quantity of urine formed.
(c) The urine will be more concentrated.
(d) The urine will be more dilute.
42. Almost all the aquatic animals excrete ammonia as the
nitrogenous waste product. Which of the following
statement is not in agreement with this situation?
(a) Ammonia is easily soluble in water.
(b) Ammonia is released from the body in a gaseous
state.
(c) Ammonia is highly toxic and needs to be eliminated
as and when formed.
(d) Ammonia gets converted into a less toxic form called
urea.
43. Which one of the following statements in regard to the
excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(a) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to
electrolytes.
(b) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to
water.
(c) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing
HCO3
–
.
(d) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is
reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
44. Which one of the following statements is correct with
respect to kidney’s function and regulation?
(a) During summer when body loses lots of water by
evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.
(b) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is
suppressed.
(c) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH
release.
(d) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates
formation of Angiotensin II.
45. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
urine formation?
(a) Filtration and reabsorption takes place before
secretion.
(b) Filtration and secretion takes place before
reabsorption.
(c) Secretion takes place before reabsorption and
filtration.
(d) Reabsorption takes place before filtration and
secretion.
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Counter-current flow of blood in vasa recta helps to
retain the reabsorbed sodium in the renal medulla.
(b) Glomerular filterate is protein free plasma.
(c) Vasa recta carry glomerular filterate from distal
convoluted tubule to the collecting duct.
(d) Glomerular filterate in Bowman’s capsule is isotonic
to the plasma.
47. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Glucose has high threshold value.
(ii) Urine is concentrated in Henle’s loop.
(iii) Haemodialyser removes urea, uric acid, glucose and
proteins.
(iv) In glomerulus, urea, uric acid, water, glucose and
plasma proteins are filtered out.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) and (iii)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Excretory Products and Their Elimination 165
48. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(i) Urine is hypertonic in distal convoluted tubule.
(ii) When the urine passes into the collecting tubule,
it becomes hypotonic.
(iii) Urine is isotonic in proximal convoluted tubule.
(iv) Urine becomes more and more hypotonic as it passes
through the Henle’s loop.
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (iii) only
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
49. Assertion : Aquatic animals like whales and seals are
said to be ureotelic animals.
Reason : It is because of the fact that their main
nitrogeneous waste product is urea.
50. Assertion : Kidney maintains the osmotic concentration
of the blood.
Reason : Kidney eliminates either hypotonic or hypertonic
urine according to the need of the body.
51. Assertion : In the descending limb of loop of Henle, the
urine is hypertonic, whereas in ascending limb of loop of
Henle, the urine is hypotonic.
Reason : Descending limb is impermeable to sodium, while
ascending limb is impermeable to water.
52. Assertion : Secreting hypotonic urine is effective in
reducing urinary loss of water.
Reason : Hypotonic urine is more concentrated and higher
in osmotic pressure than the blood.
53. Assertion : Aldosterone is a steroid hormone and is
important in the control of sodium and potassium ion
concentration in mammals.
Reason : It upgrades sodium ion concentration in the
ECF by promoting reabsorption ofsodium ions from renal
tubules and excretion of potassium ions in urine.
54. Assertion : Main constituent of human urine is ammonia.
Reason : If human urine is allowed to stand for some time,
it smells strongly of ammonia.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
55. Match the excretory functions given in column-I with the
parts of the excretory system in column-II. Choose the
correct combination from the given options.
Column-I Column-II
(Function) (Parts of excretory systems)
A. Ultra filtration I. Henle’s loop
B. Concentration II. Ureter
of urine
C. Transport of III. Urinary bladder
urine
D. Storage of urine IV. Malpighian corpuscle
V. Proximal convoluted
tubule
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II
56. Match the disorders given in column-I with their feature
given in column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Disorders) (Feature)
A. Uremia I. Excess of protein in urine
B. Hematuria II. Presence of high ketone
bodies in urine
C. Ketonuria III. Presence of blood cells
in urine
D. Glycosuria IV. Presence of glucose in
urine
E. Proteinuria V. Excess of urea in blood
(a) A - V; B -III; C - II; D - IV; E - I
(b) A - IV; B - V; C - III; D - II; E - I
(c) A - V; B -III; C - IV; D - II; E - I
(d) A - III; B -V; C - II; D - I; E - IV
57. Which of the following parts of the nephron given in
column I is correctly matched with their functions given
in column II?
Column-I Column-II
(Parts of the nephron) (Functions)
A. Proximal convoluted I. Sodium is reabsorbed
tubules actively in this region.
B. Distal convoluted II. Sodium and water are
tubules reabsorbed under the
influence of hormone
in this region.
C. Descending limb III. Primary site of glucose
and amino acid
reabsorption.
D. Ascending limb IV. Major substance
reabsorbed here is
water by osmosis.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
166 Biology
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(d) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
58. Which of the following hormone/enzyme is/are correctly
paired with its function?
I. Renin – Enzyme that catalyses the formation of
angiotensin I.
II. Aldosterone – Regulates water reabsorption at the
distal convoluted tubule.
III. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) – It is a powerful
vasoconstrictor that stimulates the secretion of
aldosterone.
IV. Angiotensin II – Promotes reabsorption of sodium
at distal convoluted tubule.
(a) Only I (b) Only III
(c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
59. Which of the following is correctly matched with its
function of a specific part of a human nephron?
(a) Afferent arteriole – Carries the blood away from the
glomerulus towards renal vein.
(b) Podocytes – Create minute spaces (slit pores) for
the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule.
(c) Henle’s loop – Reabsorption of the major substances
from the glomerular filtrate.
(d) Distal convoluted tubule – Reabsorption of K+
ions
into the surrounding blood capillaries.
60. Select the option which shows correct matching of animal
with there excretory organs and excretory product.
Animal Excretory
organs
Excretory
product
(a) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid
(b) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial tubes Ammonia
(c) Salamander Kidney Urea
(d) Peacock Kidney Urea
61. Select the correct match of the types of organs given in
column I with their role in excretion given in column II.
Column I Column II
(Types of organ) (Role in excretion)
A. Lungs I. Secretes bile-containing
substances like bilirubin,
biliverdin, cholesterol,
degraded steroid hormones,
vitamins and drugs.
B. Liver II. Eliminates water and salts
in sweat and substances
like sterols, hydrocarbons
and waxes through sebum.
C. Skin III. Remove large amounts of
CO2 (18 litres/day) and
also significant quantities
of water every day
D. Kidney IV. Remove wastes (metabolic
by-products) and regulate
pH, ion concentration,
volume and osmolarity of
blood
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – IV; B – IV; C – III; D – I
62. Select the correct match of the types of neuron present in
column I with its location given in column II.
Column I Column II
A. Fall in GFR I. Activate the JG cells to
release renin
B. Angiotensin II II. Increases the glomerular
blood pressure and
thereby GFR
C. Renin III. Carries out the conversion
of angiotensinogen in the
liver to angiotensin I.
D. Aldosterone IV. Causes reabsorption of
Na+ and water from the
distal parts of the tubule.
This also leads to an
increase in blood
pressure and GFR.
E. An excessive loss of V. Activate osmoreceptors
fluid from the body which stimulate the
hypothalamus to release
ADH from the
neurohypophysis
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V
(b) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – I
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – IV
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
63. The label X and Y in the given diagram of human urinary
system represents
(X)
(Y)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Excretory Products and Their Elimination 167
(a) X- Urethra, Y- Ureter
(b) X- Ureter, Y- Urethra
(c) X- Bladder, Y- Urethra
(d) X- Ureter, Y- Bladder
64. Which is the correct order for the path taken by urine
after it leaves the kidney?
II
III
I
(a) I ® II ® III (b) III ® I ® II
(c) II ® III ® I (d) II® I ® III
65. The given figure shows the longitudinal section of kidney
with few structures labelled as I, II, III & IV identify renal
vein in the given figure.
IV
I
II
III
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
Directions for (Q. 66 to 68): Refer the given diagrammatic
representation of a nephron of human excretory system and
answer the following questions.
X
C
E
A
B
D
66. The label X represents ___________ that function in
______________.
(a) Vasa recta- Reabsorption of water, minerals and
digestive end products.
(b) Henle's loop- Filtration of plasma leaving the blood.
(c) Vasa recta- Filtration of plasma leaving the blood.
(d) Henle's loop- Reabsorption of water, minerals and
digestive end products.
67. Which blood component would not usually pass through
the membranes from region A to region B?
(a) Mineral salts (b) Red blood cells
(c) Urea (d) Water
68. After the blood enters the kidney, it travels to the
____________.
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
Directions for (Q. 69 to 72): Refer the given figure of nephron
showing blood vessels and duct and answer the questions.
69. Which parts in the above figure have minimum
reabsorption and play a significant role in the maintenance
of high osmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 5 and 6 (d) 7 and 8
70. Cells of which part is lined by simple cuboidal brush border
epithelium that increases the surface area for reabsorption?
Identify the name also.
(a) 3, Descending limb of loop of Henle
(b) 5, Vasa recta
(c) 6, Proximal convoluted tubule
(d) 7, Collecting duct
71. Which part is capable of reabsorption of HCO3 - and
selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and
NH3
to maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in
blood?
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7
72. Which structures have an ability to produce the
concentrated urine?
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 5
(c) 6, 7, 8 (d) 2, 4, 7
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
168 Biology
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
73. Workers in deep mines usually suffer from dehydration
because
(a) water is lost due to evaporation.
(b) water is lost due to defecation.
(c) water is lost in the form of urine.
(d) water is lost along with salts in the form of sweat.
74. Which of the following sets of animals produce the same
substances as their chief excretory product?
(a) Fish, pigeon and frog
(b) Camel, housefly and snake
(c) Frog, monkey and dog
(d) Amoeba, ant and antelope
75. Filtration slits are formed by
(a) endothelial lining of glomerular capillaries.
(b) inner epithelium of Bowman’s capsule.
(c) basement membrane.
(d) the participation of all of these.
76. The cells named podocytes occur in
(a) inner wall of Bowman’s capsule
(b) outer wall of Bowman’s capsule
(c) in the wall of glomerulus
(d) in the wall of Henle’s loop
77. Ultrafiltration occurs in a glomerulus when
(a) hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic pressure.
(b) osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure.
(c) capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds glomerular
hydrostatic pressure.
(d) colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular pressure
remain less than glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
78. Filtration fraction is the ratio of
(a) glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to renal plasma flow
(RPF)
(b) glomerular filtrate to urine
(c) haemoglobin to oxyhaemoglobin
(d) O2
to CO2
79. In a mammalian kidneys, Bowman’s capsules occur in
(i) while loops of Henle are situated in (ii) .
(a) (i) – cortex, (ii) – medulla
(b) (i) – medulla, (ii) – cortex
(c) (i) – cortex, (ii) – pelvis
(d) (i) – pelvis, (ii) – medulla
80. Urine is hypertonic
(a) in Bowman’s capsule.
(b) in PCT.
(c) in the middle of descending & ascending limb of
Henle’s loop.
(d) at the end of ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
81. Diuresis is a condition characterized by
(a) increase in urine volume.
(b) increased glucose excretion.
(c) decrease in urine volume.
(d) decrease in electrolyte balance.
82. In nephron water absorption is maximum in
(a) proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
(b) ascending limb of Henle.
(c) descending limb of Henle.
(d) distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
83. Human urine contains
(a) 95% water, 2.6% urea, 2% salts and some uric acid.
(b) 99% water and 1% urea.
(c) 92% water and 8% salts.
(d) 90% water, 8% uric acid and 2% proteins.
84. Glomerular filtrate contains
(a) blood without blood cells and proteins
(b) plasma without sugar
(c) blood with proteins but without cells
(d) blood without urea
85. __i___ and ___ii___ carries the waste products.
(a) i- Renal artery, ii- Renal vein
(b) i- Renal vein, ii- Urethra
(c) i- Renal vein, ii- Ureter
(d) i- Renal artery, ii-Ureter
86. The urine under normal conditions does not contain
glucose because
(a) the normal blood sugar is fructose.
(b) glucose of blood is not filtered in the glomerulus.
(c) glucose in glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the
uriniferous tubules.
(d) glucose in glomerular filtrate is converted into
glycogen.
87. When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption,
which one of the following will not help in maintenance of
blood volume?
(a) increased ADH secretion.
(b) decreased glomerular filtration.
(c) increased arterial pressure in kidneys.
(d) decreased arterial pressure in kidneys.
88. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is released in response to
the increase in blood volume and blood pressure. Which
of the followings is not the function of ANF? It
(a) stimulates aldosterone secretion.
(b) inhibits the release of renin from JGA.
(c) stimulates salt loss in urine.
(d) inhibits sodium reabsorption from collecting duct.
89. Through the thick segment of ascending limb of Henle’s
loop the
(a) NaCl can pass by active transport from filtrate to the
interstitial fluid.
(b) NaCl can pass by passive transport into interstitial
fluid.
(c) NaCl cannot pass from the filtrate to interstitial fluid.
(d) Water can pass freely from filtrate to interstitial fluid.
90. Which of the following is likely to accumulate in
dangerous proportion in the blood of a person whose
kidney is not working properly?
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Excretory Products and Their Elimination 169
(a) Ammonia (b) Urea
(c) Lysine (d) Sodium chloride
91. If excess water passes out from tissues without being
restored by kidneys, the cells would
(a) burst open and die
(b) not be affected at all
(c) extract water from plasma
(d) shrivel and die
92. There is no sugar in urine. The blood entering the kidney
has more sugar than leaving the kidney because
(a) sugar is used by kidney cells in metabolism.
(b) sugar is absorbed by bladder.
(c) sugar is absorbed by proximal convoluted tubule.
(d) sugar is absorbed in Loop of Henle.
93. In human beings the capsular urine entering the Proximal
Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is
(a) isotonic to blood
(b) hypotonic to blood
(c) hypertonic to blood
(d) isotonic to sea water
94. If the diameter of afferent renal arteriole is decreased and
that of efferent renal arteriole increased, ultra filtration will
(a) be faster
(b) be slower
(c) not take place
(d) take place in the same speed
95. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary
bladder wall are totally removed?
(a) There will be no micturition
(b) Urine will not collect in the bladder
(c) Micturition will continue
(d) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
96. In a kidney machine, which of the following passes from
the blood to the dialysis fluid?
(a) Glucose (b) Plasma protein
(c) Red blood cells (d) Urea
97. Excretion means
(a) removal of substances which have never been a part
of body.
(b) removal of faecal matter from the body.
(c) removal of substances not required in the body.
(d) all of the above.
98. Urine of a human suffering from diabetes inspidus is
(a) concentrated with glucose
(b) concentrated without glucose
(c) watery with glucose
(d) watery without glucose
99. Which one of the following correctly explains the function
of a specific part of a human nephron ?
(a) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the
filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule.
(b) Henle’s loop : Most reabsorption of the major
substances from the glomerular filtrate.
(c) Distal convoluted tubule : Reabsorption of K+
ions
into the surrounding blood capillaries.
(d) Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from the
glomerular towards renal vein.
100. Which one of the following enables the mammalian kidney
to regulate water reabsorption during states of
dehydration?
(a) The cells of the tubules detect the osmotic pressure
of the blood.
(b) Water is extracted from the glomerular filtrate in the
proximal tubules.
(c) The kidney produces a hypotonic urine.
(d) Hormones increase the permeability of the collecting
ducts.
101. If the afferent arteriole that supplies blood to the
glomerulus becomes dilated,
(a) the protein concentration of the filtrate decreases.
(b) hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus decreases.
(c) the glomerular filtration rate increases.
(d) all of the above
102. "X" causes reabsorption of "Y" and water from the distal
parts of the tubule. This also leads to an increase in "Z"
and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
Identify X, Y and Z.
(a) X: ADH; Y: Na+; Z: Blood pressure
(b) X: ADH; Y: K+; Z: Blood pressure
(c) X: Aldosterone; Y: Na+; Z: Blood pressure
(d) X: Aldosterone; Y: K+; Z: Ionic concentration
103. Under normal conditions which one is completely
reabsorbed in the renal tubule?
(a) Salts (b) Urea
(c) Glucose (d) Uric acid
104. Identify the parts mentioned below which constitute a
part of single uriniferous tubule.
i. Loop of Henle.
ii. Collecting duct
iii. Bowman's capsule
iv. Distal convoluted tubule
(a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, iii and iv (d) All of the above
105. A patient was diagnosed that one process of his excretory
system was not functioning properly due to which his
urine is not concentrating.
Identify the organ of the excretory system on which
concentration of urine depends.
(a) Collecting duct
(b) Bowman's capsule
(c) Length of loop of Henle
(d) Proximal convoluted tubules
106. Which are the following group of hormones participate in
the regulation of the renal function?
(a) ADH, TSH and ANF
(b) PCT, TSH and ANF
(c) ADH, DCT and Aldosterone
(d) ADH, ANF and Aldosterone
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The macrophages in human body exhibit
(a) ciliary movement
(b) amoeboid movement
(c) no movement
(d) movement with the blood flow only
2. Striated muscle fibres are found in
(a) urinary bladder (b) lungs
(c) gall bladder (d) leg muscles
3. Smooth muscle is
(a) found in walls of heart only.
(b) found in the walls of all the hollow organs except
heart.
(c) attached to the bones only.
(d) found only in the walls of alimentary canal.
4. Cardiac muscles are different from that of skeletal
muscles as the former are
(a) striated but involuntary.
(b) non striated and involuntary.
(c) smooth or unstriated.
(d) voluntary in action.
5. Striations in the striated muscles are due to
(a) absence of myofilaments.
(b) presence of myofilaments.
(c) specialized arrangement of myofilaments.
(d) projections of myosin.
6. Which set clearly identify striated muscles?
(a) Cylindrical, Syncytial and Unbranched
(b) Spindle, Unbranched and Uninucleated
(c) Cylindrical, Striped and Nucleated
(d) Cylindrical, Striped and Branched
7. Actin protein occurs in which of the following two forms
?
(a) Polymeric F- actin and monomeric G- actin
(b) Monomeric F- actin and polymeric G-actin
(c) The tail and a head
(d) F-actin and G- actin, but both globular.
8. Anisotropic band is
(a) thick and dark (b) thin and dark
(c) thick and light (d) thin and light
9. A-band of the myofibril contains
(a) only thick filaments
(b) only thin filaments
(c) both thick and thin filaments
(d) no filaments
10. Troponin
(a) produces sliding movement of microtubules
(b) contains globular head
(c) binding to Ca+2 produces skeletal muscle contraction.
(d) covers the active site of actin.
11. During muscle contraction in humans the
(a) actin filaments shorten.
(b) sarcomere does not shorten.
(c) A-band remain same.
(d) A, H and I bands shorten.
12. A sarcomere is best described as a
(a) movable structural unit within a myofibril bounded
by H zones.
(b) fixed structural unit within a myofibril bounded by Z
lines.
(c) fixed structural unit within a myofibril bounded by A
bands.
(d) movable structural unit within a myofibril bounded
by Z lines.
13. Which muscle protein acts as ATPase?
(a) Actin (b) Troponin
(c) Myosin (d) Tropomyosin
14. During resting stage the binding site of actin for myosin
remains masked by
(a) troponin (b) G-actin
(c) tropomyosin (d) meromyosin
15. Which of the following is the store house of calcium in
muscles?
(a) Sarcosome
(b) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(c) Creatine phosphate
(d) Sarcomere
Chapter 20 Îqeqïqvkqp ãpæ
Oqøgïgpv
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Locomotion and Movement 171
16. Red muscle fibres are rich in
(a) golgi bodies (b) mitochondria
(c) lysosomes (d) ribosomes
17. During fatigue
(a) muscles cannot relax.
(b) muscles fail to be stimulated.
(c) blood supply to muscles stops.
(d) nerve supply to muscles become inactive.
18. The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of
a skeletal muscle cell join at the_______
(a) motor unit (b) synaptic cleft
(c) action potential (d) neuromuscular junction
19. In mammals the lower jaw is made of
(a) maxilla (b) dentary
(c) mandible (d) ethmoid
20. Hyoid bone is located
(a) at the top of the buccal cavity.
(b) at the floor of the buccal cavity.
(c) in front of the skull.
(d) behind the skull.
21. Which of the following is a single U shaped bone, present
at the base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in
the skull?
(a) Hyoid (b) Malleus
(c) Sacrum (d) Scapula
22. Which of the following is not part of axial skeleton?
(a) Sacrum (b) Sternum
(c) Mandible (d) Humerus
23. The vertebral formula of human adult is
(a) C7
T12L5
S5Cd1
(b) C7
T12L 5S5Cd5
(c) C7
T12L5
S5Cd4
(d) C7
T12L5
S4Cd4
24. Part of the body having a single pair of bones is called
(a) pelvic girdle (b) external ear
(c) wrist (d) lower jaw
25. Which of the following vertebrae are fused?
(a) Cervical (b) Sacral
(c) Lumber (d) Thoracic
26. Glenoid cavity is found in
(a) pelvic girdle (b) skull
(c) pectoral girdle (d) sternum
27. Function of long bones in adult mammals is to provide
(a) support only.
(b) support and produce RBCs only.
(c) support and produce WBCs only.
(d) support and produce RBCs and WBCs.
28. Number of floating ribs in human body is
(a) two pairs (b) three pairs
(c) five pairs (d) six pairs
29. A cup shaped cavity for articulation of femur head is
(a) acetabulum (b) glenoid cavity
(c) sigmoid notch (d) obturator foramen
30. Elbow joint is an example of
(a) hinge joint
(b) gliding joint
(c) ball and socket joint
(d) pivot joint
31. In humans, coccyx is formed by the fusion of
(a) 3 vertebra (b) 4 vertebra
(c) 5 vertebra (d) 6 vertebra
32. An example of gliding joint is
(a) humerus and glenoid cavity
(b) femur and tibio-fibula
(c) occipital condyle and odontoid process
(d) zygapophyses of adjacent vertebrae
33. Identify the joint between sternum and the ribs in humans.
(a) Fibrous joint (b) Gliding joint
(c) Cartilaginous joint (d) Angular joint
34. The joint in our neck which allows us to rotate our head
left to right is
(a) pivot joint (b) hinge joint
(c) saddle joint (d) ellipsoid joint
35. Accumulation of uric acid crystals in the synovial joint
causes
(a) rheumatoidal arthritis
(b) gout
(c) osteoarthritis
(d) muscular dystrophy
36. Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder ?
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Muscular dystrophy
(d) Gout
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
37. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) All movements lead to locomotion.
(b) Ciliary movement help in passage of ova through
female reproductive tract.
(c) Microfilaments are involved in amoeboid
movement.
(d) In Paramecium, the cilia help in movement of food
through cytopharynx and in locomotion as well.
38. Which of the following is not the feature of red muscle
fibres?
(a) They have plenty of mitochondria.
(b) They have high content of myoglobin.
(c) They have high amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(d) They are called aerobic muscles.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
172 Biology
39. What is not true about human skull?
(a) It is dicondylic.
(b) It includes 6 ear ossicles.
(c) It includes 14 facial bones.
(d) Hyoid is not included in skull bones.
40. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) All striated muscles are voluntary.
(b) Visceral muscles are faintly striated.
(c) Cardiac muscles are not striated.
(d) All non-striated muscles are involuntary.
41. Read the following statements (A to D) and select the
one option that contains both correct statements.
A. Z-line is present in the centre of the light band.
B. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the M-line.
C. The central part of thick filaments, not overlapped
by thin filaments is called Z-band.
D. Light band contains only thin filaments.
(a) A and D (b) B and C
(c) A and C (d) B and D
42. During muscle contraction.
(a) chemical energy is changed to electrical energy.
(b) mechanical energy is changed to chemical energy.
(c) chemical energy is changed to physical energy.
(d) chemical energy is changed to mechanical energy.
43. Contractile tissues have the following features.
(i) They are mesodermal in origin.
(ii) They contain stretch receptors.
(iii) Rhythmic contractions are seen in them.
(iv) They do not fatigue during the life of the animal.
Which of the above are characteristics of sphincters?
(a) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) All of these
44. Which one of the following is the correct description
of certain part of a normal human skeleton?
(a) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull
are joined by fibrous joint.
(b) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the
occipital condyles.
(c) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs.
(d) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh
bone articulates.
45. Select the correct statement regarding the specific
disorder of muscular or skeletal system.
(a) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder which
inhibits sliding of myosin filaments.
(b) Gout – Inflammation of joints due to extra
deposition of calcium.
(c) Muscular dystrophy – Age related shortening of
muscles.
(d) Osteoporosis – Decrease in bone mass and higher
chances of fractures with advancing age.
46. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion
in humans.
(a) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes
their inflammation.
(b) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.
(c) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous
joint.
(d) The decreased level of progesterone causes
osteoporosis in old people.
47. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) During muscle contraction, isotropic band gets
elongated.
(ii). Acetylcholine is released when the neural signal
reaches the motor end plate.
(iii) Muscle contraction is initiated by the signal sent
by CNS via a sensory neuron.
(iv) Repeated activation of muscle can lead to lactic acid
accumulation.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
48. According to the sliding filament theory of muscle
contraction,
(a) actin binds ATP and breaks it apart as actin pulls
against myosin.
(b) calcium ions are released from myosin as the
filaments slide by.
(c) the thick and thin filaments do not change length
during this process.
(d) all of the above
49. Read the following 4-statements (i – iv) and accordingly
mark the option that has both correct statements.
(i) Cardiac fibres are branched with one or more nuclei.
(ii) Smooth muscles are unbranched and cylindrical.
(iii) Striated muscles can be branched or unbranched.
(iv) Involuntary muscles are non-striated.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
50. Assertion-: Knee joint is an example of hinge joint.
Reason : Femur, patella and fibula are associated with
knee joint.
51. Assertion : The phase of muscle contraction occurs
when myosin binds and releases actin.
Reason : Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent
by the peripheral nervous system via a motor neuron.
52. Assertion : Recurrent activation of the muscles will
become fatigue.
Reason : Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen in the muscles
can lead to the accumulation of lactic acid.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Locomotion and Movement 173
53. Assertion : Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize
the movements of the joint.
Reason :Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and
ossification of articular cartilage lead to this.
54. Assertion : Ball and socket joints are the most mobile
joints.
Reason : Synovial fluid is present here.
55. Assertion : Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes
the joint painful.
Reason : Some toxic substances are deposited at the
joint.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
56. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts
are correctly matched with their respective inclusive
skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify
the non-matching pair.
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
(a) Sternum and ribs – Axial skeleton
(b) Clavicle and glenoid – Pelvic girdle cavity
(c) Humerus and ulna – Appendicular skeleton
(d) Malleus and stapes – Ear ossicles
57. Which of the following pair shows the correct
characteristics with an example of a synovial joint in
humans?
Characteristics Examples
(a) Fluid filled between – Skull bones
two joints, provides
cushion
(b) Fluid filled synovial – Joint between
cavity between two atlas and axis
bones
(c) Lymph filled between – Gliding joint
two bones, limited between
movement carpals
(d) Fluid cartilage – Knee joint
between two bones,
limited movements
58. Which of the following pairs of joints and its location is
correctly matched?
(a) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae
(b) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of
the successive vertebrae
(c) Cartilaginous joint– Skull bones
(d) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges
59. Which of the following human skeletal parts are
correctly matched with their respective category?
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
A. Humerus and ulna – Appendicular skeleton
B. Malleus and stapes – Ear ossicles
C. Sternum and ribs – Axial skeleton
D. Clavicle and glenoid – Pelvic girdle
cavity
(a) A and B only (b) A, B and C only
(c) A, B, and D only (d) All of the above
60. Match column I (types of synovial joints) with column II
(bones involved) and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
(Type of synovial joint) (Bone involved)
A. Ball and Socket joint I. Carpal and metacarpal
of thumb
B. Hinge joint II. Humerus and pectoral
girdle
C. Pivot joint III. Knee
D. Saddle joint IV. Atlas and axis
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
61. Which of the following option shows the correctly
matched bones (given in column I) with its pair (given in
column II)?
Column-I Column-II
A. Carpals I. Bones that form the
fingers and toes
B. Tarsals II. Bones that form wrist
C. Phalanges III. Bones that form the
palms of the hands
D. Metatarsals IV. Bones that form the
ankles
(a) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(c) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II
62. Which of the following functional characteristics of
muscle is correctly matched with its appropriate
descriptive term?
I. Elasticity- Ability of a muscle fibre to recoil and
resume its resting length after being stretched.
II. Excitability- Ability to respond to any change in the
environment (inside or outside the body)
III. Extensibility- Ability to be stretched
IV. Contractility- Ability to shorten forcibly when
adequately stimulated
(a) I and III only (b) II and IV only
(c) I, II, and III only (d) All of these
63. Match the name of bone given in column I with their
numbers given in column II.
Column-I Column-II
A. Thoracic I. 8
B. Wrist bones II. 2 pairs
C. False ribs III. 12
D. Metatarsal IV. 3 pairs
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
174 Biology
E. Skull (cranial & facial) V. 26
VI. 5
VII. 22
A B C D E
(a) I VI II V III
(b) III I IV VI VII
(c) I VII III V II
(d) II V VII I IV
64. Match the column I with column II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Striated appearance of I. Distribution pattern of
myofibril actin and myosin
B. Store house of calcium II. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
ions
C. Energy released III. Helps myosin head to bind
from ATP hydrolysis to exposed active sites
on actin to form a cross
bridge
D. Globular head of IV. Active ATPase enzyme
meromyosin and has binding sites
for ATP and active sites
for actin.
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) III I IV II
(c) II I III IV
(d) III IV II I
65. Which of the following match is incorrect?
(a) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs - do not articulate
directly with the sternum but join the sixth rib with
the help of hyaline cartilage.
(b) Glenoid cavity - articulates with the head of the
humerus to form the shoulder joint.
(c) Fibrous joint - flat skull bones which fuse end-toend with the help of dense fibrous connective
tissues in the form of sutures, to form the cranium.
(d) Increase in Ca++ level - leads to the binding of calcium
with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and
thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
66. Given below is a diagram of the bones of the left human
hindlimb as seen from the front. It has certain mistakes
in labelling. Identify the two bones which are not
correctly labelled.
Femur
Tibia
Fibula
Tarsals
Phalanges
(a) Tibia and Tarsals
(b) Femur and Fibula
(c) Fibula and Phalanges
(d) Tarsals and Femur
67. In the given diagram of skull, what does “I” represent?
(a) Frontal bone (b) Temporal bone
(c) Occipital bone (d) Parietal bone
(I)
68. The diagram given below shows the pelvic girdle and
lower limb.
IV V
I
II
III
Parts labelled as ‘I’, ‘II’, ‘III’, ‘IV’ and ‘V’ respectively
indicate
(a) Ilium, Femur, Tibia, Pubis and Sacrum
(b) Pubis, Tibia, Femur, Ilium and Sacrum
(c) Ilium, Femur, Tibia, Pubis and Sacrum
(d) Pubis, Femur, Tibia, Ilium and Sacrum
69. The given diagram of human skeleton system shows types
of ball and socket joint. Identify the joints which are
marked as I, II, III, IV and V
I
IV
V
II
III
(a) I and II (b) II and IV
(c) III and IV (d) IV and V
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Locomotion and Movement 175
70. The given diagram represents the bones of human arm.
Identify the bones marked as I, II, III & IV.
I
II
III
IV
I II III IV
(a) Clavicle Ulna Radius Humerus
(b) Humerus Radius Ulna Scapula
(c) Scapula Radius Ulna Clavicle
(d) Humerus Ulna Radius Scapula
71. Which two bones in the given figure form a hinge joint?
I
II
III
IV
(a) I and II (b) I and III
(c) I and IV (d) II and III
72. The given diagram shows a human skeleton. Which of
the following correctly identifies the bones marked as
I, II, III & IV?
I
II
III
IV
I II III IV
(a) Tibia Fibula Radius Ulna
(b) Radius Ulna Tibia Fibula
(c) Ulna Radius Tibia Fibula
(d) Fibula Tibia Radius Ulna
73. The label X in the given figure of an act in filament
represents
X
(a) actin (b) myosin
(c) tropomyosin (d) troponin
74. The given figure represents the cross bridge cycle in
skeletal muscle. What does the step B in the figure represents?
Myosin head
(high-energy
configuration)
ADP
ATP
ATP
ADP ATP
hydrolysis
Thin filament
Thick filament
ADP
A
D B
C
Myosin head
(low-energy
configuration)
P1
P1
(a) Attachment of myosin head to actin forming cross
bridge.
(b) Release of phosphate. Myosin changes shape to pull
actin.
(c) Attachment of new ATP to myosin head. The cross
bridge detaches.
(d) Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin cocks into
its high energy conformation.
75. Refer the following figure and answer the question.
Fusion of which of the following marked bones (1- 6)
are responsible for the formation of coxal bones?
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
176 Biology
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 4, 5, 6
(c) 1, 2, 5 (d) 3, 5, 6
76. The given figure shows right pectoral girdle and upper
arm. Few parts are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Which of the following options shows the correct
labelling of marked parts?
1 2 3 4
(a) Clavicle Scapula Humerus Radius
(b) Scapula Clavicle Radius Humerus
(c ) Sacrum Scapula Ulna Tibia
(d) Radius Clavicle Scapula Humerus
77. The given figure shows the diagrammatic cross sectional
view of a muscle with their parts marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Which part is held together by a common collagenous
connective tissue layer?
1
2
3
4
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
78. The given figure shows the structure of pectoral girdle
and upper arm. Identify the structure marked as "X" and
its feature.
X
(a) Humerus: Longest bone of upper extremity and is
characterized by presence of deltoid tuberosity for
the attachment of muscles.
(b) Radius: It is a smaller bone and formed by sesamoid
bone.
(c) Ulna: The bone extending from the elbow to the
wrist on the side opposite to the thumb in humans.
(d) Femur: Longest and largest bone of body.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
79. Which of the following represents the correct order of
vertebral regions from superior to inferior?
I. Sacrum II. Thoracic
III. Cervical IV. Lumbar
V. Coccyx
(a) I – II – III – IV – V (b) II – IV – I – III – V
(c) IV – I – II – V – I (d) III – II – IV – I – V
80. What is the correct order that a motor nerve impulse
travels when triggering a muscle contraction?
(a) Motor nerve®synaptic cleft®sarcolemma®
sarcoplasmic reticulum®troponin.
(b) Motor nerve®synaptic
cleft®sarcolemma®troponin ®sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
(c) Motor nerve®sarcoplasmic reticulum®synaptic
cleft®sarcolemma®troponin.
(d) Motor nerve®sarcolemma®sarcoplasmic
reticulum® synaptic cleft®troponin.
81. There are three blanks in the following statement. Mark
the correct option having suitable words for filling the
blanks.
The thin filaments of myofibril contain ....... ‘A’......actin
and two filaments of ....... ‘B’......protein along with
....... ‘C’......protein for masking binding site for myosin.
‘A’ ‘B’ ‘C’
(a) 1F troponin tropomyosin
(b) 1F tropomyosin troponin
(c) 2F troponin tropomyosin
(d) 2F tropomyosin troponin
82. In which option the number of bones of two
corresponding parts are not the same?
(a) Thigh and upper arm
(b) Sole and palm
(c) Ankle and wrist
(d) Leg and arm
83. The intercalated discs of________ muscle________.
(a) smooth; provide strong mechanical adhesion and
rapid electrical communication
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Locomotion and Movement 177
(b) skeletal; are the basis for all voluntary muscle action
(c) skeletal; make possible both fast twitches and slow
twitches
(d) cardiac; provide strong mechanical adhesion and
rapid electrical communication
84. Convexity of one bone articulate with concavity of other
bone in
(a) pivot joint (b) hinge joint
(c) gliding joint (d) ball and socket joint
85. All or None law is associated with
(a) skeletal muscle fibre
(b) neuron
(c) cardiac muscle fibres
(d) all of the above
86. Long uninucleate muscles are found in
(a) diaphragm (b) alimentary canal
(c) tongue (d) eye
87. Which of the following is not exclusively supplied with
involuntary muscles?
(a) Muscles of iris
(b) Muscles of the ducts of gland
(c) Muscles of urethra
(d) Muscular coats of blood vessel
88. Muscles of alimentary canal are mainly
(a) striated and myogenic
(b) striated and neurogenic
(c) unstriated and neurogenic
(d) unstriated and myogenic
89. Muscle A and muscle B are of the same size, but muscle A
is capable of much finer control than muscle B. Which
one of the following is likely to be true for muscle A?
(a) It contains fewer motor units than muscle B.
(b) It has larger sarcomeres than muscle B.
(c) It is controlled by more neurons than muscle B.
(d) It is controlled by fewer neurons than muscle B.
90. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which
one of the following groups of bones are directly
contributing in this movement?
(a) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals
(b) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
(c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula
(d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
91. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to
(a) The central gap between myosin filaments in the
A-band.
(b) The central gap between actin filaments extending
through myosin filaments in the A-band.
(c) Extension of myosin filaments in the central
portion of the A-band.
(d) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of
A-band.
92. Eye-lid muscles have
(a) thick fibres with abundant mitochondria.
(b) thick fibres without myoglobin.
(c) thin fibres with myoglobin.
(d) thin fibres with lesser mitochondria.
93. Which of the following structures is correctly organized
from large to small?
(a) Muscle, Muscle cell, Myofibril, Sarcomeres,
Filaments.
(b) Muscle, Muscle fibres, Sarcomeres, Filaments,
Myofibrils.
(c) Muscle, Sarcolemma, Myofibrils, Actin filaments,
Myosin filaments.
(d) Muscle cells, Myofibrils, Filaments, Sarcoplasm.
94. Muscle contraction is triggered
(a) when high levels of oxygen and sugar are released
by the sarcolemma.
(b) when a surplus of ATP is released by a nerve motor
unit.
(c) by release of a neurotransmitter at a synapse that
directly causes actin and myosin to slide.
(d) by the nerve releasing a neurotransmitter, which
triggers a flow of calcium that attaches to actin
filaments and exposes the myosin binding sites.
95. The joint between _____(i)____ and _____(ii)_____
forms ball and socket joint.
(a) (i) - Humerus, (ii) - Ulna
(b) (i) - Humerus, (ii) - Scapula
(c) (i) - Ulna, (ii) - Radius
(d) (i) - Ulna, (ii) - Scapula
96. Given below are some events which occur during muscle
contraction.
i. ATP is hydrolyzed.
ii. Myosin heads bind to actin.
iii. Hemoglobin concentration in muscle fibers
increases.
iv. Calcium concentration in the sarcomere increase.
v. I bands shorten and H zones disappear.
Select the correct events which occur during muscle
contraction.
(a) i only (b) ii, iii & iv only
(c) i, ii, iv & v only (d) All of these.
97. The striations that give skeletal muscle its characteristic
striped appearance are produced by
(a) the T tubules.
(b) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
(c) arrangements of myofilaments.
(d) a difference in the thickness of sarcolemma.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
178 Biology
98. What will happen if the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the
muscle fibres is damaged?
(a) Binding of ATP to actin will be affected.
(b) Release of inhibition on Z discs will stop.
(c) Exposure of myosin binding sites on the actin will
be affected.
(d) Transmission of action potential along the
sarcolemma will increase.
99. Lubrication occurs at hinge joints which need to be able
to move without friction. Which one of the following
substances aids lubrication?
(a) Cartilage (b) Ligament
(c) Synovial fluid (d) Connective tissue
100. Which of the following is not the function of skeleton?
(a) It allows movement.
(b) It supports the body.
(c) It connects muscle to joints.
(d) It protects the internal part of the body.
101. "X" is a large triangular flat bone situated in the dorsal
part of the thorax between the "Y" and the seventh ribs.
Identify "X" and "Y".
(a) X - Patella ; Y - Third
(b) X - Clavicle ; Y -Eight
(c) X - Scapula ; Y - Sixth
(d) X - Scapula ; Y - Second
102. A person is suffering from an age related disorder "X". X
is characterized by decreased bone mass and increased
chances of fractures. Identify X and its common cause.
(a) Tetany, Increased levels of estrogen
(b) Osteoporosis, Decreased levels of estrogen
(c) Myasthenia gravis, Decreased levels of estrogen
(d) Muscular dystrophy, Increased levels of estrogen
103. A student was given sample of two muscles marked as 1
and 2. When he compared the muscles he found that
muscle 1 contains large amount of myoglobin and utilize
large amount of stored oxygen for ATP production
whereas muscle 2 contains few myoglobin, mitochondria
and high sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Identify the correct conclusion regarding the muscle 1
and 2 from the option given below.
(a) Both the muscles are called aerobic muscles.
(b) Both the muscles are called red fibers and depend
on aerobic process for energy.
(c) Muscle 1 is called white fibers and whereas muscle
2 depends on aerobic process for energy.
(d) Muscle 1 is called red fibers and aerobic muscles
whereas muscle 2 is called white fibers and depend
on anaerobic process for energy.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The nerves carrying impulses to CNS are known as
(a) motor (b) efferent
(c) afferent (d) mixed
2. The controlling centre of autonomic nervous system is
(a) hypothalamus (b) spinal cord
(c) cerebellum (d) pons
3. A bipolar neuron has
(a) 2 dendrites and 1 axon
(b) 2 axons and 1 dendrite
(c) 1 dendrite and 1 axon
(d) 2 axons and 2 dendrites
4. Sodium – Postassium pump across membrane, actively
transports
(a) 2 Na ions outwards and 3 K ions into the cell.
(b) 3 Na ions outwards and 2 K ions into the cell.
(c) 2 K ions outwards and 3 Na ions into the cell.
(d) 3 K ions outwards and 2 Na ions into the cell.
5. During conduction of nerve impulse
(a) Na+
moves into axoplasm
(b) Na+
moves out of axoplasm
(c) K+
moves into axoplasm
(d) Ca++ moves into axoplasm
6. In the axons, the nerve impulse travels.
(a) towards the cell body.
(b) away from the cell body.
(c) away from synapse.
(d) in both direction.
7. Action potential of nerve cell is
(a) – 60 mV (b) –80 mV
(c) +20 mV (d) +30 mV
8. During recovery, a nerve fibre becomes
(a) positively charged outside and negatively charged
inside.
(b) positively charged on both-outside and inside.
(c) negatively charged outside and positively charged
inside.
(d) negatively charged on both-outside and inside.
9. Which of the following ions are required for nerve
conduction ?
(a) Ca++, Na+
and K+
(b) Ca++ and Mg++
(c) Mg++ and K+
(d) Na+
and K+
10. During rest, sodium pump of a nerve results in
(a) more Na+
pumped out than K+
ions taken in.
(b) Na+
pumped in without exchange with any other ion.
(c) exchanging equal amounts of Na+
and K+.
(d) more Na+
being pumped in than K+
ions pumped out.
11. A typical value of resting membrane potential is
(a) – 40m V (b) – 60m V
(c) – 70m V (d) – 80m V
12. The transmission of impulse through neurons is a
(a) physical phenomenon
(b) chemical phenomenon
(c) electro-chemical phenomenon
(d) gravitational phenomenon
13. The resting potential occurs because
(a) of reduced energy production by mitochondria.
(b) the action potential depletes transmitter substance.
(c) of the different concentrations of ions across the cell.
(d) the action potential causes axoplasmic transport back
towards the cell body.
14. The cerebral cortex is
(a) the outer layer of cerebrum, called white matter.
(b) inner layer of cerebrum, called white matter.
(c) the outer layer of cerebrum, called grey matter.
(d) inner layer of cerebrum, called grey matter.
15. The secretion of gastric juice is controlled by
(a) cerebellum (b) ANS
(c) cerebrum (d) medulla
16. Centre for sense of smell is
(a) cerebellum (b) olfactory lobes
(c) pons (d) midbrain
17. Purkinje cells are found in
(a) cerebellar cortex (b) mammalian heart
(c) voluntary cells (d) semicircular canal
18. Clusters of neuron cell bodies embedded in the white
matter of the brain are referred to as
(a) nuclei (b) gyri
(c) sulci (d) ganglia Chapter 21 Pgwtcn"Eqpvtqn"cpf
Eqqtfkpcvkqp
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
180 Biology
19. Part of mammalian brain controlling muscular coordination
is
(a) cerebrum (b) corpus callosum
(c) medulla oblongata (d) cerebellum
20. Pons connects
(a) brain with spinal cord
(b) cerebrum with cerebellum
(c) two-lobes of cerebellum
(d) two cerebral hemispheres
21. Part of brain responsible for hearing is
(a) cerebellum (b) cerebrum
(c) medulla (d) hypothalamus
22. Corpus callosum connects
(a) two cerebral hemispheres
(b) two ventricles of brain
(c) two cerebellar hemispheres
(d) two optic thalamus
23. Which of the following cell in the central nervous system
functionally equivalent to a Schwann cell?
(a) astrocyte (b) neuron
(c) oligodendrocyte (d) microglial cell
24. Pons varolii in human brain lies
(a) anterior to optic chiasma
(b) posterior to medulla oblongata
(c) ventral to cerebellum
(d) dorsal to diencephalon
25. Which of the following is a thin middle layer of cranial
meninges?
(a) Duramater (b) Arachnoid
(c) Piamater (d) Optic nerve
26. Which of the following group of functions was regulated
by part of hindbrain?
(a) Sexual behaviour, body temperature, drinking.
(b) Gastric secretion, cardiovascular reflexes, respiration.
(c) Memory and communication, cardiovascular reflexes,
respiration.
(d) Gastric secretion, body temperature, Memory and
communication.
27. Which is not a reflex action?
(a) Swallowing of food
(b) Shivering in cold
(c) Salivation at choicest food
(d) Closure of eyelid by flashing light
28. Twilight vision is also called
(a) scotopic vision and is the function of rods.
(b) scotopic vision and is the function of cones.
(c) photopic vision and is the function of rods.
(d) photopic vision and is the function of cones.
29. The thinned-out portion of retina where only cones are
densely packed is called
(a) blind spot (b) corpus luteum
(c) macula lutea (d) fovea
30. The region of vertebrate’s eye where the optic nerve
passes out of the retina is called
(a) yellow spot (b) optic chiasma
(c) fovea (d) blind spot
31. The amount of light that falls on retina is regulated by
(a) lens (b) cornea
(c) iris (d) ciliary muscles
32. For seeing the nearby objects, the lens becomes more
convex by
(a) relaxation of iris muscles.
(b) contraction of iris muscles.
(c) contraction of ciliary muscles.
(d) relaxation of ciliary muscles.
33. Space between cornea and lens is called
(a) aqueous chamber (b) vitreous chamber
(c) canal of schlemm (d) fovea centralis
34. In human eye, the blind spot contains
(a) rods
(b) cones
(c) both rods and cones
(d) neither rods nor cones
35. Which of the following is devoid of blood supply?
(a) Retina (b) Choroid
(c) Cornea (d) Scleroid
36. Eye ball is moved in the orbit by
(a) four rectus and two oblique muscles
(b) ciliary muscles
(c) suspensory ligaments
(d) two rectus and four oblique muscles
37. The blind spot is the region where
(a) image is formed.
(b) cones are numerous.
(c) the optic nerve leaves out.
(d) image is formed during the dark.
38. Which part of the human eye adjust the focal length of
lens ?
(a) Aqueous humour (b) Ciliary body
(c) Conjunctiva (d) Cornea
39. Colour perception in man is due to the presence of
(a) rhodopsin pigment in rod cells.
(b) iodopsin pigment in cone cells.
(c) iodopsin pigment in rod cells.
(d) rhodopsin pigment in cone cells.
40. The cochlea of ear contains
(a) perilymph
(b) aqueous humour
(c) perilymph and endolymph
(d) only endolymph
41. At the base of cochlea, the canal that ends at the oval
window is
(a) scala tympani (b) scala media
(c) scala vestibuli (d) auditory
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Neural Control and Coordination 181
42. The stereocilia of hair cells of organ of Corti are covered
with a thick elastic membrane called
(a) Reissner’s membrane
(b) basilar membrane
(c) tympanic membrane
(d) tectorial membrane
43. Macula of labyrinth is bathed in
(a) aqueous humour (b) vitreous humour
(c) perilymph (d) endolymph
44. Bony labyrinth of ear contains a fluid known as
(a) endolymph (b) perilymph
(c) aqueous humour (d) synovial fluid
45. The sense of equilibrium is determined by
(a) basilar membrane of cochlea.
(b) tectorial membrane of cochlea.
(c) sensory crista of ampulla.
(d) sensory cells of organ of corti.
46. Receptor cells for balance in human ear are located in
(a) utricle, saccule and semicircular canal
(b) malleus, incus and stapes
(c) organ of corti
(d) Eustachian tube
47. In mammals, the organs of Corti is found in
(a) scala vestibule (b) scala tympani
(c) scala media (d) middle ear
48. In which part of the mammalian ear, the nerve impulse for
hearing starts?
(a) Eardrum (b) Ear ossicles
(c) Cochlea (d) Auditory nerve
49. Anvil-shaped bone is
(a) malleus (b) incus
(c) stapes (d) columella auris
50. In mammalian cochlea, the thin-walled sloping roof of the
scala media is referred to as
(a) organ of Corti (b) scala tympani
(c) basilar membrane (d) reissner’s membrance
51. In static condition, the body balance is sensed by
(a) crista (b) macula
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) cochlear canal
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
52. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Electrical synapses are more common in our neural
system than chemical synapses.
(b) The new potential in post-synaptic neuron may be
either excitatory or inhibitory.
(c) Hypothalamus is the major coordination centre for
sensory and motor signaling.
(d) The tracts of nerve fibres that connect two cerebral
hemispheres are called corpora bigemina.
53. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the
organ of sight-eye?
(a) The space between cornea and lens is filled with
transparent gel.
(b) When all cones are stimulated equally, a sensation
of no light (dark) is produced.
(c) Rhodopsin is purplish red protein, hence called
visual purple.
(d) The anterior transparent portion of choroid is called cornea.
54. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) The ear ossicle attached to tympanic membrane is
malleus.
(b) Opsin (of rhodopsin) develops from vitamin A.
(c) The pressure on ear drum is equalized by Eustachian tube.
(d) Otolith organ consists of saccule and utricle.
55. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
cerebellum of brain?
(a) It is concerned with the maintenance of posture/
equilibrium.
(b) It is responsible for olfactory functions.
(c) It controls optic functions.
(d) both (a) and (c)
56. Which of the following statement is an example of
conditioned reflex?
(a) Hand took up when piercing with a needle.
(b) Driving a vehicle.
(c) Eyes closed when any thing enter into it.
(d) In digestion food goes forward in alimentary canal.
57. Identify the main functions of the cerebrum of human
brain from the given statement.
(i) Control the contraction of voluntary muscles
through the frontal lobe.
(ii) Control the sensitivity, movement, memory,
vocabulary etc. through the frontal lobe.
(iii) Control the temperature, taste, touch, pain etc.
through the parietal lobe.
(iv) Control the hearing and sense of smell through the
occipital and frontal lobes.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) (b) (i) (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
58. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action
potential results from the movement of
(a) Na+
ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid.
(b) K+
ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid.
(c) Na+
ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid.
(d) K+
ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid.
59. All are None law (principle) states that
(a) all stimuli produce action potentials.
(b) any cell membrane can generate and propagate an
action potential if stimulated to threshold value.
(c) potential difference can either be 0 or 100.
(d) the property of action potential is independent of
the strength of depolarizing stimulus.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
182 Biology
60. Which statement regarding ‘stapes’ is correct?
(a) It lies in the auditory meatus.
(b) It fits onto the oval window.
(c) It conducts sound vibrations to fenestra rotundus.
(d) It is analogus to columella auris.
61. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Somatic nervous system- Conducts impulses from
CNS to skeletal muscles.
(ii) Autonomic nervous system- Conduct impulses from
CNS to internal organ muscles.
(iii) Central nervous system- Consists of brain and spinal cord
(iv) Peripheral nervous system- Consists of nerves
carrying impulses to brain and spinal cord only
(a) Only (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (iii) and (iv)
(c) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
62. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a
myelinated nerve fibre?
(i) It is always associated with an axon.
(ii) It allows rapid conduction of nerve impulses.
(iii) It allows slow conduction of nerve impulses.
(iv) It has nodes of Ranvier.
(a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) Only (i), (ii), and (iv) (d) Only (i), (iii), and (iv)
63. Which of the following events is involved in the transfer
of information across a chemical synapse?
(i) Neurotransmitters bind to the postsynaptic receptors.
(ii) Calcium channels open in the presynaptic region.
(iii) Ion channels open in the postsynaptic membrane.
(iv) Direct flow of ions from one neuron to the next.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (d) All of the above
64. Which of the following statements is correct about rods
compared to cones?
(i) Rods are most numerous in the fovea.
(ii) Rods contain rhodopsin.
(iii) Rods produce general outlines of objects rather than
sharp images.
(iv) Rods produce black and white but not colour images.
(a) (i), and (ii) only
(b) (ii), and (iiii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
65. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The internal ear receives sound waves and directs
them to the ear drum.
(b) The membranous canals are suspended in the
endolymph of the bony canals.
(c) The ear ossicles increase the efficiency of
transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
(d) The malleus is attached to the oval window and the stapes
is attached to the temporal membrane of the cochlea.
66. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The space within cochlea called scala media is filled
with endolymph.
(b) The vestibular apparatus is composed of two semicircular canals and the otolith organ consisting of
the saccule and utricle.
(c) The external auditory meatus helps in equalizing the
pressures on either sides of the ear drum.
(d) The membranes constituting cochlea, the reissner's
and basilar, divide the surrounding perilymph filled
bony labyrinth into an upper scala tympani and a
lower scala vestibuli.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
67. Assertion : The axonal membrane of the neuron is more
permeable to sodium ions (Na+
) and nearly impermeable
to potassium ions (K+
).
Reason : In a resting state neuron does not conduct any
impulse.
68. Assertion : The chemical stored in the synaptic vesicles
are termed as neurotransmitter.
Reason : Synaptic vesicles release these chemicals in
synaptic cleft.
69. Assertion : The imbalance in concentration of Na+
, K+
and proteins generates resting potential.
Reason : To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+
and
K+
, the neurons use electrical energy.
70. Assertion : Astigmatism is due to uneven curvature of
lens.
Reason : It is treated with cylindrical lenses.
71. Assertion : A cerebellum is related with skillful voluntary
movement and involuntary activity like body balance,
equilibrium etc.
Reason : It is part of hind brain and it is situated behind
the pons.
72. Assertion : The brain stem contains centres for
controlling activities.
Reason : Brain stem is very sensitive.
73. Assertion : The chemical stored in the synaptic vesicles
are termed as neurotransmitters.
Reason : Synaptic vesicles release these chemicals in the
synaptic cleft.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Neural Control and Coordination 183
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
74. Select the answer with correct matching of the structure,
its location and function.
Structure Location Function
(a) Eustachian Anterior Equalizes air pressure
tube part of on either sides of
internal ear tympanic membrane
(b) Cerebellum Mid brain Controls respiration
and gastric secretions
(c) Hypothalamus Fore brain Controls body
temperature, urge for
eating and drinking
(d) Blind spot Near the Rods and cones are
place where present but inactive
optic nerve here
leaves the
eye
75. Which one of the following is mismatched ?
(a) Cerebrum - Memory
(b) Medulla oblongata - Temperature regulation
(c) Cerebellum - Equilibrium
(d) Olfactory lobes - Smell
76. Column I lists the parts of the human brain and column II
lists the functions. Match the two columns and identify
the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Cerebrum I. Controls the pituitary
B. Cerebellum II. Controls vision and hearing
C. Hypothalamus III. Controls the rate of heart
beat
D. Medulla oblongata IV. Maintains body posture
(a) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(b) A – IV, B – V, C – III, D – I
(c) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II
(d) A – V, B – V, C – I, D – II
77. Find out the right matching from the following pairs.
(a) Accommodation .................. Pupil
(b) Colour perception .................. Cones
(c) Night blindness .................. Rods
(d) Binocular vision .................. Iris
78. Which one of the following is the correct difference
between rod cells and cone cells of retina.
Rod Cells Cone Cells
(a) Distribution More Evenly distributed
concentrated all over retina
in centre of
retina
(b) Visual acuity High Low
(c) Visual pigment Iodopsin Rhodopsin
contained
(d) Over all Vision in Colour vision and
function poor light detailed vision in
bright light
79. Match the column I (various phase of an action potential)
with column II (ionic activity associated) and choose the
correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Resting stage of I. Opening and then
a neuron closing of the sodium
channels
B. Depolarization phase II. All voltage gated sodium
in the generation of and potassium channels
an action potential. are closed.
C. Repolarization phase III. The sodium channels
in the generation of remain opened.
action potential
D. Absolute refractory IV. Opening of potassium
phase. gates and the rushing
of potassium
(a) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(d) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
80. Match the given terms in column I with its definition given
in column II and choose the correct options.
Column I Column II
(Terms) (Definition)
A. Semi-circular canal I. Spiral organ of Corti
B. Vestibule II. Fluid found in the
scala vestibule and
scala tympani
C. Cochlea III. Evaluates rotational
motion
D. Perilymph IV. Fluid found within the
organ of Corti
E. Endolymph V. Responds to gravity
and movements of the
head
(a) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – IV
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V
(c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I
(d) A – IV, B – I, C – V, D – II, E – III
81. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(a) Rods - Twilight vision
(b) Ciliary body - Iris
(c) Retina - Optic chiasma
(d) Vitreous humour - Posterior compartment
82. Select the correct match of the types of neuron present in
column I with its location given in column II.
Column I Column II
A. Sclera I. The visible coloured
portion of the eye.
B. Choroid II. Its diameter is
regulated by the
muscle fibres of iris.
C. Pupil III. Composed of a dense
connective tissue
D. Fovea IV. Portion of the retina
where only the cones
are densely packed
E. Iris V. Contains many blood
vessels and looks
bluish in colour
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
184 Biology
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – I; E – II
83. Which of the following terms is not correctly matched
with its feature?
(a) Efferent neurons - Carries signals from CNS to the
effector.
(b) Axon terminal - Possess neurotransmitter containing
vesicle.
(c) Limbic system - Along with the hypothalamus, it is
involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour,
expression of emotional reactions and motivation.
(d) Association areas - Present in cerebellum and
responsible for functions like intersensory
associations, memory and communication.
84. Identify the correct match of types of neurons with its
location.
(i) Unipolar neuron - Embryonic stage
(ii) Bipolar neuron - Cornea of eyes
(iii) Multipolar neuron - Cerebral cortex
(a) (i) & (ii) only (b) (ii) & (iii) only
(c) (i) & (iii) only (d) All the three.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
85. The following diagram represent the reflex arc. Identify
the parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E, F and G and choose the
correct option
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
(a) A - sense organ; B - sensory nerve; C - dorsal horn;
D - interneuron; E - ventral horn; F - motor nerve ;
G - effector
(b) A - sense organ; B - sensory nerve; C - ventral horn;
D - interneuron; E - dorsal horn; F - motor nerve;
G - effector
(c) A - effector; B - motor nerve; C - dorsal horn;
D - interneuron; E - ventral horn; F - sensory nerve;
G - effector
(d) A - effector; B - motor nerve; C - ventral horn;
D - interneuron; E - dorsal horn; F - sensory nerve;
G - sense organ.
86. Given below is a table comparing the effects of
sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four
features (a – d). Which of the following feature is correctly
described?
Feature Sympathetic
nervous system
Parasympathetic
nervous system
(a) Salivary
glands
Stimulates
secretion
Inhibits secretion
(b) Pupil of eye Dilates Constricts
(c) Heart rate Decreases Increases
(d) Intestinal
peristalsis
Stimulates
secretion
Inhibits secretion
87. In the given diagram which stage of conduction of nerve
impulse through nerve fibre is observed?
(a) Polarization (b) Resting potential
(c) Repolarization (d) Depolarization
88. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a single loop
of human cochlea with few part labelled as A, B, C & D.
B
C
D
Which one of the following options correctly represents
the name of three different parts?
(a) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane C: Endolymph
(b) B: Tectorial membrane, C:Perilymph, D: Secretory cells
(c) C: Endolymph, D: Sensory hair cells, A: Serum
(d) D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph B: Tectorial
membrane
89. The given diagram chows the axon terminal and synapse
with few part labelled as A, B, C & D. Choose the correct
combination of labelling from the given options.
ion channel
(closed)
Axon of
presynaptic
neuron
A
C
B
Mitochondrion D
Ca2+
ion channel (open)
Action potential
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Neural Control and Coordination 185
(a) A- Synaptic vesicle, B- Axon terminal, C- Synaptic
cleft, D- Postsynaptic membrane
(b) A- Axon terminal, B- Synaptic vesicle, CPostsynaptic membrane, D- Synaptic cleft.
(c) A- Synaptic vesicle, B- Synaptic cleft, C- Axon
terminal, D- Post synaptic membrane
(d) A- Post synaptic membrane, B- Axon terminal,
C- Synaptic vesicle, D- Synaptic cleft
90. The given diagram shows different parts of a human eye
with one part labeled as X.
X
Which of the following statement is correct regarding label
X?
(a) It is the opening in lens that permits light into the
inner chambers of the eye.
(b) It is the coloured portion of vascular tunic.
(c) It is a biconcave structure that changes shape to
bring objects into focus.
(d) It is thick, jelly-like substance in the posterior
compartment of the eye.
91. Which of the following options correctly represents the
name of 1, 2, 3 and 4 is the given diagram of neuron?
1
2
3
4
(a) 1- Axon, 2- Dendrites, 3- Node of Ranvier, 4- Myelin
sheath
(b) 1- Dendrites, 2- Axon, 3- Node of Ranvier, 4- Myelin
sheath
(c) 1- Dendrites, 2- Cell body, 3- Myelin sheath, 4- Node
of Ranvier
(d) 1- Axon, 2- Cell body, 3- Dendrites, 4- Node of Ranvier
92. What is the function of label X in the given diagram?
X
(a) It speeds up the impulse transmission.
(b) It provides electrical insulation.
(c) It conducts impulse towards the nerve cell body.
(d) It is the functional unit of nerve.
93. Refer the given figure of ear with few structure marked as
I, II, III & IV. Which labelled structure converts sound
waves into mechanical vibrations?
II
IV
I
III
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
94. Identify the correct options for the given blanks.
Part of the ear Functions
_____A_____ Contains receptors for balance
_____B_____ Increases the magnitude of
vibrations
_____C_____ Collects sound waves
(a) A- Semi-circular canals, B- Ear ossicles, C- Pinna
(b) A- Cochlea, B- Semi-circular canals, C- Tympanum
(c) A- Semi-circular canals, B- Cochlea, C- Tympanum
(d) A- Cochlea, B- Pinna, C- Ear ossicles
95. Which of the following statements is/are functions of
structure labelled as ‘X’ in the given diagram of eye?
X
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
186 Biology
I. It provides attachment points for muscles that move
the eye.
II. It maintains the shape of the eye ball.
III. It helps during accomodation.
IV. It is responsible for eye colour.
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV (d) All of these
96. The given diagram represents the sectional view of
cochlea with few part labelled as I, II, III & IV.
III
I
II
IV
The movement of which marked label causes hair cell
microvilli to bend back and forth.
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
97. The primary function of the structure labelled as X in the
given figure is
X
(a) movement of head (b) position of head
(c) hearing (d) vision
Direction (Qs. 98 and 99): Refer the given figure of neuron structure
with few parts labelled as 1, 2, 3, and 4 and answer the questions.
98. Identify the name and the labelled part which is a naked
portion of myelinated axon and facilitate the rapid
conduction of nerve impulses.
(a) Dendrites, 1 (b) Schwan cell, 2
(c) Synaptic knob, 3 (d) Nodes of Ranvier, 4
99. Identify the part along which the sequence of impulse
generation is repeated.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
100. Refer the given figure which shows the axon terminal and
synapse with their parts marked as 1 to 7. Identify the
correct parts whose constitution forms the structure of
synapse.
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 5
(c) 4, 5, 6 (d) 5, 6, 7
101. Refer the given figure of eye in which few parts are labelled
as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Select the option which shows the correct
identification of the part with its characteristics.
(a) 1 : Choroid, it contains ganglion cells, bipolar cells
and photoreceptor cells.
(b) 2 : Iris, it is responsible for controlling the diameter
and size of the pupil and thus the amount of
light reaching the retina.
(c) 3 : Blind spot, it is a yellowish pigmented spot called
macula lutea with a central pit called the fovea.
(d) 4 : Cornea, it is a transparent front part of the eye
that covers the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber.
102. "X" is spiral shaped structure consisting of hair cells that
serve as receptors for auditory stimuli.
Identify "X" and its label & location (marked as 1, 2, 3 and
4) from the given diagrammatic representation of the
sectional view of cochlea.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Neural Control and Coordination 187
(a) X- Organ of corti, 2, 3.
(b) X- Eustachian tube, 1, 2.
(c) X- Semicircular canal, 3, 4.
(d) X- Crista ampullaris, 1, 4.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
103. For sound (good) reflex actions we require intact
(a) spinal cord (b) cerebellum
(c) hypothalamus (d) medulla oblongata
104. In which animal nerve cell is present but brain is absent?
(a) Sponge (b) Earthworm
(c) Cockroach (d) Hydra
105. Which one of the following is an example of a simple
reflex ?
(a) Closing of eyes if an object suddenly approaches
them.
(b) Climbing stairs in dark.
(c) Watering of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
(d) Tying laces while talking to and looking at another
person.
106. The main cause of paralysis is
(a) some defect in muscles
(b) complete destruction of motor nerves
(c) complete destruction of sensory nerves
(d) none of the above
107. An example of autonomous nervous system is
(a) swallowing food
(b) pupillary reflex
(c) peristalsis of intestine
(d) knee-jerk response
108. In a nerve if sodium pump is blocked, which of the following
is most likely to happen ?
(a) Na+
and K+
will increases outside the cell.
(b) Na+
outside the nerve will increase.
(c) Na+
inside the nerve will increase.
(d) K+
inside the nerve will increase.
109. A person feels no sensation when he puts his hand over
flame. The part of the brain which has damaged is
(a) cerebellum (b) medulla oblongata
(c) diencephalon (d) hypothalamus
110. An axon has four terminal ends connected with dendrites
of four different neurons. Its nerve impulse will.
(a) become weak due to distribution into four.
(b) travel in all the four neurons with equal strength.
(c) pass on to one neuron only.
(d) travel to none because the movement of impulse is
from dendrite to axon.
111. Sequence of meninges from inner to outside is
(a) Duramater – Arachnoid – Piamater
(b) Duramater – Piamater – Arachnoid
(c) Arachnoid – Duramater - Piamater
(d) Piamater- Arachnoid - Duramater
112. Which of these is an example of conditioned reflex?
(a) Watering of mouth at the taste of food.
(b) Withdrawal of hand on touching a hot plate.
(c) Cycling.
(d) Flowing of tears while peeling and cutting onions.
113. You are watching a horror movie and you notice your
heart is beating fast and mouth is dry. It is because of
(a) fight and flight response
(b) sympathetic nervous system
(c) parasympathetic nervous system
(d) both (a) and (b)
114. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve
fibre , the potential on the inner side of the plasma
membrane has which type of electric charge?
(a) First positive, then negative and again back to
positive.
(b) First negative, then positive and again back to
negative.
(c) First positive, then negative and continue to be
negative.
(d) First negative, then positive and continue to be
positive.
115. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake
right in front on opening the door. Which one of the
following is likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control
system?
(a) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic
division of brain.
(b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing
epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal cortex.
(c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing
epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal
medulla.
(d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and
transmit a nerve impulse.
116. Identify the correct order in which vibrations travel
through the auditory ossicles?
(a) Stapes-Malleus-Incus
(b) Malleus-Incus-Stapes
(c) Stapes-Incus-Malleus
(d) Incus-Stapes-Malleus
117. The part of an eye which acts like diaphragm of a
photographic camera, is
(a) pupil (b) iris
(c) lens (d) cornea
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
188 Biology
118. Cornea transplantation is successful as cornea is
(a) easily available (b) without blood supply
(c) easily preserved (d) easily stitched
119. A person is wearing spectacles with concave lenses for
correcting vision. While not using the glasses, the image
of a distant object in his case will be formed
(a) on the blind spot. (b) behind the retina.
(c) on the yellow spot.(d) in front of the retina.
120. In a similarity with photographic camera the retina acts as
(a) shutter (b) lens
(c) diaphragm (d) film
121. When we move from light to dark, we fail to see for some
time but soon the visibility becomes normal. It is called
(a) accomodation (b) adaptation
(c) photoperiodism (d) mutation
122. Layers in wall of eye balls from inside outwards are
(a) retina, choroid, sclerotic
(b) sclerotic, choroid, retina
(c) choroid, retina, sclerotic
(d) choroid, sclerotic, retina
123. Arrange the cardiac muscle fibres, skeletal muscle fibres
and the nerve fibres on the basis of velocity of impulse
conduction in descending order, i.e. from maximum to the
minimum.
(a) Nerve fibres - cardiac muscle fibres - skeletal muscle
fibres
(b) Nerve fibres- skeletal muscle fibres - cardiac muscle
fibres
(c) Skeletal muscle fibres- cardiac muscle fibres - nerve
fibres
(d) Cardiac muscle fibres- skeletal muscle fibres - nerve
fibres
124. Which part of internal ear recognizes the different
frequencies of sound ?
(a) Tectorial membrane
(b) Basilar membrane
(c) Tympanic membrane
(d) Reissner’s membrane
125. The correct logical sequence regarding flow of sound in
human ear is
(a) Ear ossicles- Oval window - Tympanum - Auditory
canal - Cochlea
(b) Auditory canal - Tympanum- Ear ossicles - Oval
window - Cochlea
(c) Cochlea- Tympanum- Ear ossicles - Oval window -
Auditory canal
(d) Tympanum - Cochlea - Oval window - Ear ossicles -
Auditory canal
126. Trace the correct sequence for pathway of light through
the eye to the retina?
(a) Conjunctiva - Cornea - Aqueous humour - Pupil -
Lens - Vitreous humour - Yellow spot.
(b) Cornea- Conjunctiva- Vitreous humour- Lens- Pupil
- Aqueous humour - Yellow spot
(c) Conjunctiva- Cornea - Vitreous humour - Lens - Pupil
- Aqueous humour - Yellow spot
(d) Cornea - Conjunctiva - Aqueous humour - Pupil- Lens
- Vitreous humour - Yellow spot
127. Refer the following features and identify the correct part
of the ear to which these are associated.
i. It is also called auditory tube.
ii. It connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx.
iii. It helps in equalizing the pressures on either sides of
the ear drum.
(a) Ear ossicles (b) Eustachian tube
(c) Semicircular canal (d) Vestibular apparatus
128. ‘X’ is an important part of ‘Y’ which lies at the base of the
structure which is a major coordinating centre for sensory
and motor signalling. It contains a number of centre which
control body temperature, urge for eating and drinking.
Identify X and Y from the options given below
(a) X -Cerebellum ; Y - Hindbrain
(b) X -Hypothalamus ; Y - Forebrain
(c) X -Corpora quadrigemina ; Y - Midbrain
(d) X -Pituitary gland ; Y - Forebrain
129. Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is
always ________than that across a chemical synapse.
(a) faster (b) slower
(c) intermittent (d) continuous
130. Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by an ‘X’ that does
not form a myelin sheath around the ‘Y’, and is commonly
found in ‘Z’ and the somatic neural systems. Identify ‘X’,
‘Y’ and ‘Z’.
X Y C
(a) Schwann cells Axon Autonomous
(b) Nodes of Ranvier Cell body Synaptic knob
(c) Synapse Dendrites Sympathetic
(d) Meninges Nerve impulse Peripheral
131. The ____ neuron receives signal from a sensory organ
and transmits the impulse via a dorsal nerve root into the
_____. The ______ neuron then carries signals from CNS
to the ________.
(a) afferent, CNS, efferent, effector
(b) efferent, PNS, afferent, effector
(c) afferent, CNS, efferent, receptor
(d) efferent, PNS, afferent, receptor
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes
(a) ACTH, TSH and oxytocin
(b) STH, GH and ADH
(c) TSH, ADH and prolactin
(d) FSH, GH and LH
2. A gorilla like appearance with huge hands and legs is due
to abnormal secretion of
(a) FSH (b) LH
(c) LTH (d) GH
3. ACTH is secreted by
(a) adrenal cortex (b) pituitary
(c) adrenal medulla (d) thyroid
4. Which of the following hormone is required for the
maintenance of corpus luteum ?
(a) Progesterone (b) Estrogen
(c) FSH (d) LH
5. Oxytocin hormone is produced by
(a) pituitary (b) adrenals
(c) hypothalamus (d) thyroid
6. Ovulation in humans is controlled by
(a) FSH and LTH (b) FSH and G.H
(c) LTH and LH (d) FSH and LH
7. Ovulation and formation of corpus luteum is controlled
by
(a) ICSH
(b) FSH
(c) thyroxine hormone
(d) luteinizing hormone
8. MSH is secreted by
(a) pars intermedia (b) pars tuberalis
(c) pars distalis (d) pars nervosa
9. Secretion of estrogen is controlled by
(a) hCG (b) FSH
(c) progesterone (d) testosterone
10. Deficiency of vasopressin primarily results in
(a) increased volume of urine.
(b) decreased volume of urine.
(c) excessive secretion of urochrome.
(d) change in pH from acidic to alkaline range.
11. Anti-ageing hormone is
(a) thyroxine (b) melatonin
(c) estrogen (d) testosterone
12. Sleep-wake cycle and menstrual cycle are maintained by
(a) progesterone (b) melatonin
(c) oxytocin (d) MSH
13. When amount of ADH decreases in blood, micturition
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) increases and then decreases
14. Which hormone helps in reabsorption of water from
kidney?
(a) ADH (b) STH
(c) ACTH (d) TTH
15. Which of the following occurs due to ADH deficiency?
(a) Increase urine output.
(b) Increased water in urine.
(c) Less urine.
(d) No urination.
16. Which of the following hormone acts upon the renal tubule
and blood capillaries ?
(a) Glucagon (b) Aldosterone
(c) Vasopressin (d) Glucocorticoids
17. Which endocrine gland stores its secretion in extracellular
spaces before discharging it into blood?
(a) Testis (b) Pancreas
(c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal
18. Which of the following hormone opposes parathormone ?
(a) ADH (b) STH
(c) Thyroxine (d) Thyrocalcitonin
19. Abnormal secretion of thyroxine produces
(a) acromegaly (b) Addison’s disease
(c) cretinism (d) goitre
20. Thyroxine acts on every organ of the body, except
(a) adult brain (b) testis
(c) thyroid itself (d) bones
21. Which of the following is (are) not influenced by
parathyroid hormone ?
(a) Kidney (b) Bone
(c) Small intestine (d) None of the above Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination
and Integration
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
190 Biology
22. Which of the following gland is often referred in
connection with AIDS?
(a) Thymus (b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal (d) Pancreas
23. Thymus in mammals is mainly concerned with
(a) regulation of body growth.
(b) secretion of thyrotropin.
(c) regulation of body temperature.
(d) immunological functions.
24. Which one of the following disease is caused by the under
secretion of cortisol hormone?
(a) Anaemia (b) Addison’s disease
(c) Hyperglycemia (d) Mental retardation
25. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect?
(a) Cortisol (b) Calcitonin
(c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone
26. Triple ‘F’ gland for flight, fright and fight is
(a) thyroid (b) thymus
(c) pituitary (d) adrenal
27. Glycogenesis is the result of the hormone secreted from
(a) alpha cells of pancreas.
(b) beta cells of pancreas.
(c) thyroid gland.
(d) adrenal gland.
28. Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of
(a) insulin (b) vasopressin
(c) oxytocin (d) thymosin
29. Blood glucose level in man is regulated by
(a) insulin only
(b) adrenaline
(c) glucagon and insulin
(d) all of the above
30. Source of somatostatin is the same as that of
(a) insulin and glucagon
(b) vasopressin and oxytocin
(c) thyroxine and calcitonin
(d) somatotropin and prolactin
31. In human, testosterone is produced by
(a) tunica albuginea
(b) leydig cell
(c) seminiferous tubule
(d) sertoli cell
32. The hormone that supports pregnancy and stimulates
mammary glands for the formation of alveoli for storing
milk, is secreted from
(a) anterior Pituitary (b) posterior pituitary
(c) graafian follicle (d) corpus luteum
33. During pregnancy corpus luteum
(a) degenerates.
(b) changes to corpus albicans.
(c) persists until parturition.
(d) persists upto the middle of pregnancy.
34. Hormone which helps in implantation of embryo in uterus is
(a) estrogen (b) oxytocin
(c) relaxin (d) progesterone
35. Secretion of which of the following structure is
responsible in preparing the inner wall of uterus for
implantation ?
(a) Ovary (b) Pituitary gland
(c) Corpus luteum (d) Ovarian follicle
36. Which of the following is a gastro-intestinal hormone?
(a) Cholinesterase (b) Enterokinase
(c) Secretin (d) Interocrinin
37. The hormone secretin is produced in
(a) pancreas and influences conversion of glycogen into
glucose.
(b) small intestine and stimulates pancreas.
(c) adrenal glands and accelerates heartbeat.
(d) testes and produces male secondary sexual
characters.
38. Which hormone interacts with membrane bound receptor
and does not normally enter the target cell?
(a) FSH (b) Estrogen
(c) Thyroxine (d) Cortisol
39. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in
hormone action ?
(a) Calcium (b) Sodium
(c) cAMP (d) cGMP
40. Receptors for protein hormones are found
(a) inside nucleus (b) inside cytoplasm
(c) on surface of ER (d) on cell surface
41. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the
examples of those that can easily pass through the cell
membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside
it (mostly in the nucleus) ?
(a) Somatostatin, Oxytocin
(b) Cortisol, Testosterone
(c) Insulin, Glucagon
(d) Thyroxine, Insulin
42. Steroid hormones are produced only by the
(a) adrenal medulla and pancreas.
(b) thyroid gland and pancreas.
(c) anterior and posterior pituitary.
(d) sex organs and adrenal cortex.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
43. Mark the correct statement regarding somatostatin.
(a) It is secreted from anterior pituitary.
(b) It inhibits the release of growth hormone.
(c) It is secreted from posterior pituitary.
(d) It stimulates STH secretion.
44. What of the following is correct about calcitonin ?
(a) It contains iodine.
(b) It is an amino acid.
(c) It is released from parathyroid.
(d) It is released from thyroid gland.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chemical Coordination and Integration 191
45. Which statement regarding PTH is correct?
(a) It is a peptide hormone.
(b) It stimulates bone resorption.
(c) It is hypercalcemic hormone.
(d) All of the above.
46. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to
the endocrine system?
(a) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart,
kidney and liver do not produce any hormones.
(b) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in
trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are
known as hormones.
(c) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by
the pituitary gland .
(d) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation
of the hypothalamus.
47. Which of the following is correct for thyrocalcitonin ?
(a) Produced by parathyroid and decreases Ca++ in ECF.
(b) Produced by thyroid and decreases Ca++ in ECF.
(c) Produced by parathyroid and increases Ca++ in ECF.
(d) Produced by thyroid and increases Ca++ in ECF.
48. One similarity between enzymes and hormones is that
(a) both are proteins.
(b) both can be used again and again.
(c) both are used in minute amount.
(d) both act at a particular pH.
49. Hormones of pituitary gland are
(a) some steroids and some proteins
(b) all proteins/peptides.
(c) complex substances formed from proteins, steroids,
carbohydrates.
(d) all steroids.
50. Norepinephrine
(i) is released by sympathetic fibres.
(ii) is released by parasympathetic fibres.
(iii) increases the heart rate.
(iv) decreases blood pressure.
Which of the above said statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
51. Choose the correct statement about ‘neurohypophysis’ ?
(a) It stores and release hormones secreted by
hypothalamus.
(b) It secretes its own hormones.
(c) It is poorly developed and functionless in humans.
(d) It stores the hormones produced by
adenohypophysis.
52. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
glucagon hormone ?
(a) It has opposite effect to that of insulin.
(b) It converts glucose to glycogen.
(c) It is given to diabetic patients.
(d) It is formed by b-cells of pancreas.
53. A woman may develop beard and moustaches due to
(a) hypersecretion of adrenal cortex.
(b) hypersecretion of thyroxine.
(c) hyposecretion of adrenaline.
(d) hyposecretion of thyroxine.
54. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Endrocrine glands regulate neural activity and
nervous system regulates endocrine glands.
(b) Neither hormones control neural activity nor the
neurons control endocrine activity.
(c) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not
vice versa.
(d) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice
versa.
55. Which of the following statement about the hormone
action in humans is correct ?
(a) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors
on ovarian cell membrane.
(b) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and
progesterone.
(c) Glucagon is secreted by b-cells of Islets of
langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis.
(d) Secretion of thymosin is stimulated with ageing.
56. Which of the followings is the more scientific definition
of hormone?
(a) They are extracellular messengers.
(b) They always act at distantly located target organ.
(c) They are the products of well organized endocrine
glands.
(d) They are non-nutrient chemicals that act as
intercellular messengers.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
57. Assertion : Mammary glands are apocrine glands.
Reason : The distal part containing secretory granules
break down and leaves as a secretion.
58. Assertion : Hormone calcitonin has an antagonistic effect
to that of parathormone.
Reason : Calcitonin decreases blood calcium level while
parathormone increases blood calcium level.
59. Assertion : The person with diabetes insipidus feels
thirsty.
Reason : A person with diabetes insipidus suffers from
excess secretion of vasopressin.
60. Assertion: Failure of secretion of hormone vasopressin
causes diabetes mellitus in the patient.
Reason: Vasopressin increases the volume of urine by
increasing the reabsorption of water from the urine.
61. Assertion : Histamine is involved in allergic and
inflammatory reactions.
Reason : Histamine is a vasodilator.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
192 Biology
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
62. Select the correct match of a hormone with its source and
function.
Hormone Source Function
(a) Vasopressin Posterior Increases loss of
pituitary water through urine.
(b) Nor-epinephrine Adrenal Increases heart beat,
medulla rate of respiration
and alertness.
(c) Glucagon Beta-cells Stimulates
of Islets of glycogenolysis.
langerhans
(d) Prolactin Posterior Regulates growth of
Pituitary mammary glands
and milk formation
in females.
63. Which one of the following four glands is correctly
matched with the accompanying description?
(a) Thyroid – Hyperactivity in young children causes
cretinism.
(b) Thymus – Starts undergoing atrophy after puberty.
(c) Parathyroid – Secretes parathormone which
promotes movement of calcium ions from blood into
bones during calcification.
(d) Pancreas – Delta cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete
a hormone which stimulates glycolysis in liver.
64. Match the hormones given in column-I with the terms
given in column-II
Column -I Column-II
A. ADH I. Pituitary
B. ACTH II. Mineralocorticoid
C. Aldosterone III. Diabetes mellitus
D. Insulin IV. Diabetes insipidus
E. Adrenaline V. Vasodilator
(a) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III, E – V
(b) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III, E – V
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III, E – V
(d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II, E – V
65. Column-I lists the endocrine structure and column-II lists
the corresponding hormones. Match the two columns
and identify the correct option given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Hypothalamus I. Relaxin
B. Anterior pituitary II. Estrogen
C. Testis III. FSH and LH
D. Ovary IV. Testosterone
V. Gonadotropin releasing
hormone
(a) A – V, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(b) A – V, B – III, C – II, D – IV
(c) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
(d) A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – II.
66. Match the hormone given in column-I with their function
in given in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
A. FSH I. Prepare endometrium for
implantation
B. LH II. Develops female secondary
sexual characters
C. Progesterone III. Contraction of uterine wall
D. Estrogen IV. Development of corpus
luteum
V. Maturation of Graafian follicle
(a) A – V, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(b) A – IV, B – V, C – II, D – I
(c) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – V
(d) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – IV
67. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(a) Insulin–Diabetes mellitus (disease)
(b) Glucagon–Beta cells (source)
(c) Somatostatin–Delta cells (source)
(d) Corpus luteum–Relaxin (secretion)
68. Match the endocrine gland as a source with its respective
hormone as well as the function.
Source gland Hormone Function
(a) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood
calcium level
(b) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction of uterine
pituitary muscles during
child birth
(c) Posterior Vasopressin Stimulates resorption
pituitary of water in the distal
tubules in the
nephron
(d) Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy
69. Which of the following pair of hormone and their disorder
is correctly matched ?
(a) Parathormone – Cretinism
(b) Thyroxine – Ricket
(c) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
(d) Cortisol – Cushing’s disease
70. Mark the hormone given in column I and the endocrine
cells given in column II.
Column-I Column-II
A. a-cell I. Inhibin
B. b-cell II. Glucagon
C. Leydig cell III. Insulin
D. Sertoli cells IV. Testosterone
(a) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(b) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(c) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
(d) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chemical Coordination and Integration 193
71. Match the following hormones given in column I with
their appropriate category of hormones given in column II.
Column-I Column-II
(Hormones) (Categories)
A. FSH and LH I. Glucocorticoids
B. Cortisol II. Mineralocorticoids
C. Androgen III. Gonadotropins
D. Aldosterone IV. Gonadocorticoids
(a) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(d) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
72. The given figure shows the hormonal control of female
reproductive system in which few steps are marked as A,
B, C and D. Identify the correct labelling.
(a) A- GnRH, B - TSH, C - LTH, D - Uterus
(b) A - GnRH, B - FSH/LH, C - Estrogen or progesterone,
D - urerus
(c) A - GnRH, B - STH, C - LH, D - Uterus
(d) A - GnRH, B - ACTH, C - LH, D - Uterus
73. The given diagram represents the location of human
endocrine glands I, II, III, IV and V.
I
II
III
IV
V
Which of the following gland is correctly matched with
their secretions?
Hormones Their secretions
A I Melatonin
B II Thymosin
C III Epinephrine
D IV Aldosterone
E V Testosterone
(a) I, II and III only (b) I, IV and V only
(c) II, IV, and V only (d) II, III and V only
74. The hormone released by label "X" in the given figure
helps to restore Y. Identify X and Y.
X
X Y
(a) Thyroxine Too much calcium in the blood.
(b) PTH Lowered levels of calcium in blood.
(c) Thymosin Decreased level of blood sugar.
(d) Adrenaline Excessive loss of sodium in extracellular
fluid.
75. The label X represents ___i_____ and the hormone
released by it is _____ii______. Identify (i) and (ii)
X
Y
(a) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Epinephrine
(b) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Aldosterone
(c) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Epinephrine
(d) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Aldosterone
76. Which of the following disease is caused due to over
secretion of the structure marked as X?
X
(a) Gigantism
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Grave's disease
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
194 Biology
77. The Hypophyseal portal system transports releasing and
inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus into which
of the following parts marked in I, II, III and IV.
I
II
IV
III
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
78. Which endocrine gland secretes the hormone that causes
the abnormalities shown in the below picture?
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Pancreas
(c) Adenohypophysis
(d) Neurohypophysis
Direction (For Qs. 79 and 80) :
The endocrine glands A and B in the given figure represent
___ (i) ____ and ____ (ii) ____ respectively.
79. Identify (i) and (ii)
(a) i- Pituitary gland , ii- Adrenal gland
(b) i- Hypothalamus, ii- Pituitary gland
(c) i- Hypothalamus, ii- Adrenal gland
(d) i- Pituitary gland, ii- Hypothalamus
80. Identify the hormone represented by lines 1 and 2?
(a) 1- ACTH, 2- Aldosterone
(b) 1- ACTH, 2- Adrenaline
(c) 1- TSH, 2- Thyroxine
(d) 1- TSH, 2- Aldosterone
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
81. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from
target organ, the target organ will
(a) continue to respond to hormone.
(b) not respond to hormone.
(c) continue to respond but requires higher
concentration.
(d) continue to respond but in the opposite way.
82. The number of hormones secreted by anterior pituitary is
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
83. Which hormone is related to mineral metabolism but is
not a peptide / protein in nature ?
(a) PTH (b) ANF
(c) Aldosterone (d) All of the above
84. Pancreatic duct of a healthy dog is blocked. Which of the
following function of pancreas will not be affected ?
(a) Maintenance of normal blood sugar level.
(b) Carbohydrate digestion.
(c) Protein digestion.
(d) Neutralization of chyme.
85. A decrease in the level of estrogen and progesterone
causes
(a) growth and dilation of myometrium.
(b) growth of endometrium.
(c) constriction of uterine blood vessels leading to
sloughing of endometrium or uterine epithelium.
(d) release of ovum from the ovary.
86. Which of the following endocrine glands grows to the
maximum size at puberty and then diminishes gradually?
(a) Thymus (b) Pituitary
(c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal
87. Which one is different from the category of other three?
(a) Gastrin (b) Ptyalin
(c) Secretin (d) Glucagon
88. Which of the following disorders are caused by
hypersecretion of their concerned hormones ?
(a) gigantism and exophthalmic goitre
(b) tetany and myxoedema
(c) diabetes mellitus and goitre
(d) rickets and diabetes insipidus
89. Hormones produced by anterior lobe of pituitary
(a) control calcium level in blood.
(b) stimulate thyroid and other endocrine glands.
(c) initiate alarm reaction.
(d) regulate water balance in body.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chemical Coordination and Integration 195
90. Growth hormone of pituitary is more effective in
(a) presence of thyroxine.
(b) absence of thyroxine.
(c) absence of insulin.
(d) presence of adrenaline.
91. Which of the following hormone helps a person who
suffers from a marked fall in blood pressure ?
(a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine
(c) GH (d) Adrenaline
92. Hormones involved in carbohydrate metabolism are
(a) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and calcitonin
(b) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine and glucocorticoids
(c) insulin, glucagon, cortisol and melatonin
(d) insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine and melatonin
93. Which of the following hormones are identical?
(a) ACTH and adrenaline
(b) hCG and progesterone
(c) Calcitonin and Oxytocin
(d) Vasopressin and ADH.
94. A man suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks water more
frequently as he has to eliminate from blood, the extra
(a) salts (b) sugar
(c) insulin (d) protein
95. Which hormone promotes cell division, protein synthesis
and bone growth?
(a) GH (b) ADH
(c) ACTH (d) PTH
96. Injection of glucagon will
(a) cause goitre
(b) cause galactosemia
(c) cause hypoglycemia
(d) increase blood sugar level
97. A person who has protruding eyes, tachycardia and
higher body temperature is suffering from
(a) cretinism (b) hyperthyroidism
(c) myxoedema (d) acromegaly
98. Point out the odd one:
(a) Corticotropin (b) Vasopressin
(c) Noradrenaline (d) Prolactin
99. When a boy goes through puberty, the steroid hormone
testosterone puts hair on his chest by
(a) interacting with DNA in the nuclei of cells.
(b) causing cells to change shape.
(c) altering the permeability of plasma membranes.
(d) triggering nerve impulses in cells.
100. A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine
even when he is kept in a carbohydrate free diet. It is
because
(a) fats are catabolised to form glucose.
(b) amino acids are catabolised in liver.
(c) amino acids are discharged in blood stream from liver.
(d) glycogen from muscles are released in the blood
stream.
101. Identify a hormone which is produced by the pituitary
gland in both males and females but functional only in
females.
(a) Vasopressin (b) Relaxin
(c) Prolactin (d) Somatotropic hormone
102. Low level of progesterone and estrogen in blood stimulate
(a) FSH-RH production
(b) LH production
(c) GH production
(d) All of the above
103. Some glands produce hormones that stimulate other
endocrine glands. Which of the following hormones
specifically acts to trigger secretion of hormones by
another endocrine gland?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Progesterone
(c) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
(d) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
104. Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels,
increased oxygen consumption and glucogenesis?
(a) Insulin (b) Adrenaline
(c) Glucagon (d) ACTH
105. In the homeostatic control of blood sugar level, which
organs function respectively as modulator and effector?
(a) Liver and islets of langerhans
(b) Hypothalamus and liver
(c) Hypothalamus and islets of langerhans
(d) Islets of langerhans and hypothalamus
106. ADH, responsible for reabsorption of water and reduction
of urine secretion, is synthesized by
(a) posterior pituitary gland
(b) juxtaglomerular apparatus
(c) hypothalamus
(d) anterior pituitary gland
107. The hormones that initiate ejection of milk, stimulates milk
production and growth of ovarian follicles, are respectively
known as
(a) PRL, OT and LH (b) OT, PRL and FSH
(c) LH, PRL and FSH (d) PRH, OT and LH
108. Hypothyroidism in adults and hyperparathyroidism in
children will respectively lead to
(a) myxoedema and cretinism
(b) Grave’s disease and Hashimoto’s disease
(c) myxoedema and osteitis fibrosa cystica
(d) Addison’a disease and cretinism
109. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of
seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing
down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this
action?
(a) Gastrin (b) Thyroxine
(c) Adrenaline (d) Glucagon
110. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus
metabolism in his body. Which one of the following glands
may not be functioning properly?
(a) Thyroid (b) Parathyroid
(c) Parotid (d) Pancreas
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
196 Biology
111. A pregnant female deliver a baby who suffers from stunted
growth, mental retardation/low intelligence quotient and
abnormal skin. This is the result of
(a) low secretion of growth hormone
(b) cancer of the thyroid gland
(c) over secretion of pars distalis
(d) deficiency of iodine in diet
112. A health disorder that results from the deficiency of
thyroxine in adults and characterized by a low metabolicrate, increase in body weight and tendency to retain water
in tissues is
(a) cretinism (b) hypothyroidism
(c) simple goitre (d) myxoedema
113. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total
gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected
was
(a) high levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate
endometrial thickening.
(b) high level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen
and progesterone synthesis.
(c) high level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to
stimulate implantation of the embryo.
(d) high level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial
thickening.
114. STH or growth hormone (A) differs from insulin (B) in
which of the following action ?
(a) (A) causes glycogenesis but (B) causes glycolysis.
(b) (A) causes lipolysis but (B) causes lipogenesis.
(c) (A) is catabolic for protein but (B) is anabolic.
(d) (A) causes glycogenolysis but (B) causes
glycogenesis.
115. When the B.P. is high and over loading of heart is present
then which hormone is released for compensating this
mechanism ?
(a) Aldosterone
(b) A.D.H
(c) Atri-natriuretic factor
(d) Renin
116. The hormone ANP (Atrial Natriuretic Peptide)
(a) stimulates the secretion of ADH and aldosterone.
(b) inhibits the secretion of aldosterone but stimulates
ADH secretion.
(c) stimulates the secretion of renin.
(d) inhibits the secretion of ADH, aldosterone and renin.
117. Pick the odd one out from each given words and then
matches it with correct options.
I. Thyroid, Adrenal, Pituitary, Prostate
II. Cretinism, Goitre, Myxodema, Scurvy
III. Insulin, Blood sugar, Adrenaline, Thyroxine
IV. Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone, Prolactin
(a) I- Prostate, II - Scurvy, III - Blood sugar, IVTestosterone
(b) I - Adrenal, II - Goitre, III - Insulin, IV - Prolactin
(c) I - Thyroid, II - Cretinism, III - Adrenaline, IV -
Estrogen
(d) I - Pituitary, II - Myxodema, III - Thyroxine,
IV - Progesterone
118. Tim once suffered a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting.
The sting caused him to suffer a near-fatal drop in blood
pressure called anaphylactic shock. Now he carries a kit
containing a syringe of _____________, which he can
inject to speed up his heart if he reacts to a bee sting.
(a) insulin (b) melatonin
(c) testosterone (d) epinephrine
119. Which of the following sets of vertebrate hormones are
all produced in the anterior pituitary gland ?
(a) Somatostatin, Vasopressin, Insulin
(b) Prolactin, Growth hormone, Enkephalins
(c) Oxytocin, Prolactin, Adrenocorticotropin
(d) Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone
120. Given below is an incomplete table about certain
hormones, their source glands and one major effect of
each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option
for the three blanks A, B and C
GLANDS SECRETION EFFECT ON BODY
A Oestrogen Maintenance of
secondary sexual
characters
Alpha cells of B Raises blood sugar
Islets of level
Langerhans
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads
to gigantism
Options:
A B C
(a) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
(b) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone
(c) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
(d) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
121. Which of the following represent the correct options?
Name of the gland Substance produced Function
A Insulin C
B Glucagon D
(a) A - Alpha cells, B - Hyperglycemia, C - Beta cells,
D - Hypoglycemia
(b) A - Beta cells, B - Alpha cells, C - Hypoglycemia,
D - Hyperglycemias
(c) A - Alpha cells, B - Hypoglycemia , C - Beta cells,
D - Hyperglycemia
(d) A - Beta cells, B - Alpha cells, C - Hyperglycemia,
D - Hypoglycemia
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The period from birth to the natural death of an organism
represents
(a) gametophytic phase (b) sporophytic phase
(c) life span (d) life cycle
2. Which ot the following has the longest life span ?
(a) Butterfly (b) Crocodile
(c) Parrot (d) Tortoise
3. In all the methods of asexual reproduction
(a) offsprings produced are genetically identical to the
parents.
(b) offsprings produced are genetically different from
the parents.
(c) offsprings produced may or may not be identical to
the parents.
(d) None of the above
4. A clone is a group of individuals obtained through
(a) self-pollination (b) hybridization
(c) asexual reproduction (d) cross-pollination
5. The term clone is used to describe such ___________and
________ similar individual.
(a) chemically, genetically
(b) physiologically, chemically
(c) morphologically, genetically
(d) morphologically, metabolically
6. Asexual reproduction is common among
(a) single celled organisms only.
(b) plants only.
(c) animals with simple organization.
(d) single celled animals, plants and animals with simple
organizations.
7. In protists and monerans, asexual reproduction occurs
by
(a) budding (b) binary fission
(c) conidia (d) multiple fission
8. In yeast cell division results in a small cell called
(a) bud (b) clone
(c) branch (d) offspring
9. Fleshy buds produced in the axil of leaves, which grow to
form new plants when shed and fall on ground are called
(a) Bulbs (b) Bulbils
(c) Tubers (d) Offset
10. The term ‘Terror of Bengal’ is used for
(a) Bengal tiger (b) water hyacinth
(c) algal bloom (d) aquatic fauna
11. In which of the following pairs the plants can be vegetative
propagated by leaf buds?
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(b) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(c) Agave and Kalanchoe
(d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
12. In sexual reproduction, offsprings resemble the parents
(a) structurally but not functionally.
(b) functionally but not structurally.
(c) both structurally and functionally.
(d) neither structurally nor functionally.
13. Oestrus cycle is seen in
(a) cows and sheep (b) rats and deers
(c) dogs and tiger (d) all of the above
14. The end of vegetative phase in plants which marks the
beginning of the reproductive phase can be easily seen
in the higher plants when they come to
(a) flower (b) fertilize
(c) pollinate (d) None of the above
15. Sexual reproduction can be grouped into _______ distinct
states.
(a) two (b) three
(c) four (d) five
16. In flowering plants both male and female gametes are
non-motile. The method to bring them together for
fertilization is
(a) water (b) air
(c) pollination (d) apomixis Chapter 23 Tgrtqfwevkqp"kp
Qticpkuou
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
198 Biology
17. The terms homothallic and monoecious are used to
denote
(a) bisexual condition (b) unisexual condition
(c) staminate flowers (d) pistillate flowers
18. Syngamy means
(a) fusion of similar spores.
(b) fusion of gametes.
(c) fusion of dissimilar spores.
(d) fusion of cytoplasm.
19. Development of an egg without fertilization is called
(a) gametogenesis (b) metagenesis
(c) oogenesis (d) parthenogenesis
20. Which of the followings is a post-fertilization event in
flowering plants ?
(a) Transfer of pollen grains
(b) Embryo development
(c) Formation of flower
(d) Formation of pollen grains
21. Viviparity is found in
(a) whale (b) lizards
(c) frogs (d) birds
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
22. Which of the following statement about animal
reproduction is incorrect ?
(a) Species that reproduce sexually cannot reproduce
asexually.
(b) Viviparity, but not ovoviviparity, is common in
mammals.
(c) Male insects can remove spermatophores deposited
in a female by other males.
(d) Oogenesis and spermatogenesis both occur
simultaneous in hermaphrodites.
23. Which of the following statements about animals that
utilize external fertilization is incorrect ?
(a) They are divided equally between terrestrial and
aquatic species.
(b) Many produce large numbers of gametes to ensure
successful reproduction.
(c) The behaviours associated with mating are often
highly synchronized.
(d) The probability of any one egg being fertilized and
developing into an adult can be low.
24. Which of the following statement is correct in the process
of fertilization ?
(a) Only one sperm reaches the egg and enters it.
(b) The entry of sperm activates the egg for completing
meiosis.
(c) Two haploid nuclei fuse and immediately divide to
produce two nuclei which are again haploid.
(d) Only the acrosome of the sperm enters the egg.
25. Which of the following definitions about oviparity is
incorrect ?
(a) Only birds and reptiles are oviparous.
(b) The large amount of yolk provides the nutrients for
the developing embryo.
(c) The shell protects the egg from dehydration.
(d) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide can diffuse through
the shell.
26. Select the incorrect statemen.
(a) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or
behaviour.
(b) In oomycetes, female gamete is smaller and motile,
while male gamete is larger and non-motile.
(c) Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and
anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy.
(d) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and
behaviour.
27. Select the incorrect statements.
(a) Cucurbits and coconuts are monoecious plants.
(b) Papayas and date palms are dioecious plants.
(c) Leeches and tapeworms are bisexual animals.
(d) Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animals.
28. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(i) The genetic constitution of a plant is unaffected in
vegetative propagation.
(ii) Rhizome in ginger serves as an organ of vegetative
reproduction.
(iii) Totipotency of cells enables us to micropropagate
plants.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) only (d) All of these
29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect
about internal fertilization?
(i) Male gametes are motile.
(ii) Male gametes are non-motile.
(iii) Male gametes are produced in large number.
(iv) Male gametes are produced in small number.
(v) There is a significant reduction in the number of eggs
produced.
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (v)
30. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(i) Bamboo species flower only once in their life time,
generally after 50-100 years and produce large
number of fruits and die.
(ii) In animals, the juvenile phase is followed by
morphological and physiological changes prior to
active reproductive behaviour.
(iii) The reproductive phase is of same duration in all
organisms.
(iv) Juvenile phase is the period of growth between the
birth of an individual till it reaches reproductive
maturity.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Reproduction in Organisms 199
31. Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ?
(i) Stamens are male reproductive part whereas carpels
are female reproductive parts.
(ii) In Spirogyra, asexual reproduction takes place by
fragmentation.
(iii) Vegetative propagation by leaves occurs in sweet
potato.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All are correct
32. Which one of the following option is correct regarding
the given statements ?
(i) The plant was introduced in India because of its
beautiful flowers and shape of leaves.
(ii) It can propagate vegetatively at a phenomenal rate
and spread all over water body in a short period.
(iii) It is very difficult to get rid off these plants.
(iv) It is associated with flowering plants.
(a) Dahlia (b) Water hyacinth
(c) Azolla (water fern) (d) Mosses
33. Read the following statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Conidia are the asexual propagules restricted to
kingdom Fungi.
(ii) A piece of potato tuber having at least one eye (or
node) is capable of giving rise to a new plant.
(iii) Ginger propagates vegetatively with the help of its
underground roots.
(iv) Fleshy buds which takes part in vegetative
propagation are called bulbils, present in Dioscorea,
Agave, etc.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
34. Read the following statements regarding sexual
reproduction and selects the incorrect ones.
(i) Sexual reproduction does not always require two
individuals.
(ii) Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic
fusion.
(iii) Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction.
(iv) External fertilization is a rule during sexual
reproduction.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
35. Which of the following statements regarding the given
terms are correct?
Runners, Tubers, Offsets
(a) These all are incapable of giving rise to new
individuals and formation of these structures does
not involve two parents.
(b) These all are capable of giving rise to new individuals
and formation of these structures does not involve
two parents.
(c) These all are capable of giving rise to new individuals
but formation of these structures involves two
parents for reproduction.
(d) These are all incapable of giving rise to new
individuals but formation of these structures
involves two parents for reproduction.
36. Which of the following statements regarding the asexual
reproduction is incorrect?
(a) Both mitotic and meiotic division occurs.
(b) It does not contribute to evolution and speciation.
(c) It is uniparental and usually occurs in unicellular
organisms.
(d) There is no variation and the offsprings have the
same phenotype and genotype.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
37. Assertion: A plant can be retained and multiplied
indefinitely without any change or variation through
asexual reproduction.
Reason: Asexual Reproduction does not involve meiosis
and syngamy.
38. Assertion: Zygote is the link between two generations.
Reason: Zygote is the product of two gametes and
producer of next generation.
39. Assertion: Zygote is a single cell.
Reason : Two haploid cell fused to form two diploid cell.
40. Assertion: Ants, bees and termite show parthenogenesis.
Reason: Parthenogenesis is the process in which new
organism is formed without fertilization.
41. Assertion: Embryogenesis refers to the development of
embryo from the zygote.
Reason: During Embryogenesis zygote undergoes cell
division (mitosis) and cell differentiation.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
42. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Animals which give I. Hydra
birth to young one
B. Animal which produces II. Planaria
bud
C. An animal which III. Viviparous
shows regeneration
D. Provides nutrition IV. Placenta
to the developing
embryo from the mother
(a) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
200 Biology
43. Match the terms given in column-I with their examples in
column-II and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Terms) (Examples)
A. Binary fission I. Algae
B. Zoospore II. Amoeba
C. Conidium III. Hydra
D. Budding IV. Penicillium
E. Gemmule V. Sponge
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – V; D – III; E – II
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III; E – V
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – V
44. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column -I Column- II
(Name of the (Haploid chromosome
organism) number in gamete)
A. Ophioglossum (fern) I. 23
B. Rice II. 24
C. Potato III. 12
D. Man IV. 630
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
45. Match the organisms (given in column I) with their
approximate life span (given in column II) and choose the
correct combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Organism) (Approximate
life span)
A. Butterfly I. 60 years
B. Crow II. 140 years
C. Parrot III. 15 years
D. Crocodile IV. 1 – 2 weeks
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(b) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(c) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
46. Match the name of the organism given in column I with
their chromosome number in meiocytes choose the
correct combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Name of the (Chromosome number
organism) in meiocyte)
(2n)
A. House fly I. 20
B. Fruit fly II. 34
C. Apple III. 8
D. Maize IV. 12
(a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(d) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
47. Match the organisms given in column-I with their
reproductive structure/mode of reproduction given in
column-II and select the correct option from the codes
given below :
Column - I Column - II
A. Sponge I. Tuber
B. Yeast II. Offset
C. Potato III. Gemmules
D. Water hyacinth IV. Budding
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
48. Match the definition (given in column I) with their correct
term (given in column II) and choose the correct
combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II
A. The pollen transferred I. Germination
from one flower to another
B. The process in which II. Pollination
embryo develops
into seedling
C. Fertilized egg in humans III. Menstruation
gets implanted in
D. When egg in humans IV. Uterus
is not fertilized process occur
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
49. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?
(a) Onion – Bulb
(b) Ginger – Sucker
(c) Chlamydomonas – Conidia
(d) Yeast – Zoospores
50. Find out the incorrectly matched pair.
(a) Tuber – Potato
(b) Rhizome – Ginger
(c) Bulbil – Agave
(d) Leaf buds – Banana
51. Match the column I contain structures of male
reproductive system and column II contains its feature.
Select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Gamete I. Result of fusion of male
and female gametes
B. Budding II. Division of body into
two equal halves
C. Fission III. Germ cells
D. Fertilization IV. The fusion of male and
female gametes
E. Zygote V. An unequal division of
organisms in which
individual arises as an
outgrowth from the
parent
(a) A - I; B - II; C - III; D - IV; E - V
(b) A - III; B - V; C - II; D - IV; E - I
(c) A - III; B - I; C - V; D - II; E - IV
(d) A - V; B - IV; C - III; D - I; E - II
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Reproduction in Organisms 201
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
52. The given figures show the members of fungi and simple
plants such as algae which undergo asexual reproduction.
Identify the correct asexual reproductive structures found
in the members A, B, C and D.
(A) (B)
Chlamydomonas Penicillium
(C) (D)
Hydra Sponge
Mouth
(a) A-Zoogamete, B-Conidia, C-Bud, D-Gemmule
(b) A-Zoospore, B-Conidia, C-Bud, D-Gemmule
(c) A-Zoospore, B-Conidiosporangium, C-Bud,
D-Gemmule
(d) A-Aplanospore, B-Conidia, C-Bud, D-Gemmule
53. The given figures show some examples of angiosperms
as A, B, C and D. All these are capable of giving rise to
new offsprings with the help of vegetative propagules.
Identify the correct unit of vegetative propagules present
in these angiosperms.
Buds
Nodes
Adventitious
root
Bud
Leaf scar
Node
A B
C D
A B C D
(a) Tuber Rhizome Bulb Leaf buds
(b) Offset Sucker Stolon Leaf buds
(c) Offset Stolon Sucker Leaf buds
(d) Tuber Rhizome Bulbil Leaf buds
54. The given figure represents the events marked as (A, B, C
and D) in the life of general reproduction. Identify the
events A, B, C and D.
Post-fertilization
event
Pre-fertilization
event
n
A C
B D
fertilization
2n
(a) A-Gamete transfer, B-Gametogenesis, C-Zygote
formation, D-Embryogenesis
(b) A-Gametogenesis, B-Gamete transfer, C-Zygote
formation, D-Embryogenesis
(c) A-Gametogenesis, B-Zygote formation, C-Gamete
transfer, D-Embryogenesis
(d) A-Gametogenesis, B-Gamete transfer, CEmbryogenesis, D-Zygote formation.
55. The given figure refers to which type of reproduction in
yeast?
(a) Binary fission (b) Budding
(c) Layering (d) Fusion
56. The given figures (A, B and C) are types of gametes of
different organisms. Identify gametes (A, B and C)
respectively.
(A) (B) (C)
(a) Heterogametes, Isogametes, Homogametes
(b) Isogametes, Homogametes, Heterogametes
(c) Homogametes, Isogametes, Heterogametes
(d) Homo/Isogametes, Heterogametes, Heterogametes
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
202 Biology
57. The given figures (i to v) represent the process of binary
fission in Amoeba.
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(v)
Arrange the figures in the correct sequence and choose
the correct option.
(a) (iv) ® (iii) ® (i) ® (ii) ® (v)
(b) (iii) ® (iv) ® (i) ® (ii) ® (v)
(c) (iii) ® (v) ® (ii) ® (iv) ® (i)
(d) (iv) ® (iii) ® (ii) ® (v) ® (i)
58. Which of the labelled parts (X and Y) in the transverse
section of pea plant is/are diploid ?
X
Y
(a) X (b) Y
(c) Both X and Y (d) None of these
59. The given figures P (plant Chara) and Q (earthworm)
have label A, B, C and D as their reproductive organs.
Select the option which correctly identifies male
reproductive organs of the two organisms.
Q
C
D
P
B
A
(a) A and B (b) B and C
(c) A and C (d) B and D
60. In the given figure of water hyacinth, a structure is marked
as "X". This structure is involved in vegetative
propagation as a unit of vegetative propagules. Identify
the type of unit.
(a) Tuber (b) Offsets
(c) Sucker (d) Rhizome
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
61. If basal half of an onion bulb is removed and upper half is
sown in the ground then the new plant will
(a) emerge normally. (b) not emerge.
(c) be without leaves. (d) be without flowers.
62. If soil around stem of potato plant is constantly removed
from very young stage then only roots remain in the soil
then the potato tubers in plant will
(a) be larger (b) be smaller
(c) be formed normally (d) not be formed
63. The site of origin of the new plantlets in potato, dahlia,
ginger and banana is
(a) floral buds present on stem.
(b) internodes of modified stem.
(c) nodes of modified stem.
(d) adventitious buds present on root.
64. Which is the most common method of reproduction in
majority of fungi and bacteria ?
(a) Binary fission (b) Multiple fission
(c) Budding (d) Spore formation
65. A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba,
Spirogyra and yeast is that
(a) they reproduce asexually.
(b) they are all unicellular.
(c) they reproduce only sexually.
(d) they are all multicellular.
66. Sexual reproduction involves
(a) meiosis only.
(b) meiosis and fusion of gametes.
(c) both mitosis and meiosis.
(d) all of the above
67. Some organisms are capable of asexual or sexual
reproduction. Under favourable conditions, reproduction
proceeds asexually. When conditions become more
stressful reproduction switches to a sexual mode. Why?
(a) Sexual reproduction is simple and more rapid allowing
larger numbers of offspring to be produced.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Reproduction in Organisms 203
(b) Sexual reproduction requires two separate
individuals, who can mutually provide nutrient
support during stress.
(c) Sexual reproduction produces individuals with new
combinations of recombined chromosomes
increasing diversity.
(d) Asexual reproduction requires more energy.
68. Seeds are regarded to be the product of sexual
reproduction because they
(a) can be stored for a long period.
(b) give rise to new plants.
(c) are the result of fusion of male gamete with the female
gamete.
(d) none of the above
69. After culturing the anther of a plant, a few diploid plants
were found along with haploid plants. The diploid plants
could have arisen from
(a) generative cell of pollen.
(b) cells of anther wall.
(c) vegetative cell of pollen.
(d) exine of pollen wall.
70. "X" is the vital link that ensures continuity of species
between organisms of one generation to the next. Every
sexually reproducing organism begins life as a single cell
"X". Identify "X".
(a) Zygote (b) Gamete
(c) Embryo (d) None of the above
71. Which of the following has to occur if a diploid body has
to produce haploid gametes?
(a) Meiosis (b) Mitosis
(c) Fertilization (d) Embryo transfer
72. Development of zygote depends on
(a) life cycle of the organism
(b) environment it is exposed to
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) nutrition of organism
73. Meiocytes is observed in all except
(a) human egg (b) blue-green algae
(c) equisetum (d) dicot plant
74. In a practical test, a student has to identify the organisms
in which syngamy does not occur. In those organisms
the female gamete undergoes development to form new
organisms without fertilization. This phenomenon is called
"X".
Identify the organisms and the phenomenon "X".
(a) Frog, Parthenogenesis
(b) Lizards, Gametogenesis
(c) Rotifers, Embryogenesis
(d) Honeybee, Parthenogenesis
75. Which of the followings sequences are correct for plants
and animals?
(i) animals Juvenile phase ® Senescent
phase® Reproductive phase
(ii) animals Juvenile phase ® Reproductive
phase® Senescent phase
(iii) plants Reproductive phase ® Juvenile
phase® Senescent phase
(iv) plants animals Vegetative phase ® Reproductive
phase® Senescent phase
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
76. Offsprings of oviparous animals are at greater risk as
compared to offsprings of viviparous animals because
(a) proper embryonic care and protection is lesser.
(b) embryo is not developed.
(c) progenies are with more variation.
(d) progenies are larger.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Flowers are highly modified _______.
(a) Root (b) Shoot
(c) Stem (d) Leaves
2. A typical flower has ______different kinds of whorl.
(a) two (b) three
(c) four (d) five
3. Anther is typically
(a) tetrasporangiate (b) bisporangiate
(c) trisporangiate (d) monosporangiate
4. The functions of tapetum is to
(a) produce ubisch bodies.
(b) produce pollen grains.
(c) provide nourishment to the developing pollen grains.
(d) store and protect pollen grains.
5. Microsporogenesis occurs
(a) on margins of leaves.
(b) inside the ovule.
(c) inside the anther.
(d) in essential floral organs.
6. Exine of pollen grain is formed of
(a) callose (b) pecto-cellulose
(c) ligno-cellulose (d) sporopollenin
7. One of the most resistant known biological material is.
(a) lignin (b) hemicellulose
(c) sporopollenin (d) lignocellulose
8. Pollen grain is liberated at
(a) one celled stage.
(b) two celled stage.
(c) three celled stage.
(d) two or three celled stage.
9. Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen at
_________.
(a) 70°C (b) 100°C
(c) – 196°C (d) 0°C
10. Ovule is
(a) megasporangium
(b) megasporophyll
(c) integumented megasporangium
(d) rolled megasporophyll
11. Ovules are attached to a parenchymatous cushion called
(a) nucellus (b) obturator
(c) conducting tissue (d) placenta
12. The point at which funiculus touches the ovule is
(a) chalaza (b) hilum
(c) raphe (d) endothelium
13. Egg apparatus consists of
(a) egg cell and antipodal cells.
(b) egg cell and central cell.
(c) egg cell and two synergids.
(d) egg cell and one synergid.
14. The most common type of ovule is __________ .
(a) orthotropous (b) hemitropous
(c) anatropous (d) campylotropous
15. Filiform apparatus is found in
(a) synergids (b) anther wall
(c) secondary nucleus (d) egg cell
16. Polygonum type of embryo sac/typical female
gametophyte of angiosperms is
(a) 7-celled, 7-nucleate (b) 7-celled, 8-nucleate
(c) 8-celled, 7-nucleate (d) 8-celled, 8-nucleate
17. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of
another flower of the same plant is called
(a) geitonogamy (b) xenogamy
(c) autogamy (d) cleistogamy
18. Cleistogamous flowers are
(a) wind pollinated (b) self-pollinated
(c) cross-pollinated (d) insect pollinated
19. Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are
present in
(a) Helianthus (b) Lommelina
(c) Rosa (d) Gossypium
20. Pollination by water occurs in
(a) Vallisneria (b) Zostera
(c) Satvia (d) All of these
21. Bees are important to agriculture as they
(a) produce wax (b) perform pollination
(c) prevent pollination (d) produce honey Chapter 24 Ugzwãn Ôgòtqæwevkqp kp
Ènqygtkpé Rnãpvõ
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 205
22. Vegetative fertilization involves fusion of
(a) two polar nuclei
(b) a male gamete and a synergid
(c) a male gamete and antipodal cell
(d) nucleus of a male gamete and secondary nucleus
23. During double fertilization in plants, one sperm fuses with
the egg cell and the other sperm fuses with
(a) synergids cell (b) central cell
(c) antipodal cell (d) nucellar cell
24. Endosperm is generally
(a) diploid (b) triploid
(c) haploid (d) polyploid
25. Milky water of green coconut is
(a) liquid chalaza
(b) liquid nucellus
(c) liquid endosperm
(d) liquid female gametophyte
26. Scutellum is present in the embryo of
(a) pea (b) Ranunculus
(c) Triticum (d) None of these
27. Perisperm is a
(a) degenerate part of synergids.
(b) peripheral part of endosperm.
(c) degenerate part of secondary nucleus.
(d) remnant of nucellus.
28. False fruits (thalamus also contributes to fruit formation)
are found in
(a) apple and pear (b) strawberry
(c) cashewnut (d) All of these
29. Seeds are adoptively important because
(a) they maintain dormancy.
(b) they protect young plants during vulnerable stages.
(c) they store food for young plants and facilitate
disperal.
(d) All of the above
30. The seed in which endosperm is used by embryo is called
__________ seed.
(a) single (b) albuminous
(c) endospermic (d) non-endospermic
31. Apomixis is the
(a) development of plants in darkness.
(b) development of plants without fusion of gametes.
(c) inability to perceive stimulus for flowering.
(d) effect of low temperature on plant growth.
32. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
(a) Brassica (b) Gossypium
(c) Triticum (d) Citrus
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
33. Which of the following statement is correct for the pollen
tube?
(a) It shows chemotactic movement.
(b) It shows only tip growth.
(c) It is composed of three non-cellular zones.
(d) It shows radial cytoplasmic streaming.
34. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
emasculation?
(a) During emasculation process, stigma is removed.
(b) Emasculated flowers are bagged in order to prevent
self-pollination.
(c) Emasculation is the removal of stamens before the
maturation of selected bisexual flowers.
(d) It is one of the steps for artificial hybridization.
35. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double
fertilization does not take place.
(b) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell.
(c) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months.
(d) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.
36. Which of the following statement about sporopollenin is
incorrect?
(a) Exine is made up of sporopollenin.
(b) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic
materials.
(c) Exine has apertures called germ pores where
sporopollenin is present.
(d) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and
strong acids.
37. Which one of the following events takes place after
double fertilization?
(a) The pollen grain germinates on the stigma.
(b) The pollen tubes enter the embryo sac.
(c) Two male gametes are discharged into the embryo sac.
(d) The PEN (Primary Endosperm Nucleus) develops
into endosperm.
38. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Sporogenous tissue is haploid.
(b) Endothecium produces the microspores.
(c) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen.
(d) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine.
39. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma of
flowers of different plants.
(b) Cleistogamous flowers are always autogamous.
(c) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination.
(d) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all.
40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
self-incompatibility ?
(i) It is a device to prevent inbreeding.
(ii) It provides a biochemical block to self-fertilization.
(iii) It ensures cross-fertilization.
(iv) It is governed by pollen-pistil interaction.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
206 Biology
(v) It is governed by series of multiple alleles.
(vi) It prevents self-pollen (from the same flower of other
flowers of the same plant) from fertilizing the ovules
by inhibiting pollen germination of pollen tube
growth in the pistil.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iv) and (v)
(c) All of the above (d) None of the above
41. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
(i) Endosperm formation starts prior to first division of
zygote.
(ii) Angiospermic endosperm is mostly 3N while
gymnospermic one is N.
(iii) The most common type of endosperm is nuclear.
(iv) Coconut has both liquid nuclear (multinucleate) and
cellular endosperm.
(v) Milky water of green tender coconut is liquid female
gametophyte.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii)
(c) Only (v) (d) Only (ii)
42. Which of the following statements are correct for a typical
female gametophyte of a flowering plant?
(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity.
(ii) It is free-nuclear during the development.
(iii) It is situated inside the integument but outside the
nucellus.
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
43. Study the following statements and select the correct
option.
(i) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.
(ii) Hilum represents the junction between ovule and
funicle.
(iii) In aquatic plants, such as water hyacinth and water
lily, pollination is by water.
(iv) The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) and (iv) are incorrect.
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct but (iii) is incorrect.
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) is incorrect.
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct but (ii) and (iii) are incorrect.
44. Seeds are adaptively important because
(i) they maintain dormancy.
(ii) they protect young plants during vulnerable stages.
(iii) they store food for young plants, and facilitate
dispersal.
Identify the correct reasons.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) All of the above
45. Which of the given statements are true?
(i) During the development of a dicot embryo heart
shaped embryo is followed by globular enlarge.
(ii) The part of the embryonal axis above the level of
cotyledons is epicotyl while the part below the level
of cotyledons is hypocotyl.
(iii) Monocot seeds possess a single cotyledon
represented by scutellum.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) (ii) and (iii)
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
46. Assertion : If a pollen mother cell has 42 chromosomes,
the pollen has only 21 chromosomes.
Reason : Pollens are formed after meiosis in pollen mother
cell.
47. Assertion : Endosperm is a nutritive tissue and it is
triploid.
Reason: Endosperm is formed by fusion of secondary
nucleus to second male gamete. It is used by developing
embryo.
48. Assertion : Photomodulation of flowering is a
phytochrome regulated process.
Reason : Active form of phytochrome (PFR) directly
induces floral induction in shoot buds.
49. Assertion : Insects visit flower to gather honey.
Reason : Attraction of flowers prevents the insects from
damaging other parts of the plant.
50. Assertion : Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating
agents.
Reason : Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex
organs.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
51. Match the biotic agent of cross pollination given in columnI with their feature given in column-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Zoophily I. Pollination by birds
B. Ornithophily II. Pollination by insects
C. Entomophily III. Pollination by bats
D. Chiropterophily IV. Pollination by animals
(a) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 207
52. Match the parts of gynoceium given in column I with
their definition given in column II. Choose the correct
combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Funicle I. Mass of cells within ovule
with more food
B. Hilum II. Basal part of ovule
C. Integument III. One or Two protective layers
of ovule
D. Chalaza IV. Region where body of ovule
fuses with funicle
E. Nucellus V. Stalk of ovule
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III; E – V
(d) A – I; B – III; C – V; D – II; E – IV
53. Match the items given in column-I with their examples
given in column-II and choose the correct option given
below.
Column-I Column-II
(Items) (Examples)
A. Ovary I. Groundnut, mustard
B. Ovule II. Guava, orange, mango
C. Wall of ovary III. Pericarp
D. Fleshy fruits IV. Seed
E. Dry fruits V. Fruit
(a) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V
(d) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III
54. Match the items given in column-I with those given in
column-II and choose the correct option given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Parthenocarpy I. Inactive state
B. Polyembryony II. Meiosis and syngamy are
absent
C. Apomixis III. Occurrence of more than
one embryo
D. Dormancy IV. Seedless fruit
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
55. Match the items given in column-I with those given in
column-II and chose the correct option given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Tapetum I. Irregular in shape with
abundant food reserve
B. Exine II. Acts as nutritive layer
C. Pollenkit III. Thick, rigid protective layer
D. Vegetative cell IV. Involve in the formation of
microspores
E. Sporogenous V. Oily and sticky layer, help
tissue in pollination.
(a) A – II; B – III; C – V; D – IV; E – I
(b) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E – V
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV; E – V
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – III
56. Match the items given in column-I with their examples
given in column-II and identify the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Coleorhiza I. Grapes
B. Food storing tissue II. Mango
C. Parthenocarpic fruit III. Maize
D. Single seeded fruit developing IV. Radicle
from monocarpellary superior
ovary
E. Membranous seed coat V. Endosperm
(a) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
(b) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – I; E – III
(c) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – IV; E – II
(d) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III
57. Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
(a) Microsporangium – Pollen sac
(b) Megasporangium – Ovule
(c) Microsporophyll – Stamen
(d) Megasporophyll – Filament
58. Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
(a) Storage of pollen grains – – 196°C
(b) Pollen allergy – Carrot grass
(c) Chasmogamous flowers – Exposed anthers and
stigmas
(d) Xenogamy – Self-pollination
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
59. The given figure shows a typical stamen (a) and three
dimensional cut section of an anther. Identify A to D
respectively marked in the figures (a & b)
A
B
C
D
Line of
dehiscence
(a)
(b)
(a) Anther, Petiole, Pollen sac and Megaspore
(b) Anther, Petiole, Megasporangium and Pollen grains
(c) Anther, Pedicel, Megasporangium and Pollen grains
(d) Anther, Filament, Pollen sac and Pollen grains
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
208 Biology
60. The given diagram refers to a T. S. of anther. Identify A to
E respectively
A
B
C
D
E
Connective
(a) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, epidermis, middle
layer, endothecium
(b) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, tapetum, middle layer,
endothecium
(c) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, middle layer, tapetum,
endothecium
(d) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, middle layer,
epidermis, endothecium
61. Identify A, B, C, D and E structures marked in the given
figure of a mature embryo sac.
A
B
C
D
E
Egg
Chalazas end
Micropylar end
A B C D E
(a) Antipodal
cells
Central cell Polar nuclei Synergids Acrosome
(b)
Antipodal
cells
Central cell Polar nuclei Synergids Filiform
apparatus
(c)
Synergids Central cell Polar nuclei Antipodal
cells
Filiform
apparatus
(d)
Synergids Megaspore
mother cell
Polar nuclei Synergids Filiform
apparatus
62. Which of the following figure, showing types of
gynoecium, is associated with wind pollination ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
63. Diagram given below shows the stages in embryogenesis
in a typical dicot plant (Capsella). Identify the structures
A to D respectively
Zygote
Globular
Embryo
Heart-Shaped
Embryo
Mature
Embryo
A
B
C
D
(a) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
(b) Hypophysis, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
(c) Suspensor, Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledons
(d) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Hypocotyls
64. The given figure represent the L.S of a flower showing
growth of pollen tube. Few structures are marked as A, B,
C, D & E. Identify A, B, C, D and E respectively.
B
C
D
E
Pollen tube
A
Egg cell
Synergid
(a) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Style, Chalaza
(b) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Style, Stigma, Chalaza
(c) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Chalaza, Style
(d) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Chalaza, Stigma, Style
65. In the given figure of pollen grain tetrad, identify the parts
marked as A, B, C, D and E.
A
B
C
D
E
(a) A - Germ pore, B - Generative cell, C - Intine, D -
Exine, E - Vegetative cell
(b) A - Germ pore, B - Generative cell, C - Exine, D -
Intine, E - Vegetative cell
(c) A - Intine, B - Exine, C - Germ pore, D - Generative
cell, E - Vegetative cell
(d) A - Exine, B - intine, C - Vegetative cell, D - Germ pore,
E - Generative cell
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 209
66. Identified A, B, C and D in the given figure of false fruit of
apple.
(a) A – Mesocarp; B – Endocarp; C – Seed; D – Thalamus
(b) A – Seed; B – Thalamus; C – Mesocarp; D –
Endocarp
(c) A – Thalamus; B – Seed; C – Endocarp; D – Mesocarp
(d) A – Mesocarp; B – Endocarp; C – Seed; D – Thalamus
67. Choose the option showing the correct labelling A, B, C
and D in the given figure of a dicot embryo.
(a) A – Hypocotyl; B – Cotyledons; C – Root cap;
D – Radicle
(b) A – Cotyledons; B – Hypocotyl; C – Root cap;
D – Radicle
(c) A – Cotyledons; B – Hypocotyl; C – Radicle;
D – Root cap
(d) A – Cotyledons; B – Radicle; C – Hypocotyl;
D – Root cap.
68. The given diagram shows two plants of the same species.
Identify the type of pollination indicated as P1
, P2
and P3
.
P3
P1
P2
P1 P2 P3
(a) Allogamy Chasmogamy Cleistogamy
(b) Autogamy Xenogamy Geitonogamy
(c) Autogamy Geitonogamy Xenogamy
(d) Geitonogamy Allogamy Autogamy
69. The given figure shows a diagrammatic view of a typical
anatropous ovule, in which some parts are typical
anatropous ovule, in which some parts are marked as A,
B, C, & D. Identify the correct labelling of A, B, C & D
from the options given below.
B
C
D
(a) A – Chalazal pole; B – Micropyle; C – Embryo sac;
D –Nucellus
(b) A – Micropyle; B – Chalazal pole; C – Embryo sac;
D – Nucellus
(c) A – Micropyle; B – Chalazal pole; C – Nucellus;
D – Embryo sac
(d) A – Micropyle; B – Nucellus; C – Embryo sac;
D – Chalazal pole
70. The given figure shows the L.S. of a monocot embryo.
Choose the correct labelling for A, B, C and D marked in
the figure from the options given below.
C
D
C
B
A
(a) A – Coleoptile; B – Scutellum; C – Epiblast;
D – Coleorhiza
(b) A – Scutellum; B – Coleoptile; C – Coleorhiza;
D – Epiblast
(c) A – Scutellum; B – Epiblast; C – Coleoptile;
D – Coleorhiza
(d) A – Scutellum; B – Coleoptile; C – Epiblast;
D – Coleorhiza
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
210 Biology
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
71. The largest cell in a embryo sac is
(a) egg (b) central cell
(c) synergid (d) antipodal cell
72. Which one of the following is not related to other three?
(a) Archaegonium (b) Oogonium
(c) Ovule (d) Antheridium
73. In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur
respectively in
(a) antipodal, egg and endosperm.
(b) egg, nucellus and endosperm.
(c) endosperm, nucellus and egg.
(d) antipodals, synergids and integuments.
74. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in
(a) coconut (b) groundnut
(c) gram (d) maize
75. Which of the following floral parts forms pericarp after
fertilization ?
(a) Nucellus (b) Outer integument
(c) Ovary wall (d) Inner integument
76. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates
(a) prologned dormancy.
(b) new genetic combination leading to variation.
(c) large biomass.
(d) longer viability of seeds.
77. Sequence of development during the formation of embryo
sac is
(a) Archesporium ® Megaspore ® Megaspore mother
cell ® Embryo sac.
(b) Megasporocyte ® Archesporium ® Megaspore ®
Embryo sac.
(c) Megaspore ® Megaspore mother cell ®
Archesporium ® Embryo sac.
(d) Archesporium ® Megaspore mother cell ®
Megaspore ® Embryo sac.
78. Which of the following processes is necessary for the
complete development of male gametophyte?
(a) One meiotic cell division and two mitotic cell
divisions.
(b) One meiotic cell division and one mitotic cell
division.
(c) Two meiotic cell divisions and one mitotic cell
division.
(d) Two mitotic cell divisions.
79. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother
cells after
(a) meiotic division.
(b) mitotic division.
(c) formation of a thick wall.
(d) differentiation.
80. How many meiotic division are required for the formation
of 100 functional megaspores?
(a) 100 (b) 50
(c) 75 (d) 25
81. The total number of nuclei involved in double fertilization
in angiosperms are
(a) two (b) three
(c) four (d) five
82. Unisexuality of flowers prevents
(a) geitonogamy but not xenogamy.
(b) autogamy and geitonogamy.
(c) autogamy but not geitonogamy.
(d) both geitonogamy and xenogamy.
83. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in
(a) perisperm (b) endosperm
(c) cotyledons (d) hypocotyl
84. Pollination occurs in
(a) bryophytes and angiosperms.
(b) pteridophytes and angiosperms.
(c) angiosperms and gymnosperms.
(d) angiosperms and fungi.
85. An advantage of cleistogamy is that
(a) it leads to greater genetic diversity.
(b) seed dispersal is more efficient and wide spread.
(c) each visit of pollinator brings hundreds of pollen
grains.
(d) seed set is not dependent upon pollinators.
86. Point out the odd one from the given options.
(a) Nucellus (b) Embryo sac
(c) Micropyle (d) Pollen grain
87. While planning for an artificial hybridization programme
if the female parent have unisexual flowers, then which of
the following steps would not be relevant?
(a) Bagging of female flower.
(b) Dusting of pollen on stigma.
(c) Emasculation.
(d) Collection of pollen.
88. In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true
homologous structures are
(a) coleorhiza and coleoptile.
(b) coleoptile and scutellum
(c) cotyledons and scutellum
(d) hypocotyl and radicle
89. Total number of meiotic division required for forming 100
zygotes/100 grains of wheat is
(a) 100 (b) 75
(c) 125 (d) 50
90. The endosperm found in angiospermic seed is different
from that of gymnosperms in the sense that, in the former
(a) it is formed before fertilization while in the latter it is
formed after fertilization.
(b) it is formed after fertilization.
(c) it is cellular while in the latter it is nuclear.
(d) it is nutritive while in the latter it is protective.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 211
91. For artificial hybridization experiment in bisexual flower,
which of the following sequences is correct ?
(a) Bagging ® Emasculation ® Cross-pollination ®
Rebagging
(b) Emasculation ® Bagging ® Cross-pollination ®
Rebagging
(c) Cross-pollination ® Bagging ® Emasculation ®
Rebagging
(d) Self-pollination ® Bagging ® Emasculation ®
Rebagging
92. If a diploid female plant and a tetraploid male plant are
crossed, the ploidy of endosperm shall be
(a) tetraploid (b) triploid
(c) diploid (d) pentaploid
93. In a seed of maize, scutellum is considered as cotyledon
because it
(a) protects the embryo.
(b) contains food for the embryo.
(c) absorbs food materials and supplies them to the
embryo.
(d) converts itself into a monocot leaf.
94. How many pollen grains will be formed after meiotic
division in ten microspore mother cells?
(a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 40 (d) 80
95. Multinucleate condition is present in
(a) quiescent centre
(b) maize
(c) meristematic tissue
(d) liquid endosperm of coconut
96. Through which part of the embryo sac, does the pollen
tube enter the embryo sac?
(a) Egg cell (b) Persistent synergid
(c) Degenerated synergid (d) Central cell
97. What is the main function of filiform apparatus present at
the micropylar part of the ovule?
(a) It prevents the entry of more than one pollen tube
into the embryo sac.
(b) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into an antipodal
cell.
(c) It helps the pollen tube to enter the ovule through
chalazal end.
(d) It guides the entry of pollen tube into a synergid and
discharge the male gametes.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
212 Biology Chapter 25 Jwocp"Tgrtqfwevkqp
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The __________ lead to vas deferens that ascends to
the ______ and loops over the __________.
(a) prostate, stomach, urinary bladder.
(b) epididymis, abdomen, urinary bladder.
(c) vas efferentia, abdomen, ureter.
(d) urinary bladder, ejaculatory duct, abdomen.
2. The enlarged end of penis is covered by a loose fold of
skin is called.
(a) glans penis (b) foreskin
(c) hymen (d) urethral meatus
3. Which of the following is a transporting tube leading
from the bladder to which brings urine outside the body
via penis?
(a) Ureter (b) Epididymis
(c) Ejaculatory duct (d) Urethra meatus
4. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
(a) epididymis to urethra.
(b) vas deferens to epididymis.
(c) rete testis to vas deferens.
(d) testicular lobules to rete testis.
5. A sac shaped like an upside down pear with a thick lining
and muscles in the pelvic area where a fertilized egg or
zygote comes to grow into a baby is called _______.
(a) oviduct (b) uterus
(c) vagina (d) vulva
6. Which of the following is a finger like structure and lies at
the upper junction of the two labia minora above the
urethral opening?
(a) Clitoris (b) Oviduct
(c) Ampulla (d) Chorionic villi
7. Which of the following produces sperms in
spermatogenesis?
(a) Sertoli cells.
(b) Interstitial cells.
(c) Primary spermatocytes.
(d) Immature male germ cells.
8. In the process of spermatogenesis, first maturation
division is called _______.
(a) mitotic division (b) reduction division
(c) amitotic division (d) None of the these
9. Spermatids are transformed into sperm by a process
called_______.
(a) spermiation (b) implantation
(c) insemination (d) spermiogenesis
10. In humans, male germs cells differentiate into _____ at
the end of first meiotic division.
(a) spermatid
(b) spermatogonium
(c) secondary spermatocyte
(d) primary spermatocyte
11. Increased secretion of which hormone start the process
of sperm formation at the time of puberty?
(a) GH (b) TSH
(c) PRL (d) GnRH
12. After birth, colostrum is released from mammary glands
which is rich in
(a) fat and low in proteins
(b) proteins and low in fat
(c) proteins, antibodies and low in fat
(d) proteins, fat and low in antibodies
13. Which of the following hormone maintains the function
of male sex accessory gland and ducts?
(a) Estrogen (b) Androgen
(c) Progesterone (d) Luteinizing hormone
14. Semen is a constituent of seminal plasma with _______.
(a) ovum (b) sperm
(c) zygote (d) follicle
15. Ejaculation of human male contains about 200 – 300
million sperms, of which for normal fertility ____ %
sperms must have normal shape and size and at least
____% must show energetic motility.
(a) 40, 60 (b) 50, 50
(c) 60, 40 (d) 30, 70
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Reproduction 213
16. Which of the following stage of oogenesis forms a
membrane called zona pellucida surrounding it?
(a) Oogonia (b) Polar body
(c) Corpus luteum (d) Secondary oocytes
17. By which process sperms released from the
seminiferous tubules?
(a) Spermiation (b) Insemination
(c) Spermatogenesis (d) Spermiogenesis
18. Which of the following contains a fluid filled cavity
called antrum?
(a) Primary spermatocyte.
(b) Primary follicle of ovary.
(c) Tertiary follicle of ovary.
(d) Secondary spermatocyte.
19. Menstruation is triggered by a sudden decline in the
amount of hormone secreted by corpus luteum. Identify
the hormone.
(a) Luteinizing hormone
(b) Follicle stimulating hormone
(c) Progesterone
(d) Estrogen
20. Level of which hormones are at their highest during the
luteal phase (second half of the cycle) of the menstrual
cycle?
(a) Estrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) Luteinizing hormone
(d) Follicular stimulating hormone
21. Which phase of menstrual cycle is also called
proliferative phase?
(a) Luteal (b) Ovulatory
(c) Follicular (d) Menstruation
22. Which phase of menstrual cycle is also called secretory
phase?
(a) Luteal (b) Ovulatory
(c) Follicular (d) Menstruation
23. Which of the following indicates pregnancy?
(a) Lack of menstruation.
(b) Occurrence of menstrual flow.
(c) When released ovum is not fertilized.
(d) When Graafian follicle matures and endometrium
regenerates through proliferation.
24. When semen is released by the penis into the vagina
during copulation, then it is called _____.
(a) ovulation (b) insemination
(c) menstruation (d) gametogenesis
25. At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called
_______.
(a) zygote (b) blastocysts
(c) embryo (d) foetus
26. Fusion of haploid nucleus of sperm and that of ovum
lead to the formation of _______.
(a) zygote (b) blastocysts
(c) embryo (d) foetus
27. Which of the following differentiate into embryo?
(a) Morula (b) Zygote
(c) Trophoblast (d) Inner cell mass
28. Trophoblast and inner cell mass are the arrangements of
blastomeres as outer and inner layers respectively in
_______.
(a) zygote (b) morula
(c) placenta (d) blastocysts
29. The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called ________.
(a) zygote (b) morula
(c) placenta (d) blastocysts
30. Presence of XX or XY chromosomes in zygote depends on
(a) the sperm carrying X chromosome fertilized the
ovum.
(b) the sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilized the
ovum.
(c) the sperm without any chromosome fertilized the
ovum.
(d) the sperm carrying X or Y chromosomes fertilized
the ovum.
31. Which layer of blastocysts gets attached to the
endometrium?
(a) Trophoblast (b) Inner cell mass
(c) Umbilical cord (d) Both (a) and (c)
32. Finger like projection, called chorionic villi, appear on
the _________ after the implantation.
(a) ampulla (b) trophoblast
(c) infundibulum (d) inner cell mass
33. Which of the following hormones is produced in women
only during pregnancy?
(a) Relaxin (b) Estrogen
(c) Oxytocin (d) Progesterone
34. The placenta is formed from the _______ of the embryo
and the _______ of the mother.
(a) uterus, trophoblast
(b) chorion, endometrium
(c) endometrium, chorion
(d) inner cell mass, endometrium
35. Placenta acts as an
(a) Embryo (b) Corpus luteum
(c) Exocrine gland (d) Endocrine tissue
36. Primary germ layers are
(a) ectoderm and inner cell mass only.
(b) trophoblast, ectoderm and mesoderm.
(c) endoderm and mesoderm only.
(d) ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
214 Biology
37. Which of the following hormone acts on uterine muscle
and causes its stronger contraction?
(a) Relaxin (b) Estrogen
(c) Oxytocin (d) Progesterone
38. Colostrum
(a) is a hormone essential for milk secretion.
(b) can be synthesized by the newborn infant but not
by a foetus.
(c) stimulates further secretion of oxytocin for uterine
contraction.
(d) is a source of antibodies essential to develop
resistance against diseases in new born babies.
39. Secretion of milk from the mammary gland towards the
end of the pregnancy is called_____.
(a) lactation (b) parturition
(c) fertilization (d) implantation
40. Two types of cells present in the lining of seminiferous
tubules are _______ and _______.
(a) leydig cells, sertoli cells.
(b) male germ cells, sertoli cells.
(c) spermatogonium, spermatids.
(d) primary oocyte, leydig cells.
41. The womb opens into vagina through _______.
(a) cervix (b) hymen
(c) clitoris (d) ampulla
42. First polar body is formed during the formation of
_______ and completion of ___ meiotic division.
(a) Primary oocytes, II
(b) Secondary oocytes, I
(c) Secondary spermatocytes, II
(d) Primary spermatocytes, I
43. Second meiotic division in secondary oocyte results in
the formation of
(a) first polar body and a diploid ovum.
(b) first polar body and a haploid ovum.
(c) second polar body and a diploid ovum.
(d) second polar body and a haploid ovum
44. In human female, menopause is a stage in which
(a) oogenesis starts at puberty.
(b) menstruation starts at puberty.
(c) corpus luteum starts secreting progesterone for
maintaining pregnancy.
(d) menstruation stops at the age of 50 years and
reproductive capacity is arrested.
45. Which of the following process induces the completion
of the meiotic division of secondary oocyte?
(a) Parturition (b) Implantation
(c) Fertilization (d) Gametogenesis
46. _______ is a sticky white or yellow fluid secreted by the
breasts during the second half of pregnancy and for a
few days after birth, before breast milk comes in.
(a) Placenta (b) Colostrum
(c) Egg yolk (d) Blood cells
47. Which gland releases a small amount of fluid just prior to
ejaculation to decrease acidity in the urethra caused by
urine?
(a) Prostate
(b) Glans penis
(c) Seminal vesicle
(d) Bulbourethral gland
48. By the end of how many weeks, major organ system are
formed during the embryonic development?
(a) 4 weeks (b) 8 weeks
(c) 12 weeks (d) 24 weeks
49. Which of the following induces foetal ejection reflex?
(a) Initiation of lactation
(b) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(c) Expulsion of the baby out of the uterus.
(d) Transport of embryo in the fallopian tube.
50. Identify the structure on the basis of the given statement
which surrounds the primary sex organ of male
reproductive system.
"It is responsible for maintaining the low temperature by
about 2 - 2.5º C from normal body temperature to mature
sperm."
(a) Penis (b) Scrotum
(c) Ureter (d) Urethra
51. Which of the following is not a paired structure in male?
(a) Urethra (b) Vas deferens
(c) Epididymis (d) Ejaculatory duct
52. Blastomeres are daughter cells formed in the process of
(a) cleavage, when zygote undergoes mitotic division.
(b) fertilization, when sperm enters in the cytoplasm of
ovum.
(c) implantation, when blastocysts attached to the
uterine endometrium.
(d) gametogenesis, when male and female gametes are
produced by testis and ovary respectively
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
53. Which of the following statements regarding sertoli cell
is correct?
(a) It is found in seminiferous tubule and secrete
testosterone hormone.
(b) It is a place where spermatozoa is concentrated and
stored until ejaculation.
(c) It secretes spermatozoa activating substances
like fructose, citrate, inositol, prostaglandin and
protein.
(d) It is found in seminiferous tubule and function as
nurse cells for differentiating spermatozoa.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Reproduction 215
54. The sperm and the egg make different contributions to
zygote. Which of the following statements about their
contributions are true?
(i) Sperm contributes most of the mitochondria.
(ii) Egg contributes most of the cytoplasm.
(iii) Both sperm and egg contribute haploid nucleus.
(iv) Both sperm and egg contribute centrioles.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iiii) and (iv)
(d) All of these
55. Read the following statements (i to iv) and answer the
following question.
(i) Each testes has highly coiled 250 compartments
called seminiferous tubules.
(ii) Erection of the penis due to presence of special
tissues facilitates insemination.
(iii) Immunologically competent cells are also present
in the interstitial spaces of seminiferous tubules.
(iv) Testes lie outside the abdominal cavity in a thin
pouch like skin called scrotum.
(v) Bulbourethral gland is a single accessory gland.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (v)
(c) (i) and (v ) (d) (ii), (iv) and (v)
56. Which of the following is true regarding the male
reproductive system?
(a) Sperms are diploid.
(b) It includes testes, accessory ducts and glands, and
oviducts.
(c) The scrotum keeps the testes warmer, thus helping it
to promote the sperm formation.
(d) Sertoli cells are found in seminiferous tubules
and provide nutrition to germ cells.
57. Read the following statements (i to v) and answer the
following question.
(i) This structure is also called womb.
(ii) Its shape is like an inverted pear.
(iii) The process of fertilization takes place in this
structure.
(iv) The wall of this structure has three layers of tissue.
(v) It secretes several steroid hormones.
Identify the correct characteristics feature regarding
uterus from the above statements.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) All the five statements.
58. Which of the following statements regarding mammary
gland is incorrect?
(a) They are paired glandular structure that lies over the
pectoral muscles.
(b) Each gland has 100 – 500 lobulated milk glands each
having a number of lobules containing number of
alveoli.
(c) The cells of alveoli secrete milk which is stored in
the cavity of the alveoli.
(d) Each milk gland or lobules has lactiferous ducts that
drain into openings in the nipple.
59. Select the correct statements regarding oogenesis.
(i) It is initiated during the embryonic development
stage when millions of oogonia are formed within
each ovary.
(ii) Graafian follicle releases primary oocyte from the
ovary by ovulation.
(iii) At puberty only 60,000 – 80,000 primary follicles are
left in each ovary.
(iv) Secondary oocyte within tertiary follicles grows in
size and completes its second meiotic division.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) all the four statements.
60. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
menstruation?
(a) The menstrual fluid can easily clot.
(b) The end of the cycle of menstruation is called
menarche.
(c) At menopause in the female, there is especially
abrupt decrease in gonadotropic hormones.
(d) In human female, menstruation can be deferred
by the administration of combination of estrogen
and progesterone.
61. Which of the following is required for the increased
production of estrogen, progestogens, cortisol, prolactin
and thyroxine etc. in the maternal blood?
(i) Metabolic changes in the mother.
(ii) Maintenance of pregnancy.
(iii) Supporting the foetal growth
(iv) Destruction of Graafian follicle
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All the four statements.
62. Which of the following statement regarding female
reproductive system is (are) correct?
(i) Myometrium undergoes strong contraction at the
time of delivery of baby.
(ii) Ovary is secondary female sex organ which
produces female gamete and steroid hormones.
(iii) Ovarian stroma is divided into two zones: inner
cortex and outer medulla.
(iv) Infundibulum possess finger like projections
which help in collection of ovum after the release
of secondary oocyte.
(v) A functional mammary gland is the characteristics
of all the mammals (including male and female).
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) All the five statements
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
216 Biology
63. Read the following statements (i to v) and answer the
question.
(i) It produces several hormones like hCG, hPL,
estrogens, progestogens etc.
(ii) It differentiates into three embryonic membranes
– ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm.
(iii) It undergoes mitotic division.
(iv) It is the organ, formed in the lining of the
uterus by the union of the uterine mucous
membrane with the membranes of the foetus.
(v) It develops at a point of implantation and providing
oxygen and nutrients for the foetus and transfer of
waste products from the foetal to the maternal blood
circulation.
Identify the correct characteristics feature regarding
placenta from the above statements.
(a) (iii) and (v) (b) (i), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) all the four statements.
64. Which of the following statements regarding parturition
is incorrect?
(a) Prolactin induces uterine contraction.
(b) It is induced by neuroendocrine mechanism.
(c) Uterine contraction leads to expulsion of baby
through the birth canal.
(d) Oxytocin plays an important role in the contraction
of fallopian tube.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is
followed by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
65. Assertion : During fertilization only head of
spermatozoa enters egg.
Reason : If several spermatozoa hit the egg at same time,
all can enter the egg.
66. Assertion : In morula stage, cells divide without
increase in size.
Reason : Zona pellucida remain undivided till cleavage
is complete.
67. Assertion : Death is one of the important regulatory
process on earth.
Reason : It avoids over-crowding caused by continuous
reproduction.
68. Assertion : Corpus luteum degenerates in the absence
of fertilization.
Reason : Progesterone level decreases.
69. Assertion : Clitoris is not remnant of penis in females.
Reason : It also have high blood supply and erectile tissue.
70. Assertion : Mammalian ova produces hyaluronidase.
Reason : The eggs of mammal are microlecithal and
telolecithal.
71. Assertion : Interstitial cell is present in the region
outside the seminiferous tubule called interstitial spaces.
Reason : Interstitial cells provide nutrition to the sertoli
cells.
72. Assertion : Testicular lobules are the compartments
present in testis.
Reason : These lobules are involved in the process of
fertilization.
73. Assertion : Head of sperm consists of acrosome and
mitochondria.
Reason : Acrosome contains spiral row of mitochondria.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
74. In the given columns, column I contain structures of
male reproductive system and column II contains its
feature. Select the correct match from the options given
below.
Column I Column II
(Structure of Male (Features)
Reproductive System)
A. Seminiferous tubule I. Network of
seminiferous tubule
B. Rete testis II. Secondary sexual
characters
C. Leydig cells III. Meiosis and sperm
formation occurs
D. Prepuce IV. Place of implantation
V. Terminal skin of penis
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V
75. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?
(a) Leydig cells – Testosterone
(b) Spermatogenesis – Seminiferous tubules
(c) Male reproductive system – Pelvis region
(d) Spermatogonia – Mitotic division
76. In the given columns, column-I contain structures of female
reproductive system and column-II contain its feature.
Select the correct match from the option given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Structures of female (Features)
reproductive system)
A. Ampulla I. It undergoes cyclical
changes during menstrual
cycle.
B. Labia majora II. It helps in collection of
ovum after ovulation.
C. Oviduct III. Wider part of fallopian
tube where fusion of
male and female gametes
takes place.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Reproduction 217
D. Fimbriae IV. Larger hairy folds which
extend down from the
mons pubis and surrounds
the vaginal opening.
E. Endometrium V. Also called fallopian
tubes, which extend from
the periphery of each ovary
to the womb.
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – V; E – IV
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I
77. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct
option. Match from the options given below
Column-I Column-II
A. Primary oocyte I. It is formed when oogonia
starts division and
temporarily arrested at
prophase of meiosis I.
B. Secondary oocyte II. A large haploid cell which
retains bulk of nutrient rich
cytoplasm of the primary
oocyte.
C. Primary follicle III. A large number of these
degenerate during the
phase from puberty to birth.
D. Oogonia IV. Gamete mother cell.
E. Secondary follicle V. Surrounded by more layers
of granulosa cells and a
new theca.
F. Graafian follicle VI. Rupture to release ovum
from the ovary.
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V; F – VI
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V; F – VI
(c) A – VI; B – IV; C – V; D – II; E – I; F – III
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – V; E – I; F – VI
78. In the given columns, column-I contain various phases
of menstrual cycle and column -II contain its features.
Select the correct match from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Phases of menstrual (Features)
cycle)
A. Menstrual phase I. Breakdown of endometrial
lining of uterus along with
its blood vessels which
form liquid that comes out
of vagina.
B. Luteal phase II. A temporary endocrine
gland is formed and
secretes a hormone which
maintains endometrium
and implantation of
fertilized ovum and other
events of pregnancy.
C. Follicular phase III. Secretion of luteinizing
hormone at its maximum
level and induces
breakdown of mature
follicle to release the female
gamete
D Ovulatory phase IV. Formation of mature
Graafian follicle and
regeneration of
endometrium of uterus.
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
79. In the given columns, column-I contain features of
developing child and column-II contain the time of their
occurrence. Select the correct match.
Column-I Column-II
(Features of (Time of there
developing child) occurrence)
A. Heart sound I. By the end of the second
month of pregnancy
B. Foetus develops II. During the fifth month
limbs and digit
C. Formation of III. First sign of growing
major organ system foetus
D. First movement IV. By the end of 12 weeks
of foetus and
appearance of
hair on head
E. Body covered with V. By the end of 24 weeks
hair, eyelid separate,
eyelashes are formed
(a) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
(c) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I
80. Match the hormones given in column-I with their
functions given in column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(Hormones) (Functions)
A. Luteinizing I. Develop corpus luteum
hormone
B. Progesterone II. Essential for maintenance
of uterine layer (called
endometrium)
C. Estrogen III. Develops female
secondary sexual
characters
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
218 Biology
D. Follicle stimulating IV. Maturation of Graafian
hormone follicle
E. Oxytocin V. Causes uterine contraction.
(a) A – I; B – V; C – III; D – II; E – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV; E – V
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(d) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – IV
81. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A Fertilization I. Mitotic division
B Implantation II. Embryo with 8 to 16
blastomeres
C Cleavage III. Ampullary-isthmic junction
D Morula IV. Structure formed by the
continuous division of 8 to
16 blastomeres
E Blastocysts V. Embedding of blastocysts
in the endometrium
(a) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – V; E – III
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
(c) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II
(d) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – IV
82. Select the correct match of terms given in column-I with
their definition given in column -II.
Column-I Column-II
(Terms) (Definition)
A. Parturition I. Duration between
pregnancy (of about 9
month) and birth
B. Ovulation II. Attachment of zygote to the
endometrium
C. Gestation III. Childbirth
D. Implantation IV. Stoppage of menstruation
E. Conception V. Release of egg from
Graafian follicle
VI. Process of milk secretion
VII.Formation of zygote by
fusion
of the egg and sperm
(a) A – I; B – II; C – VII; D – V; E – III
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
(c) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – VI
(d) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – IV, E – II
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
83. The given figure shows the male reproductive system.
Some structures are marked as A, B, C, and D.
Identify the structure whose removal will cause the
sperm to be reacted with acidic urine in the urethra.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
A
B
C
D
(d) D
84. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of
human male reproductive system. Select the correct set
of the names of the parts marked as A, B, C, and D
respectively.
A
B
C
D
A B C D
(a) Ureter Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
vesicle gland
(b) Ureter Prostate Seminal Bulbourethral
vesicle gland
(c) Vas Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
deferens vesicle gland
(d) Vas Seminal Bulbourethral Prostate
deferens vesicle gland
85. Identify the figure (A) whose sectional view is given
below and match with its characteristics (B) and its
location (C).
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Reproduction 219
A B C
(a) Graafian
follicle
Involved in
the formation
of ovum
Ovary
(b) Seminiferous
tubule
Involved in
the formation
of sperm
Testis
(c)
Ovum
surrounded
by sperm
Process of
fertilization
Graafian
follicle
(d) Mammary
gland
Involved in milk
secretion
Female
reproductive
system
86. Given below is the diagrammatic sectional view of
seminiferous tubule with their parts marked as A, B, C,
and D. Select the option which shows the correct
identification of the structure with its characteristics.
A
B
C
D
(a) A: Spermatozoa, secretes testicular hormones that
control spermatogenesis.
(b) B: Spermatogonium, it is also called male germ
cells which undergo meiotic division to from
spermatozoa.
(c) C: Interstitial cells, present in the interstitial spaces
and store and transport the sperms from the testis
to the outside through the urethra.
(d) D: Sertoli cells, it maintains low temperature of
the testis.
87. The given figure shows the diagrammatic sectional view
of female reproductive system with few structures
marked as A, B, C, D, E and F.
E
D
F
A
B
C
Which of the following options shows the correct labeling
of A–F?
(a) A®Myometrium, B®Isthmus, C®Endometrium,
D® Perimetrium, E®Ampulla, F® Infundibulum
(b) A®Infundibulum, B®Perimetrium,
C®Endometrium, D®Myometrium,
E®Ampulla, F®Isthmus
(c) A®Endometrium, B®Myometrium,
C®Perimetrium, D®Isthmus, E®Ampulla,
F®Infundibulum
(d) A®Perimetrium, B®Endometrium, C®Isthmus,
D®Infundibulum, E®Ampulla, F®Myometrium
88. Refer the figure of mammary gland with few structures
marked as A, B, C and D. Which structure contains
clusters of milk secreting cells?
B
A
C
D
(a) A (b) B.
(c) C (d) D
89. The figure given below shows the sectional view of
seminiferous tubule.
A
B
C
D
Which marked structure (A to D) undergoes second
meiotic division to produce four equal haploid cells
(called spermatids)?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (4) D
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
220 Biology
90. The figure given below shows the structure of sperm.
Identify the correct feature corresponding to the marked
structure A, B, C and D.
A
B
C
D
(a) A – Head: Its anterior portion is covered by a
structure filled with enzymes that help in the fusion
of male and female gametes.
(b) B – Middle piece: It contains a haploid nucleus.
(c) C – Neck: It possesses few ribosomes which
produces energy for the process of fertilization.
(d) D – Tail: It releases energy source for swimming of
sperm.
91. The figure given below shows the sectional view of
ovary. Select the option which gives correct
identification of marked structure (A to D) and its feature.
D
A B
C
(a) A: Primary follicle, it is also called gamete mother
cell.
(b) B: Corpus luteum, it cannot be formed and added
after birth.
(c) C: Graafian follicle, mature follicle which ruptures
to release secondary oocyte.
(d) D: Tertiary follicle, a large number of this follicle
degenerates during the phase from birth to puberty.
92. The given figure shows the diagrammatic representation
of oogenesis. Identify the option which shows the correct
label marked as A, B, C and D.
A
B
C
D
(a) A: Tertiary; B: I; C: Fertilization; D: Primary oocyte.
(b) A: Primary; B: II; C: Ovulation; D: Secondary oocyte.
(c) A: Secondary; B: II; C: Fertilization; D: Primary
oocyte.
(d) A: Primary; B: I; C: Ovulation; D: Secondary oocyte.
93. The figure given below shows the various events
occurring during a menstrual cycle with few structures
marked as A, B, C and D. Which of the following options
shows the correct labeling?
A
B
C D E
(a) A®LH, B®Ovulation, C® Menstruation,
D® Proliferative phase, E®Luteal phase
(b) A®FSH, B®Implantation, C®Follicular phase,
D®Menstruation phase, E®Luteal phase
(c) A®Estrogen, B®Parturition, C®Luteal phase,
D®Follicular phase, E®Follicular phase
(d) A®Progesterone, B®Fertilization, C®
Menstruation phase, D®Secretory phase, E®
Follicular phase
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Reproduction 221
94. In the given figure the structure of ovum is surrounded
by few sperms and some art are labelled as A, B, C and D.
Which of the following options shows the correct
labelling?
(a) A®Zona pellucida, B®Ovum , C®Cells of corona
radiata, D®Perivitelline space
(b) A®Perivitelline space, B®Antrum, C®Zona
pellucida D®Ovum
(c) A®Zona pellucida, B®Ootid, C®Cells of corona
radiata D®Perivitelline space
(d) A®Cells of corona radiata, B®Morula, C®
Perivitelline space D®Zona pellucida
95. Which of the following human developmental stage
becomes embedded in the uterine endometrium by a
process called implantation and leads to pregnancy?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
96. The given figure shows the human foetus within the
uterus with few structures marked as A, B, C and D.
B
C
D
A
Which of the following options shows the correct
labeling?
(a) A®Umbilical cord with its veins, B® Chorionic villi,
C®Antrum, D®Plug of mucus in cervix
(b) A®Umbilical cord with its vessels, B®Fimbriae,
C® Oocyte, D®Plug of mucus in vagina
(c) A®Umbilical cord with its vessels, B®Placental villi
C®Yolk sac, D®Plug of mucus in cervix
(d) A®Umbilical cord with its veins, B®Placental villi
C®Trophoblast, D®Plug of mucus in vagina
97. Study the given figure and conclude the correct
explaination from the options given below:
(a) All the sperm attaches with ovum.
(b) Transport of sperm towards the ovum.
(c) Ovum and surrounded sperms were going to take
part in fertilization.
(d) Sperm induces changes in the cells of corona radiata
and blocks the entry of other additional sperms.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
222 Biology
98. Identify the structure marked as “X” and its function in
the given figure of male reproductive system.
X
(a) Rete testis: It helps seminiferous tubule to open into
vas efferentia.
(b) Bulbourethral gland: It secretes alkaline mucus for
lubricating the reproductive tract.
(c) Vas efferentia: They have contractile mechanism that
aids in the emission of seminal fluid.
(d) Seminal vesicle: It synthesizes and secrete testicular
hormone.
99. The given figure shows the diagrammatic sectional view
of female reproductive system with few structures marked
as A, B, C, and D.
Select the option which shows the correct identification
of the structure with its characteristics.
A
B
C
D
(a) A: Infundibulum, funnel shaped structure
surrounded by finger like projection.
(b) B: Ampulla, wider part of oviduct where fertilization
occurs.
(c) C: Isthmus, it has a narrow lumen and joins with
uterus.
(d) D: Fimbriae, it collects ovum before ovulation.
100. “X” is a hormone which is secreted under the influence
of GnRH. Identify “X” and the correct marked structures
(A to D) from the figure given below on which “X” acts
to stimulate secretion of some factors to help in
spermiogenesis.
A
B
C
D
(a) “X” - LH, A (b) “X” - GH, B
(c) “X” - ACTH, C (d) “X” - FSH, D
101. Study the given figure and identify the correct event
occuring in this.
(a) Role of pituitary hormones levels.
(b) Events occurring in uterine tissues.
(c) Role of ovarian hormone levels and growth of
ovarian follicles.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
102. The given figure shows the human foetus within the
uterus. Identify the marked label (A to D) through which
placenta is connected to the embryo.
C
B
A
D
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Reproduction 223
103. The given figure represent a stage of embryonic
development. Identify the stage with its feature.
(a) Blastocysts, ready to fertilize with sperm.
(b) Secondary oocyte, implants on endometrial layer of
uterus.
(c) Morula, formed by mitotic division of zygote.
(d) Ovary, produce female gamete and secretes
hormones like estrogen etc
104. In the given figure, which two marked structure (A to D)
is present in the lining of seminiferous tubule?
A
B
C
D
(a) A and D (b) B and D
(c) C and D (d) A and B
105. The given figure shows the structure of sperm whose tail
enables it to swim. Why the sperm does needs to swim?
(a) In order to get the ovum for fertilization.
(b) It helps the foetus to come out of the uterus.
(c) It helps blastocysts to attach in endometnum in the
process of implantation.
(d) It helps the sperm to enter into the cytoplasm of
the ovum through the zona pellucida and plasma
membrane.
106. The given diagram shows a human female's reproductive
system. Select the part (labelled as A, B, C & D) where
semen is released into the female by the penis during
copulation.
C
D
B
A
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
107. The figure given below shows a flowchart on
spermatogenesis. Identify the correct label marked as A,
B, C and D.
A
B
C
D
(a) A: Ist meiotic division; B: 2nd meiotic division; C:
Differentiation; D: 23.
(b) A: 2nd meiotic division; B: Differentiation; C: Ist
meiotic division; D: 46.
(c) A: Differentiation; B: 2nd meiotic division; C: Ist
meiotic division; D: 46.
(d) A: Mitosis differentiation; B: Ist meiotic division;
C: 2ndmeiotic division; D: 23.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
108. The feature of some structures of male reproductive
system is given below. Identify the structure on the
basis of the characteristics which surrounds the primary
sex organ of male reproductive system.
(a) Its enlarged end is called glans penis.
(b) It travels through the penis and carry semen as well
as urine.
(c) It is responsible for maintaining the low temperature
by about 2 – 2.5º C from normal body temperature to
mature sperm.
(d) Stores sperms prior to ejaculation.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
224 Biology
109. Read the following statement and answer the question.
“The urethra originates from a structure (called ‘X’)
and extends through the male external genitalia (called
‘Y’ which helps in introducing semen into the vagina)
to its external opening called urethral meatus.”
Identify X and Y.
(a) X - Urinary bladder ; Y - Penis
(b) X - Vas efferentia ; Y - Penis
(c) X - Ejaculatory duct ; Y - Ureter
(d) X - Bulbourethral gland ; Y - Ureter
110. Which of the following is not a uterine function?
(a) Waste removal for the developing embryo.
(b) Nutritional support of the growing embryo.
(c) Place of fusion of male and female gametes.
(d) Mechanical protection of the developing embryo.
111. Milk secreted from the cells of alveoli of mammary
lobes reaches nipple through lactiferous duct(L),
mammary duct (M), mammary tubule (T) and mammary
ampulla (A) in the following order.
(a) TMAL (b) MTLA
(c) MTAL (d) ATML
112. A gonadotropin hormone, “X” acts on interstitial
cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of “Y”.
Identify X and Y from the given option.
(a) X - LH ; Y - Androgen
(b) X - FSH ; Y - Testosterone
(c) X - TSH ; Y - Progesterone
(d) X - GH ; Y - Estrogen
113. Secretion of which of the following are essential for
maturation and motility of sperm?
(a) Ureter, vas deferens, urinary bladder and prostate.
(b) Seminal vesicle, vas deferens, ejaculatory ducts and
ureter.
(c) Epididymis, seminal vesicle, vas deferens and
prostate.
(d) Epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas efferentia and
seminal vesicle.
114. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of
events leading to the formation of mature sperm?
(a) Spermatogonium ® Secondary spermatocyte ®
Primary spermatocyte ® Spermatids ® Sperms.
(b) Spermatogonium ® Spermatids ® Secondary
spermatocyte ® Primary spermatocyte ® Sperms.
(c) Spermatids ® Primary spermatocyte ® Secondary
spermatocyte ® Spermatogonium ® Sperms.
(d) Spermatogonium ® Primary spermatocyte ®
Secondary spermatocyte ® Spermatids ® Sperms.
115. How many ova are released during the middle of the
menstrual cycle?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
116. Study the given statement and answer the question.
“During ‘P’ phase of the menstrual cycle, if pregnancy
doesn’t happen, the ‘Q’ withers and dies, usually around
day 22 in a 28-day cycle. The drop in ‘R’ levels causes the
lining of the uterus to fall away. This is known as ‘S’.
Identify P, Q, R and S.
(a) P ® Menstrual, Q ® Graafian follicle, R® Estrogen,
S ® Menarche
(b) P ® Luteal, Q ® Corpus luteum, R ® Progesterone
S ® Menstruation
(c) P ® Ovulatory, Q ® Endometrium, R ® Follicle
stimulating hormone, S ® Menopause
(d) P ® Follicular, Q ® Secondary oocyte,
R ® Luteinizing hormone S ®Menstruation
117. Which of the following hormones attains a peak level in
the middle of menstrual cycle?
(a) LH and estrogen
(b) FSH and progesterone
(c) FSH and LH
(d) Estrogen and progesterone
118. Select the correct sequence of menstrual cycle.
(a) Menstruation, Secretory, Follicular, New cycle.
(b) Menstruation, Follicular, Luteal, New cycle.
(c) Follicular, Menstruation, Luteal, New cycle.
(d) Luteal, Menstruation, Follicular, New cycle.
119. Menstrual cycle is controlled by
(a) LH and FSH only
(b) estrogen, LH & FSH only
(c) estrogen & progesterone only
(d) LH, FSH, estrogen & progesterone.
120. Which of the following is the first change that occurs to
the zygote after fertilization?
(a) It divides to form a hollow ball of cells, called the
blastocyst.
(b) It begins to secrete the hormones.
(c) It contacts the endometrial wall of the uterus and
becomes buried inside it.
(d) It initiates the formation of a placenta.
121. Fertilization can only occurs if
(a) sperm reaches to the ampullary – isthmic junction
before the ovum.
(b) ovum reaches to the ampullary – isthmic junction
before the sperm.
(c) sperms are transported to the uterus and ovum to
the fallopian tube simultaneously.
(d) sperm and ovum are transported simultaneously to
the ampullary – isthmic junction.
122. Which of the following does not occur in the time
during and immediately following fertilization?
(a) Fusion of the sperm and ovum nuclei.
(b) Division of the oocyte cell by meiosis
(c) Implantation of the ovum in the uterus.
(d) Digestion of cell layers around the oocyte by sperm.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Reproduction 225
123. The acrosome enables the sperm to
(a) help in motility.
(b) produce energy for activity.
(c) penetrate vitelline membrane of ovum.
(d) fertilize more than one ovum.
124. At the time of fertilization, chromosome number
(a) is halved (b) remains haploid
(c) becomes diploid (d) does not change
125. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
(a) placenta only.
(b) fully developed foetus and placenta.
(c) release of oxytocin from pituitary gland.
(d) release of full developed corpus luteum.
126. Study the statement given below and answer the question.
“Vigorous contraction of the ‘X’ at the end of the ‘Y’
causes expulsion of the foetus.” Identify X and Y.
(a) X -Vagina ; Y - Fertilization
(b) X - Uterus ; Y - Pregnancy
(c) X - Placenta ; Y - Implantation
(d) X - Embryo ; Y - Ovulation
127. Each spermatogonium which is diploid contains how
many chromosomes?
(a) 23 (b) 26
(c) 46 (d) 48
128. Which of the following group of cells involved in
spermatogenesis represent haploid cells?
(a) Spermatogonium
(b) Primary spermatocyte
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Secondary spermatocyte
129. After the transformation of spermatids into sperm,
their heads become embedded in a cell called “X” and
are finally released from the “Y” by the process called
“Z”. Identify X, Y and Z.
X Y Z
(a) Spermatogonium Epididymis Insemination
(b) Leydig Vas deferens Parturition
(c) Sertoli Seminiferous
tubule Spermiation
(d) Spermatocyte Seminiferous
tubule Spermiogenesis
130. Select the option which shows the correct part of a
sperm with its corresponding function.
(a) Head: Stimulate Leydig cell to produce androgen
hormone.
(b) Neck: Essential for maturation and motility of sperm.
(c) Middle piece: Produces energy from mitochondria
for tail movement which facilitate sperm motility.
(d) Tail: Help in fertilization with the help of enzyme
present in acrosome.
131. “A” cells start division and enter in “B” stage of meiotic
division and get temporarily “C” at this stage, called “D”.
Identify A, B, C and D.
(a) A: Oogonia; B: Metaphase I; C: Arrested; D: Primary
oocyte.
(b) A: Oogonia; B: Anaphase I; C: Released; D:
Secondary oocyte.
(c) A: Oogonia; B: Prophase I; C: Arrested; D: Primary
oocyte.
(d) A: Oogonia; B: Telophase I; C: Released; D:
Secondary oocyte.
132. What happens during fertilization in humans after many
sperms reach close to the ovum?
(a) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one
(b) Only the closest sperm to the ovum penetrates the
zona pellucida.
(c) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter
cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida and
plasma membrane.
(d) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose
their tails.
133. Study the following statements and answer the question.
In a process called ‘A’, ‘B’ division starts as the zygote
moves through the ‘C’ of the ‘D’ towards the ‘E’.
Identify A, B, C, D and E.
(a) A®Blastulation, B®Meiotic, C®Ampulla ,
D®Fallopian tube, E®Uterus
(b) A®Parturition, B®Meiotic, C®Infundibulum,
D®Uterus, E®Vagina
(c) A®Implantation, B®Mitotic, C®Fimbriae, D®
Ovary E®Cervix
(d) A®Cleavage, B® Mitotic, C®Isthmus, D®
Oviduct E®Uterus
134. What will happen to pregnancy if placenta fails to
function during the gestation?
(a) The pregnancy would not continue.
(b) The foetus would be born prematurely.
(c) There would be no effect on the pregnancy.
(d) The corpus luteum would continue produce hormone
as an alternative source until birth.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. According to which of the following organization
"reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects
of reproduction"?
(a) WHL (b) UNESCO
(c) WHO (d) WWW
2. Which one amongst the following is the first country in
the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a
national level to attain total reproductive health as social
goal?
(a) China (b) India
(c) Japan (d) USA
3. The family planning programmes in India were initiated in
(a) 1951 (b) 1961
(c) 1971 (d) 1981
4. RCH stands for
(a) Routine Check-up of Health
(b) Reproduction Cum Hygiene
(c) Reversible Contraceptive Hazards
(d) Reproductive and Child Health Care
5. The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for the
detection of prenatal disorder is called as
(a) leproscopy (b) amniocentesis
(c) endoscopy (d) ultrasound
6. ‘Saheli’ a new oral contraceptive developed by
(a) All Indian Institute of Medical Science
(b) Central Drug Research Institute
(c) Health Care Pvt. Ltd.
(d) Bharat Immunologicals & Biologicals corp. Ltd.
7. What is the marriageable age for the females and males
respectively in India?
(a) 18, 18 (b) 18, 25
(c) 21, 18 (d) 18, 21
8. Which of the following is traditional method of
contraception?
(a) Implantation
(b) Lactational amenorrhoea
(c) Condoms
(d) Sterilization
9. Which of the following contraceptive also provides
protection from contacting STDs and AIDS ?
(a) Diaphragms
(b) Spermicidal foams
(c) Condoms
(d) Lactational amenorrhoea
10. The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are
(a) disposable contraceptive devices
(b) Reusable contraceptives
(c) Non-medicated IUDs
(d) Cu-releasing IUDs
11. Which of the following groups of contraceptives are
included under barrier methods?
(a) Condom, Vaults, IUDs, Cervical caps
(b) IUDs, Diaphragm, Abstinence, Injections
(c) Condom, Diaphragm, Cervical caps, Vaults
(d) Surgical methods, Oral contraceptives, Cervical caps,
vaults
12. IUDs stands for
(a) Intra Uterine Devices
(b) Internal Uterine Devices
(c) Inseminated Uterine Devices
(d) Injected Uterine Devices
13. Which of the following ions plays an effective role in the
activity of IUDs?
(a) Iron (b) Zinc
(c) Copper (d) Ammonium
14. Which of the following contraceptives is one of the most
widely accepted method of contraception in India?
(a) Sterilization
(b) Intra Uterine device
(c) Withdrawal or coitus interruption
(d) Medical termination of pregnancy Chapter 26 Ôgòtqæwevkøg Jgãnvj
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Reproductive Health 227
15. Progestasert and LNG-20 are
(a) implants
(b) copper releasing IUDs
(c) non-medicated IUDs
(d) hormone releasing IUDs
16. The most important component of the oral contraceptive
pills is
(a) progesterone (b) growth hormone
(c) thyroxine (d) luteinizing hormone
17. Tying up or removing a small part of fallopian duct is
called
(a) vasectomy (b) ductus arteriosus
(c) archidectomy (d) tubectomy
18. In which year, MTP was legalised in India?
(a) 1971 (b) 1951
(c) 1981 (d) 1923
19. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the ______
weeks of pregnancy.
(a) 12 (b) 15
(c) 18 (d) 20
20. STD/VD/UTI are
(a) devices which are used to delay the pregnancy.
(b) infections which are caused by food contamination.
(c) diseases which are transmitted through sexual
intercourse.
(d) action plans and programmes to create awareness
about various reproductive related health and
problems.
21. Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(a) blood transfusion
(b) intimate physical contact
(c) Sexual contact
(d) All of these
22. World AIDS day is
(a) December 21 (b) December 1
(c) November 1 (d) June 11
23. To form embryo in vitro, the male gamete is transferred
into female gamete directly. Such technique is
called_________.
(a) IUI (b) IUT
(c) ICSI (d) GIFT
24. The transfer of zygote or early embryo (up to 8
blastomeres) into fallopian tube is called _________.
(a) IVF and ET (b) ZIFT
(c) GIFT (d) IUT
25. The Test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of
the following techniques?
(a) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
(b) Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)
(c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
(d) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)
26. Artificial insemination mean
(a) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube
containing ova.
(b) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor
into the vagina.
(c) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly
into the ovary.
(d) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube
containing ova.
27. The technique called gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
is recommended for those females
(a) who cannot produce an ovum.
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus.
(c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage
for the sperms.
(d) who cannot provide suitable environment for
fertilization.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
28. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) According to 2001 census our population growth
rate was 1.7%.
(b) Marriageable age for male and female is respectively
18 and 21 years.
(c) An ideal contraceptive should be reversible.
(d) The problem of infertility in India lies most often in
female partner.
29. Which of the following statement regarding natural
methods of contraception is true?
(a) They increase phagocytosis of sperms.
(b) They employ barriers to prevent fertilization.
(c) They are the natural ways of avoiding chances of
fertilization.
(d) They are surgical and terminal methods.
30. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)?
(a) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD are
very little.
(b) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with
the one who is already suffering from the same
disease.
(c) Haemophilia is one of the STD.
(d) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD.
31. Read the following statements and mark the correct option
(i) MTP was legalized in 1971.
(ii) Inability to conceive or produce children even after
2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called
infertility.
(iii) Surgical method of contraception prevents gamete
formation.
(iv) MTPs are relatively safe up to 14 weeks of pregnancy.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
228 Biology
32. Choose the correct statements given below regarding
contraception.
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first
trimester is generally safe.
(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother
breast-feeds the infant upto two years.
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective
contraceptives.
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after
coitus to prevent conception.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
33. What is true for an ideal contraceptive ?
(i) It should be user-friendly.
(ii) It should be easily available.
(iii) It should be ineffective and reversible with least side
effects.
(iv) It should be effective and reversible with least side
effects.
(v) It should interfere with the sexual act of the user.
(a) All of these (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i),(ii), (iv) and (v)
34. Which of the following statement are correct?
(i) Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg formation.
(ii) The most important component of the oral
contraceptive pills is progesterone.
(iii) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by
preventing ovulation.
(iv) Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease caused
by herpes virus.
(v) In India, there is rapid decline in infant mortality rate
and maternal mortality rate.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (iv), (v) and (vi)
35. Choose the correct statements –
(i) According to the WHO, reproductive health is total
well-being in the physical, social, emotional,
behavioural aspects of reproduction.
(ii) According to the WHO, reproductive health is total
well being in the physical, social and emotional
aspects of reproduction.
(iii) A reproductively healthy society has people with
physically and functionally normal reproductive
organs.
(iv) Reproductively healthy societies have abnormal sexrelated emotional and behavioural interactions.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) only
36. Reproductive health in society can be improved by
(i) Introduction of sex education in schools.
(ii) Increased medical assistance.
(iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs.
(iv) Equal opportunities to male and female child.
(v) Ban on aminocentesis.
(vi) Encouraging myths and misconceptions.
(a) All of these (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (ii) and (v)
37. Identify the incorrect statements and select the correct
option.
(i) Birth control pills are likely to cause cardiovascular
problems.
(ii) A woman who substitutes or takes the place of the
real mother to nurse the embryo is called surrogate
mother
(iii) Numerous children have been produced by in vitro
fertilization but with some abnormalities.
(iv) Woman plays a key role in the continuity of the family
and human species
(v) Foetal sex determination test should not be banned.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (v) (d) None of these
38. Which of the following are the reasons for population
explosion?
(i) Increased health facilities
(ii) Rapid increase in MMR
(iii) Rapid increase in IMR
(iv) Rapid decrease in MMR
(v) Decrease in number of people reaching reproducible
age
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (v)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (v)
39. To avoid transmission of STDs, we should
(i) Avoid sex with multiple partners.
(ii) Always have unprotected sex.
(iii) Use condoms during coitus.
(iv) Avoid sex with unknown partners.
(v) Avoid sharing of needles.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
40. Identify the incorrect statement regarding ZIFT.
(a) ZIFT is zygote intra fallopian transfer.
(b) It is one of the techniques known as assisted
reproductive technologies.
(c) Through this process embryo is formed by injecting
ovum into the sperm.
(d) Zygote or embryo up to 8 blastomeres is collected
and transferred into the fallopian tube.
41. Which of the following statements regarding IUDs is
correct?
(a) It suppresses the process of gametogenesis.
(b) They once inserted need not be replaced.
(c) They are generally inserted by the user itself.
(d) It increases phagocytosis of sperms within the
uterus.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Reproductive Health 229
42. Select the correct statements regarding diaphragm as
contraceptive device from the given options.
(i) They act as physical barrier for sperm entry.
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region during
coitus.
(iii) They are introduced into the uterus to prevent
implantation.
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents to increase their
contraceptive effectiveness
(a) (i), (ii) only (b) (i), (iv) only
(c) (ii), (iii) only (d) (iii), (iv) only
43. Identify the correct function(s) of pills
(i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation.
(ii) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or
retard the entry of sperms.
(iii) Prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the female
vagina.
(iv) Inhibit spermatogenesis.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
44. Select the correct statements regarding MTP from the
given options.
(i) Always surgical.
(ii) Used as a contraceptive method.
(iii) Generally suggested during first trimester.
(a) (i) only (b) (i), (ii) only
(c) (i), (iii) only (d) All of these.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
45. Assertion : Mother would be blamed for the birth of the
girls in the family.
Reason : Father is not responsible for the sex of the child.
46. Assertion : Amniocentesis is often misused.
Reason : Amniocentesis is meant for determining the
genetic disorders in the foetus, but it is being used to
determine the sex of the foetus, to kill the normal female
foetus.
47. Assertion : Over-population has become a serious
problem in the developing countries.
Reason : It does not exhaust natural resources, causes
unemployment and pollution.
48. Assertion : Cu-T and Cu-7 do not suppresses spermmotility.
Reason : Hormones released by them affect sperm motility.
49. Assertion : Copper-T is an effective contraceptive device
in human females.
Reason: Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from
vagina upwards into Fallopian tubes.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
50. Given below are four methods (A-D) of contraceptive in
column-I and their modes of action in achieving
contraception in column-II. Match the columns and select
the correct option :
Column -1 Column -II
(Method) (Mode of Action)
A. The contraceptive I. Prevents sperms
pill reaching cervix
B. Condom II. Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy III. Prevents ovulation
D. Copper T IV. Semen contains no
sperms
(a) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
51. Column I contains different types of IUD’s with their
examples given in column II. Match the column and choose
the correct option
Column-I Column-II
A. Non-medicated IUDs I. Lippes loop
B. Hormone releasing IUDs II. Multiload 375
C. Copper releasing IUDs III. CuT
IV. Cu7
V. LNG - 20
VI. Progestasert
(a) A – I; B – II; VI; C – III; IV; V
(b) A – I; B – V; VI; C – II; III; IV
(c) A – II; B – III; VI; C – I; V; IV
(d) A – II; B – I; VI; C – III; IV; V
52. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct
option
Column-I Column-II
(A) Hepatitis B I. Vitamin E
(B) Saheli II. 7’April, 1948
(C) Normal functioning III. CDRI, Lucknow
of reproductive organs
(D) World Health IV. Detection of antibody/
organisation antigen
(E) ELISA technique V. Hepatitis B virus
(a) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – II; E – IV
(b) A – V; B – II; C – I; D – III; E – IV
(c) A – V; B – III; C – IV; D – II; E – I
(d) A – V; B – II; C – IV; D – III; E – I
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
230 Biology
53. Select the correct match of the techniques given in column
I with its feature given in column II.
Column I Column II
A. ICSI I Artificially introduction of semen into the
vagina or uterus.
B. IUI II Transfer of ovum collected from a donor
into the fallopian tube where fertilization
C. IUT occur III Formation of embryo by directly injecting
sperm into the ovum
D. GIFT IV Transfer of the zygote or early embryo
(with upto 8 blastomeres) into a fallopian
E. ZIFT V Transfer of embryo with more than 8 tube.
blastomeres into the uterus
(a) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III; E – IV
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(c) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I
(d) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV
54. Select the correct match from the given option.
(a) Non Medicated IUDs - Multiload 375
(b) Saheli - Contains a non - steroidal preparation
(c) Lactational amenorrhea - Presence of menstruation
(d) Diaphragms, cervical caps, vaults - Cover the cervix
after the coitus is done
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
55. The process done in the given figure
(a) Prevents egg from reaching the uterus for
implantation.
(b) Avoid insemination
(c) Inhibits ovulation
(d) Increases contraceptive efficiency
56. The given diagram shows the uterine tubes of four women
(P, Q, R and S).
In which two women is fertilization impossible at present ?
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R
(c) R and S (d) S and P
57. Identify the figure given below.
(a) Male condom (b) Female condom
(c) Norplant (d) Copper T
58. Which of the following option is correct regarding the
diagram given below?
(a) It is a device made of rubber and inserted into the
female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during
coitus.
(b) It is a device made of thin rubber/ latex sheath and
are used to cover penis in the male.
(c) This device is inserted by doctors in the uterus
through vagina and increases phagocytosis of
sperms within the uterus.
(d) It is a set of 6-small plastic capsules (called implant)
which are placed under the skin of a women’s upper
arm and it prevent pregnancy.
59. In the given figure which marked number (1, 2, 3, 4) is tied
and cut to block fertilization
1
3
4
2
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
60. Refer the given figure below and answer the question.
Which feature is correctly associated with the given
figure?
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Reproductive Health 231
(a) It is a male condom which is used to cover the penis
just before the coitus to prevent the entry of
ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract.
(b) It is a female condom which is used to cover the
cervix and vagina just before the coitus.
(c) It is a condom which is used to cover penis in male
and vagina and cervix in female.
(d) It is one type of IUDs which makes the uterus
unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to the
sperms.
61. The given figure shows one of the elements releasing
intrauterine device. Select the option which shows the
correct identification of the device and its feature.
(a) CuT; suppress sperm motility and its fertilizing
capacity.
(b) Cu7; make uterus unsuitable for the attachment of
blastocysts.
(c) Lippes loop; protect the users from contracting AIDS
and STDs.
(d) LNG - 20; acts as spermicidal means and decrease
the contraceptive efficiency.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
62. On which days of the menstrual cycle is ovulation
expected?
(a) 10th - 30th (b) 1st - 10th
(c) 10th - 17th (d) 18th - 25th
63. Refer the following statement and answer the question.
"Inability of an individual to inseminate the female or due
to very low sperm counts in ejaculates leads to "A". It
could be corrected by "B". In "B" the "C" is collected and
artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the
"D" (IUI - intra-uterine insemination) of the female."
Identify A to D.
A B C D
a. STD Embryo transfer Urine Fallopian tube
b. MTP GIFT Ovum Uterus
c. Infertility Artificial technique Semen Uterus
d. Infertility ZIFT Sperm Fallopian tube
64. Which of the following disease is completely curable if
detected early and treated properly?
(a) Syphilis (b) Hepatitis B
(c) Genital herpes (d) HIV infection
65. Present increase in India’s population has not been due
to decline in
(a) decrease in infant mortality rate
(b) decrease number of people reaching reproductive
age
(c) decline in death rate
(d) decline in maternal mortality rate
66. The copper ions of IUDs
(a) suppress the motility and fertilization capacity of
sperms.
(b) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(c) increase phagocytosis of sperms.
(d) make cervix hostile to sperms.
67. Progestogens in the contraceptive pill
(a) prevents ovulation
(b) inhibits estrogen
(c) checks attachment of zygote endometrium
(d) All of the above
68. Which of the following birth control measures can be
considered as the safest?
(a) The rhythm method
(b) The use of physical barriers
(c) Temination of unwanted pregnancy
(d) Sterilization techniques
69. The success of birth control programmes in controlling
population growth is dependent on
(a) use of contraceptives
(b) tubectomy
(c) vasectomy
(d) acceptability of the above by the people
70. Assisted reproductive technologies (ART)
(a) include social awareness programmes to educate
people about reproductive health and diseases.
(b) include research organization working on to produce
new and more effective contraceptives for birth
control.
(c) include a number of special techniques which assist
infertile couples to have children.
(d) both (b) and (c)
71. Which of the following STDs are not completely curable?
(a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
(b) Chancroid, syphilis, genital warts
(c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
72. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive
due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins.
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins.
(c) supression of gametic transport.
(d) supression of fertilization.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
232 Biology
73. The best way to control population of a country is
(a) to educate people.
(b) to have better houses.
(c) to kill people on a large scale.
(d) to practice and implement family planning.
74. Which of the following is correct regarding the
consequences of over population?
(a) It increase the poverty of a country.
(b) It leads to shortage of food supply.
(c) It results in unemployment.
(d) All of the above.
75. An individual undergoes sterilization process in which a
small incision was done on “X” and a part of vas deferens
is removed or tied up.
Identify “X” and the intervention of this surgical process.
(a) “X” - Fallopian tube; Prevent ovulation and
implantation.
(b) “X” - Testes; Prevent conception by blocking sperm
entry.
(c) “X” - Epididymis; Inhibit maturation of sperm and
its transport.
(d) “X” - Scrotum; Gamete transport is blocked and
thereby prevents conception.
76. It is a disease which mainly affects mucous membrane of
urinogenital tract, In males burning feeling on passing
urine after a yellow discharge occurs that is accompanied
by fever headache and feeling of illness its name is
(a) Phenylketonuria (b) Gonorrhoea
(c) AIDS (d) None of these
77. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
(a) 72 hours of coitus
(b) 72 hours of ovulation
(c) 72 hours of menstruation
(d) 72 hours of implantation
78. Identify the type of most popular contraceptive device
whose features are given below.
(i) They do not interfere the act of coitus.
(ii) These are effective barriers for insemination.
(iii) These help in reducing the risk of sexually transmitted
diseases.
(a) IUD (b) Condom
(c) Injectable (d) Oral contraceptives
79. Study the given reasons on the basis of which pregnancy
can be terminated. Identify the correct reasons.
(i) To get rid of unwanted pregnancies.
(ii) To prevent the fatality or harmfulness to the mother
or to foetus or both due to the continuation of
pregnancy.
(iii) Termination of pregnancy is safe in each and every
case.
(iv) If the foetus is male.
(v) It plays an important role in decreasing the
population.
(a) (i), (ii), only (b) (ii), (iii) only
(c) (iii), (iv), (v) only (d) All of these
80. Given below are some examples of sexually transmitted
diseases. Identify the one or more which specifically affect
the sex organs.
(i) AIDS ((i) Syphilis
(iii) Gonorrhea (iv) Genital warts
(a) (i) only (b) (i), (ii) only
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv) only (d) All of these.
81. Which of the following principle will not help people to
become free from the infection of sexually transmitted
diseases?
(i) Always use condoms in the course of coitus.
(ii) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners
(iii) Refer any one in case of doubt for early detection
and diagnose of disease and get complete treatment.
(iv) In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early
detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed
with disease.
(v) Involvement in sex with known partners/single
partners
(a) (i), (iv) only (b) (i), (ii), (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) only (d) All of these.
82. Which of the following infections can also be transmitted
by sharing of injection needles, surgical instruments, etc.,
with infected persons, transfusion of blood, or from an
infected mother to the foetus too?
(a) Hepatitis B and HIV
(b) Genital herpes and HIV
(c) Syphilis and Hepatitis B
(d) Chlamydiasis and Trichomoniasis
83. Identify the correct reasons of infertility.
(i) Drugs
(ii) Diseases
(iii) Congenital
(iv) Use of Contraceptives
(v) Immunological or psychological
(vi) Assisted reproductive technology
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (iii), (iv), (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) (d) All of these
84. Which of the following assisted reproductive technology
has been used for the longest time period?
(a) In vitro fertilization
(b) Artificial insemination
(c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(d) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
85. Amniocentesis is a technique used to
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
(b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
(c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in
embryo
(d) All of these
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Mendel’s last law is
(a) segregation
(b) dominance
(c) independent assortment
(d) polygenic inheritance
2. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are
called
(a) multiple alleles (b) alleles
(c) alloloci (d) paramorphs
3. The ratio of phenotypes in F2
of a monohybrid cross is
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
4. Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf
pea plants in same proportions?
(a) TT × tt (b) Tt × tt
(c) TT × Tt (d) tt × tt
5. A pure tall pea was crossed with a pure dwarf pea. All the
plants of F1
were found to be tall. This is due to
(a) law of dominance.
(b) disappearance of factor for dwarfness in F1
generation.
(c) segregation of factors.
(d) co-ordination.
6. The F2
generation of a cross produced identical
phenotypic and genotypic ratio. It is not an expected
Mendelian result, and can be attributed to
(a) independent assortment
(b) linkage
(c) incomplete dominance
(d) none of the above
7. The monohybrid genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1 in F2
generation
indicates
(a) segregation
(b) independent assortment
(c) dominance
(d) incomplete dominance
8. Mendel selected pea as material for his experiments
because
(a) it is an annual plant with comparatively short life
cycle.
(b) the flowers are self-pollinated.
(c) the number of seeds produced is quite large.
(d) all of the above.
9. Which of the following crosses would produce a
genotypic ratio of 1 : 2 : 1 in F2 ?
(a) AB × AB (b) Ab × ab
(c) Ab × Ab (d) ab × ab
10. Punnett square is used to know the
(a) outcome of a cross
(b) probable result of a cross
(c) types of gametes
(d) result of meiosis
11. The crossing of F1
to homozygous recessive parent is
called
(a) back cross (b) test cross
(c) F1
cross (d) all of these
12. The test cross is used to determine the
(a) genotype of the plant
(b) phenotype of the plant
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
13. ABO blood group system is due to
(a) multifactor inheritance
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) multiple allelism
(d) epistasis
14. In humans, the dominance relationship between the A
and B alleles of the ABO blood group gene is an example
of
(a) complete dominance
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) codominance
(d) epistasis
Chapter 27 Rtkpekòngõ qh Ëpjgtkvãpeg
& Xãtkãvkqp
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
234 Biology
15. The distance between the genes is measured by
(a) angstrom (b) map unit
(c) Dobson unit (d) millimetre
16. Linkage reduces the frequency of
(a) hybrids.
(b) all parental types.
(c) homozygous recessive parents.
(d) heterozygous recessive parents.
17. Distance between the genes and percentage of
recombination shows
(a) a direct relationship
(b) an inverse relationship
(c) a parallel relationship
(d) no relationship
18. HbA and HbS
alleles of normal and sickle celled RBC are
(a) dominant-recessive alleles.
(b) polygenic alleles.
(c) codominant alleles.
(d) multiple alleles.
19. Sex is determined in human beings
(a) by ovum.
(b) at time of fertilization.
(c) 40 days after fertilization.
(d) seventh to eight week when genitals differentiate in
foetus.
20. The ‘X’ body of Henking was observed in
(a) all sperms during spermatogenesis.
(b) all eggs during oogenesis.
(c) half of the sperms during spermatogenesis.
(d) half of the eggs during oogenesis.
21. In a dihybrid cross, F2
phenotypic ratio is 13 : 3. It is case of
(a) complementary genes
(b) epistatic genes
(c) multigenic inheritance
(d) incomplete dominance
22. In sickle-cell anaemia, shape of RBCs under oxygen
tension becomes
(a) biconcave disc like (b) elongated and curved
(c) circular (d) spherical
23. Sickle cell anaemia is
(a) caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in
the beta globin chain of haemoglobin.
(b) caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA.
(c ) characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a
nucleus.
(d) an autosomal linked dominant trait.
24. Sickel-cell anaemia is an example of
(a) sex-linked inheritance.
(b) deficiency disease.
(c) autosomal heritable disease.
(d) infectious disease.
25. It is well known that Queen Victoria of England was a
carrier for haemophilia. Since this is an X-linked disease,
it can be predicted that
(a) all of her sons would have had disease.
(b) all her daugthers would have been carriers.
(c) her father must definitely have had haemophilia.
(d) haemophilia would have occurred in more of her male
than her female descendents.
26. The number of phenotypes in ABO blood groups is
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
27. Extra chromosome ‘X’ is present in which one of the
following cases?
(a) Down syndrome (b) Klinefelter syndrome
(c) Turner syndrome (d) Bleeder’s disease
28. The person with Turner’s syndrome has
(a) 45 autosomes and X sex chromosome
(b) 44 autosomes and XYY sex chromosomes
(c) 45 autosomes and XYY sex chromosomes
(d) 44 autosomes and X sex chromosome
29. Mental retardation in man associated with sex
chromosomal abnormality is usually due to
(a) increase in size of X-chromosome.
(b) increase in size of Y-chromosome.
(c) increase in number of Y-chromosome.
(d) increase in number of X-chromosome.
30. Three children in a family have blood types O, AB and B
respectively. What are the genotypes of their parents?
(a) IA i and IBi (b) IAI
B and i i
(c) IBI
B and IAI
A (d) IAI
A and IBi
31. A character which is expressed in a hybrid is called
(a) dominant (b) recessive
(c) co-dominant (d) epistatic
32. Mutations can be induced with
(a) infrared radiations (b) I AA
(c) ethylene (d) gamma radiations
33. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which
the F1
generation resembles both the parents?
(a) Law of dominance
(b) Inheritance of one gene
(c) Co-dominance
(d) Incomplete dominance
34. In XO type of sex determination
(a) females produce two different types of gametes.
(b) males produce two different types of gametes.
(c) females produce gametes with Y chromosomes.
(d) males produce single type of gametes.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Principles of Inheritance & Variation 235
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
35. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the
basis of Mendel’s law of dominance?
(a) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is
called a factor.
(b) Out of one pair of factors’ one is dominant and the
other is recessive.
(c) Alleles do not show any blending and both the
characters recover as such in F2
generation.
(d) Factors occur in pairs.
36. Select the correct statement from the ones given below
with respect to dihybrid cross.
(a) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show
higher recombinations.
(b) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very
few recombinations.
(c) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show
similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones.
(d) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show
very few recombinations.
37. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes
the manner of determining the sex in the given example?
(a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine
female sex in birds.
(b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in
grasshopper.
(c) XO condition in human as found in Turner’s
syndrome, determines female sex.
(d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male
in Drosophila.
38. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement
regarding mutations?
(a) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frameshift mutations.
(b) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal
aberrations.
(c) UV and gamma rays are mutagens.
(d) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause
mutation.
39. Which of the following statement is not correct of two
genes that show 50% recombination frequency?
(a) The genes are tightly linked.
(b) The genes show independent assortment.
(c) If the genes are present on the same chromosome,
they undergo more than one crossovers in every
meiosis.
(d) The genes may be on different chromosomes.
40. Refer the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) Percentage of homozygous dominant individuals
obtained by selfing Aa individuals is 25%.
(ii) Types of genetically different gametes produced by
genotype AABbcc are 2.
(iii) Phenotypic ratio of monohybrid F2
progeny in case
Mirabilis jalapa is 3 : 1.
(a) All the statements are true.
(b) Statements (i) and (ii) are true, but statement (iii) is
false.
(c) Statements (i) and (iii) are true, but statement (ii) is
false.
(d) Statements (ii) and (iii) are true, but statement (i) is
false.
41. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW-ZZ type
of sex determination?
(a) It occcurs in birds and some reptiles
(b) Females are homogametic and males are
heterogametic
(c) 1 : 1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings
(d) All of these
42. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) In male grasshoppers, 50% of the sperms have no
sex chromosome.
(b) Usually female birds produce two types of gametes
based on sex chromosomes.
(c) The human males have one of their sex chromosomes
much shorter than the other.
(d) In domesticated fowls, the sex of the progeny
depends on the type of sperm that fertilizes the egg.
43. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
(ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
(iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal dominant gene
disorder.
(iv) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene
disorder.
(v) Sickle-cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene
disorder.
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
44. Choose the correct statements given below regarding
Mendelian inheritance.
(i) Mendel’s experiments had small sample size which
gave greater credibility to the data.
(ii) A true breeding line shows a stable trait inheritance
and expression for several generations.
(iii) In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair
dominates over the other.
(iv) A recessive parental trait is expressed only in its
heterozygous condition.
(v) Two alleles of a gene are located on homologous
sites on homologous.
(a) (ii) only (b) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (iii) and (v) (d) (i) and (v)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
236 Biology
45. Which of the following statements are the correct?
(i) Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell
division results in aneuploidy.
(ii) Chromosomal disorders are mainly determined by
alteration or mutation in a single gene.
(iii) Thalasemia and cystic fibrosis are Mendelian
disorders.
(iv) Sickle cell anemia is an X-linked trait.
(v) Haemophilia is an autosome linked recessive disease.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
46. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Incomplete or mosaic inheritance is an example of
pre-Mendelian concept of blending inheritance.
(ii) Test cross is a special type of back cross.
(iii) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed
in cancer cells.
(iv) Thalassaemia is a Mendelian disorder.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) only
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
47. Assertion : The genetic component of an organism is
called genotype.
Reason : Genotype is the type of hereditary properties of
an organism.
48. Assertion : Haemophilia is a recessive sex linked disease.
Reason : Haemophilia occurs due to mutation of a
structural gene on chromosome 15.
49. Assertion : Persons suffering from haemophilia fail to
produce blood clotting factor VIII.
Reason : Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons
are found in very low concentration.
50. Assertion : In humans, the gamete contributed by the
male determines whether the child produced will be male
or female.
Reason : Sex in humans is a polygenic trait depending
upon a cumulative effect of some genes on X-chromosome
and some on Y-chromosome.
51. Assertion : Mendel’s law are able to predict accurately
the pattern of inheritance for a situation in which alleles
show the complete dominance.
Reason : Effect of environment, other alleles did not
explained by the Mendel.
52. Assertion : Test cross is used to determine an unknown
genotype within one breeding generation.
Reason : Test cross is a cross between F1
hybrid and
dominant parent.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
53. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. ABO blood groups I. Dihybrid cross
B. Law of segregation II. Monohybrid cross
C. Law of Independent III. Base pairs substitution
assortment
D. Gene mutation IV. Multiple allelism
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
54. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Turner syndrome I. Trisomy
B. Linkage II. AA + XO
C. Y-chromosome III. Morgan
D. Down's syndrome IV. Testis determining
factor
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
55. Match column-I with column-II and find the correct
answer.
Column -I Column -II
A. Monoploidy I. 2n – 1
B. Monosomy II. 2n + 1
C. Nullisomy III. 2n + 2
D. Trisomy IV. 2n – 2
E. Tetrasomy V. n
VI. 3n
(a) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – II, E – III
(b) A – V, B – II, C – IV, D – I, E – III
(c) A – VI, B – V, C – III, D – IV, E – II
(d) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – VI, E – V
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Principles of Inheritance & Variation 237
56. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column -I Column -II
A. Incomplete dominance I. Drosophila
B. Mendelian disorder II. Antirrhinum sp.
C. Transforming principle III. Griffith
D. Dihybrid cross IV. Haemophilia
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(b) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
57. Match column-I with their name given in column-II and
choose the correct answer.
Column -I Column -II
A. Alfred Sturtevant I. Mapped position of
genes
B. Henking II. X-body
C. Meischer III. Nuclein
D. Morgan IV. Dihybrid crosses in
Drosophila
(a) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(d) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
58. Match the symbols used in human pedigree analysis
(given in column-I) with their name (given in column-II)
and choose the correct option.
Column -I Column -II
A. I. Consanguineous mating
B. II. Normal female
C. III. Mating
D. IV. Affected female
E. V. Parents with male child
affected with disease
VI. Sex unspecified
(a) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – V, E – IV
(b) A – II, B – I, C – VI, D – III, E – IV
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – V, E – II
(d) A – III, B – I, C – VI, D – V, E – IV
59. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Autosomal I. Down’s syndrome
recessive trait
B. Sex-linked II. Phenylketonuria
recessive trait
C. Metabolic error III. Haemophilia
linked to autosomal
recessive
D. Additional 21st IV. Sickle cell anaemia
chromosome
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
60. Match column-I (Definition) with column-II (Terms) and
select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(Definition) (Terms)
A. A single trait I. Pleiotropy
controlled by
three or more than
three alleles
B. A single trait II. Multiple alleles
controlled by
three or more than
three genes
C. A single gene III. Polygenic inheritance
exhibits multiple
phenotypic
expression
(a) A – II; B – III; C – I (b) A – III; B – II; C – I
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III (d) A – II; B – I; C – III
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
61. Study the pedigree chart given below and choose its
correct representation.
(a) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as
an autosomal recessive trait.
(b) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible.
(c) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like
haemophilia.
(d) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism
like phenylketonuria.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
238 Biology
62. Which one of the following symbols and its
representation, used in human pedigree analysis is
correct?
(a) = mating between relatives
(b) = unaffected male
(c) = unaffected female
(d) = male affected
63. The given figure represents the inheritance pattern of a
certain type of traits in humans.
FEMALE
(Mother)
Daughter
MALE
(Father)
Son
Which one of the following conditions could be an
example of this pattern?
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Phenylketonuria
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
64. The given figure is a highly simplified representation of
the human sex chromosomes from a karyotype. The gene
a and b could be of
Gene a
Gene b
(a) colour blindness and body height.
(b) attached ear lobe and Rhesus blood group.
(c) haemophilia and red-green colour blindness.
(d) phenylketonuria and haemophilia.
65. The experiment shown in the given figure has been carried
out by Morgan to show the phenomenon of linkage and
recombination. If in cross I, genes are tightly linked and in
cross II, genes are loosely linked then what will be the
percentage of recombinants produced in cross I and cross
II respectively?
Cross I
Parents
Wild type
Wild type
Yellow
body
Yellow
body
White
eyes
White
eyes
F generation 1
Wild type
Wild type White
body
White
body
Miniature
wings
Miniature
wings
Cross II
(a) 98.7% and 62.8% (b) 1.3% and 37.2%
(c) 37.2 and 1.3% (d) 62.8% and 98.7%
66. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below
and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for
the character.
(a) The female parent is heterozygous.
(b) The parents could not have had a normal daughter
for this character.
(c) The trait under study could not be colourblindness.
(d) The male parent is homozygous dominant.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Principles of Inheritance & Variation 239
67. Identify the type of inheritance shown in the diagram.
(a) dominant X-linked (b) recessive X-linked
(c) dominant Y-linked (d) recessive Y-linked
68. Following is a pedigree for albinism (aa). What is the
probability of II -1 to be a heterozygous ?
1 2 3
I
II
III
(a)
1
3
(b)
1
2
(c)
2
3
(d)
1
4
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
69. In Mendelian dihybrid cross when heterozygous round
yellow are self crossed, round green offsprings are
represented by genotype
(a) RrYy, RrYY, RRYy (b) RrYY, RRyy, rryy
(b) rrYy, rrYY (c) RrYY, Rryy, RRyy
70. A mutation is a
(a) sudden temporary change in an organism’s genetic
material.
(b) change in phenotype followed by a change in
genotype.
(c) change in hereditary material directed by a changing
environment.
(d) change in genotype which may result in a new
expression of a characteristic.
71. Harmful mutations does not get eliminated from gene pool
because
(a) they are recessive and carried by homozygous
individuals.
(b) they are recessive and carried by heterozygous
individuals.
(c) they are formed repeatedly.
(d) they show genetic drift.
72. What is the probability of production of dwarf offsprings
in a cross between two heterozygous tall pea plants?
(a) Zero (b) 50%
(c) 25% (d) 100%
73. In a normal couple, half the sons are haemophilic while
half the daughters are carriers. The gene responsible for
it is located on
(a) X-chromosome of father.
(b) Y-chromosome of father.
(c) one X-chromosome of mother.
(d) both the X-chromosomes of mother.
74. What can be the blood group of offfspring when both
parents have AB blood group?
(a) AB only (b) A, B and AB
(c) A, B, AB and O (d) A and B only
75. According to the law of independent assortment in a
dihybrid cross
(a) there are four genotypes in F2
.
(b) F2
contains 16 phenotypes.
(c) there is a single individual which is homozygous
recessive for both the characters.
(d) it is not possible to forecast the different phenotypes.
76. In case of codominance, the offsprings of F1
generation
have the trait
(a) of either of two parents.
(b) of both the parents.
(c) of none of the parents.
(d) in between the traits of two parents.
77. Inheritance of which of the following traits is shown in
the above given cross?
(a) X-linked dominant trait
(b) X-linked recessive trait
(c) Autosomal recessive trait
(d) Autosomal dominant trait
XY
(Normal man)
X XX
(Carrier woman)
c
XX
(Carrier
daughter)
c
XX
(Normal
daughter)
XY
(Normal
son)
X Y
(Normal
son)
c
78. Regarding ABO blood group, if one parent is homozygous
and other is heterozygous, what are the chances that their
child will have ‘O’ blood group?
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 75% (d) Zero
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
240 Biology
79. Which one of the following correctly represents the
nature of blood in the ABO system of blood groups
pertaining to the presence of antigens and antibodies?
(a) Blood group A –Antibody A and antigen B
(b) Blood group B–Antigen B and antibody A
(c) Blood group AB–Both antibodies A and B
(d) Blood group O–No antigens and no antibodies
80. In Down’s syndrome, karyotyping has shown that the
disorder is associated with trisomy of chromosome
number 21 usually due to
(a) non-disjunction during egg formation.
(b) non-disjunction during sperm cell formation.
(c) addition of extrachromosome during cleavage of
zygote.
(d) non-disjunction during egg cells production and
sperm production.
81. In Drosophila, XXY represents a female but in human it
is an abnormal male. It shows that
(a) Y-chromosome is essential for male sex in human.
(b) Y-chromosome is essential for female sex
determination in Drosophila.
(c) Y-chromosome is not essential for male sex
determination in human.
(d) All of the above
82. A tobacco plant heterozygous for albinism (a recessive
character) is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds are
subsequently germinated. How many seedings would
have the parental genotype?
(a) 1250 (b) 600
(c) 300 (d) 2250
83. Multiple alleles are present
(a) at different loci in the same chromosome.
(b) in different chromosomes.
(c) at the same locus in one type of chromosomes.
(d) None of the above
84. Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of
chromosome number 21. What precentage of offspring
produced by an affected mother and a normal father?
(a) 50% (b) 25%
(c) 100% (d) 75%
85. A monohybrid cross is the one in which
(a) only a single plant is involved for the experiment.
(b) a single pair of contrasting characters is considered
for the genetic results.
(c) a hybrid is crossed to a homozygous.
(d) None of the above
86. The law of segregation of characters postulated by
Mendel can be related to
(a) the presence of two genes for each character in a
somatic cell.
(b) a gamete receiving only one of the two homologous
chromosomes during meiosis.
(c) presence of both genes on the same chromosome.
(d) None of the above
87. In genetics the term test cross means
(a) the crossing of F1
individual with homozygous
recessive.
(b) crossing an F1
individual with either of the two
parents.
(c) crossing F1
individual with another F1
individual.
(d) crossing F1
individual with that of F2
.
88. What proportion of the offsprings obtaied from cross
AABBCC × AaBbCc will be completely heterozygous for
all genes segregated indpendently?
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/16
89. How would you test a pea plant whether it is a pure or
hybrid for tallness ?
(a) Cross the pea plant with another tall pea plant of
unknown genotype.
(b) Cross the pea plant with a pure tall pea plant.
(c) Cross the pea plant with a homozygous dwarf pea.
(d) Cross the pea plant with any pea plant.
90. The law of segregation of characters is also called the law
of purity of gametes because
(a) gametes have only one of the two alleles for each
character.
(b) gametes cannot be contaminated.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) gametes are very different type of cells.
91. Mendel was successful in formulating the laws of
inheritance whereas his predecessors were not because
(a) he studied one clear-cut character at a time.
(b) the characters studied by him were present on
separate chromosomes.
(c) of the right choice of material.
(d) he kept accurate records of his experiments.
92. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by
(a) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of
autosomes.
(b) whether the egg is fertilized or develops
parthenogenetically.
(c) the ratio of number of X-chromosomes to the sets of
autosomes.
(d) X and Y-chromosomes.
93. The F2
generation offspring in a plant showing incomplete
dominance, exhibit
(a) variable genotypic and phenotypic ratios.
(b) a genotypic ratio of 1 : 1.
(c) a phenotypic ratio of 3 : 1.
(d) similar phenotypic and genotypic ratios of 1 : 2 : 1.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Principles of Inheritance & Variation 241
94. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round seed
shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow
cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy).
What are the expected phenotypes in the F2
generation
of the cross RR YY × rryy ?
(a) Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons.
(b) Only wrinkled seeds with both yellow cotyledons.
(c) Only round seeds with yellow cotyledons.
(d) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled
seeds with green cotyledons.
95. A man has enlarged breasts, sparse hairs on the body
and sex chromosomal formula XXY. He then suffers from
(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Edward’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
96. A gene is said to be dominant if
(a) it expresses its effect only in homozygous state.
(b) it expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition.
(c) it expresses its effect both in homozygous and
heterozygous condition.
(d) it never expresses its effect in any conditions.
97. Two organisms that are true-breeding for a certain genetic
characteristic are mated and their offspring were analysed.
Which of the following statements about this situation is
correct?
(a) Both parents are homozygotes.
(b) The offspring are either all homozygotes or all
heterozygotes.
(c) The offspring represent the F1
generation and the
gametes produced by the offspring will carry only
one allele for this gene.
(d) All of the above
98. Why is the allele for wrinkled seed shape in garden peas
considered recessive ?
(a) It “recedes” in the F2
generation when homozygous
parents are crossed.
(b) The trait associated with the allele is not expressed
in heterozygotes.
(c) Individuals with the allele have lower fitness than
that of individuals with the dominant allele.
(d) The allele is less common than the dominant allele.
(The wrinkled allele is a rare mutant).
99. Sex determination in grasshoppers, humans, and
Drosophila is similar because
(a) females are hemizygous.
(b) males have one X-chromosome and females have
two X-chromosomes.
(c) all males always have one Y-chromosome in all three
species.
(d) the ratio of autosomes to sex chromosomes is the
same in all three organisms.
100. Mendel’s rules do not correctly predict patterns of
inheritance for tightly linked genes or the inheritance of
alleles that show incomplete dominance or epistasis. Does
this mean that his hypothesis are incorrect ?
(a) Yes, because they are relevant to only a small number
of organisms and traits.
(b) Yes, because not all data support his hypothesis.
(c) No, because he was not aware of meiosis or the
chromosome theory of inheritance.
(d) No, it just means that his hypothesis are limited to
certain conditions.
101. Haemophilia is mentioned as a trait carried by the mother
and passed to her sons. What is the pattern of inheritance
for this trait ?
(a) Haemophilia is an allele carried on one of the mother’s
autosomal chromosomes.
(b) Haemophilia is an allele carried on the Y-chromosome
because more males have this genetic disorder than
females.
(c) Haemophilia is an allele carried on the X-chromosome
and can be directly inherited by the son from the
father or the mother.
(d) Haemophilia is carried on the X-chromosome and
can only be inherited by the son if the mother is a
carrier.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 28 Oqngewnct"Dcuku"qh
Kpjgtkvcpeg
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The two strands of DNA are held together by
(a) peptide bonds (b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) hydrogen bonds (d) S – S bonds
2. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by
(a) X-ray crystallography
(b) electron microscope
(c) ultracentrifuge
(d) light microscope
3. Chargaff’s rules are applicable to
(a) single stranded RNA.
(b) single stranded DNA and RNA.
(c) single stranded DNA.
(d) double stranded DNA.
4. One turn of DNA possesses
(a) one base pair (b) two base pairs
(c) five base pairs (d) ten base pairs
5. Which of the following is correct for Watson and Crick’s
model of DNA. It is duplex with
(a) 10 base pairs and 3.4 Å distance for every turn.
(b) 10 base pairs and 3.4 Å distance for each turn of
spiral.
(c) 20 base pairs and 34 Å for each turn.
(d) None of the above
6. Information flow or central dogma of modern biology is
(a) RNA ® Proteins ® DNA
(b) DNA ® RNA ® RNA
(c) RNA ® DNA ® Proteins
(d) DNA ® RNA ® Proteins
7. Nucleosome is
(a) intron interrupted DNA.
(b) double helix DNA.
(c) negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively
charged histone octomer.
(d) satellite DNA.
8. Genetic information is carried out by long chain molecule
made up of
(a) amino acids (b) enzymes
(c) nucleotides (d) histone proteins
9. Histones are rich in
(a) alanine and glycine (b) lysine and arginine
(c) histidine and serine (d) cysteine and tyrosine
10. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiments, heavy DNA was
distinguished from normal DNA by centrifugation in
(a) CsOH gradient (b) 14NH4Cl
(c) 15NH4Cl (d) CsCl gradient
11. In Streptococcus pneumoniae
(a) virulent form is smooth.
(b) virulent form is rough.
(c) nonvirulent form is capsulated.
(d) all forms are rough.
12. The scientists involved in discovery of DNA as chemical
basis of heredity were
(a) Hershey and Chase
(b) Griffith and Avery
(c) Avery, Mac Leod and McCarty
(d) Watson and Crick
13. During infection of E. coli cells by bacteriophage T2
,
(a) proteins are the only phage components that actually
enter the infected cell.
(b) both proteins and nucleic acids enter the cell.
(c) only proteins from the infecting phage can also be
detected in progeny phage.
(d) only nucleic acids enter the cell.
14. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will
be the percentage of adenine in it?
(a) 20% (b) 40%
(c) 30% (d) 60%
15. In some viruses, RNA is present instead of DNA indicating that
(a) their nucleic acid must combine with host DNA
before replication.
(b) they cannot replicate.
(c) there is no hereditary information.
(d) RNA can act to transfer heredity.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 243
16. A bacterium grown over medium having radioactive 35S
incorporates radioactivity in
(a) carbohydrates (b) proteins
(c) DNA (d) RNA
17. Leading strand during DNA replication is formed
(a) continuously.
(b) in short segments.
(c) first.
(d) ahead of replication.
18. DNA replication is
(a) conservative and discontinuous.
(b) semi-conservative and semi-discontinuous.
(c) semi-conservative and discontinuous.
(d) conservative.
19. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 5' end of
hn-RNA in a process of
(a) tailing (b) splicing
(c) capping (d) None of these
20. Genetic code is
(a) triplet, universal, ambiguous and degenerate.
(b) triplet, universal, non-ambiguous and nondegenerate.
(c) triplet, universal, non-ambiguous and degenerate.
(d) triplet, universal, ambiguous and non-degenerate.
21. Segments of mRNA removed during splicing are called
______.
(a) introns (b) exons
(c) promotor regions (d) integrator regions
22. Frame shift mutation occurs when
(a) base is deleted or added.
(b) base is added.
(c) base is deleted.
(d) anticodons are not present.
23. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in eukaryotes) is
(a) GUA (b) GCA
(c) CCA (d) AUG
24. In eukaryotes, mRNA is synthesized with the aid of
(a) RNA polymerase III.
(b) RNA polmerase II.
(c) RNA polymerase I.
(d) reverse transcriptase.
25. Lactose operon produces enzymes
(a) b-galactosidase, permease and glycogen synthetase.
(b) b-galactosidase, permease and transacetylase.
(c) permease, glycogen synthetase and transacetylase.
(d) b-galactosidase, permease and phosphoglucose
isomerase.
26. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by
(a) lactose (b) promotor gene
(c) b-galactosidase (d) I-gene
27. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material?
(a) Griffith (b) Watson
(c) Boveri and Sutton (d) Hershey and Chase
28. Lac operon is
(a) arabinose operon (b) repressible operon
(c) inducible operon (d) overlapping genes
29. Satellite DNA
(a) is classified in many categories such as microsatellites, minisatellites, etc. on the basis of base
composition length of segments and number of
repetitive units.
(b) normally does not code for any protein.
(c) shows polymorphism.
(d) All of the above
30. Which process is used for amplication or multiplication
of DNA for finger printing ?
(a) Polymerse chain reaction (PCR)
(b) Nesslerisation
(c) Southern blotting
(d) Northern blotting
31. Polymorphism in DNA sequence
(a) is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome.
(b) arises due to mutation.
(c) is the basis of DNA finger printing.
(d) All of the above
32. VNTRs are
(a) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats.
(b) Very Narrow Tandem Repeats.
(c) Variable Non-cistronic Transposon Repeats.
(d) Valuable Non-cistronic Transposon Regions.
33. SNP which is pronounced as “snips” stands for
(a) Small Nuclear Protein
(b) Single Nucleotide Particle
(c) Single Nucleotide Polymorphism
(d) Small Nicking Points
34. Human Genome Project (HGP) is closely associated with
the rapid development of a new area in biology called as
(a) biotechnology (b) bioinformatics
(c) biogeography (d) bioscience
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
35. Which of the following statement is correct about DNA
polymerase ?
(a) DNA polymerase can synthesize mRNA in the 3' to
5' direction.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
244
244244244244244244244
244 Biology
(b) DNA polymerase can synthesize DNA in the 5' to 3'
direction.
(c) DNA polymerase can synthesize mRNA in the 5' to
3' direction.
(d) DNA polymerase can synthesize DNA in the 3' to 5'
direction.
36. Which of the following statement forms the basis of DNA
fingerprinting?
(a) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines
in DNA.
(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short
DNA segments.
(c) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in
blood, skin and saliva.
(d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and
grooves of the fingerprints.
37. Select the correct statement regarding protein synthesis.
(a) When the small subunit of the ribosome encounters
an mRNA the process of translation begins.
(b) Peptidase catalyses the formation of peptide bond.
(c) UTRs are present between the start codon and stop codon.
(d) At the end of translation, the release factor binds to
the initiation codon.
38. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) VNTR belong to a class of mini satellite DNA.
(b) DNA sequences work on the principle developed
by F. Sanger.
(c) HGP was coordinated by US Department of Energy
and the National Institute of Health.
(d) DNA fingerprinting involves identifying similarities
in repetitive DNA.
39. Identify the incorrect statement about RNA.
(a) RNA was the first genetic material to evolve in the
living systems.
(b) Apart from being a genetic material, it is also a
catalyst.
(c) DNA evolved from RNA with chemical modifications.
(d) RNA being a catalyst is non-reactive and stable.
40. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) In prokaryotes, the structural gene is polycistronic.
(b) In eukaryotes, structural genes have interrupted
coding sequences.
(c) Eukaryotes have split gene arrangement.
(d) Intervening sequences appear in mature RNA.
41. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the
observations drawn from the human genome project.
(a) Repetitive sequences are stretches of RNA.
(b) Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for protein.
(c) SNPs help in tracing human history.
(d) Repetitive sequences make up a very large portion
of the human genome.
42. Find out the incorrect statement.
(a) Uracil is present in RNA at the place of thymine.
(b) The complex of DNA and protein in chromosome is
called chromatin.
(c) Heterochromatin is the most highly condensed form
of chromatin.
(d) The process involved in the RNA formation on the
DNA template is called replication.
43. Select the two correct statements out of the four (i–iv)
given below about lac operon.
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor
and inactivate it.
(ii) In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with
the operator region.
(iii) The z-gene codes for permease.
(iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque
Monod.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
44. How many of the given statements (i-iv) is/are correct?
(i) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
(ii) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to
as positive regulation.
(iii) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes.
(iv) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One
45. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) r-RNA provides the template for synthesis of
proteins.
(ii) t-RNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code.
(iii) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates
transcription.
(iv) A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called
intron.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
46. Which of the following statements about RNA
polymerase are correct?
(i) RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs.
(ii) RNA polymerase II transcribes snRNAs.
(iii) RNA polymerase III transcribes hnRNA.
(iv) RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNAs.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
47. Select the incorrect statement(s).
(i) Six codons do not code for any amino acid.
(ii) Codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 245
(iii) Three codons function as stop codons.
(iv) The initiation codon AUG codes for methionine.
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
48. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect
statements.
(i) Nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar
through a N-glycosidic linkage.
(ii) Phosphate group is linked to 5¢–OH of a nucleoside
through phosphoester linkage.
(iii) Two nucleosides are linked through 3¢–5¢Nglycosidic linkage.
(iv) Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around
positively charged histone octamer to form
nucleosome.
(v) The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains
dark is called euchromatin.
(a) (i) only (b) (iv) only
(c) (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
49. Assertion : Adenine cannot pair with cytosine
Reason : Adenine and cytosine do not have a perfect
match between hydrogen donor and hydrogen acceptor
sites. Hence, they cannot pair.
50. Assertion : A single mRNA strand is capable of forming
a number of different polypetide chains.
Reason : The mRNA strand has terminator codon.
51. Assertion : The genetic code is degenerate.
Reason : Most amino acids are coded by more than one
codon.
52. Assertion : Replication and transcription occur in the
nucleus but translation takes place in the cytoplasm.
Reason : mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into
cytoplasm where ribosomes and amino acids are available
for protein synthesis.
53. Assertion : DNA fingerprinting is very well known for its
application in paternity testing is case of disputes.
Reason : It employs the principle of polymorphism in DNA
sequences as the polymorphisms are inheritable from
parent to children.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
54. Match the enzymes (given in column I) with their function
(given in column II) and choose the correct combination
from the given options.
Column - I Column - II
A. Helicase I. Joining of nucleotides
B. Gyrase II. Opening of DNA
C. Primase III. Unwinding of DNA
D. DNA polymerase III IV. RNA priming
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
55. Match the following and choose the correct combination
from the given options.
Column - I Column - II
A. Splicing I. Lac operon
B. Okazaki fragments II. Lagging strands
C. Jacob and Monad III. Lactose
D. Inducer IV. Removal of intron
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
56. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
combination from the given options.
Column - I Column - II
A. Operator site I. Binding site for
RNA polymerase
B. Promoter site II. Binding site for
repressor molecule
C. Structural gene III. Codes for enzyme
protein
D. Regulator gene IV. Codes for repressor
molecules
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
57. Match the steps of protein by synthesis given in columnI with their feature given in column-II and select the correct
combination from the given options.
Column - I Column - II
A. Termination I. Aminoacyl tRNA
synthetase
B. Translation II. Okazaki fragments
C. Transcription III. GTP dependent
release factor
D. DNA replication IV. RNA polymerase
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
246
246246246246246246246
246 Biology
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
58. Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct
combination from the given options.
Column - I Column - II
A. Griffith I. Nucleoid
B. Hershey and Chase II. Active chromatin
C. Prokaryotic DNA III. Transduction
D. Euchromatin IV. Transformation
(a) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
59. Match the codons given column I with their respective
amino acids given in column II and choose the correct
answer.
A UUU I. Serine
B GGG II. Methionine
C UCU III. Phenylalanine
D CCC IV. Glycine
E AUG V. Proline
Column -I
(Codons)
Column -II
(Amino acids)
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II
(d) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – III
60. Match the enzymes given in column -I with its function
given in column -II and select the correct option.
A -galactosidase I. Joining of DNA
fragments
B Permease II. Peptide bond
formation
C Ligase III. Hydrolysis of
lactose
D Ribozyme IV. Increase
permeability of
-galactosidase
Column - I Column - II
b
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(d) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
61. Match the scientists given in column-I with their work
given in column-II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. F. Meischer I. DNA double helix
B. Griffith II. Nuclein
C. Hershey and III. S. pneumoniae
Chase
D. Watson and Crick IV. Bacteriophages
E. Wilkins and V. X-ray diffraction studies
Franklin
(a) A – II; B – III; C –IV; D – I; E – V
(b) A – V; B – IV; C –III; D – I; E – II
(c) A – I; B – III; C –IV; D – II; E – V
(d) A – I; B – IV; C –III; D – II; E – V
62. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
combination from the given options.
Column-I Column-II
A. Sigma factor I. 5' – 3'
B. Capping II. Initiation
C. Tailing III. Termination
D. Coding strand IV. 5' end
V. 3' end
(a) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – II
(b) A – II; B – IV; C – V; D – I
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – V; D – III
(d) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – I
63. Match column-I (Scientists) with column-II (Discoveries)
and select the correct options.
Column-I Column-II
(Scientists) (Discoveries)
A. Alec Jeffreys I. Lac operon
B. F. Sanger II. Automated DNA
sequences
C. Jacob and Monod III. DNA finger printing
D. Avery, Mc Leod IV. Transforming principle
and McCarty
(a) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(c) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(d) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 247
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
64. The given figure shows the structure of nucleosome with
their parts labelled as A, B & C. Identify A, B and C.
A B
C
Core of histone molecules
(a) A – DNA; B – H1
histone; C – Histone octamer
(b) A – H1
histone; B – DNA; C – Histone octamer
(c) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C – H1
histone
(d) A – RNA; B – H1
histone; C – Histone octamer
65. Name the types of synthesis A and B occurring in the
replication fork of DNA as shown below.
B Synthesi
A
s
Synthesis
5¢ 3¢
Template DNA
(parental strands)
5¢
3¢ 5¢
3¢
(a) A - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of leading
strand); B - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of
lagging strand).
(b) A - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of leading
strand); B - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of
lagging strand).
(c) A- Continuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging
strand); B - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of
leading strand).
(d) A - Discontinuous synthesis (synthesis of lagging
strand); B - Continuous synthesis (synthesis of
leading strand).
66. The given figure represents the double stranded polynucteotide chain. Some parts are labelled as A, B, C, D
and E. Identify the correct labelling of A, B, C, D & E.
(a) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine, C–Hexose
(deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end, E–Purine base
(b) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purine base, C–Hexose
(deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end, E–Pyrimidine
(c) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine, C–Pentose
(deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end, E–Purine base
(d) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purine base, C–Pentose
(deoxyribose) sugar, D– 5' end, E– Pyrimidine
67. The diagram given below shows an important concept
(proposed by C) in the genetic implication of DNA. The
process occuring in that concept are marked as A and B.
Identify A, B and C.
DNA mRNA Protein A B
(a) A-Translation, B - Transcription, C-Erwin Chargaff
(b) A-Transcription, B - Translation, C-Francis Crick
(c) A-Translation, B - Extension, C-Rosalind Franklin
(d) A-Transcription, B - Replication, C-James Watson
68. Which one of the following correctly represents the
manner of replication of DNA ?
(a)
5'
5'
3'
3'
5'
3'
(b)
5'
3'
3'
5'
5'
3'
(c)
5'
3'
3'
5'
5'
3'
(d)
5'
3'
3'
5'
5'
3'
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
248
248248248248248248248
248 Biology
69. Given figure represent the DNA double helix model,
proposed by Watson and Crick (1953). Select the option
that shows correct measurement of A, B and C marked in
the figure.
C
A
B
(a) A – 3.4 nm, B – 0.34 nm, C – 2 nm
(b) A – 34 nm, B – 3.4 nm, C – 20 nm
(c) A – 3.4 Å, B – 0.34 Å, C – 20 Å
(d) A – 34 Å, B – 3.4 Å, C – 2 Å
70. Given diagram represents the schematic structure of a
transcription unit with some parts labelled as A, B, C and
D. Select the option which shows its correct labelling.
3¢
5¢
5¢
3¢
A B
C
D
Transcription start site
A B C D
(a) Terminator Promoter Template Coding
strand strand
(b) Promoter Terminator Coding emplate
strand strand
(c) Promoter Terminator Template Coding
strand strand
(d) Terminator Promoter Coding emplate
strand strand
71. The given figure shows lac operon model and its
functioning. Select the option which correctly labels A,
B, X, Y and Z marked in the figure and also identify the
label (L) which is primarily responsible for the hydrolysis
of the disaccharide, lactose, into galactose & glucose.
mRNA
A
B
i p o z y a
Transcription
XYZ
P
A B X Y Z L
(a) Repressor Inducer b-Galacto- Permease Trans- X
sidase acetylase
(b) Repressor Inducer Permease b-Galacto-Trans- Y
sidase acetylase
(c) Inducer Repressor b-Galacto- Permease Trans- Z
sidase acetylase
(d) Inducer Repressor b-Galacto- Trans- Permease B
sidase acetylase
72. The given figure represent one of the step in the process
of transcription in bacteria. Identify the step and label A,
B & C marked in the figure.
3¢ 5¢
5¢ 3¢
A
B
C
(a) Initiation; A – DNA, B – RNA, C – Promoter
(b) Termination; A – RNA, B – RNA polymerase,
C – Rho factor
(c) Elongation; A – RNA, B – RNA polymerase,
C – Sigma factor
(d) Elongation; A – DNA, B – DNA polymerase,
C – RNA
73. Identify the labels A, B, C and D in the given structure of
tRNA and select the correct option.
D B
C
5¢ – G
C
C
Variable arm
C
OH – 3¢ A
–
A B C D
(a) Anticodon TyC loop AA binding DHU loop
site
(b) AA binding TyC loop Anticodon DHU loop
site loop
(c) AA binding DHU loop Anticodon TyC loop
site loop
(d) AA binding DHU loop TyC loop Anticodon
site loop loop
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 249
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
74. In tertiary structure of DNA, what is a histone octamer ?
(a) A complex consisting of eight positively charged
histone proteins (two of each H2A, H2B, H3
and H4
)
that aid in the packaging of DNA.
(b) A complex consisting of eight negatively charged
histone proteins (two of each H2A, H2B, H3
and H4
)
that aid in the packaging of DNA.
(c) A complex consisting of nine positively charged
histone proteins (H1
and two of each H2A, H2B, H3
and H4
) that aid in the packaging DNA.
(d) A complex consisting of nine negatively charged
histone proteins (H1
and two of each H2A, H2B, H3
and H4
) that aid in the packaging of DNA.
75. RNA polymerases used for the transcription of genes
require a ______ template.
(a) rRNA (b) DNA
(c) RNA (d) mRNA
76. The most abundant type of RNA in the cell is
(a) rRNA (b) mRNA
(c) t RNA (d) hn RNA
77. In terms of DNA and RNA structure, what is a nucleotide ?
(a) A nucleotide is a heterocyclic base.
(b) A nucleotide is a sugar molecule covalently bonded
to a heterocyclic base.
(c) A nucleotide is a sugar molecule bonded to
phosphate group and a heterocyclic base.
(d) A nucleotide is a heterocyclic base bonded to
phosphate group.
78. DNA exists in a double-stranded form whereas RNA is
mainly a single stranded molecule. What is the likely
reason for DNA being double stranded ?
(a) RNA strands cannot form base pairs.
(b) Double stranded DNA is a more stable structure.
(c) DNA cannot exist in the single stranded form.
(d) It is easier to replicate double stranded DNA than
single stranded RNA.
79. Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed to grow
in 14N medium. The two strands of DNA molecule of the
first generation bacteria have
(a) different density and do not resemble with their parent
DNA.
(b) different density but resemble with their parent DNA.
(c) same density and resemble with their parent DNA.
(d) same density but do not resemble with their parent
DNA.
80. Which step of translation does not consume high energy
phosphate bond?
(a) Translocation
(b) Peptidyl transferase reaction
(c) Amino acid activation
(d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to A-site
81. During elongation of polypeptide chain, sigma factor is
(a) functionless.
(b) retained for specific function.
(c) released for re-use.
(d) required during closing of chain.
82. Determination of one amino acid by more than one codon
is due to
(a) redundancy of genetic code.
(b) continuous nature of genetic code.
(c) punctuation in genetic code.
(d) universal nature of genetic code.
83. Operon is a
(a) sequence of three nitrogen bases determining a single
amino acid.
(b) set of closely placed genes regulating a metabolic
pathway in prokaryotes.
(c) segment of DNA specifying a polypeptide.
(d) gene responsible for switching on and switching off
other genes.
84. Clover leaf secondary structure of tRNA has a loop for
(a) three nucleotides of a codon.
(b) three nucleotides of an anticodon.
(c) no nucleotides.
(d) both (a) and (b)
85. DNA replication is semi-conservative as
(a) only non-parent strand acts as template.
(b) both strands of new molecule are synthesized de
novo.
(c) one of the strand in each new molecule is parental
and the other is new.
(d) daughter strands are dispersive.
86. Mutations which alter nucleotide sequence within a gene
are called
(a) frame shift mutations
(b) base pair substitutions
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
87. Which one of the following pair is a purine pair?
(a) Uracil, Guanine
(b) Cytosine, Thymine
(c) Adenine, Guanine
(d) Adenine, Thymine
88. Which one of the following group of codons is called as
degenerate codons?
(a) UAA, UAG and UGA
(b) GUA, GUG, GCA, GCG and GAA
(c) UUC, UUG, CCU, CAA and CUG
(d) UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
250
250250250250250250250
250 Biology
89. The two strands of a double helix model of DNA are held
together by hydrogen bonds between
(a) sugar and phosphate groups.
(b) sugar and nitrogenous bases.
(c) phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases.
(d) nitrogenous bases.
90. Transcription
(a) starts at initiator region and ends at stop region.
(b) starts at operator region and ends at telomeric end.
(c) starts at promoter region and ends at terminator
region.
(d) starts at CAAT box and ends at TATA box.
91. Consider the process that a cell uses to replicate its doublestrand DNA to make copies for daughter cells. Which
statement describes the DNA in daughter cells ?
(a) The double helix in one daughter cell consists of
two strands that were originally in the parent cell,
while the double helix in the other daughter cell
consists of two newly made strands.
(b) The two strands of the double helices in both
daughter cells consist of segments of new and
parental DNA.
(c) The double helices in each daughter cell consists of
one parental strand and one newly made strand.
(d) None of the above.
92. Nucleotides are linked by
(a) hydrogen bonds. (b) phosphodiester bonds.
(c) peptic bonds. (d) ionic bonds.
93. A geneticist isolates a gene for a specific traits under
study, she also isolate the corresponding mRNA. Upon
comparison, the mRNA is found to contain 1,000 fewer
bases than the DNA sequence. Did the geneticist isolate
the wrong DNA ?
(a) Yes, mRNA is made from a DNA template and should
be the same length as the gene sequence.
(b) Yes, the mRNA should contain more bases than the
DNA sequence because bases flanking the gene are
also transcribed.
(c) No, the final mRNA contains only exons, the introns
were removed.
(d) No, the mRNA was partially degraded after it was
transcribed.
94. A DNA strand with the sequence AACGTAACG is
transcribed. What is the sequence of the mRNA molecule
synthesized ?
(a) AACGTAACG (b) UUGCAUUGC
(c) AACGUAACG (d) TTGCATTGC
95. During translation, proteins are synthesized by
(a) ribosomes using the information on DNA.
(b) lysosome using the information on DNA.
(c) ribosome using the information on mRNA.
(d) lysosome using the information on mRNA.
96. What role does messenger RNA play in the synthesis of
proteins ?
(a) It catalysis the process.
(b) It translates the genetic code to a specific amino
acid.
(c) It provides the genetic blue print for the protein.
(d) It modifies messenger RNA molecules prior to protein
synthesis.
97. What is the main function of tRNA in relation to protein
synthesis ?
(a) Initiates transcription
(b) Inhibits protein synthesis.
(c) Identifies amino acids and transport them to
ribosomes.
(d) proof reading.
98. Which of the following molecule contains the genetic
code?
(a) DNA (b) mRNA
(c) tRNA (d) rRNA
99. What sequence on the template strand of DNA
corresponds to the first amino acid inserted into a protein ?
(a) TAC (b) UAC
(c) UAG (d) AUG
100. Which of the following would you expect to find in an
inducible system ?
(a) A repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in
absence of any other factor.
(b) A repressor protein, which is bound to DNA in the
presence of a co-repressor.
(c) An activator protein, which is bound to DNA in the
absence of any other factor.
(d) An activator protein, which is bound to DNA only
in the absence of air inhibitor.
101. What effect would you expect if gene expression of the
lac operon were completely repressed ?
(a) The cell would be more efficient without 'wasting'
the energy required for the low level of Lac Z, LacY,
and Lac A gene expression.
(b) Allolactose would accumulate within the cell and
become toxic.
(c) Lactose would not be converted into the inducer
and the operon could not be induced.
(d) All of the above
102. Which of the following is Not a goal of the human genome
project ?
(a) To sequence the genomes of selected model
organisms.
(b) To eliminate all diseases.
(c) To consider social, ethical and legal aspects of
genetic information.
(d) To develop computational tools for analyzing
sequence information.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 251
103. In addition to the human genome sequence, draft or
finished genome sequences existed for eight model
organisms by 2002. Which of the following organisms are
not the part of that group of eight model organisms ?
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(b) Drosophila melanogaster
(c) Oryza sativa
(d) Quercus rubra
104. Each individual has a unique DNA fingerprint as
individuals differ in
(a) number of minisatellites on chromosome.
(b) location of minisatellites on chromosome.
(c) size of minisatellites on chromosome.
(d) All of the above
105. DNA fingerprinting using Variable Number Tandem
Repeats (VNTRs) is based on the observation that
(a) every individual has unique alleles at each VNTR
locus.
(b) the DNA of VNTR loci is more stable than that of
loci which code for proteins.
(c) VNTR sequences show little variability.
(d) VNTR loci are highly polymorphic.
106. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain
(a) result in transcription.
(b) polymerize in the 3' to 5' direction and forms
replication form.
(c) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication.
(d) polymerize in the 5' to 3' direction and explain 3' to 5'
DNA replication.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 29 Eøqnwvkqp
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Stanley L. Miller conducted experiments before 1953
on prebiotic earth environment using special apparatus.
The primary surprising products were
(a) amino acids (b) peptides
(c) nucleotides (d) simple sugars
2. Who proposed that the first form of life come from preexisting non- living molecules?
(a) Oparin and Haldane
(b) de Vries and Haldane
(c) Darwin and Lamarck
(d) Louis Pasteur and Miller
3. How is extinction represented in a family tree diagram?
(a) When a branch splits.
(b) When a branch ends.
(c) When a branch shifts along x - axis.
(d) When a branch shifts along y - axis.
4. Atmosphere of earth just before the origin of life
consisted of
(a) water vapours, CH4
, NH3
and oxygen.
(b) CO2
, NH3
, and CH2
(c) CH4
, NH3
, H2
and water vapours.
(d) CH4
, O3
, O2
and water vapours.
5. Analogous organs are
(a) different in origin but perform similar functions.
(b) common in origin and perform common functions.
(c) common in origin but perform different functions.
(d) different in origin and perform different functions.
6. Homologous organs show
(a) divergent evolution.
(b) convergent evolution.
(c) parallel evolution.
(d) both (b) and (c).
7. What is common amongst whale, seal and shark?
(a) Homoiothermy
(b) Seasonal migration
(c) Thick subcutaneous fat
(d) Convergent evolution
8. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are
examples of
(a) retrogressive evolution.
(b) analogous organs.
(c) homologous organs.
(d) vestigial organs.
9. Industrial melanism is an example of
(a) drug resistance.
(b) darkening of skin due to smoke from industries.
(c) protective resemblance with the surroundings.
(d) defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet
radiations.
10. Darwin’s finches are a good example of
(a) convergent evolution
(b) industrial melanism
(c) connecting link
(d) adaptive radiation
11. Adaptive radiation refers to
(a) power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of
environments.
(b) adaptations due to Geographical isolation.
(c) evolution of different species from a common
ancestor.
(d) migration of members of a species to different
geographical areas.
12. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence
in favour of
(a) biogeographical evolution
(b) special creation
(c) evolution due to mutation
(d) retrogressive evolution
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Evolution 253
13. The term ‘Survival of Fittest’ was used by
(a) Charles Darwin (b) Herbert Spencer
(c) Jean Baptiste (d) Hugo de Vries
14. Tasmanian Wolf is a marsupial while Wolf is a placental
mammal. This shows
(a) convergent evolution
(b) divergent evolution
(c) inheritance of acquired characters
(d) None of these
15. Darwin was most influenced by
(a) Lamarck’s theory of acquired characters.
(b) Weismann’s theory of germplasm.
(c) Wallace’s theory of origin of species.
(d) Essay on Population by Malthus.
16. Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also
called
(a) Founder effect (b) saltation
(c) branching descent (d) natural selection
17. A population is in Hardy- weinberg equilibrium for a gene
with only two alleles. If the gene frequency of an allele
A is 0.7, the genotype frequency of Aa is
(a) 0.21 (b) 0.42
(c) 0.36 (d) 0.7
18. If the frequency of dominant allele is 60%, find out
the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the
population.
(a) 48% (b) 50%
(c) 47% (d) 45%
19. Random genetic drift in a population probably results
from
(a) highly genetically variable individuals.
(b) interbreeding within the population.
(c) constant low mutation rate.
(d) large population size.
20. Natural selection can lead to
(a) stabilization (b) directional change
(c) disruption (d) all of these
21. The first mammals were like
(a) chimpanzee (b) gorilla
(c) shrews (d) reptiles
22. Which one of the following was the first to stand erect ?
(a) Peking Man (b) Australopithecus
(c) Java Man (d) Cro-Magnon man
23. The extinct human ancestor who ate only fruits and
hunted with stone weapons was
(a) Ramapithecus (b) Australopithecus
(c) Dryopithecus (d) Homo habilis
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
24. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(i) Adaptative ability is inherited.
(ii) Adaptative ability has a genetic basis
(iii) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and
get selected by nature.
(a) Only (ii) (b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) All of these (d) None of these
25. Select the correct statement(s).
(i) Microbial experiment show the pre-existing
advantageous mutations when selected will result
in the observation of new phenotypes. Over few
generation this would result in speciation.
(ii) Neanderthal fossils represent a human relative.
(iii) In 1938, a fish caught in South Africa happened to
be a coelacanth (lobe fins) which was thought to be
extinct. These animals evolved into the first
amphibians living on both land and water.
(iv) Lichens can be used as water pollution indicators.
(v) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist, who worked in Malay
Archaepelago (present Indonesia) had also come to
similar conclusion on natural selection as reached
by Darwinism.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv) and (v)
26. Which of the following features are correct for Homo erectus
?
(i) Had a large brain around 900 c.c.
(ii) Probably ate meat.
(iii) Appeared about 1.5 mya year ago.
(iv) Evolved from H. habilis.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) None of these (d) All of these
27. Which of the following is/are incorrect about neanderthal
man?
(i) They had large brain around 900 c.c.
(ii) They lived in near east and central Asia between
100000-40000 years back.
(iii) They used hides to protect their body and buried
their dead.
(iv) They had no religious feeling.
(a) All of these (b) None of these
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
28. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Life appeared about 500 M. yrs after the formation of
earth.
(b) Louis Pasteur belived that life appeared only from
pre-existing life.
(c) Oparin advocated that life came from pre-existing
non-living organic molecules.
(d) All of the above
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
254 Biology
29. Read the following three statements (i - iii) and mark
the right option.
(i) The thorns in Bougainvillea and tendrils in cucurbits
represent divergent evolution.
(ii) The similarity in the eyes of Octopus and monkeys
is the result of convergent evolution.
(iii) The potato and sweet potato are the examples of
homology.
(a) (i) and (ii) correct (b) (ii) and (iii) correct
(c) (i) and (iii) correct (d) All (i) are correct.
30. What is true regarding industrialization in England?
(a) The white-winged moths were completely wiped out
after industrialization.
(b) Since lichens did not grow in polluted area, the
number of melanized moths got reduced.
(c) After industrialization the white-winged moths did
not survive due to predators.
(d) All of the above
31. Which of the following is a correct?
(a) Homo erectus lived in east and central Asia and used
hides to protect their bodies.
(b) Agriculture came around 18000 yrs back.
(c) The skull of modern human resembles more closely
to baby chimpanzee than to adult chimpanzee.
(d) All of the above
32. Which of the following is not a false statement ?
(a) Life originated in mesozoic era.
(b) Earth was formed about 4.6 million years ago.
(c) Ist living organism in primitive ocean was coacervate.
(d) Homologous organs show divergent evolution.
33. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(i) Increase in melanized moths after industrialization
in Great Britain is a proof for natural selection.
(ii) When more individuals of a population acquire a
mean character value, it is called disruption.
(iii) Changes in allelic frequency in a population will
lead to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
(iv) Genetic drift changes the existing gene or allelic
frequency in future generations.
(a) (ii) only
(b) (iv) only
(c) Both (i) and (iv)
(d) Both (i) and (iii)
34. Choose the wrong statement regarding Hardy-Weinberg
principle.
(a) Allele frequencies in a population are stable and
constant from generation to generation.
(b) Sum total of all the allelic frequencies in a
population is 1.
(c) Variation due to genetic drift results in changed
frequency of genes and alleles in future generations.
(d) Genetic recombination helps in maintaining HardyWeinberg equilibrium.
35. Given below are four statements (i - iv) each with one or
two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up
the blanks in two out of four statements.
(i) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the
results of __(A)____, evolution.
(ii) Miller showed that CH4
, H2
, NH3
and ___(A)___,
when exposed to electric discharge in a flask
resulted in formation of ___(B)_____.
(iii) Vermiform appendix is a ___(A)____ organ and an
__(B)_____ evidence of evolution.
(iv) According to Darwin, evolution took place due to
___(A)___ and ___(B)__ of the fittest.
(a) (iv) – (A) small variations, (B) survival, (i) – (A)
convergent
(b) (i) – (A) convergent, (ii) – (A) oxygen, (B)
nucleosides
(c) (ii) – (A) water vapour, (B) amino acids, (iii) – (A)
rudimentary, (B) anatomical.
(d) (iii) – (A) vestigial, (B) anatomical, (iv) – (A)
mutations, (B) multiplication
36. Identify the correct conclusion regarding the given
statements.
i. There are patterns in the fossil record that suggest
other species have diverged from a single ancestor
species.
ii. There are biogeographic patterns in the distribution
of species, for instance distinct bird species on an
island tend to resemble one another, suggesting a
common ancestor.
iii. There are common stages in the early embryological
development of organisms representing several
distinct vertebrate groups.
iv. Anatomical structures, such as forelimbs, in
different groups appear to be modified versions
of structures that might have been present in a
common ancestor.
(a) These are the example of a macro evolutionary
process.
(b) They are the evidences for Lamarck's theory of
inheritance.
(c) They are the evidences for Darwin's theory of
common descent.
(d) They are the examples of natural selection which
occurs within populations, where artificial selection
does not occur.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Evolution 255
37. Which of the following statements best describe the
theory of natural selection?
(a) All organisms are equally suited to their environment.
(b) Random selection will determine which organisms
survive.
(c) Organisms better adapted to their environment have
greater reproductive success.
(d) Organisms that produce the most offspring are better
suited to their environment.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
38. Assertion : Organic compounds first evolved in earth
required for origin of life were protein and nucleic acid.
Reason : All life forms were in water environment only.
39. Assertion : Among the primates, chimpanzee is the closest
relative of the present day humans.
Reason : The banding pattern in the autosome numbers 3
and 6 of man and chimpanzee is remarkably similar.
40. Assertion : Natural selection is the outcome of differences
in survival and reproduction among individuals that show
variation in one or more traits.
Reason : Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to become
more common; less adaptive ones become less common
or disappear.
41. Assertion : The earliest organisms that appeared on the
earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
Reason :The first autotrophic organisms were the
chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
42. Assertion : Darwin's finches show a variety of beaks suited
for eating large seeds, flying insects and cactus seeds.
Reason : Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin's finches
radiated out from South American mainland to different
geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands, where they
found competitor-free new habitats.
43. Assertion : The primitive atmosphere was reducing one
i.e., without oxygen.
Reason : In the primitive atmosphere, oxygen was
involved in forming ozone.
44. Assertion : Jave Ape-man, Peking man and Heidelberg
man are the fossils of Homo erectus.
Reason : Homo erectus evolved from Homo habilis.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
45. Match the evolution concepts given in column-I with
column-II and select the correct answer.
Column - I Column - II
A. Mutation I. Change in population’s
allele frequencies due to
chance alone.
B. Gene flow II. Differences in survival and
reproduction among
variant individuals.
C. Natural selection III. Immigration, emigration
change allele frequencies.
D. Genetic drift IV. Source of new alleles.
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(b) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
(c) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(d) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
46. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Human embryos I. Chemical evolution
have gill
B. Oparin and II. Stimulation experiment
Haldane
C. Miller and Urey III. Wings of bird and butterfly
D. Analogous organs IV. Ontogeny repeats
phylogeny
(a) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(b) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II
47. Match column I (containing list of scientists) with column
II (their contributions) and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Name of the Scientist) (Contributions)
A. Charles Darwin I. Mutation theory
B. Lamarck II. Germ plasm theory
C. Hugo de Vries III. Philosophie Zoologique
D. Ernst Haeckel IV. The Origin of species
E. August Weismann V. Biogenetic law
VI. Essay on population
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – II
(b) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – VI
(c) A – IV; B – VI; C – V; D – III; E – I
(d) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – V; E – II
48. Match column -I with column -II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Mesozoic I. First amphibians
B. Devonian II. Proliferation of reptiles
C. Palaeocene III. Raise of modern mammals
D. Permian IV. Radiation of primitive
mammals
V. 160 million years
(a) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II
(b) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(c) A – V, B – I, C – II, D – III
(d) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – III
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
256 Biology
49. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Saltation I. Darwin
B. Formation of II. Louis Pasteur
life was preceded
C. Reproductive III. de Vries
fitness
D. Life comes from IV. Oparin and haldane
pre-existing life
(a) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(b) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(c) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
(d) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
50. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Wallace I. Essay on population
B. Malthus II. Biston
C. Hardy-weinberg III. p2
+ q2
+ 2pq =1
law
D. Industrial IV. Co-proposer of
melanism Natural selection
(a) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(b) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II
51. Which one of the following scientists name is correctly
matched with the theory put forth by him?
(a) Weismann – Theory of continuity of
Germplasm
(b) Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired
characters
(c) De Vries – Natural selection
(d) Mendel – Theory of Pangenesis
52. Select the incorrect match from the given option.
(a) Homo habilis-Their brain capacities were between
650-800cc
(b) Homo erectus - Its fossil was discovered in Java in
1891 about 1.5 mya
(c) Neanderthal man - They used hides to protect their
body and buried their dead.
(d) Ramapithecus - Arose in Africa and moved across
continents and developed into distinct races
53. Which of the following pairs of terms is not related?
(a) Evolution - Natural selection
(b) Vestigial structure - Appendix
(c) Analogous structures - Butterfly wings
(d) Adaptive radiations - Vertebrates hearts or brains
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
54. The given diagram represents Miller's experiment. Choose
the correct combination of labelling A, B , C, D and E.
Spark discharge
Water containing
organic compound
C
Boiling
water
Mixture of
gases
Water out
Water in
(B)
D
A
(a) A–Electrodes, B– NH3
+ H2
+ H2O + CH4
, C– liquid
water in trap, D–vacuum pump
(b) A– Electrodes, B–NH4
+ H2
+ CO2
+ CH3
,
C– liquid water in trap, D – Vacuum pump
(c) A– Electrodes, B–NH3
+ H2O, C–liquid water in trap,
D – Tap
(d) A– Electrodes, B–NH3
+ H2
+ H2O + CH4
,
C – liquid water in trap, D– Vacuum pump
55. The diversity within the wild bird species in the diagram
below can best be explained by which process?
(a) Natural selection
(b) Ecological succession
(c) Adaptive radiation
(d) Both (a) and (c)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Evolution 257
56. The given diagram of marsupials of Australia provides an
example of
Kangaroo
Marsupial rat
Banded anteater
Tasmanian
wolf Flying
phalanger
Koala
Australian
Marsupials
(a) convergent evolution
(b) parallel evolution
(c) recapitulation
(d) divergent evolution
57. Following is the diagrammatic representation of the
operation of natural selection of different traits. Which of
the following options correctly identifies all the three
graphs A, B and C
(A)
Peak gets
higher
and
narrower
(B)
(C)
Two peaks form
Mediumsized
individuals
are favoured
Phenotypes
favoured
by natural
selection
Number of individuals
with phenotype
A B C
(a) Directional Stabilizing Disruptive
(b) Stabilizing Directional Disruptive
(c) Disruptive Stabilizing Directional
(d) Directional Disruptive Stabilizing
58. Following is given the diagrammatic representation of
evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological
periods. Identify the geological periods (A, B, C and D)
and select the correct option.
D
C
B
A
A B C D
(a) CarboniferousTriassic Cretaceous Quaternary
(b) Jurassic Permian Tertiary Cretaceous
(c) Permian Jurassic Quaternary Tertiary
(d) Cretaceous Quaternary Carboniferous Jurassic
59. The given figure shows an example of
Tendril
(a) homologous organs
(b) convergent evolution
(c) divergent evolution
(d) both (a) and (c)
60. The diagram given below shows the skull of two different
mammals. Which of the following accurately describes
the differences between these skulls?
A B
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
258 Biology
(a) Skull A has more teeth than skull B.
(b) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull B.
(c) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an ape.
(d) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human.
61. The following graph shows the range of variation among
population members for a trait determined by multiple
genes.
Proportion
If this population is subject to stabilizing selection for
several generations, which of the distributions (a -d) is
most likely to result?
(a)
Proportion
(b)
Proportion
(c)
Proportion
(d)
Proportion
62. The given bones in the forelimbs of three mammals
figure shows.
For these mammals, the number, position, and shape of
the bones must likely indicates that they may have
(a) developed in a common environment.
(b) developed from the same earlier species.
(c) identical genetic makeup.
(d) identical methods of obtaining food.
63. The diagram below shows four species of birds that
evolved from an ancestral species that had a small pointed
beak. Today, all four species inhabit the same island.
Which statement best explains the variation in the beaks
of these four species?
(a) Over time, an abundance of seeds for food led to
increased similarities between the species.
(b) Over time, an abundance of seeds for food led to
increased differences between the species.
(c) Competition of limited food resources led to
selection for similar traits.
(d) Competition for limited food resources led to
selection for different traits.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
64. Which one of the following describes correctly the
homologous structures?
(a) Organs that have no function now, but had an
important function in ancestors.
(b) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and
disappearing later in the adult.
(c) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing
different functions.
(d) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but
performing same function.
65. Evolution is
(a) progressive development of a race.
(b) history and development of a race alongwith variations.
(c) history of a race.
(d) development of a race.
66. Select the correct order of geological time scale of earth.
(a) Palaeozoic ® Archaeozoic ® Coenozoic
(b) Archaeozoic ® Palaeozoic ® Proterozoic
(c) Palaeozoic ® Mesozoic ® Coenozoic
(d) Mesozoic ® Archaeozoic ® Proterozoic
67. The first organisms were
(a) chemoautotrophs (b) chemoheterotrophs
(c) autotrophs (d) eukaryotes
68. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to
different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as
observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
(a) intraspecific variations
(b) intraspecific competition
(c) interspecific competition
(d) origin of Species by natural selection
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Evolution 259
69. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not
present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
(a) Methane (b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour
70. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from
a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known
as.
(a) adaptive radiation (b) natural selection
(c) migration (d) divergent evolution
71. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns
of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is
an example of
(a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to
divergent evolution.
(b) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
convergent evolution.
(c) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent
evolution.
(d) Homologous organs that have evolved due to
convergent evolution.
72. Fossil remains of Archaeopteryx indicates that
(a) it was a flying reptile from Triassic.
(b) it was a flying reptile from Permian.
(c) reptiles gave rise to birds during Permian.
(d) reptiles gave rise to birds during Jurassic.
73. Archaeopteryx is known as missing connecting link
because it is a fossil and shows the characters of
(a) fishes and amphibians.
(b) birds and reptiles.
(c) reptiles and mammals.
(d) chordates and nonchordates.
74. When two species of different genealogy come to
resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the
phenomenon is termed as ________.
(a) convergent evolution
(b) divergent evolution
(c) microevolution
(d) co-evolution
75. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
(a) possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
under suitable environmental conditions.
(b) crystallization of chemicals.
(c) interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat.
(d) effect of solar radiation on chemicals.
76. The shape of the heals of Darwins finches, industrial
melanism, or the changes in horse teeth are all
examples of
(a) artificial selection.
(b) natural selection.
(c) convergent evolution.
(d) homologous structures.
77. Stabilizing selection favours
(a) both extreme forms of a tract.
(b) intermediate forms of a tract.
(c) environmental differences.
(d) one extreme form over the other extreme form and
over intermediates forms of a tract.
78. The term living fossil refers to a
(a) life like fossil well preserved in amber.
(b) fossil formed from a living animal.
(c) living animal which is about to the fossilized.
(d) living organisation showing some very primitive
characters.
79. Genetic drift in a new colony is known as the
(a) natural selection (b) Founder effect
(c) branching descent (d) saltation
80. According to Lamarck, a giraffe has a long neck because
(a) a creator designed it that way.
(b) catastrophes eliminated short-necked forms.
(c) its ancestors stretched their necks to get food.
(d) ancestral giraffes with slightly longer necks than
others got more food and left more surviving
offspring.
81. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in
favour of
(a) evolution due to mutation
(b) retrogressive evolution
(c) biogeographical evolution
(d) special creation
82. Hugo de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
evolution while working on
(a) Pisum sativum
(b) Drosophila melanogaster
(c) Oenothera lamarckiana
(d) Althea rosea
83. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of
modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
(a) Shortening of jaws
(b) Binocular vision
(c) Increasing cranial capacity
(d) Upright posture.
84. According to Darwin, two different areas within a
continent have different species because they have
different
(a) evolutionary mechanisms
(b) ancestors
(c) environments
(d) evolutionary times
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
260 Biology
85. The tendency of population to remain in genetic
equilibrium may be disturbed by
(a) random mating (b) lack of immigration
(c) lack of mutations (d) lack of random mating
86. One of the important consequences of geographical
isolation is
(a) random creation of new species.
(b) no change in the isolated fauna.
(c) preventing speciation.
(d) speciation through reproductive isolation.
87. What is meant by the term Darwin fitness?
(a) The ability to survive and reproduce
(b) High aggressiveness
(c) Healthy appearance
(d) Physical straight
88. Which one of the following changes involved is
irrelevant in the evolution of man?
(a) Perfection of hand for tool making.
(b) Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft
food.
(c) Loss of tail.
(d) Increase in the ability to communicate with others
and develop community behaviour.
89. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, allele and
genotype frequencies in a population will remain constant
from generation to generation in the absence of other
evolutionary influences. It makes several assumptions
which were given below.
i. Random Mating
ii. Sexual Reproduction
iii. Non-overlapping Generations
iv. Occurrence of Natural Selection
v. Small size of population
Identify two assumptions which do not met for a
population to reach Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
(a) iv and v (b) ii and iv
(c) iii, iv and v (d) i, ii and iii
90. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium is based on which of the
following equations?
(a) p + pq + q = 1
(b) p + 2pq + q = 1
(c) p + p2q
2
+ q = 1
(d) p2
+ 2pq +q2
= 1
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following disease is confirmed by ‘widal
test’?
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Typhoid
(c) Plague (d) Tetanus
2. The toxic substance, ‘haemozoin’, related to the high fever
and chill, is released during which of the following
disease?
(a) Dengue (b) Malaria
(c) Diphtheria (d) Phenumonia
3. Malignant malaria is caused by the which of the following
species of Plasmodium ?
(a) vivax (b) malariae
(d) ovale (d) falciparum
4. The pathogens of genera, Microsporum, Trichophyton
and Epidermorphyton are responsible for
(a) botulism (b) conjunctivitis
(c) ringworms (d) skin allergy
5. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally
found on human body.
(a) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
(b) Muscles of the legs
(c) Blood vessels of the thigh region
(d) Skin between the fingers
6. Food poisoning is caused by
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Clostridium botulinum
(d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
7. Amoebiasis is caused by
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Entamoeba gingivalis
(c) Trypanosoma gambiense
(d) Entamoeba histolytica
8. Vector for kala azar is:
(a) sandfly (b) bedbug
(c) louse (d) housefly
9. Which of the following set includes bacterial diseases ?
(a) Tetanus, typhoid, tuberculosis
(b) Small pox, influenza, tetanus
(c) Meningitis, measles, syphilis
(d) None of the above.
10. Which of the following is a communicable disease?
(a) Malaria (b) Diabetes
(c) Hypertension (d) Kwashiorkar
11. Black water fever is a severe complication of
(a) Plasmodium falciparum
(b) P. vivax
(c) P. malariae
(d) all of the above
12. Mumps is a viral disease and painful swelling of
(a) parotid glands (b) thyroid
(c) thymus (d) sublingual glands
13. Which of the following disease is not transmitted through
contaminated water ?
(a) Typhoid (b) Diphtheria
(c) Amoebiasis (d) Hepatitis A
14. In which of the following disease, there is always a time
lag between the infection and appearance of the
symptoms of that particular disease?
(a) AIDS (b) Allergy
(c) Cancer (d) Alcoholism
15. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of
infection?
(a) The presence of microorganism in a particular
location.
(b) The disruption of normal host functions by
microorganisms.
(c) The survival and reproduction of microorganisms in
a host.
(d) The appearance of symptoms in a host, caused by
microorganisms.
16. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
(a) eating imperfectly cooked pork.
(b) tse-tse fly.
(c) mosquito bite.
(d) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris. Chapter 30 Jwocp"Jgcnvj"cpf
Fkugcug
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
262 Biology
17. The cells affected in leukaemia are
(a) plasma cells (b) erythrocytes
(c) thrombocytes (d) leucocytes
18. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the
saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?
(a) Physical barriers (b) Cytokine barriers
(c) Cellular barriers (d) Physiological barriers
19. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier
to the entry of micro organisms in human body?
(a) Skin
(b) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(c) Tears
(d) monocytes
20. Immunoglobulins are
(a) antigen (b) antibodies
(c) antiseptics (d) antibiotics
21. Antigens are present
(a) inside the nucleus.
(b) on cell surface.
(c) inside the cytoplasm.
(d) on the nuclear membrane.
22. A cell-coded protein that is formed in response to infection
with most animal viruses is called
(a) interferon (b) antigen
(c) histone (d) antibody
23. The cytotoxic cells are produced by
(a) T-Cells (b) B-Cells
(c) memory Cells (d) mast Cells
24. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to :
(a) thymus (b) thyroid
(c) thalamus (d) tonsil
25. The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain
antigens is called
(a) primary response
(b) secondary response
(c) immune suppression response
(d) allergy
26. Passive immunity is defined as immunity
(a) inherited from the parents.
(b) achieved through vaccination.
(c) acquired through first exposure to the disease.
(d) achieved through the sera of other animals enriched
in antibodies.
27. When body cannot differentiate between its own and
foreign matter it is referred to as
(a) passive immunity (b) active Immunity
(c) autoimmunity (d) immunodeficiency
28. Short -lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across
placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant, is categorized
as
(a) active immunity
(b) passive immunity
(c) cellular immunity
(d) innate non-specific immunity
29. Organ transplant rejection may be prevented by using
(a) antibodies
(b) new T cells
(c) immunosuppressive drug
(d) immunostimulatory drug
30. Antigen binding site in an antibody is found between
(a) two light chains
(b) two heavy chains
(c) one heavy and one light chain
(d) either between two light chains or between one heavy
and one light chain depending upon the nature of antigen.
31. Inflammatory response in allergy is caused by
(a) histamines (b) antigen
(c) prothrombin (c) antibodes
32. Resistance in body against diseases is given by
(a) vaccinations (b) histamine
(c) immunoglobulins (d) antigens
33. The principle of vaccination is based upon which property
of immune system ?
(a) Memory (b) Diversity
(c) Specificity (d) All of these
34. Which of the following results in fever when released in
body during disease ?
(a) Pyrogens (b) Antibodies
(c) Interferons (d) Interleukins
35. The foetus gets immunized after receiving antibodies from
mother through placenta. This type of immunization is called
(a) active immunity (b) innate immunity
(c) passive immunity (d) humoral immunity
36. When a quick immune response is required due to infection
of a deadly microbe, the patient is injected with
(a) protein of pathogen
(b) inactivated or weakened pathogen
(c) preformed antibodies
(d) vaccine
37. Which of the following vaccine has been produced from
yeast by recombinant DNA technology ?
(a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis B
(c) Hib (d) Oral polio
38. B-lymphocytes are associated with
(a) humoral immunity (b) production of heparin
(c) cell mediated immunity (d) internal cleansing
39. Which of the following lymphoid organ provides the site
for the interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen ?
(a) Bone marrow (b) Thymus
(c) Spleen (d) All of these
40. Which of the following is trapped in the lymph nodes and
responsible for the activation of lymphocytes present
there and cause the immune response?
(a) Antigen (b) Antibody
(c) Pathogen (d) Lymph fluid
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Health and Disease 263
41. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease ?
(a) Asthma (b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Cirrhosis (d) AIDS
42. Hepatitis B and AIDS are
(a) caused by Retro-viruses.
(b) transmitted through sexual contact.
(c) congenital diseases.
(d) transmitted through infected blood.
43. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat
and a genetic material which is
(a) Single stranded DNA. (b) Single stranded RNA.
(c) Double stranded RNA. (d) Double stranded DNA.
44. The cell in the human body invaded by the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is
(a) B - cell (b) macrophage
(c) erythrocyte (d) T- helper cell
45. Which is not immunity related disease ?
(a) AIDS (b) Polio
(c) Cancer (d) Small pox
46. Which of the following endocrine glands is often referred
in relation with AIDS?
(a) Thyroid (b) adrenal
(c) Thymus (d) Pancreas
47. AIDS is due to
(a) reduction in number of helper T cells
(b) lack of interferon
(c) reduction in number of killer T cells
(d) autoimmunity
48. Which of the following non-infectious disease is a major
cause of death in human beings?
(a) AIDS (b) Cirrhosis
(c) Cancer (d) Asthma
49. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than
normal cells because they are
(a) non-dividing (b) starved of mutation
(c) different in structure (d) undergoing rapid
division
50. Metastasis is
(a) part of regeneration.
(b) transfer of cancer cells from one part of the body to
another.
(c) fast mitosis in cancer cells
(d) all of the above
51. Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT scanning
and MRI are very useful to detect
(a) autoimmune disorders.
(b) disease caused by viral infection.
(c) disease caused by bacterial infection.
(d) disease caused by an uncontrolled division of
abnormal cells of internal organs.
52. The use of antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly
reduce the symptoms of
(a) fungal disease (b) viral disease
(c) allergy (d) helminthes disease
53. TB is cured by
(a) griseofulvin (b) ubiquinone
(c) rifampin (d) eucitol
54. LSD is obtained from
(a) Cannabis sativus (b) Erythroxylon cocca
(c) Claviceps purpurea (d) Papaver somniferum
55. The drug “Belladonna” is obtained from
(a) Rauwolfia (b) Atropa
(c) Capsicum (d) Solanum
56. Which of the following are hallucinogens ?
(a) Charas (b) Bhang
(c) Ganja (d) All of these
57. Which of the following is a narcotic drug?
(a) Heroin (b) Codeine
(c) Morphine (d) All of these
58. Cyclosporin is used as is
(a) allergic eczema
(b) immunosuppressant
(c) prophylactic for viruses
(d) prophylactic for marasmus
59. Opium is obtained from
(a) Papaver somniferum (b) Rauwolfia serpentina
(c) Cannabis sativus (d) Claviceps purpurea
60. From which part of Atropa belladonna is the
drug’belladona’ obtained?
(a) Stems (b) Flowers
(c) Leaves (d) Dried leaves and roots
61. Narcotic drugs like charas, bhang and ganja are extracted
from
(a) hemp plant (b) coco plant
(c) poppy seeds (d) hallucinogen
62. Hashish and charas are obtained from
(a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Cannabis sativus
(c) Papaver somniferum (d) Claviceps purpurea
63. Opium is obtained from which part of the plant Papaver
somniferum ?
(a) Inflorescence (b) Male part (dried)
(c) Seed (unripe) (d) Leave
64. Ergot, a drug is derived from fungus
(a) Aspergillus (b) Phytopthora
(c) Clavicep (d) Perenospora
65. Cirrhosis of the liver is caused by
(a) cocaine (b) LSD
(c) alcohol (d) morphine
66. Atropine, an alkaloid, is obtained from
(a) Datura anaroxia (b) Atropa belladonna
(c) Hyocyamus niger (d) Withania somnifera
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
264 Biology
67. LSD is obtained from
(a) bryophyte (b) pleridophyte
(c) brown algae (d) fungus
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
68. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) Injecting microbes during immunization induces
passive immunity.
(b) Cell-mediated immune response is responsible for
graft rejection.
(c) Colostrum during initial days of lactation provides
active immunity to infant.
(d) None of the above
69. Which of the following statements regarding drugs are
correct ?
(i) Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by
acetylation of morphine.
(ii) Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver
somniferum.
(iii) Marijuana interferes with the transmission of
dopamine.
(iv) Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
70. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals ?
(a) These are produced in thyroid.
(b) These originate in lymphoid tissues.
(c) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris.
(d) There are three main types of T-lymphocytes -
cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells and suppressor T cells.
71. Which of the following is the correct statement regarding
the particular psychotropic drug specified?
(a) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary
euphoria
(b) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and
hallucinations.
(c) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes
hallucinations.
(d) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed
emotions.
72. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis.
(b) Patients who have undergone surgery are given
cannabinoids to relieve pain.
(c) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis.
(d) Heroin accelerates body functions.
73. The following four statements (i - iv) kidney transplant.
Identify the two correct statements.
(i) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient
may need to take immunosuppresants for a long time.
(ii) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible
for the graft rejection.
(iii) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of
the graft.
(iv) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant
depends on the specific interferons.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
74. Which one of the following statements is correct with
respect to AIDS?
(a) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper
T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers.
(b) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food
together with an infected person.
(c) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection.
(d) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent
with proper care and nutrition.
75. Select the correct statement.
(a) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it
stimulates recovery.
(b) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell
the truth.
(c) Morphine is often given to persons who have
undergone surgery as a pain killer.
(d) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart
rate.
76. Sporozoites of the malarial parasite are found in
(a) salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles
mosquito.
(b) saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito.
(c) red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from
malaria.
(d) spleen of infected humans.
77. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show
symptoms of AIDS?
(a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected
person.
(b) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells.
(c) When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
(d) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes
and damages large number of these.
78. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and
immunization.
(a) Certain protozoans have been used to produce
hepatitis B vaccine.
(b) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is
an example of active immunization.
(c) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are
damaged, the body will not produce antibodies
against a pathogen.
(d) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes
passive immunity.
79. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that
(a) pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common
cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
influenzae.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Health and Disease 265
(b) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the
common cold affects nose and respiratory passage
but not the lungs.
(c) pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the
common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease.
(d) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated
bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no
effective vaccine.
80. Which one of the following in not a property of cancerous
cells ?
(a) They divide in an uncontrolled manner.
(b) They show contact inhibition.
(c) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.
(d) They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
81. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the
number of helper T cells and the viral concentration in the
blood?
(a) As the number of HIV increase, so do the numbers
of helper T cells.
(b) As the number of HIV increase, the number of helper
T cells decreases.
(c) As the concentration of HIV decreases, the number
of helper T cells increases.
(d) There is no relationship between the concentration
of HIV and the number of helper T cells.
82. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease.
(b) The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenaline, and
steroids quickly reduces the symptoms of bacterial
infection.
(c) Several genes (called cellular oncogenes) have been
identified in normal cells which when activated under
certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic
transformation of the cells.
(d) The vaccine also generates memory – B and T cells
that recognize the pathogen quickly on subsequent
exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive
production of antibodies.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
83. Assertion : Active immunity is slow and takes time to
give its full effective response.
Reason : Injecting the microbes intentionally during
immunization or infectious organisms gaining access into
body during natural infection induces active immunity.
84. Assertion : Cocaine has a potent stimulating action on
central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria
and increased energy.
Reason : It interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
85. Assertion: Inspire of exposure to large number of
infectious agents humans are resistive to diseases.
Reason: Humans are able to defend against most of the
foreign agents due to the ability to fight disease-causing
organisms.
86. Assertion: Virus-infected cells secrete proteins known
as interferons.
Reason: Interferons protect the non-infected cells from
bacterial infection.
87. Assertion: Artificially acquired passive immunity results
when antibodies or lymphocytes produced outside the
host are introduced into a host.
Reason: A bone marrow transplant given to a patient with
genetic immunodeficiency is an example of artificially
acquired passive immunity.
88. Assertion: Antiretroviral drugs are very effective in
treatment against AIDS.
Reason: AIDS virus is a retrovirus with ssDNA as genetic
material.
89. Assertion: IgG is the most abundant class of lgs in the
body.
Reason: IgG is mainly found in sweet, tears, saliva, mucus,
colostrum and gastro-intestinal secretions.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
90. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Malaria – Plasmodium
(b) Plague – Yersinia pestis
(c) Tuberculosis – Trichuris trichura
(d) Sleeping – Trypanosoma
sickness gambiense
91. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(a) Culex pipiens – Filariasis
(b) Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever
(c) Female Anopheles – Leishmaniasis
(d) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness
92. Which one of the following pair is correctly match?
(a) Bhang – Analgesic
(b) Cocaine – Opiate narcotics
(c) Morphine – Hallucinogen
(d) Barbiturate – Sedatives
93. Which one of the following is the correct match for
diseases and its causative agents ?
(a) AIDS – Bacillus
(b) Syphilis – Treoponema pallidum
(c) Malaria – Trypanosoma
(d) Gonorrhoea – Virus
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
266 Biology
94. Column I lists the components of body defence
and column II lists the corresponding descriptions. Match
the two columns and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(components of body defence) (Description)
A. Active natural I. Injection of gamma
immunity globulins
B. First line of II. Complement proteins
defence and interferons
C. Passive natural III. Direct contact with
immunity the pathogens that
have entered inside
D. Second line of IV. Surface barriers
defence V. Antibodies
transferred through
the placenta
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – II
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – II
(d) A – V; B – III; C – II; D – I
95. Match the disease given in column I with the appropriate
items (pathogen/ prevention/treatment) given in column II.
Column-I Column-II
(Diseases) (Pathogen/prevention/treatment)
A. Amoebiasis I. Lassa virus
B. Diphtheria II. Use only sterilized
food and water
C. Cholera III. DPT vaccine
D. Rabies IV. Use oral rehydration
therapy
(a) A – II; B – III;C – IV; D – I
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
96. Which one of the following options gives the correct
matching of a disease with its causative organism and
mode of infection?
Disease Causative Mode of Infection
organisms
(a) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected
bancrofti water and food
(b) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
vivax Anopheles mosquito
(c) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired air
typhi
(d) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet infection
pneumoniae
97. In which one of the following options the two examples
(given in column I) are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity (given in column II)?
Column I Column II
(Examples) (Type of immunity)
(a) Saliva in mouth – Physical barriers
and tears in eyes
(b) Mucus coating of – Physiological barriers
epithelium, urogential
tract and HCl in stomach
(c) Polymorphonuclear – Cellular barriers
leucocytes and
monocytes
(d) Anti-tetanus and – Active immunity
anti-snake bite
injections
98. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Cholera – Vibrio cholerae
(b) German measles – Rubella virus
(c) Whooping cough – Bordetella pertussis
(d) Tetanus – Pasteurella pestis
99. Select the correct match of the symptoms of diseases
given in column I with their respective pathogen of the
diseases given in column II.
Column I Column II
A. Appearance of dry, scaly I. Entamoeba
lesions on various parts histolytica
of the body such as skin
nails and scalp.
B. Chronic inflammation II. Ascaris
of the lymphatic vessel of lumbricoides
lower limbs.
C. Fever, chills, cough, III. Haemophilus
headache and in severe cases influenzae
the lips and finger nails may
turn gray to bluish in colour.
D. Constipation, abdominal pain IV. Wuchereria
and cramps, stool with excess bancrofti
mucous and blood clots.
E. Internal bleeding, muscular
pain, fever, anaemia and V. Microsporum
blockage of intestinal
passage.
(a) A – I; B – II;C – III; D – IV; E – V
(b) A – III; B – V;C – II; D – IV; E – I
(c) A – III; B – I;C – V; D – II; E – IV
(d) A – V; B – IV;C – III; D – I; E – II
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Health and Disease 267
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
100. Identify the molecules (i) and (ii) given below and select
the right option giving their source and use.
(i)
N
CH3
O
CH3
O
H
H
O
O
(ii)
O
H
OH
Molecule Source Use
(a) (i) Cocaine Erythroxylum
coca
Accelerates
the transport
of dopamine
(b) (ii) Heroin Cannabis
sativa
Depressant
and slows
down body
functions
(c) (ii) Cannabinoid Atropa
belladonna
Produces
hallucinations
(d) (i) Morphine Papaver
somniferum
Sedative and
pain killer
101. Refer the given figure showing the mode of action of
AIDS virus and identify the sequences labelled as A, B, C
and D.
Virus infects
normal animal cell
AIDS virus
A
B
C
D
(a) A - Viral DNA introduced into cell; B - Viral DNA;
C - Viral DNA incorporates into host RNA; D - New
viral RNA produced
(b) A - Viral RNA introduced into cell; B - Viral RNA;
C - Viral DNA incorporates into host DNA; D - New
viral DNA produced
(c) A - Viral RNA introduced into cell; B - Viral DNA;
C - Viral DNA incorporates into host DNA; D - New
viral RNA produced
(d) A - Viral DNA introduced into cell; B - Viral RNA;
C - Viral RNA incorporates into host DNA; D - New
viral DNA produced
102. Given figure shows the human lymphatic system with
some part marked as A, B, C and D identify the correct
part
A
B
C
D
(a) A - lymph nodes (primary lymphoid organ), B -
thymus (primary lymphoid organ), C - spleen
(secondary lymphoid organ), D - bone marrow
(secondary lymphoid organ)
(b) A - lymph nodes (primary lymphoid organ), B -
thymus (secondary lymphoid organ), C - spleen
(primary lymphoid organ), D - bone marrow (primary
lymphoid organ)
(c) A - lymph nodes (secondary lymphoid organ),
B - thymus (primary lymphoid organ), C-spleen
(secondary lymphoid organ), D - bone marrow
(primary. lymphoid organ)
(d) A- lymph nodes (primary lymphoid organ), B -
thymus (secondary lymphoid organ), C - spleen
(secondary lymphoid organ), D - bone marrow
(secondary lymphoid organ)
103. The diagram given below shows an antibody molecule
with their parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E & F. Identify the
part marked as A, B, C, D, E and F.
A
B
C
F
Bond/Bridge
E-chain
D-chain
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
268 Biology
110. In polio, the legs get paralyzed and atrophied due to :
(a) obstruction of muscles.
(b) death of some muscles.
(c) degeneration of bones.
(d) shrinkage of muscles.
111. Which of these may cause hypothermia in humans ?
(a) Smoking (b) LSD
(c) Dopamine (d) Alcohol consumption
112. The main reason, why antibodies could not solve all the
problems of bacteria mediated diseases, is the
(a) Development of mutant strains resistant to
antibodies.
(b) Inactivation of antibodies by bacterial enzymes.
(c) Decreased efficiency of the immune system.
(d) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged
exposure to antibiotics.
113. Which part of the brain is not affected by alcohol?
(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla oblongata (d) Pons varolii
114. Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons which causes
(a) reduction in oxygen transport.
(b) retardation of growth of foetus.
(c) increase in blood sugar level.
(d) cancer.
115. In alcoholics, liver gets damaged as it
(a) secretes more bile.
(b) stores excess of glycogen.
(c) accumulates excess of fats.
(d) all of the above.
116. There is a patient having a disease in which a semi–solid
material oozes out and forms a tough membrane over it in
air passage. The disease is called
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis
(c) tetanus (d) TB
117. What is common between mumps, cholera and TB ?
(a) They are all bacterial diseases.
(b) They are all endemic diseases.
(c) They are all viral diseases.
(d) They are all communicable diseases.
118. Saline is given to a person suffering with cholera because
(a) it causes lysis of bacterial cell wall.
(b) cholera results in severe diarrhoea leading to loss of
salts.
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) saline helps to produce antitoxins.
119. A person is injected with globulin against hepatitis. This
is
(a) naturally acquired active immunity.
(b) naturally acquired passive immnity.
(c) artificially acquired active immunity.
(d) artificially acquired passive immunity.
(a) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region
(of L-Chain); C - Constant region (of L-Chain); D -
Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy
polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F - Disulfide bond.
(b) A - Antigen binding site; B-Constant region
(of L-Chain); C - Variable region (of L-Chain); D -
Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E-Heavy
polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F - Disulfide bond.
(c) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region
(of L-Chain); C - Constant region (of L-Chain); D -
Heavy polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E - Light
polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F - Hydrogen bond
(d) A-Antigen binding site; B-Variable region
(of L-Chain); C - Constant region (of L-Chain); D -
Light polypeptide chain (L-Chain); E - Heavy
polypeptide chain (H-Chain); F - Hydrogen bond
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
104. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?
(a) Typhoid and tetanus
(b) AIDS and syphilis
(c) Rabies and mumps
(d) Cholera and tuberculosis
105. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from acquired
immuno deficiency syndrome. Which diagnostic
technique will you recommend for its detection?
(a) WIDAL (b) ELISA
(c) MRI (d) Ultrasound
106. A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium
experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when
(a) The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly
killed and broken down inside speen.
(b) The trophozoites reach maximum growth and give
out certain toxins.
(c) The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs
ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh
RBCs.
(d) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are
being destroyed by the WBCs.
107. Hormone produced against allergic reaction is
(a) epinephrine (b) nor-epinephrine
(c) glucocorticoid (d) mineralocorticocoid
108. Vaccines produced through genetic engineering are
considered safe because they
(a) are active form of antigens.
(b) are the least active forms.
(c) contain antibodies for coat proteins only.
(d) contain antibodies against whole antigen.
109. If you keep the sanitary system around yourself sound
then the disease which will not most probably break out
is :
(a) cholera (b) malaria
(c) beri-beri (d) scurvy
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Human Health and Disease 269
120. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to
(a) reduction in haemoglobin content of blood.
(b) reduction in stem cell production.
(c) loss of antibody mediated immunity.
(d) loss of cell mediated immunity.
121. The best HLA (human leukocyte antigen) match for
transplants in order of preference is
(a) sibling > twin > parent > unrelated donor
(b) twin > unrelated donor > parent > sibling
(c) twin > sibling > parent > unrelated donor
(d) sibling > parent > twin > unrelated donor
122. Which one of the following pairs of diseases is viral as
well as transmitted by mosquitoes?
(a) Elephantiasis and dengue
(b) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
(c) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness
(d) Yellow fever and dengue
123. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm
disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom of
organisms as that of
(a) Rhizopus, a mould
(b) Ascaris, a round worm
(c) Taenia, a tapeworm
(d) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
124. Given below are some reasons which affect health of
human beings. Identify the correct reason.
(i) Genetic disorders (ii) Infections
(iii) Life styles (iv) Mental state
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (v) (d) All of these
125. A person is suffering from one disease and shows the
following symptoms, like sustained high fever (39 to 40
degree Celsius), weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
headache and loss of appetite. His doctor confirmed that
he is suffering from one bacterial infection.
On which of the following facts (given below) his doctor
confirmed the bacterial infection.
(i) Salmonella typhi bacteria are responsible for the
infection.
(ii) Streptococcus pneumonia is responsible for the
infection.
(iii) By seeing the report which shows the positive result
of Widal test.
(iv) The pathogen is transmitted through the bite of
female Anopheles mosquito.
(v) As a result of infection, the alveoli get filled with
fluid leading to severe problem in respiration.
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (ii), (iii) and (v) only
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) only
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. India and China have more than 70% of world livestock
population and produce the following percentage of world
farm.
(a) 10 % (b) 25 %
(c) 40 % (d) 50 %
2. When breeding is between animals of the same breed it is
called ______________, while crosses between different
breeds are called ______________.
(a) out-breeding; inbreeding
(b) inbreeding; out-breeding
(c) out breeding; cross-breeding
(d) cross-breeding; inbreeding
3. Inbreeding depression
(a) usually increases fertility only.
(b) usually reduces productivity only.
(c) usually reduces fertility and productivity.
(d) usually increases fertility and productivity.
4. Which one of the following is a new breed of sheep
developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and
Marino rams?
(a) Hisardale (b) White Leghorn
(c) Assel (d) Langshan
5. The 'mule' is the result of
(a) inbreeding depression
(b) out-breeding
(c) cross-breeding
(d) inter-specific hybridization
6. MOET stands for
(a) Multiple Ovulation and Embryo Transfer
Technology
(b) Multiple Ovulation Energy Transport Technology
(c) Method of Ovulation Energy Transfer Technology
(d) Method of Ovulation Energy Transport Technology
7. Which of the following stage is transferred to surrogate
mothers in livestock breeding experiments?
(a) Unfertilized eggs (b) Fertilized eggs
(c) 8 to 32 celled embryo (d) Frozen semen
8. A branch of science that deals with the maintenance of
hives of honeybees for the production of honey is called
______.
(a) aquaculture (b) pisciculture
(c) apiculture (d) sericulture
9. Which of the following species of honeybee is reared in
artificial hives?
(a) Apis indica (b) Apis florea
(c) Apis rohita (d) Apis dorsata
10. Which one of the following is a freshwater fish?
(a) Catla (b) Rohu
(c) Common carp (d) All of these
11. Which one of the following is/are marine fish?
(a) Rohu (b) Hilsa
(c) Mackerel (d) Both (b) and (c)
12. 33 percent of India’s GDP (Gross Domestic Product) comes
from ______________ and employs _____________
percent of the population.
(a) industry; 70 (b) agriculture; 62
(c) export; 30 (d) agriculture; 75
13. The new varieties of plants are produced by
(a) selection and hybridization.
(b) mutation and selection.
(c) introduction and mutation.
(d) selection and introduction.
14. Which of the following is a variety of Brassica resistant
to white rust disease?
(a) Himgiri (b) Pusa komal
(c) Pusa swarnim (Karan rai)(d) Pusa Sadabahar
15. Pusa Snowball K–1 is a variety of
(a) wheat (b) chilli
(c) cowpea (d) cauliflower
16. Which of the following processes is used for creating
genetic variation by changing the base sequence within
genes resulting in the creation of a new character or trait
not found in the parental type?
(a) Selection (b) Hybridization
(c) Mutation (d) Breeding Chapter 31 Uvtcvgikgu"hqt
Gpjcpegogpv"kp"Hqqf
Rtqfwevkqp
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 271
17. Which of the following is generally used for induced
mutagenesis in crop plants?
(a) X-rays (b) UV (260 nm) radiations
(c) Gamma rays (from cobalt 60)(d) Alpha particles
18. Which one of the following technique is used for the
manipulation of plant species in order to create desired
plant types that are better suited for cultivation and give
better yields and are disease resistant?
(a) Out-breeding (b) Out-crossing
(c) Cross-breeding (d) Plant breeding
19. The entire collection (of plants/ seeds) having all the
diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called
_________. collection.
(a) germplasm (b) genome
(c) genebank (d) genotype
20. In Abelmoschus esculentus (bhindi), resistance genes are
transferred from a wild species against yellow mosaic virus
and resulted in a new variety of A. Esculentus called _____
(a) Pusa swarnim (b) Himgiri
(c) Pusa sadabahar (d) Parbhani kranti
21. Which of the following factor(s) is/are responsible for
resistance to maize stem borers?
(a) High aspartic acid (b) Low nitrogen content
(c) Low sugar content (d) All of the above
22. Which of the following variety of wheat, having a high
protein content, has been used as a donor for improving
cultivated wheat ?
(a) Himgiri (b) Atlas 66
(c) Sonalika (d) Kalyan Sona
23. A plant cell has potential to develop into full plant. This
property of the plant cell is called ________ .
(a) tissue culture (b) totipotency
(c) pleuripotency (d) gene cloning
24. An explant is a
(a) dead plant. (b) part of the plant.
(c) part of the plant used in tissue culture.
(d) part of the plant that expresses a specific gene.
25. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by
tissue culture method is called _______ .
(a) micropropagation (b) macropropagation
(c) plantlet culture (d) organ culture
26. Protoplast of two different species are fused in _______.
(a) micropropagation (b) somatic hybridization
(c) clonal propagation (d) organography
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
27. Which of the following statements about breeding is
incorrect?
(a) By inbreeding, purelines cannot be evolved.
(b) Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding
reduces fertility and productivity.
(c) Cross-breeding allows desirable qualities of two
different breeds to be combined.
(d) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are
eliminated by selection.
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(a) Haploid culture technique was developed by Guha
and Maheshwari.
(b) A line consists of a group of individuals related by
descent and with similar genotype.
(c) Mutation is a sudden heritable change in a character
of an organism.
(d) All of the above
29. Which of the following statements is correct
(a) A gene bank should not be regarded as a plant museum.
(b) The germplasm, stored in the gene bank are actively
utilized by breeders to develop novel varieties.
(c) The phase between 1960 - 1970 is often called the
Green Revolution.
(d) All of the above
30. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(a) In 2000, maize hybrids that had twice the amounts of
the amino acids, lysine and proline, compared to
existing maize hybrids were developed.
(b) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New
Delhi has released several vegetable crops that are
rich in vitamins and minerals.
(c) Some of the diseases caused by fungi are black rot
of crucifers, tobacco mosaic, turnip mosaic etc.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
31. Consider the following four statements (i – iv) and select
the option which includes all the correct ones only.
(i) Single cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of
food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins, etc.
(ii) Body weight-wise, the micro-organism
Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to
produce several times more proteins than the cows
per day.
(iii) Common button mushrooms are a very rich source
of vitamin C.
(iv) A rice variety has been developed which is very rich
in calcium.
(a) (iii) and (iv) only (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only (d) (i) and (ii) only
32. Select the correct statement(s).
(i) IARI has released a mustard variety rich in vitamin C.
(ii) Pusa Sawani, a variety of Okra is resistant to aphids.
(iii) Hairiness of leaves provides resistance to insect
pests.
(iv) Agriculture accounts for approximately 33% of India's
GDP and employs nearly 62% of the population.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of these
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
272 Biology
33. Read the following statement(s) and answer the question.
(i) Animal husbandry is the industrial practice of
breeding and raising livestock.
(ii) Dairy farm management deals with processes which
improve the quality and quantity of milk production.
(iii) Poultry is the class of domesticated birds used for
food or eggs.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
34. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding inbreeding?
(i) It is the mating of more closely related individuals
within the same breed for 4-6 generations.
(ii) It decreases homozygosity .
(iii) It exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated
by selection.
(iv) Inbreeding depression results due to continued
Inbreeding, especially close – inbreeding, may reduce
fertility and productivity.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
35. Which of the following includes all the characteristics
described given below ?
(i) In this method of breeding, the mating of animals
occurs with same breed.
(ii) They have no common ancestors on either side of
their pedigree upto 4 - 6 generations.
(iii) It is best for those animals that are below average in
productivity in milk production, growth rate in beef
cattle.
(iv) It helps to overcome inbreeding depression.
(a) Inbreeding (b) Out-breeding
(c) Out-crossing (d) Cross-breeding
36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Fishery is an industry, which deals with catching,
processing and marketing of fishes and other aquatic
animals such as prawn, crab, lobster, edible oyster,
etc. that have a high economic value.
(ii) Both aquaculture and pisciculture are same.
(iii) The development and flourishing of the fishery
industry is called silver revolution.
(a) Only (i) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Out-breeding is the breeding of the unrelated animals
which may be between individuals of the same breed
but having no common ancestors for 4 - 6 generations
or between different breeds or different species.
(ii) Cross-breeding allows the desirable qualities of two
different breeds to be combined.
(iii) In interspecific hybridization, male and female
animals of two different related species are mated.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
38. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Sonalika and Kalyan sona were low yielding and
disease resistant crops.
(b) Saccharum barberi had high sugar content and
yield, but was originally grown in north India.
(c) Saccharum officinarum had thicker stems and higher
sugar content, but did not grow well in north India.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
39. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column -I Column -II
A. Pisciculture I. Micropropagation
B. Apiculture II. Crop production
C. Tissue culture III. Rearing of fishes
D. Green revolution IV. Fish-production
E. Blue revolution V. Bee-keeping
(a) A – III; B – V; C – IV; D – I; E – II
(b) A – III; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – IV
(c) A – V; B – III; C – I; D – II; E – IV
(d) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – I; E – IV
40. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Many people I. Single cell proteins
have deficiencies
as they cannot buy
fruits & vegetables
B. Crops with higher II. Micropropagation
vitamins, proteins
and fats
C. Growing microbes III. Somaclones
as the alternative
source of proteins
D. Capacity to IV. Hidden hunger
generate plant
from a single cell
or explant
E. Production of V. Bio-fortification
thousand plants
through tissue culture
F. Genetically VI. Totipotency
identical plants
(a) A – IV; B – V; C – VI; D – I; E – II; F – III
(b) A – IV; B – V; C – VI; D – I; E – III; F – II
(c) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – VI; E – II; F – III
(d) A – VI; B – V; C – I; D – IV; E – II; F – III
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 273
41. Choose the option showing the crop plants with its correct
A. Semi Dwarf Wheat I. Sonalika
B. Semi Dwarf Rice II. Kalyan sona
III. IR-8
IV. Jaya
V. Taichung Native-1
VI. Ratna
(a) A – I, III, V; B – II, IV, VI (b) A – III, IV, V, VI; B – I, II
(c) A – I, II, IV; B – III, V, VI (d) A – I, II; B – III, IV, V, VI
42. Match the crops given in column-I with their resistance
to disease given in column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-1 Column-II
(Crop) (Resistance to diseases)
A. Wheat I. Tobacco mosaic virus
and leaf curl
B. Brassica II. Bacterial blight
C. Cowpea III. Leaf and stripe rust
D. Cauliflower IV. White rust
E. Chilli V. Black rot and curl
blight black rot
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – V
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I
(c) A – IV; B – III; C – V; D – I; E – II
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
43. Which of the following crop plant is not matching as
correct pair with its variety ?
(i) Wheat – Himgiri
(ii) Brassica – Pusa Gaurav
(iii) Cauliflower – Pusa Komal
(iv) Chilli – Pusa Sadabahar
(v) Okra – Pusa Sawani
(a) Only (i) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
44. Which of the following is not correctly matched with its
variety?
(a) Brassica (rapeseed mustard) – Pusa Gaurav
(b) Cowpea – Pusa Sadabahar
(c) Flat been –Pusa sem 2
(d) Okra (Bhindi) – Pusa A-4
45. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
(a) Explant – Excised plant part used
for callus formation
(b) Cytokinins – Root initiation in callus
(c) Somatic embryo – Embryo produced
from a vegetative cells
(d) Anther culture – Haploid plants
46. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
(a) Sericulture - Fish
(b) Pisciculture - Silk moth
(c) Aquaculture - mosquitoes
(d) Apiculture - Honey bee
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
47. Assertion : Somatic embryos can be induced from any
cell in plant tissue culture.
Reason : Any living plant cell is capable of differentiating
into somatic embryos.
48. Assertion : Fish meal is a rich protein source for poultry
and cattle.
Reason : It is produced from the fins and tail (the nonedible parts)
49. Assertion : An important technique of genetic
engineering is protoplast culture.
Reason : It results in the production of genetically
modified crops.
50. Assertion : Meristem tissue culture can produced virus
free plants from virus infected plants.
Reason : In this technique the growth of the virus is
inhibited during the growth of the host tissue.
51. Assertion : A major advantage of tissue culture is
protoplast fusion.
Reason : A hybrid is formed by the fusion of naked
protoplasts of two plants.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTION
52. Refer the given figures and answer the questions.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding
the above figures?
(i) These are all Indian hybrid crops of low yielding varieties.
(ii) These are all Indian hybrid crops of high yielding varieties.
(iii) The production of the above crops led to dramatic
increase in food production.
(iv) These crops are produced as a result of various
plants breeding technique.
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) only (d) (i) and (iii) only
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
274 Biology
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
53. Select the correct chronological order of the events
occuring during callus culture
(a) Callus ® Cell division ® Explant ® Addition of
cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property.
(b) Explant ® Callus ® Cell division ® Addition of
cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property.
(c) Explant ® Cell division ® Callus ® Addition of
cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property.
(d) Callus ® Explant ® Cell division ® Addition of
cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property.
54. Which one of the following combination would a sugarcane farmer look for in the sugarcane crop ?
(a) Thick stem, long internodes, high sugar content and
disease resistant.
(b) Thick stem, high sugar content and profuse flowering.
(c) Thick stem, short internodes, high sugar content,
disease resistant.
(d) Thick stem, low sugar content, disease resistant.
55. The biggest compulsion of plant breeding is
(a) infrastructure.
(b) trained manpower.
(c) transfer of genes from unrelated sources.
(d) availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild
relatives.
56. High milk yielding varieties of cows are obtained by
(a) super ovulation (b) artificial insemination
(c) use of surrogate mothers (d) all of the above
57. Crop improvement is possible through
(a) judicious combination of selection, introduction and
hybridization.
(b) selection
(c) scientific improvement of cultivated plants.
(d) introduction.
58. In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue culture
the best method is
(a) meristem culture (b) protoplast culture
(c) embryo rescue (d) anther culture
59. Which of the following is the process of choosing parent
organisms for the characteristic that is wanted in their
offspring?
(a) Active selection (b) Reproductive selection
(c) Selective breeding (d) None of the above
60. Which of the following is the consequence of plant
diseases?
(a) Reduced yield and lower quality of produce.
(b) Reduced yield, lower quality of produce and
increased cost of production.
(c) Reduced yield, lower quality of produce and
poisonous produce.
(d) Reduced yield, lower quality of produce, increased
cost of production and poisonous produce.
61. Sharbati sonora variety of wheat was obtained by
(a) X-ray treatment.
(b) crossing with wild varieties of wheat.
(c) hybridization between wild grasses.
(d) irradiation of sonora 64 with gamma rays.
62. Plants derived sexually from the same plant are
_______while those derived from somatic tissue from
the same plant are ______________.
(a) identical, different (b) different, also different
(c) different, identical (d) identical, also identical
63. Which of the following pair of hormones are required for
a callus to differentiate ?
(a) Auxin and cytokinin
(b) Auxin and ethylene
(c) Auxin and abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinin and gibberellin
64. In crop improvement programme, haploids are important
because they
(a) require one half of nutrients.
(b) are helpful in study of meiosis.
(c) grow better under adverse conditions.
(d) form perfect homozygous.
65. Which of the following techniques used in animal
biotechnology are required for the rapid multiplication
and production of animals with a desirable genotype ?
(a) Protoplast fusion and embryo transfer.
(b) Hybrid selection and embryo transfer.
(c) In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer.
(d) All of the above
66. The way in which biotechnology is contributed to
sustainable agriculture is
(a) biofertilizer
(b) single cell protein (SCP)
(c) disease and insect resistant varieties
(d) all of the above
67. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice
(a) does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones.
(b) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A.
(c) is completely resistant to all insect pests and
diseases of paddy.
(d) gives high yield but has no characteristic aroma.
68. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from
pollen grains is due to
(a) cellular totipotency (b) organogenesis
(c) double fertilization (d) test-tube culture
69. Plants can be disease resistant by
(a) breeding with their wild relatives.
(b) colchicine treatment.
(c) hormone treatment.
(d) heat treatment.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 275
70. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops
is
(a) extensive use of insecticides and pesticides.
(b) extensive mixed cropping.
(c) introduction of high yielding varieties.
(d) extensive use of fertilizers.
71. Which of the following is not used for crop
improvement?
(a) Inbreeding (b) Introduction
(c) Hybridization (d) Mutations
72. Somaclonal variation appears in
(a) organisms produced through somatic hybridization.
(b) plants growing in highly polluted conditions.
(c) apomictic plants.
(d) tissue culture raised plants.
73. Totipotency refers to the
(a) capacity to generate genetically identical plants.
(b) capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant
cell explant.
(c) capacity to generate hybrid protoplasts.
(d) recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants.
74. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab
by one of the breeding technique in which superior male
of one breed is mated with superior females of another
breed.
Identify the breeding technique from the option given below.
(a) Inbreeding (b) Out crossing
(c) Out breeding (d) Cross breeding
75. On the basis of the following process, answer the
question.
(i) gene transfer
(ii) transfer of cytoplasm
(iii) production of useful allopolyploids
Which of the following term is used in the given process?
(a) Somatic hybrid (b) Single cell protein
(c) Bio - fortification (d) None of the above
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following bacteria converts milk into curd ?
(a) Propionibacterium (b) Lactobacillus
(c) Streptococcus (d) Bacillus
2. Which role is played by lactic acid bacteria (LAB) in our
stomach ?
(a) Beneficial (b) Harmful
(c) Neutral (d) All of these
3. Lactic acid bacteria convert milk into curd and improves
its nutritional quality by enhancing
(a) vitamin A (b) vitamin B
(c) vitamin C (d) vitamin D
4. The bacterium that commonly lives in animal and human
intestine is
(a) Bacillus anthracis (b) Vibrio cholerae
(c) Escherichia coli (d) Corynebacterium
5. Which gas is responsible for the puffed-up appearance
of dough ?
(a) CO2
(b) O2
(c) SO2
(d) NO2
6. In cheese microorganisms are required for
(a) ripening only
(b) souring of milk only
(c) souring and ripening
(d) development of resistance to spoilage
7. Which of the following scientists showed that
Saccharomyces cerevisiae causes fermentation forming
products such as beer and buttermilk ?
(a) Louis Pasteur (b) Alexander Flemming
(c) Selman Waksman (d) Schatz
8. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is employed in production of
(a) idli (b) beer
(c) bread (d) all of these
9. Which bacterium helps in the production of ‘Swiss
cheese’?
(a) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(b) Trichoderma polysporum
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Aspergillus niger
10. Which one of the following is used in the manufacture of
alcohol ?
(a) Bacteria (b) Bread molds
(c) Yeasts (d) Slime molds
11. Conversion of sugar into alcohol during fermentation is
due to the direct action of
(a) temperature
(b) micro-organisms
(c) zymase
(d) concentration of sugar solution
12. Glucose fermentation by yeast yields
(a) ethanol + CO2
(b) ethanol + H2O
(c) methanol + CO2
(d) H2O + CO2
13. Streptokinase, used as a ‘clot buster’ is obtained from
(a) Streptococcus (b) Staphylococcus
(c) Lactobacillus (d) Saccharomyces
14. Cyclosporin A is used for
(a) dissolving blood clots
(b) lowering cholesterol level
(c) immunosuppression
(d) enhancing tenderness of meat
15. The bioactive molecule cyclosporin A is used in the treatment
of
(a) whooping cough (b) diphtheria
(c) leprosy (d) organ-transplant patients
16. Statins are obtained from
(a) Streptococcus (b) Mucor javanicus
(c) Monascus purpureus (d) Clostridium butyricum
17. Statins, a bioactive molecule, inhibits the enzyme
responsible for synthesis of
(a) carbohydrate (b) protein
(c) vitamins (d) cholesterol
18. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the
production of
(a) ethanol
(b) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood
vessels
(c) citric acid
(d) blood cholesterol lowering statins Chapter 32 Oketqdgõ kp Jwïãp
Ygnhãtg
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Microbes in Human Welfare 277
19. The large vessels for growing microbes on an industrial
scale are called _________ .
(a) petridish (b) digestors
(c) biogas vessel (d) fermentors
20. Sewage purification is done by
(a) microbes (b) fertilizers
(c) antibiotics (d) antiseptics
21. The chemical substances produced by some microbes
which can kill or retard the growth of other microbes are
called _________ .
(a) toddy (b) lactic acid
(c) antibiotics (d) ethanol
22. Primary treatment of sewage is
(a) physical process (b) biological process
(c) chemical process (d) biochemical process
23. Primary sludge is used for the
(a) preparation of compost (b) preparation of manure
(c) biogas production (d) all of these
24. Passage of effluents into oxidation tank is for
(a) primary treatment (b) secondary treatment
(c) tertiary treatment (d) both (a) and (b)
25. The amount of oxygen required by microbes in the
decomposition of organic matter is called _________ .
(a) chemical oxygen demand
(b) biochemical oxygen demand
(c) total oxygen demand
(d) dissolve oxygen
26. BOD refers to
(a) bacteria oxygen demand
(b) biochemical oxygen demand
(c) biochemical operation demand
(d) biological organism demand
27. Sewage treatment process in which part of decomposer
bacteria is recycled into starting of the process is called
__________ .
(a) cyclic treatment
(b) primary treatment
(c) tertiary treatment
(d) activated sludge treatment
28. During sewage treatment, biogases produced include
which of the following gases ?
(a) Methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
(b) Hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
(c) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
(d) Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
29. Ganga and Yamuna action plan is initiated by
(a) Ministry of environment and forest.
(b) Ministry of agriculture.
(c) Ministry of wild-life conservation.
(d) None of the above
30. Methanogenic bacteria are present in
(a) anaerobic sludge
(b) rumen (a part of stomach) of cattle
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
31. The technology of biogas production was developed in
India mainly due to the efforts of
(a) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
(b) National Botanical Research Institute (NBR1).
(c) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
(d) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
32. Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by
inserting a piece of DNA from
(a) an insect
(b) a wild relative of cotton
(c) a bacterium
(d) a virus
33. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars
is
(a) Trichoderma sp.
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) Streptococcus sp.
34. The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for
(a) killing insects.
(b) biological control of plant diseases.
(c) controlling butterfly caterpillars.
(d) producing antibiotics.
35. Baculoviruses (nucleopolyhedrovirus) does not show
(a) host specificity.
(b) narrow spectrum applications.
(c) effects on non-target pathogens.
(d) utility in IPM programme.
36. Which of the following serve as biofertilizer in paddy
fields?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Yeast
(c) Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae)
(d) Fungi
37. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can
also form symbiotic association with the water fern Azolla
is
(a) Anabaena (b) Tolypothrix
(c) Chlorella (d) Nostoc
38. Which of the following plants is used as biofertilizer ?
(a) Nostoc (b) Funaria
(c) Volvox (d) Rhizopus
39. Symbiotic asociation is exhibited by
I. Mycorrhiza II. Rhizobium
III. Heterocyst IV. Yeast
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV
(c) II, III, IV (d) I, II
40. The symbiotic association between fungi and roots of
higher plants is called __________ .
(a) lichen (b) mycorrhiza
(c) biofertilizer (d) BOD
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
278 Biology
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
41. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for
(a) species-specific narrow spectrum pesticidal
applications.
(b) species-specific broad spectrum pesticidal
applications.
(c) species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal
applications.
(d) species-specific broad spectrum insecticidal
applications.
42. Which one of the following statement regarding BOD is
true?
(a) The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its
polluting potential.
(b) The greater the BOD of waste water, less is its
polluting potential.
(c) The lesser the BOD of waste water, more is its
polluting potential.
(d) The lesser the BOD of waste water, less is its
polluting potential.
43. Which one of the following is not true about antibiotics?
(a) First antibiotic was discovered by Alexander
Flemming.
(b) The term ‘antibiotic’ was coined by S. Waksman in
1942.
(c) Some persons can be allergic to a particular antibiotic.
(d) Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular
kind of germ.
44. Pollution from animal excreta and organic wastes from
kitchen can be most profitably minimised by
(a) storing them in underground storage tanks.
(b) using them for producing biogas.
(c) vermiculture.
(d) using them directly as biofertilizers.
45. Benefits of mycorrhizae are
(i) resistance to root-borne pathogens.
(ii) tolerance of salinity and absorption of phosphorus.
(iii) tolerance to drought.
(iv) overall increase in the plant growth and
development.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) all of these
46. Organic farming includes
(a) use of fertilizers and pesticides of biological origin.
(b) IPM (integrated pest management programme).
(c) locally developed pest resistant varieties.
(d) all of the above
47. Which of the following statements is not true for stirred
tank fermentaion ?
(a) Buffer needed to control pH.
(b) Batch and feed possible.
(c) Control dissolved oxygen.
(d) Easy in process sampling.
48. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in
rumen of cattle.
(b) Biogas (commonly called gobar gas) is pure methane.
(c) Activated sludge sediment in settlement tanks of
sewage treatment plants is rich source of aerobic
bacteria.
(d) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria
on animal waste.
49. Which one of the following is the most important role of
microorganism for the well-being of humans?
(a) Sewage treatment
(b) Production of methane
(c) Biological control of plant disease
(d) Conversion of milk to curd
50. Consider the following statements about organic farming.
(i) It utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton.
(ii) It uses only naturally produced inputs like compost.
(iii) It does not use pesticides and urea.
(iv) It produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i) and (ii) only
51. What are the advantages of gobar gas over conventional
utilization?
(i) It is most efficient source of energy.
(ii) It is used as good fertilizer.
(iii) It reduces the chances of spreading of pathogens.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only (d) all of these
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
52. Assertion : Vitamins B2
is found in cereals, green
vegetables, brewer's yeast, egg white, milk and liver.
Reason : It can be commercially produced by some yeasts.
53. Assertion : Use of fertilizers greatly enhances crop
productivity.
Reason : Irrigation is very important in increasing crop
productivity.
54. Assertion : In crop rotation, the plants that are best
preferred are leguminous plants.
Reason : Such plants have root nodules containing
clostridium bacteria able to fix nitrogen.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Microbes in Human Welfare 279
55. Assertion : Biopesticides help in overcoming the
disadvantages of chemical pesticides.
Reason : Biopesticides are harmless as they do not cause
any damage.
56. Assertion : Biogas has been used as a fuel for the
purposes of lighting and cooking.
Reason : It does not cause pollution and is ecofriendly.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
57. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Yeast – Ethanol
(b) Streptomyces – Antibiotics
(c) Lactobacillus - Beer
(d) Methanogens – Gobar gas
58. Match the columns and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Aspergillus niger I. Ethanol
B. Clostridium II. Statins butydicum
C. Saccharomyces III. Citric acid
cerevisiae
D. Trichoderma IV. Butyric acid
polysporum
E. Monascus V. Cyclosporin A
purpureus
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I; E – V
(b) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – V; D – I; E – II
59. Match the items of column-I with column-II and choose
correct answer.
Column-I Column-II
A. Lady bird I. Methanobacterium
B. Mycorrhiza II. Trichoderma
C. Biological control III. Aphids
D. Biogas IV. Glomus
(a) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(d) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
60. Match the columns and choose the correct combination.
Column-I Column-II
A. Escherichia coli I. ‘nif ’ gene
B. Rhizobium II. Digests (hydrocarbons
meliloti of crude) oil
C. Bacillus III. Human insulin
thuringiensis production
D. Pseudomonas IV. Biocontrol of fungal
putida disease
V. Biodegradable
insecticide
(a) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II
(b) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
61. Find out the pairs which are correctly matched.
Column-I Column-II
A. Cyanobacteria I. Biopesticides
B. Mycorrhiza II. Solubilization of
phosphate
C. Bacillus III. Cry protein
thuringiensis
D. Single cell protein IV. Rhizobia
(a) A and II (b) C and III
(c) C and IV (d) A and III
62. The given table contains type of microbe (Column I),
Scientific name (Column II) and commercial product
(Column III). Some names are replaced by A, B, C and D.
Identify the correct names.
Type of Microbe Scientific Name Commercial
Product
Bacterium A Lactic acid
Fungus B Cyclosporin A
C Monascus purpureus Statins
Fungus Penicillium notatum D
(a) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum,
C – Yeast (fungus), D – Penicillin
(b) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum,
C – Yeast (algae), D – Penicillin
(c) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum,
C – Yeast (prokaryote), D – Penicillin
(d) A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma polysporum,
C – Agaricus (fungus), D – Penicillin
63. The given table contains type of microbe (Column I),
Scientific name (Column II) and commercial product
(Column III). Some names are replaced by A, B, C and D.
Identify the correct names.
Type of Microbe Scientific Name Commercial
Product
Bacterium A Clot buster
enzyme
B Aspergillus niger Citric acid
Fungus Trichoderma
polysporum
C
Bacterium D Butyric acid
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
280 Biology
(a) A – Streptococcus, B – Fungus, C – Cyclosporin-A,
D – Clostridium butylicum
(b) A – Clostridium butylicum, B – Streptococcus,
C – Fungus, D – Cyclosporin-A
(c) A – Cyclosporin-A, B - Clostridium butylicum
C – Streptococcus, D – Fungus
(d) A – Fungus, B – Cyclosporin-A, C – Clostridium
butylicum, D - Streptococcus
64. Identify the blank spaces marked A, B, C and D from the
table given below.
Scientific
Name Product
Medical
Application
product
(i) fungus A Cyclosporin B
(ii) C Monascus
purpurens
statin D
Type of
Microbe
(a) A–Trichoderma polyspora, B – Organ transplant
patients, C – Yeast (fungus), D – Lowering of blood
cholesterol.
(b) A–Lowering of blood cholesterol, B – Trichoderma
polyspora, C – Organ transplant patients, D – Yeast
(fungus).
(c) A – Yeast (fungus), B – Lowering of blood
cholesterol, C – Trichoderma polyspora, D – Organ
transplant patients.
(d) A – Organ transplant patients, B – Yeast (fungus),
C – Lowering of blood cholesterol, D – Trichoderma
polyspora.
65. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option
Column-I Column-II
A. Statins I. Yeast
B. Ethanol II. Blood-cholesterol
lowering agent
C. Dung III. Insect-resistant plant
D. Bt-cotton IV. Biogas
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
66. The diagram below shows a typical biogas plant. With
few structure labelled as A, B and C. Identify A, B and C.
(a) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Oxygen, C – Dung, water
(b) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Carbon dioxide, C– Dung,
water
(c) A – Sludge, B – Ethylin, Carbon dioxide, C – Dung,
water
(d) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Carbon dioxide, C – Sewage
67. The given figure shows the sewage treatment with few steps are marked as 1, 2, 3, and 4. In which of the following options,
correct word for all the four numbers (1,2,3 and 4) are indicated.
(a) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Chemical agitation, 3 – High, 4 – Anaerobic
(b) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Mechanical agitation, 3 – Low, 4 – Anaerobic
(c) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Chemical agitation, 3 –Low, 4 – Aerobic
(d) 1 – Large aeration tanks, 2 – Mechanical agitation, 3 – High, 4 – Anaerobic
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
68. Which of the following is the pair of biofertilizers?
(a) Azolla and blue green algae
(b) Nostoc and legume
(c) Rhizobium and grasses
(d) Salmonella and E. coli
69. Microbes are a diverse group which includes.
I. Bacteria II. Mosses
III. Protozoans IV. Fungi
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, IV
(c) I, II (d) III, IV
70. Microbes are present in
I. soil II. air
III. water IV. thermal springs
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Microbes in Human Welfare 281
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV
(c) I, II (d) III, IV
71. The following bacteria help in nitrogen fixation from
atmosphere.
I. Azotobacter II. Rhizobium
III. Azospirillum IV. Lactobacillus
Identify the correct bacteria.
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV
(c) II, III, IV (d) I, II, III
72. Which of the following is used as biofertilizer ?
I. Cyanobacteria II. Yeast
III. Symbiotic bacteria IV. Free living bacteria
(a) I, II, III (b) I, II, IV
(c) I, III, IV (d) II, III, IV
73. Some industrial products are given below which are
synthesized from microbes.
I. Antibiotics II. Fermented beverages
III. Enzymes and chemicals IV. Bioactive molecules
Choose the correct option.
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV
(c) I, III (d) I, II, III
74. Methanogens grow anaerobically on cellulosic material
and produces which of the following gases ?
I. Methane II. Oxygen
III. Carbon dioxide IV. Hydrogen
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV
(c) II, III, IV (d) I, II
75. Cheese and yogurt are products of
(a) pasteurisation (b) fermentation
(c) dehydration (d) distillation
76. Antibiotics are drugs commonly used to cure diseases of
(a) fungi (b) viruses
(c) protozoans (d) bacteria
77. Which of the following is common to Azospirillum,
Azotobacter, Anabaena, Nostoc and Oscillatoria?
(a) Prokaryotes (b) Nitrogen-fixers
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Eukaryotes
78. Lactobacillus mediated change of milk to curd occurs due to
(a) coagulation and partial digestion of milk fats.
(b) coagulation and partial digestion of milk proteins.
(c) coagulation of milk proteins and complete digestion
of milk fats.
(d) coagulation of milk fats and complete digestion of
proteins.
79. Crystals of Bt-toxin produced by some bacteria do not
kill the bacteria themselves because
(a) bacteria are resistant to the toxin.
(b) toxin is inactive.
(c) toxin is immature.
(d) bacteria enclose toxins in a special sec.
80. Choose the correct sequence of microbes involved in
biogas production.
(a) Fragmentative microbes, decomposers,
methanogens.
(b) Decomposers, methanogens, putrefying microbes.
(c) Putrefying microbes, methanogens, saprophytic
microbes.
(d) Decomposers, fermentative microbes, methanogens.
81. Read the following statement.
“A drug used for ———— (A) ———— patients is
obtained from a species of the organism ———— (B) —
———.”
Identify A and B.
A B
(a) Heart Penicillium
(b) Organ-transplant Trichoderma
(c) Swine flu Monascus
(d) AIDS Pseudomonas
82. Which one of the micro-organism is used for production
of citric acid in industries?
(a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus (b) Penicillium citrinum
(c) Aspergillus niger (d) Rhizopus nigricans
83. Biogas can be a good substitute for
(a) fuel wood (b) petroleum and oil
(c) coal (d) charcoal
84. A genetically engineered micro-organism used
successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Trichoderma
(c) Xanthomonas (d) Bacillus
85. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used as
(a) biofertilizers
(b) biometallurgical techniques
(c) biomineralization processes
(d) bioinsecticidal plants
86. Microbes are used in the
I. primary treatment of sewage.
II. secondary treatment of sewage.
III. anaerobic sludge digester.
IV. production of bioactive molecules.
Choose the correct option showing the uses of microbes.
(a) I, III, IV (b) I, II, III, IV
(c) II, III, IV (d) IV, I, II
87. What would happen if oxygen availability to activated
sludge flocs is reduced?
(a) It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic
matter.
(b) The centre of flocs will become anoxic, which would
cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of
flocs.
(c) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria
would grow around flocs.
(d) Protozoa would grow in large numbers.
88. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic
waste may result in
(a) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom.
(b) an increased production of fish due to lot of
nutrients.
(c) death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
(d) increased population of aquatic food web
organization.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Plasmid has been used as vector because
(a) both its ends show replication.
(b) it can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(c) it is circular DNA which have capacity to join to
eukaryotic DNA.
(d) it has antibiotic resistance gene.
2. Which of the following is a plasmid?
(a) pBR 322 (b) Bam H I
(c) Sal I (d) Eco RI
3. Which of the following is known as specific molecular
scissors?
(a) Ligase
(b) Helicase
(c) Restriction endonuclease
(d) DNA polymerase
4. The first restriction endonuclease reported was
(a) Hind II (b) EcoRI
(c) Hind III (d) BamHI
5. Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes,
which is called as
(a) ligases (b) kinases
(c) nucleases (d) polymerases
6. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What
does .co part in it stand for ?
(a) Colon (b) Coelom
(c) Coenzyme (d) coli
7. Restriction endonuclease - Hind II always cuts DNA
molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific
sequence of
(a) six base pairs. (b) five base pairs.
(c) four base pairs. (d) seven base pairs.
8. The enzyme used for joining two DNA fragments is called
(a) ligase
(b) restriction endonuclease
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) gyrase
9. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences
in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some
particular restriction enzyme?
(a) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3'
3'.............ATGGTA.............5'
(b) 5'.............GATATG.............3'
3'.............CTACTA.............5'
(c) 5'.............GAATTC.............3'
3'.............CTTAAG.............5'
(d) 5'.............CACGTA.............3'
3'.............CTCAGT.............5'
10. DNA fragments generated by the restriction
endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated
by
(a) polymerase chain reaction
(b) electrophoresis
(c) restriction mapping
(d) centrifugation
11. Agarose extracted from sea weeds is used in
(a) spectrophotometry
(b) tissue culture
(c) PCR
(d) gel electrophoresis
12. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used
(a) as selectable markers.
(b) to select healthy vectors.
(c) to keep the cultures free of infection.
(d) as sequences from where replication starts.
13. During heat shock to the bacterium, the temperature used
for giving thermal shock is
(a) 52°C (b) 100°C
(c) liquid nitrogen (d) 42°C
14. Which of the following enzyme is used in case of fungus
to cause release of DNA along with other
macromolecules ?
(a) Lysozyme (b) Cellulase
(c) Chitinase (d) Amylase
15. During isolation of DNA, addition of which of the
following causes precipitation of purified DNA ?
(a) Chilled ethanol (b) Ribonuclease enzyme
(c) DNA polymerase (d) Proteases Chapter 33 Bkqvgejpqnqéû : Rtkpekòngõ
ãpæ Rtqegõõgõ
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 283
16. Which of the following is a natural genetic engineer of
plants ?
(a) Yeast
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) E. coli
(d) Mycoplasma
17. _______ is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is
introduced in a host bacterium.
(a) Transduction (b) Transformation
(c) Conjugation (d) R.D.T
18. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning
genes into higher organisms?
(a) Baculovirus
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Rhizopus nigricans
(d) Retrovirus
19. Which of the following are required to facilitate cloning
into a vector ?
(a) Origin of replication (b) Selectable marker
(c) Cloning sites (d) All of these
20. In agarose gel electrophoresis
(a) DNA migrates towards the negative electrode.
(b) supercoiled plamids migrate slower than their nicked
counterparts.
(c) larger molecules migrate faster than smaller
molecules.
(d) ethidium bromide can be used to visualize the DNA.
21. For transformation with recombinant DNA, the bacterial
cells must first be made ‘competent’ which means
(a) should increase their metabolic reactions.
(b) should decrease their metabolic reactions.
(c) increase efficiency with which DNA enters the
bacterium.
(d) ability to divide fast.
22. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to
be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
(a) silver or platinum (b) platinum or zinc
(c) silicon or platinum (d) gold or tungsten
23. The polymerase enzyme used in PCR is
(a) DNA polymerase I
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) reverse transcriptase
(d) restriction endonuclease
24. The first step in the PCR is
(a) denaturation (b) primer extension
(c) annealing (d) cooling
25. Which of the following processes is employed to check
the progression of restriction enzyme digestion ?
(a) PCR
(b) Gene gun
(c) Micro-injection
(d) Agarose gel electrophoresis
26. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
(a) addition of preservatives to the product.
(b) purification of the product.
(c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel.
(d) availability of oxygen throughout the process.
27. A device in which substances are treated to stimulate
transformation by living cells is called __________.
(a) assimilator (b) digester
(c) bioreactor (d) agitator
28. After completion of biosynthetic stage, the product has
to be subjected through a series of processes before it is
ready to marketing as a finished product. This series of
processes is called
(a) upstream processing
(b) downstream processing
(c) elution
(d) insertional inactivation
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
29. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
PCR?
(a) In PCR, two primers are used.
(b) Taq DNA polymerase is related for PCR.
(c) Taq DNA polymerase is not thermostable.
(d) Multiple copies of gene can be synthesized in PCR.
30. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G and A.
(b) Each EcoRI restriction endonuclease recognizes a
specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in DNA.
(c) When cut by same restriction enzyme, the resultant
DNA fragments do not have the same kind of stickyends.
(d) Making multiple identical copies of any template
DNA is called cloning.
31. Which statement about restriction enzymes is incorrect ?
(a) Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sequence
called recognition sites.
(b) A restriction enzyme always cut DNA to leave the
same sequence at the ends.
(c) Some restriction enzymes cut the two DNA strands
at slightly different points within their recognition
site to make a ‘sticky’ end.
(d) Restriction enzymes are exonucleases rather than
endonucleases.
32. Which of the following is not correct about pBR 322 vector ?
(a) It was constructed by using DNA derived from
naturally occurring plasmids of E coli.
(b) It has two drug resistance genes-tetR and ampR.
(c) It was developed by Bolivar and Rodriguez.
(d) Selectable markers present in it can differentiate
recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis
of their inability to produce colour in the presence of
chromogenic substrate.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
284 Biology
33. Which of the following statement is not correct about
cloning vector ?
(a) ‘Ori’ is a sequence responsible for controlling the
copy number of the linked DNA.
(b) Selectable marker selectively permitting the growth
of the non-transformants.
(c) In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to
have single recognition site for the commonly used
restriction enzymes.
(d) The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a
restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic
resistance genes.
34. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) T-DNA transform normal plant cell into a tumor.
(b) Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform
normal cell into cancerous cells.
(c) T plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is modified
into cloning vector which is more pathogenic to
plants.
(d) Retrovirus have also been disarmed and are now
used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells.
35. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) Hind-II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular
point by recognizing a specific sequence of 4 base
pairs.
(b) Besides Hind-II, today we know more than 900
restriction enzymes.
(c) The name Eco-RI comes from Escherichia coli-13.
(d) Restriction endonuclease are used in genetic
engineering to form recombinant molecules of DNA.
36. Which one of the following is a correct statement
regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR ?
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cell.
(b) It serves as a selectable marker.
(c) It is isolated from a virus.
(d) It remains active at high temperature induced
denaturation of double stranded DNA
37. Which of the given statement is correct in the context of
observing DNA separated by agarose gel
electrophoresis?
(a) DNA can be seen in visible light.
(b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light.
(c) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible
light.
(d) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under
exposure to UV light.
38. Which of the following statements (i-iv) are correct.
(i) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are cut out
from agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
(ii) E. coli cloning vector pBR 322 shows several
restriction, Ori antibiotic resistance genes and rop.
(iii) The downstream processing and quality control
testing vary from product to product.
(iv) Competent bacterial cell cannot take up the plasmid.
(a) All of the above (b) None of the above
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) Only (iv)
39. Which of the following statements are incorrect.
(i) Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA
technology.
(ii) Bacteriophage is not used as vector.
(iii) MALAYALAM is a palindrome.
(iv) Ethidium bromide can not be used for staining DNA.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) All of these (d) None of these
40. Which of the given statements (i-iv) are correct about
bioreactor?
(i) Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for
obtaining the desired product.
(ii) Raw materials are biological which are converted into
specific products.
(iii) Stirred-tank reactor is horizontal in shape.
(iv) Large volume of culture cannot be processed.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) All of these
41. Molecular probes used for identification of recombinant
clone carrying the desired DNA insert can be
(i) denatured double stranded DNA probes.
(ii) double stranded RNA probes.
(iii) protein probes.
(iv) single stranded DNA probes.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) All of these
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
42. Assertion : The uptake of DNA during transformation is
an active, energy requiring process.
Reason : Transformation occurs in only those bacteria,
which possess the enzymatic machinery involved in the
active uptake and recombination.
43. Assertion : In recombinant DNA technology, human
genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or
yeast (eukaryote).
Reason : Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to
form huge population to express the desired gene.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 285
44. Assertion : DNA is cleaved at specific site by all
endonucleases.
Reason : Endonucleases are found in viruses.
45. Assertion : Restriction endonucleases have been
designated as molecular scissors.
Reason : Fragments produced by restriction
endonucleases upon mixing join due to their sticky ends.
46. Assertion : Insertion of recombinant DNA within the
coding sequence of b-galactosidase results in colourless
colonies.
Reason : Presence of insert results in inactivation of
enzyme b-galactosidase known as insertional inactivation.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
47. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
Column - I Column - II
A. Plasmid I. Selectable marker
B. amp II. Extrachromosomal DNA
C. Ti-plasmid III. Enzyme
D. Chitinase IV. Agrobacterium
tumefaciens
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
48. Match the items of column-I with those in column-II and
choose the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Recombinant I. Vector
DNA technology
B. Cloning vehicles II. Sealing enzyme
C. Macromolecular III. Electrophoresis
separation
D. DNA ligase IV.. Genetic engineering
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
49. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column - I Column - II
A. EcoRI I. Bacilius amyloliquefaciens
B. Bam HI II. Haemophilus influenza
C. Hind III III. Escherichia coli
D. pBR 322 IV. Artificial plasmid
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
50. Match column-I with column-II and identify the correct
option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Restriction enzyme I. Jumping gene
B. Transposons II. Cloning vehicle
C. Bacteriophage III. Hind III
D. Palindromes IV. MALAYALAM
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
51. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
combination from the option given below.
Column - I Column - II
A. Competent I. Thermus aquaticus
B. Taq DNA polymerase II. Antibiotic
C. Ampicillin III. Micro-injection
D. Ethidium bromide IV. DNA staining
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
52. Match the following and choose the correct combination
from the options given below.
Column - I Column - II
A. PCR I. Large scale culture
B. Bioreactor II. To induce alien DNA in
host cell
C. Gene gun III. Restriction endonuclease
D. EcoRI IV. Amplification of gene
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
53. Match Column I with Column II and identify the correct
option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Primers I. PCR
B. Separation and II. C2H5OH
purification of products
C. Precipitation of DNA III. Uptake of foreign DNA
by bacterium
D. Transformation IV. Down stream processing
(a) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(d) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
286 Biology
54. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Agarose – Sea weeds
(b) Thermus aquaticus – ‘T - DNA’
(c) Plasmid DNA – Vector
(d) Sal I – Restriction endonuclease
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
55. The given figure shows the E.Coli cloning vector PBR322
showing restriction sites. Some parts are labelled as A, B,
C & D. Choose the option showing the correct labelling.
Pst I
Pvu I
A
Cla I Hind III
B
Sal I
Pvu II
rop
D
C
pBR 322
tetR
A B C D
(a) Hind I EcoR I ampR ori
(b) Hind I BamH I kanR ampR
(c) BamH I Pst I ori ampR
(d) EcoR I BamH I ampR ori
56. Which one of the following option is correct for A, B and
C marked in the given diagram of recombinant DNA
technology.
Foreign DNA A
join foreign
DNA to plasmid
Vector
DNA
(plasmid)
E.coli
Cells
Divide
C
B
(Cutting both foreign
DNA and vector
DNA at
specific
point)
(a) A-Exonuclease; B-Ligases; C-Transformation
(b) A-Endonuclease; B-gyrase; C-Transformation
(c) A-Exonuclease; B-Hydrolase; C-Transduction
(d) A-Restriction endonuclease; B-Ligases;
C-Transformation
57. The given figure shows a simple stirred tank bioreactor
with their parts labelled as A, B, C and D. Identify A, B, C
and D.
B
A
C
D
(a) A-Motor; B-pH control; C-Foam braker; D-Sterile air
(b) A-pH control; B-Motor; C-Foam braker; D-Sterile air
(c) A-pH control; B-Sterile air; C-Motor; D-Foam braker
(d) A-Motor; B-Sterile air; C-pH control; D-Foam braker
58. Identify the correct match for the given apparatus.
Apparatus Function
(a) Gene gun Vectorless direct gene transfer
(b) Column Separation of chlorophyll
chromatography pigments
(c) Sparged stirred tank Carry out fermentation
bioreactor process
(d) Respirometer Finding out rate of respiration
59. Identify the correct match of the technique with their role
shown in the given figure.
1 2
3
4
Walls
Largest Smallest
(a) Electrophoresis – Differential migration of DNA
fragments
(b) Column – Separation of chlorophyll
chromatography pigments
(c) Gene cloning – Technique of obtaining
identical copies of a particular
DNA or a gene segment
(d) Microinjection – Technique of introducing
foreign genes into a host cell
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 287
60. The figure given below shows three steps (A, B, C) of
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it represents?
Amplified
(~1billion times)
Region to be amplified
(a) B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C
separating the two DNA strands.
(b) A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C.
(c) C - Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA
polymerase.
(d) A - Annealing with two sets of primers.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
61. Restriction endonucleases
(a) are enzymes that process pre-RNA’s.
(b) are enzymes that degrade DNA.
(c) protect bacterial cells from viral infection.
(d) None of the above
62. The same basic techniques can be used to analyze the
DNA from species as diverse as bacteria and humans
because:
(a) all cells are identical.
(b) every organism has the same amount of DNA.
(c) the DNA sequences of all organisms are the same.
(d) DNA has a consistent structure in all organisms.
63. A gene is said to be cloned if
(a) the DNA sequence of the gene is known.
(b) the function of the gene is known.
(c) there is a DNA probe for the gene.
(d) the gene has been isolated and copied.
64. Introduction of one or more genes into an organism which
normally does not possess them or their deletion by using
artificial means (not by breeding) comes under a branch.
called ________ .
(a) molecular biology (b) cytogenetics
(c) genetic hybridization (d) genetic engineering
65. DNA fragments are separated using gel electrophoresis
(a) because DNA is pulled through the gel towards the
negative end of the field.
(b) because larger DNA fragments move faster through
the gel than smaller DNA fragments.
(c) to identify and isolate DNA fragments.
(d) to synthesize DNA for cloning.
66. DNA ligases are enzymes that can be used to
(a) chop a large DNA molecule into small fragments.
(b) copy DNA fragments.
(c) insert the DNA from one species into the DNA of
another species.
(d) separate DNA fragments based on their size.
67. Imagine a gel through which DNA fragments have moved
in response to an applied electrical current. The band on
this gel that is farthest from the top (that is, from the place
where the DNA fragments were added to the “well”)
represents the
(a) shortest fragments of DNA.
(b) longest fragments of DNA.
(c) restriction enzyme used to cut the DNA into
fragments.
(d) ligase used to bind the DNA fragments together.
68. A biologist intends to use a polymerase chain reaction to
perform a genetic task. The biologist probably is trying to
(a) discover new genes.
(b) clone a gene.
(c) cut DNA into many small fragments.
(d) isolate DNA from a living cell.
69. In genetic engineering, where genes can be inserted from
one organism into another or back into the original
organism uses which of the following techniques?
(a) Polymerase chain reaction
(b) Gene gun
(c) DNA hybridization
(d) Gel electrophoresis
70. Which of the following is not necessary to execute a
polymerase chain reaction successfully?
(a) All four DNA bases
(b) Short DNA base primers
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) DNA library
71. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
(a) DNA finger printing.
(b) Disarming pathogen vectors.
(c) Transformation of plant cells.
(d) Constructing recombinant DNA molecules.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
288 Biology
72. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid
vector became possible with
(a) DNA ligase (b) endonucleases
(c) DNA polymerase (d) exonucleases
73. Plasmid present in bacterial cells are
(a) circular double helical DNA molecules.
(b) linear double helical DNA molecules.
(c) circular double helical RNA molecules.
(d) linear double helical RNA molecules.
74. What must be done before placing DNA into the
electrophoretic chamber ?
(a) It must be ground up with mortar and pestle.
(b) It must be cut by restriction endonucleases.
(c) It must be treated with RNAase .
(d) None of the above
75. Which of the following has the ability to transform normal
cells into cancerous cells in animals ?
(a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Retroviruses
(c) DNA-viruses
(d) Plasmids
76. What are the properties of a good vector?
(a) It should be ideally more than 10 kb in size.
(b) It should be able to replicate autonomously.
(c) It should have suitable marker genes.
(d) It should not be easy to isolate and purify.
77. A kind of biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA
is called
(a) DNA replication (b) genetic engineering
(c) denaturation (d) renaturation
78. Restriction endonucleases hydrolyzes polynucleotide
from
(a) only the 5¢ end.
(b) from either terminal.
(c) at an internal phosphodiester bond.
(d) a phosphodiester bond within a specific sequence.
79. Restriction-modification systems of bacteria exist to
(a) protect bacteria from invading foreign DNA.
(b) promote conjugation.
(c) help the bacterial chromosome to replicate.
(d) encourage recombination of new genetic material.
80. Which of the following is used as a best genetic vector in
plants?
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Pseudomonas putida
(d) All of the above
81. Which of the following process require energy?
(a) Ligation (b) Transformation
(c) Restriction digestion (d) Hybridization
82. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are
separated on the basis of their
(a) charge only (b) size only
(c) charge to size ratio (d) all of these
83. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
(a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA
molecule.
(b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding
of DNA ligase.
(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA
molecule.
84. What type of enzyme is used in recombinant DNA
technology to split a specific sugar phosphate bond in
each strand of a DNA double helix ?
(a) Esterase (b) Restriction enzyme
(c) Lipase (d) Ligase
85. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in
contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria
because of
(a) insertional inactivation of alphaga-lactosidase in nonrecombinant bacteria.
(b) insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in
recombinant bacteria.
(c) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant
bacteria.
(d) non-recombinant bacteria containing betagalactosidase.
86. Genetic engineering is possible, because
(a) we can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases
like DNase I.
(b) restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can
be used in vitro.
(c) the phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well
understood.
(d) we can see DNA by electron microscope.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Chapter 34 Bkqvgejpqnqéû ãpæ kvõ
Aòònkeãvkqpõ
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Consumption of which one of the following foods can
prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’
deficiency?
(a) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato (b) Canolla
(c) Golden rice (d) Bt-Brinjal
2. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for
designing novel
(a) bio-fertilizers
(b) bio-metallurgical techniques
(c) bio-mineralization processes
(d) bio-insecticidal plants
3. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been
developed for
(a) insect-resistance
(b) enhancing shelf life
(c) enhancing mineral content
(d) drought-resistance
4. Bt toxin kill the larvae of certain insects
(a) by binding of activated toxin on mid gut epithelial
cells, creating pores, leading to swelling and lysis.
(b) by stopping transcription of larval cells.
(c) by altering central dogma taking place in the cells of
gut of larva.
(d) by stopping protein synthesis.
5. Cry protein is obtained from
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Clostridium welchi
(d) E. coli
6. Cry-genes have been introduced in
(a) cotton and corn (b) rice
(c) potato and soyabean (d) all of the above
7. Bt toxin is harmful to insects like
(a) lepidoterans (tobacco budworm, armyworms)
(b) coleopterans (beetles)
(c) dipterans (flies and mosquito)
(d) all of the above
8. RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been devised to
protect the plants from nematode is silenced by ______
produced by the host plant.
(a) dsDNA (b) ssDNA
(c) dsRNA (d) target proteins
9. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been
developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in
the host cells)
(a) both sense and anti-sense RNA.
(b) a particular hormone.
(c) an antifeedant.
(d) a toxic protein.
10. C-peptide of human insulin is
(a) a part of mature insulin molecule.
(b) responsible for formation of disulphide bridges.
(c) removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin.
(d) responsible for its biological activity.
11. The first human drug made using recombinant DNA
technology was
(a) glyphosatase (b) TPA
(c) insulin (d) erythropoietin
12. E. coli are used in production of
(a) rifampicin (b) LH
(c) ecdysone (d) interferon
13. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4
years old girl with enzyme deficiency of
(a) adenosine deaminase (ADA)
(b) tyrosine oxidase
(c) monamine oxidase
(d) glutamate dehydrogenase
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
290 Biology
14. In some children, ADA deficiency can be cured by
(a) bone marrow transplantation
(b) enzyme replacement therapy
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
15. The site of production of ADA in the body is
(a) bone marrow (b) lymphocytes
(c) blood plasma (d) monocytes
16. Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library
by using
(a) restriction enzymes (b) cloning vectors
(c) DNA probes (d) gene targets
17. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule
is called ___________ .
(a) vector (b) probe
(c) clone (d) plasmid
18. The transgenic animals are those which have
(a) foreign DNA in some cells.
(b) foreign DNA in all of their cells.
(c) foreign RNA in all of their cells.
(d) both (a) and (c)
19. Today, transgenic models exist for many human diseases
which includes
(i) Cancer (ii) Cystic fibrosis
(iii) Rheumatoid arthritis (iv) Alzhiemer’s disease
(a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (d) all of these
20. The protein a-1 antitrypsin is used to treat the
(a) cancer (b) rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Alzheimer’s disease (d) emphysema
21. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of
(a) fish (b) mice
(c) cow (d) pig
22. GEAC stands for
(a) Genome Engineering Action Committee
(b) Ground Environment Action Committee
(c) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(d) Genetic and Environment Approval Committee
23. How many varieties of rice has been estimated to be
present in India?
(a) 2,000 (b) 20,000
(c) 200,000 (d) 2,000,000
24. Which variety of rice was patented by a U.S. company
even though the highest number of varieties of this rice is
found in India ?
(a) Sharbati Sonara (b) Co-667
(c) Basmati (d) Lerma Roja
25. Biopiracy is related to
(a) bioresearches
(b) traditional knowledge
(c) biomolecules and genes discovered
(d) all of the above
26. The use of bioresources by multinational companies and
other organizations without proper authorisation from the
countries and people concerned without compensatory
payment is called
(a) bioethics (b) biopiracy
(c) bioterror (d) bioweapon
27. Which step of Government of India has taken to cater
requirement of patent terms and other emergency
provisions in this regard ?
(a) Biopiracy act
(b) Indian patents bill
(c) RTI act
(d) Negotiable instruments act
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
28. Which of the following statement is correct about Bt toxin ?
(a) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus.
(b) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to
sterilize it and thus prevent its multiplication.
(c) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
(d) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form
in the insect gut.
29. Find out the incorrect statement.
(a) Human protein used to treat emphysema is a-1
antitrypsin.
(b) Human insulin is being commercially produced from
a transgenic species of Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
(c) Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced human
protein enriched milk.
(d) Cry I Ab endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
thuringiensis is effective against corn borers.
30. Which one of the following statement(s) is/are correct
about Genetic Engineering Approval committee (GEAC) ?
(a) It will make decision regarding the validity of GM
research.
(b) It will make the safety of introducing GM - organism
for public services.
(c) Its genetic modification of organism can have
unpredictable results when such organisms are
introduced into the ecosystem. Therefore, the Indian
government has set up organisation such as GEAC.
(d) All of the above
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biotechnology and its Applications 291
31. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) The proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac and
cry II Ab control cotton bollworms.
(b) Protein encoded by cry I Ab controls corn borer.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Proteins encoded by cry I Ac and cry I Ab control
flies.
32. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(a) “Bt” in Bt-cotton indicates that it is genetically
modified organism produced through biotechnology.
(b) Somatic hybridization involves fusion of two
complete plant cells carrying desired genes.
(c) The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from
transgenic Brassica napus seeds.
(d) “Flavr Savr” variety of tomato has enriched the
production of ethylene which improves its taste.
33. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) The procedure for chemical safety testing / toxicity
is the same as that used for testing toxicity of drugs.
(b) Transgenic animals are more sensitive to the toxic
substances than non-transgenic animals.
(c) Golden rice, a genetically engineered rice has high
vitamin A (retinol) content.
(d) All of the above
34. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The current interest in the manipulation of microbes,
plants and animal has raised serious ethical issues.
(b) One possible risk of genetic engineering is the
accidental production of dangerously resistant
microorganisms.
(c) Although risks are possible, genetic engineering
appears to offer more of contribution to human
welfare than threats.
(d) All of the above
35. Select the correct statement.
(a) Genetic engineering works only on animals and has
not yet been successfully used on plants.
(b) There are no risks associated with DNA technology.
(c) The first step in PCR is heat which is used to separate
both the strands of target DNA.
(d) DNA from one organism will not bond to DNA from
another animal.
36. Which of the following statements (i - v) is/are incorrect ?
(i) Recombinant DNA technology is used to improve
crop plants by increasing their productivity, by
making them more nutritious and by developing
disease resistant.
(ii) Bt cotton is resistant to bollworm infestation.
(iii) Bacillus thuringiensis can form cry protein during
any phase of their growth.
(iv) Bacillus thuringiensis is not harmed by self cry
protein because of its occurrence as protoxin
(inactive).
(v) Protoxin cry protein is changed into active cry
protein in the stomach of insects due to alkaline pH
in stomach.
(a) Only (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) All of these (d) None of these
37. Read the following four statements (i-iv) and answer the
question ?
(i) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk
which was human alpha-lactal albumin enriched.
(ii) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA
from other macro-molecules.
(iii) Downstream processing is one of the steps of RDNA technology.
(iv) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer
of R-DNA into the host.
Which are the two statements having mistakes?
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
38. Read the following statements and choose the correct
statements.
(i) Gene therapy has been tested on a large number of
patients with a wider variety of inherited genetic
disorders, and in numerous cases it has produced a
complete cure.
(ii) Genetic engineering has been used to produce
insulin for curing the diabetes.
(iii) DNA hybridization is the base pairing of DNA from
two different sources.
(iv) Genetic engineering is a technique of plant breeding.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(i) Insulin was originally extracted from pancreas of
slaughtered pigs and cattle.
(ii) Animal insulin is difficult to obtain.
(iii) Animal insulin is identical to human insulin.
(iv) Non-human insulin caused some patients to develop
allergy.
(v) Recombinant insulin is actually obtained from E. coli
in bacterial cell.
(a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii) and (iv)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (v)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
292 Biology
40. Transgenic animals are produced
(i) to study how genes are regulated and how they affect
the normal functions of body and its development.
(ii) to study diseases.
(iii) to obtain useful biological products .
(iv) to test vaccine safety and chemical safety.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (i)
41. When a patient with defective ADA was treated, which of
the following steps was performed for gene therapy?
(i) Lymphocytes were obtained from the patients.
(ii) Lymphocytes are transferred to culture dishes.
(iii) Lymphocytes were transfected with normal ADA
genes.
(iv) The transfected cells are returned to the patients.
(a) All of these (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) Only (iv) (d) SCID cannot be treated
42. The given statements are the steps in one type of gene
therapy.
(i) Inject engineered cells into patients bone marrow.
(ii) Viral DNA carring the normal allele inserts into
chromosome.
(iii) Let retrovirus infect bone marrow cells that have
removed from patient and cultured.
(iv) Insert RNA version of normal allele into retrovirus.
The correct sequence is
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii) (d) (iv), (iii), (i) and (ii)
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
43. Assertion : Blood clotting is prevented by Hirudin
protein.
Reason : The gene encoding for the Hirudin protein is
transferred into Brassica napus, where accumulation of
hirudin occurs in the seeds.
44. Assertion : An application of tissue culture is the
production of transgenic plants.
Reason : A transgenic organism is one that contains and
expresses a transgene.
45. Assertion : Flavr Savr tomato is transgenic tomato that
is capable of remaining fresh and retaining the flavour for
a longer time.
Reason : In this, production of pectin degrading
Polygalactouronase is blocked.
46. Assertion : ELISA is based on the principle of antigen
antibody interaction.
Reason : Pathogen infection is usually detected by
presence of antigens or detection of antibodies
synthesized against the pathogen.
47. Assertion : The GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval
Committee) has been set up by the Indian Government.
Reason : Introduction of GMO could have unpredictable
result in the ecosystem.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
48. Match the following and choose the correct combination
from the options given below :
Column - I Column - II
A. Escherichia coli I. nif gene
B. Bacillus thuringiensis II. Interferon
C. Rhizobium meliloti III. Bt toxin
D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens IV. Vector
(a) A – II; B – I; C – (IV); D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – (III); D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
49. Match the items given in column - I with those in column - II
and choose the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A. GMO I. Increased shelf life
B. Flavr - Savr tomato II. Bioresources
C. Biopiracy III. rDNA
D. E.coli IV. Insulin
(a) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
50. Match column-I with column-II and identify the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Gene therapy I. Rhizobium
B. Biofertilizer II. Cry gene
C. Bt cotton III. SCID
D. Humulin IV. Diabetes
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
51. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Golden Rice I. Cry protein
B. Bt toxin II. Rich in vitamin A
C. RNAi III. First trangenic cow
D. Rosie IV. Gene silencing
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biotechnology and its Applications 293
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
52. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Forensic science I. AIDS
B. ELISA II. Radioactive DNA/RNA
C. Probe III. Emphysema
D. a-1-antitrypsin IV. DNA fingerprinting
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(d) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
53. Which of the following is the correct set of the labels A,
B, C and D in the given figure of maturation of pro-insulin
into insulin ?
s-s A
s–s
C
D
+
B
A B C D
(a) Proinsulin cell peptidases Insulin Free C-Peptide
(b) Insulin cell peptidases Free C-Peptide Proinsulin
(c) Insulin Free C-Peptide cell peptidases Proinsulin
(d) Insulin Proinsulin Free C-Peptide cell peptidases
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
54. Transgenic plants are the ones
(a) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell
and regenerating a plant from that cell.
(b) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium.
(c) grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the
field.
(d) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium.
55. Transgenic animals has been successfully used for
producing
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine
before use in humans.
(b) transgenic models for studying new treatments for
certain cardiac diseases.
(c) transgenic cow – rosie which produces high fat milk
for making ghee.
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super
power.
56. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic
plants resistant to
(a) bollworms (b) nematodes
(c) white rusts (d) bacterial blights
57. Which one of the following techniques made it possible
to genetically engineer living organism ?
(a) Recombinant DNA techniques
(b) X-ray diffraction
(c) Heavier isotope labelling
(d) Hybridization
58. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India
by the farmers?
(a) Cotton (b) Brinjal
(c) Soyabean (d) Maize
59. A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the
problem of night blindness in developing countries is
(a) golden rice (b) Bt soyabean
(c) flavr - savr tomato (d) starlink maize
60. Which of these is used as vector in gene therapy for
SCID?
(a) Arbovirus (b) Rotavirus
(c) Retrovirus (d) Parvovirus
61. The genetic defect, adenosine deaminase (ADA)
deficiency may be cured permanently by
(a) administering adenosine deaminase through
injection
(b) bone marrow transplantation
(c) enzyme replacement therapy
(d) introducing isolated gene from marrow cells
producing ADA into the cells at early embryonic
stages
62. Genetically engineered bacteria have been successfully
used in the commercial production of
(a) human insulin (b) testosterone
(c) thyroxine (d) melatonin
63. Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant
GM crops is to
(a) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of
manual labour.
(b) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of
herbicides.
(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides.
(d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for
health safety.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
294 Biology
64. Biotechnology deals with industrial scale production of
biopharmaceuticals and biological products using
genetically modified
(a) microbes only
(b) fungi only
(c) plants and animals only
(d) all of the above
65. Cry II Ab and cry I AC produce toxins that control
(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively.
(b) cotton borer and cotton bollworms respectively.
(c) tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively.
(d) nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively.
66. Bt toxin is
(a) intracellular lipids.
(b) intracellular crystalline protein.
(c) extracellular crystalline protein.
(d) intracellular polysaccharide.
67. RNA interference involves
(a) synthesis of mRNA from DNA.
(b) synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse
transcriptase.
(c) silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary
RNA.
(d) interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA.
68. The RNAi stands for
(a) RNA inactivation (b) RNA initiation
(c) RNA interference (d) RNA interferon
69. What is the disadvantage of using porcine insulin
(from pig) in diabetic patients?
(a) It leads hypercalcemia.
(b) It is expensive.
(c) It may cause allergic reactions.
(d) It can lead to mutation in human genome.
70. Which technique would to be completely curative in
SCID ?
(a) Gene therapy in adult stage.
(b) Gene therapy in embryonic stage.
(c) Bone marrow transplantation.
(d) Enzyme replacement therapy.
71. In order for gene therapy to be most effective, genes
should be inserted in
(a) WBC (b) RBC
(c) stem cells (d) all of these
72. Which of the following is based upon the principle of
antigen-antibody interaction?
(a) PCR (b) ELISA
(c) r-DNA technology (d) RNA
73. Deliberate alteration of genome for treatment of disease
is called
(a) transformation rescue
(b) imprinting
(c) exon shuffle
(d) gene therapy
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The term ‘precipitation’ includes
(a) rain
(b) snow
(c) hails
(d) all forms of water that fall to the ground.
2. What are the key elements that lead to so much variations
in the physical and chemical conditions of different
habitats?
(a) Temperature and water
(b) Light and soil
(c) Only temperature
(d) Temperature, water, light and soil
3. A majority of organisms which are restricted to narrow
range of temperature are called as
(a) stenothermal (b) endothermal
(c) ectothermal (d) eurythermal
4. A few organisms can tolerate and thrive a wide range of
temperature. Such animals are called
(a) stenothermal (b) eurythermal
(c) thermophilic (d) ectothermal
5. The salinity in sea water in parts per thousand (ppt) ranges
between
(a) 5-15% (b) 30-35%
(c) 50-75% (d) more than 100%
6. Organisms that are restricted to a narrow range of salinity,
are called
(a) ectohaline (b) osmoconformer
(c) euryhaline (d) stenohaline
7. Deep (>500m) in the oceans, the environment is perpetually
dark and its inhabitants are not aware of the existence of a
celestial source of energy called_________.
(a) ATP (b) photosynthesis
(c) sun (d) light
8. Percolation and water holding capacity of soil is dependent
upon
(a) soil composition (b) grain size
(c) aggregation (d) all of these
9. The benthic organisms
(a) live near the sea bottom.
(b) found in open water.
(c) always live at the depth of 50-100 m.
(d) live outside water.
10. The process in which the body’s internal environment is
kept stable is known as
(a) homeostasis (b) adaptation
(c) geometry (d) acclimatization
11. Which of the following is the stage of suspended
development?
(a) Dormancy (b) Hibernation
(c) Aestivation (d) Diapause
12. To avoid summer - related problems such as heat and
dessication fish undergoes
(a) hibernation (b) diapause
(c) aestivation (d) none of these
13. _____ is any attribute of the organism (morphological
physiological, behavioural) that enables the organisms to
survive and reproduce in its habitat.
(a) Exponential growth (b) Acclimatization
(c) Adaptation (d) Mutualism
14. Seals have a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their skin
that acts as an
(a) thermostat (b) capacitor
(c) resistor (d) insulator
15. Microbes present in hydrothermal vents where the
temperature far exceed 100°C is
(a) cyanobacteria (b) archaebacteria
(c) eubacteria (d) none of these
16. If the age distribution (per cent individuals of a given age
or group) is plotted for the population, the resulting
structure is called a/an
(a) population density (b) ecological pyramid
(c) population growth (d) age pyramid
17. The age of pyramid with narrow base indicates
(a) high number of young individuals.
(b) low number of young individuals.
(c) high number of old individuals.
(d) low number of old individuals. Chapter 35 Qticpkuou"cpf
Rqrwncvkqpu
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
296 Biology
18. Which of the following parameter is not a part of population
growth?
(a) Natality (b) Mortality
(c) Metapopulation (d) Emigration
19. _______________ is the number of individuals of the
population who left the habitat and have gone elsewhere
during the time period under consideration.
(a) Natality (b) Mortality
(c) Immigration (d) Emigration
20. The formula for logistic growth are
(a) dN / dt = rN (b) rN / dN = dt
(c) dN / dt = rN
K N
K
é ù -
ê ú ë û (d) dN / dt = rN
N K
N
é ù -
ê ú ë û
21. In growth pattern, (1 – N/K) is
(a) carrying capacity
(b) intrinsic rate of natural increase
(c) environmental resistance
(d) biotic potential
22. Interspecific interaction arise from the interaction of
(a) individuals of a community.
(b) populations and their regulatory factors.
(c) populations of two different species.
(d) none of the above
23. Thorns of Acacia and cactus are the most common
morphological means of
(a) reproduction (b) competition
(c) defence (d) economical importance
24. Which of the following secondary compounds are
produced by plants for the purpose of defences against
grazers and browsers?
(a) Strychnine (b) Caffeine
(c) Quinine (d) All of these
25. Connell’s elegant field experiments are related to barnacle,
in which superior barnacle Balanus dominates the inter
tidal area, and excludes the smaller barnacle Chathamalus
from that zone. This phenomenon is called
(a) competitive exclusion principle
(b) competitive release
(c) interspecific competition
(d) none of the above
26. Cuscuta is an example of
(a) ectoparasitism (b) endoparasitism
(c) predation (d) brood parasitism
27. _____________ in birds is an interesting example of
parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its eggs in the
nest of its host and the host incubates them.
(a) Bird parasitism (b) Breed parasitism
(c) Brood parasitism (d) Ectoparasites
28. Which of the following is not an example of commensalism?
(a) Sea anemone and clown fish
(b) Epiphyte / Orchid on mango branch
(c) Liver fluke and fleas
(d) Cattle egret and grazing cattle.
29. The interaction is detrimental to both the species, in
(a) predation (b) commensalism
(c) amensalism (d) competition
30. A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of
(a) commensalism (b) amensalism
(c) parasitism (d) mutualism
31. An interaction where one species is harmed while the other
is unaffected is called
(a) commensalism (b) competition
(c) amensalism (d) parasitism
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
32. Consider the following statements (A) - (D) each with one
or two blanks.
A. Lichens represent an intimate (i) relationship
between a fungus and (ii) .
B. The (iii) are associations between fungi and
the roots of higher plants.
C. Plants need the help of (iv) for pollinating their
flowers and dispersing their seeds.
D. The (v) pollinates the fig inflorescence while
searching for suitable egg - laying sites.
Which one of the following options, gives the correct fill
ups for the respective blank numbers from (i) - (v) in the
statements?
(a) (i) Parasitic; (ii) - Cyanobacteria; (iii) - Mycorrhizae;
(iv) - Wind; (v) - Bee
(b) (i) Mutualistic; (ii) - Cyanobacteria; (iii) -
Mycorrhizae; (iv) - Animals; (v) Wasp
(c) (i) Parasitic; (ii) - Cyanobacteria; (iii) - Mycorrhizae;
(iv) - Insect; (v) Bumblebees
(d) (i) Mutualistic; (ii) - Cyanobacteria; (iii) - Lichen;
(iv) - Wind; (v) Wasp
33. Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one
or two blanks.
(A) Bears go into (i) during winter to
(ii) cold weather.
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents
(iii) human population.
(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of
(iv)
.
(D) An area with high levels of species richness is known
as (v)
.
Which one of the following options, gives the correct fill
ups for the respective blank numbers from (i) to (v) in the
statements?
(a) (i) - hibernation, (ii) - attract, (iii) - expanding,
(iv) - commensalism, (v) - biodiversity park
(b) (i) - hibernation, (ii) - escape, (iii) - expanding,
(iv) - mutualism, (v) - hot spot
(c) (i) - aestivation, (ii) - escape, (iii) - stable,
(iv) - commensalism, (v) - marsh
(d) (i) - aestivation, (ii) - escape, (iii) - stable,
(iv) - mutualism, (v) - hot spot
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Organisms and Populations 297
34. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(a) Habitat includes both biotic and abiotic factors.
(b) Abiotic and biotic components interact constantly
with each other.
(c) Abiotic components alone can characterize the
habitat of an organism.
(d) Major abiotic factors includes temperature, water,
light and soil.
35. Study the following statements and answer the question.
(i) Mango trees cannot grow in temperate countries like
Canada and Germany.
(ii) Tuna fish are rarely caught beyond tropical latitude
in the ocean.
(iii) Snow Leopards are not found in Kerala.
Which of the following factor is responsible for the above
statements?
(a) Light (b) Water
(c) Temperature (d) Soil
36. Read the following statements (i to v) and answer the
question.
(i) Temperature progressively decreases from pole to
equator.
(ii) Our intestine is a unique habitat for hundreds of
species of microbes.
(iii) Average temperature exceeds 100°C in thermal
springs and hydrothermal vents.
(iv) In polar areas and high altitudes temperature goes to
70°C.
(v) Temperature goes to > 50°C in tropical desert in
summer.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv), (v) (d) (iii), (iv)
37. Read the following statements and choose the correct
option.
(i) Light is essential for life to exist on the earth.
(ii) Many species of small plants under the canopy to
tall trees in forest show optimal use of available light
due to having large sized antenna and higher number
of thylakoids.
(iii) UV rays are not harmful to many organisms.
(iv) Photoperiodic requirement is essential for many
plants for flowering.
(v) Red algae can live in deeper water of sea because of
having pigment, phycoerythrin.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) only (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
38. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Regulators are organisms that are able to maintain
homeostasis by physiological means or sometimes
by behavioural means.
(b) All birds and mammals, and very few lower
vertebrates and invertebrates are capable of
osmoregulation and thermoregulation.
(c) Sweating and shivering are the means of
thermoregulation by human.
(d) Plants are capable of thermoregulation.
39. Identify the correct statement.
(a) The smaller animals have larger surface area relative
to their volume.
(b) Smaller animals are rarely found in polar region.
(c) Bear cannot migrate hence hibernate during winter.
(d) All of the above
40. Identify the incorrect statement
(i) Thermoregulation energetically least expensive process
for many organisms like shrews and humming birds.
(ii) 99% animals and nearly all plants cannot maintain
their constant internal environment.
(iii) During the course of evolution, the costs and heights
of maintaining a constant internal environment are
discarded.
(iv) In aquatic animals, the osmotic concentration of the
body fluids change with that of the ambient water
osmotic concentration.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
41. Read the following statements regarding adaptation and
choose the correct option.
(i) Many xerophytic plants have a thick cuticle on leaf
epidermis and sunken stomata to prevent
transpiration.
(ii) Some xerophytic plants have special photosynthetic
pathway (CAM) that enables their stomata to close
during day.
(iii) Opuntias has no leaves, they are reduced to spines.
(iv) All adaptation are genetically fixed in all organisms.
(v) In Opuntia, the pathway of photosynthesis is
through C3
cycle.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (ii)
(c) (iv) and (v) (d) All of these
42. Which statement explains the concept of Allen’s rule?
(a) Aquatic mammals have blubber as insulator.
(b) Mammals of colder climate have shorter ears and limbs.
(c) Mammals of humid and warmer region have more
melanin in their skin.
(d) The bears undergoes hibernation during winter.
43. Mark the incorrect statement.
(a) Many fishes thrive in Antarctic water where
temperature is always below zero .
(b) Microbes can survive in hot springs where
temperature exceeds 100°C.
(c) Fishes can survive even at a depth where pressure
exceeds 100 atm.
(d) Desert lizards have marvelous physiological ability
to survive scorching heat of desert.
44. Given below are some examples associated with a type of
adaptation.
(i) Basking by desert lizards in sun.
(ii) Hiding in burrows by some animals.
(iii) Wearing of woolen clothes.
(iv) Thermal gaping
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
298 Biology
Identify the correct option.
(a) Scansorial adaptation (b) Cursorial adaptation
(c) Biochemical adaptation (d) Behavioural adaptation
45. Which of the following are the characteristics of expanding
population ?
(i) Pyramid - shaped age structure.
(ii) An urn - shaped age structure.
(iii) Pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups
become more or less equal in size.
(iv) Rapidly growing population with high birth rate.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding
predators?
(a) It keeps prey population under control.
(b) It helps in maintaining species diversity.
(c) It reduces intensity of competition among competing
prey species.
(d) Predator in nature are prudent because they do not
exploit their prey.
47. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in
true sense?
(a) Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws
nourishment from the mother.
(b) The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from
humans.
(c) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying
eggs on human hair.
(d) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest.
48. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) The human liver fluke depends on two intermediate
hosts to complete its life cycle.
(b) The malarial parasite needs vector (mosquito to
spread to other host).
(c) Parasites that feed on external surface of the host
organism are called endoparasites.
(d) Cuscuta derives its nutrition from the host plant
which it parasitises.
49. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Overwhelming majority of animals and nearly all
plants maintain a constant internal temperature.
(b) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch
is an example of commensalism.
(c) In brood parasitism, the parasitic bird lays its eggs in
the nest of its host and lets the host to incubate
them.
(d) In amensalism, one species is harmed whereas the
other is unaffected.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
50. Assertion : In sigmoid growth curve, population finally
stabilizes itself.
Reason : Finally, the death rate increases than the birth
rate.
51. Assertion : In a water body, Daphnia populations showed
distinct variations in their morphology at different
seasons.
Reason : Variations in temperature of water bodies at
different seasons influences cyclomorphosis in some
organisms.
52. Assertion : Predation is a type of interspecific interaction
with a strategy based on feeding.
Reason : A stable population is maintained through time
by the populations of predator and their prey and rarely
one population becomes abundant or scarce.
53. Assertion : Species are groups of potentially
interbreeding natural populations which are isolated from
other such groups.
Reason : Distinctive morphological characters are
displayed due to reproductive isolation.
54. Assertion : Cold blooded animals do not have fat layer.
Reason : Cold blooded animals use their fat for metabolic
process during hibernation.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
55. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
answer.
Column-I Column-II
A. Pacific
Salmon fish
I. Produces a small number of
large sized offspring
B. Mammals II. Produces a large number of
small sized offspring
C. Oysters III. Breed only once in their
lifetime
D. Birds IV. Breed many times during
their lifetime
(a) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(b) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III
(c) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
(d) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
56. Match the following
Population Example
A. Predation I. Cuscuta and hedge plants
B. Commensalism II. Balanus and Chathamalus
C. Parasitism III. Cactus and moth
D. Competition IV. Orchid and mango
(a) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(b) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(c) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
(d) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Organisms and Populations 299
57. Match Column - I with Column - II and choose the correct
option.
Column I Column II
A. Pacific salmon fish I Verhulst - pearl
logistic growth
B. Nt = N0e
rt II Breed only once in
life time
C. Oyster III Exponential growth
D. dN/dt = rN
IV A large number of
small sized
offsprings
K N
K
é ù -
ê ú ë û
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(b) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
(c) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
58. The given figure flows biome distribution with respect to
annual temperature and precipitation. In this few parts are
marked as A, B & C. Mark the correct identification from
the following picture.
(A) (B) (C)
(a) Tropical forest Temperate forest Coniferous forest
(b) Temperate forest Tropical forest Coniferous forest
(c) Temperate forest Coniferous forest Tropical forest
(d) Coniferous forest Tropical forest Temperate forest
59. The given figure shows the diagram match representation
of organismic response. Which option gives the correct
identification of three types of organisms (marked as A, B &
C) in response to abiotic factor?
A
B
C
E
xtern
al level
Internal level
(A) (B) (C)
(a) Partial regulator Regulator Conformers
(b) Regulator Conformers Partial regulator
(c) Conformers Regulator Partial regulator
(d) Regulator Partial regulator Conformers
60. What type of human population is represented by the
given age pyramid?
Expanding Stable Declining
Post-reproductive
Reproductive
Pre-reproductive
(a) Expanding population (b) Vanishing population
(c) Stable population (d) Declining population
61. A country with a high rate of population growth took
measures to reduce it. The figure below shows age-sex
pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart.
Select the correct interpretation about them.
Age
70+
60 - 69
50 - 59
40 - 49
30 - 39
20 - 29
10 - 19
0 - 9
Male Female
age (in years)
15 12 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15
‘A’
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
300 Biology
Age
70+
60 - 69
50 - 59
40 - 49
30 - 39
20 - 29
10 - 19
0 - 9
Male Female
age (in years)
15 12 9 6 3 30 6 9 12 15
‘B’
(a) “B” is earlier pyramid and shows stabilized growth
rate.
(b) “B” is more recent showing that population is very
young.
(c) “A” is the earlier pyramid and no change has occurred
in the growth rate.
(d) “A” is more recent and shows slight reduction in the
growth rate.
62. The density of a population in a given habitat during a
given period, fluctuates due to changes in four basic
processes On this basis choose the correct option to fill
up A and B boxes in the given diagram.
A B
+ Population –
Density
(N)
(a) A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + Emigration
(b) A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + Emigration
(c) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B = Mortality + Emigration
(d) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality + Immigration
63. Identify I to IV which affect the population density.
I
II
III
IV
Natality
Immigration
Mortality
Emigration
Population
Density
I II III IV
(a) Increase Decrease Increase Decrease
(b) Decrease Increase Decrease Increase
(c) Increase Increase Decrease Decrease
(d) Decrease Decrease Increase Increase
64. Study the population growth curves given below.
Population
density (N)
Time (t)
(i)
(ii)
K
Which options is the best for curve (i) and (ii) ?
S. No. Type of (i) curve Type of (ii) curve Equation for curve (i) Equation for curve (ii)
(a) Logistic curve Logistic curve
dN rN
dt
=
K N
K
æ ö -
ç ÷ è ø
dN rN
dt
=
(b) Exponential curve Logistic curve
dN rN
dt
=
dN
rN
dt
=
K N
K
æ ö -
ç ÷ è ø
(c) Logistic curve Exponential curve
dN K N rN
dt K
æ ö -
= ç ÷ è ø
dN rN
dt
=
(d) Exponential curve Exponential curve
dN rN
dt
=
dN K N rN
dt K
æ ö -
= ç ÷ è ø
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Organisms and Populations 301
65. In laboratory experiments, two species of the protist
Paramecium were grown alone and in the presence of the
other species. The following graphs show growth of
species 1 (left) and species 2 (right), both along and when
in mixed culture.
Population
individuals
Time
Species 2
Alone
With
Species I
With
Species 2
Alone
Species 1
Interpretation of these graphs shows that
(a) competitive exclusion occurred in these experiments.
(b) both species are affected by interspecific competition
but species 1 is less affected.
(c) both species are affected by interspecific competition
but species 2 is less affected.
(d) both species are affected equally by interspecific
competition.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
66. Which one of the following do not account for the
formation of major biomes?
(a) Annual variation in intensity of temperature.
(b) Annual variation in duration of temperature.
(c) Annual variation in precipitation.
(d) Annual variation in texture of soil.
67. Many freshwater fishes cannot live for long in sea water
and vice-versa mainly because of the
(a) variation in light intensity.
(b) change in the levels of thermal tolerance.
(c) osmosis.
(d) spectral quality of solar radiation.
68. Factors that are important for aquatic organisms include
(a) chemical composition of water
(b) pH of water
(c) spectral quality of solar radiation
(d) both (a) and (b)
69. Many animals use the diurnal and seasonal variations in
light intensity and photoperiod as cues timing of
(a) for age only
(b) reproductive activities only
(c) migration only
(d) all of these
70. To a large extent the vegetation in any area is determined
by
(a) temperature and pH.
(b) pH, mineral composition and light.
(c) pH, mineral composition and topography.
(d) types of minerals in soil.
71. Regarding temperature and osmotic concentration nearly
all plants are
(a) regulator (b) conformers
(c) partial regulator (d) escaper in time
72. Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions because
(a) they have a smaller surface area relative to their volume.
(b) they have a larger volume relative to their surface area.
(c) they have smaller metabolic rate.
(d) they have a larger surface area relative to their
volume.
73. The kangaroo rats of North American deserts do not need
to drink water because
(a) they meet their water requirement through internal
fat oxidation when the water is a byproduct.
(b) they are able to concentrate urine, to minimize water
loss.
(c) they do not have sweat glands.
(d) all of the above
74. Many tribes living in the high altitude of Himalayas have a
(a) higher WBC count than people living in the plains.
(b) lower WBC count than people living in the plains.
(c) higher RBC count than people living in the plains.
(d) lower RBC count than people living in the plains.
75. Population ecology is an important area of ecology because
(a) it determines the interaction among organisms and
between the organisms and its physical environment.
(b) evolutionary changes through natural selection take
place at the population level.
(c) it links ecology to population genetics and evolution.
(d) it links different types of communities together.
76. Natural selection operates to evolve the desired tracts at
(a) cellular level (b) species level
(c) community level (d) population level
77. If in a pond, there were 20 lotus last year and through
reproduction 8 new plants are added, taking current
population to 28, the birth rate per year is
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.8
78. If 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruitflies
died during a specified time interval (i.e., a week), the death
rate in the population during that period is
(a) 1 (b) 0.1
(c) 0.01 (d) 0.4
79. In an age pyramid, the number of individuals of
reproductive age is lesser than pre-reproductive but higher
than post reproductive ones. The population is
(a) growing (b) declining
(c) stable (d) can not be predicted
80. The age structure of a population influences population
growth because
(a) younger females have more offsprings than do older
females.
(b) different age groups have different reproductive
capabilities.
(c) the more individuals that are immature the slower the
population will grow.
(d) a shorter generation time results in slower population
growth.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
302 Biology
81. If N is the population density at time t, then its density at
time t + 1 is
(a) Nt + 1 = Nt
+ [(B + I) + (D + E)]
(b) Nt + 1 = Nt
– [(B + I) + (D + E)]
(c) Nt + 1 = Nt
+ [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(d) Nt + 1 = Nt
– [(B + I) – (D + E)]
82. The two basic processes which contribute to a increase in
population density are
(a) mortality and immigration
(b) natality and immigration
(c) mortality and emigration
(d) mortality and emigration
83. The integral form of the exponential growth equation is
(a) Nt
= N0
e
–rt (b) N0
= Nt
e
rt
(c) Nt
= N0
e
rt (d) rN = Nt
e
rt
84. Assume that you have been studying a population of
cattails at the edge of a pond. After 10 years of
observations, you notice that the population has remained
steady. What is the most likely explanation?
(a) The birth rate and death rate are both increasing at
the same rate.
(b) The pond is drying up.
(c) The carrying capacity of pond has been reached.
(d) Nutrients levels in pond are fluctuating.
85. Organisms with very high intrinsic growth rates have
(a) long generation times.
(b) short generation times.
(c) no courtship behaviour.
(d) no carrying capacities.
86. In exponential growth, the increase or decrease in
population size during a unit period is
(a) (B + I ) – (D + E)
(b) (b + d) – N
(c) N × (b – d)
(d) r + N
87. When certain exotic species are introduced into
geographical area, they become invasive and start
spreading fast because
(a) they have high reproductive rate.
(b) they produce chemicals to inhibit the growth of other
organisms.
(c) there is no competition.
(d) the invaded land does not have its natural predators.
88. Which of the following adaptation do not lessen the impact
of predation?
(a) Some species of insects and frogs are camouflaged.
(b) Some animals are poisonous.
(c) Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful due to having
certain chemical in their bodies.
(d) Different feeding habits of finches.
89. Mac Arthur observed that five closely related species of
Warblers living on the same tree were able to avoid
competition and co-exist due to
(a) cooperation in their foraging efforts.
(b) behavioural differences in their foraging activities.
(c) different kinds of insects they eat.
(d) all of the above
90. The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became
extinct within a decade after goats were introduced on the
island. This is apparently due to
(a) lower intrinsic rate of goat.
(b) the greater browsing efficiency of the goats.
(c) limiting resource.
(d) superiority of the goat.
91. Gause’s ‘competitive exclusion principle’ states that
(a) humans are the most widespread agents of
disturbance.
(b) in a competition for similar resource both the
participants are benefitted.
(c) in a competition, both the participants are excluded.
(d) two closely related species competing for the same
resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and
competitively inferior one will be eliminated
eventually.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. An ecosystem is a
(a) group of components that interact with one another.
(b) group of interacting species in one place at one time.
(c) biological community and component of the physical
environment with which the community interacts.
(d) group of interacting chemicals and their cycles.
2. Which of the following is/are example(s) of man-made
ecosystem?
(a) Herbarium (b) Crop fields
(c) Aquarium (d) Both (b) and (c)
3. Vertical distribution of different species occupying
different levels is called
(a) enumeration (b) stratification
(c) species composition (d) none of these
4. Which one of the following is not an abiotic component?
(a) Temperature (b) Decomposers
(c) Water (d) Soil
5. In an ecosystem abiotic components includes which of
the following ?
(a) Flow of energy
(b) Cycling of materials
(c) Consumers
(d) Flow of energy and cycling of materials
6. Two main structural features of an ecosystem are
(a) species composition and stratification
(b) species composition and productivity
(c) productivity and energy flow
(d) nutrient cycling and stratification
7. Identification and enumeration of plant and animal species
of an ecosystem gives its
(a) productivity (b) stratification
(c) species composition (d) all of these
8. Primary productivity
(a) is equal to the standing crop of an ecosystem.
(b) is greatest in freshwater ecosystems.
(c) is the rate of conversion of light to chemical energy
in an ecosystem.
(d) is inverted in some aquatic ecosystems.
9. The rate at which light energy is converted into chemical
energy of organic molecules is the ecosystem’s
(a) net primary productivity
(b) gross secondary productivity
(c) net secondary productivity
(d) gross primary productivity
10. Which of the following most often limits the primary
productivity of the ecosystem ?
(a) Solar radiation/light (b) Oxygen
(c) Consumers (d) Nitrogen
11. What is the annual net primary productivity of whole
biosphere?
(a) 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter.
(b) 165 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter.
(c) 160 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter.
(d) 155 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter.
12. Which one of the following process help the watersoluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil
horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts?
(a) Fragmentation (b) Leaching
(c) Catabolism (d) Humification
13. How much portion of the photosynthetically active
radiation (PAR) is captured by the plants?
(a) 5 – 10% (b) 7 – 10%
(c) 8 – 10% (d) 2 – 10%
14. Energy flow in an ecosystem is
(a) unidirectional (b) bidirectional
(c) multidirectional (d) all of these
15. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at
a particular time is known as
(a) catabolism (b) standing crop
(c) humification (d) primary productivity
16. Ecosystems are ______ because resources ____ move
from one ecosystem to another.
(a) open; can (b) closed; cannot
(c) one-way; can (d) one-way; cannot
17. Energy pyramids are used to represent energy transfer in
an ecosystem because energy is _______ between each
trophic level.
(a) gained
(b) lost
(c) conserved
(d) either conserved or gainedChapter 36 Eeqõûõvgï
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
304 Biology
18. The primary difference between sedimentary and
atmospheric cycles is that in _____ cycles the nutrient
does not _____.
(a) sedimentary; leave the terrestrial environment
(b) sedimentary; leave the aquatic environment
(c) atmospheric; leave the aquatic environment
(d) sedimentary; enter the atmosphere
19. Which one of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of
biogeochemical cycle ?
(a) Phosphorus and carbon monoxide
(b) Oxygen and nitrogen
(c) Phosphate and nitrogen
(d) Phosphorus and sulphur
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
20. Consider the following statements.
(i) An ecosystem is a functional unit of nature and
comprises abiotic and biotic components.
(ii) Abiotic components are organic materials.
(iii) Biotic components are producers, consumers and
decomposers.
(iv) Energy flow is bidirectional.
which two statements are correct ?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
21. Which one of the following statement is correct about
decomposition ?
(a) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in
lignin and chitin, and quicker if detritus is rich in
nitrogen and water - soluble substances like sugars.
(b) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in
nitrogen and water - soluble substances like sugars,
and quicker if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
(c) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in
cellulose, and quicker if detritus is rich in phosphorus.
(d) Decomposition rate is quicker if detritus is rich in
lignin, and lower if detritus is rich in sulphur.
22. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Warm and moist environment favour decomposition
whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit
decomposition.
(b) Warm and moist environment inhibit decomposition
whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis favour
decomposition.
(c) Warm moist environment and anaerobiosis inhibit
decomposition whereas low temperature favours
decomposition.
(d) Warm and low temperature inhibit decomposition
whereas anaerobiosis favours decomposition.
23. Which of the following is not a hypothesis for why foodchain length is limited?
(a) Food-chain length is limited by one organism’s ability
to consume another.
(b) Food-chain length is limited because they are easily
disrupted by environmental perturbations.
(c) Food-chain length is limited by productivity.
(d) Food-chain length is a function of an ecosystem’s
physical structure.
24. Which of the following is not true for a pyramid of
productivity?
(a) Only about 10% of the energy in one trophic level is
passed into the next level.
(b) Because of the loss of energy at each trophic level,
most food chains are limited to three to five steps.
(c) The pyramid of productivity of some aquatic
ecosystems is inverted because of the large
zooplankton primary - consumer level.
(d) Eating grain-fed beef is an inefficient means of
obtaining the energy trapped by photosynthesis.
25. Which statement is true corresponding to the given food
chain ?
Grass ® Rabbits ® Snakes ® Hawks
(a) Each predator population has a greater biomass than
its prey population.
(b) Each prey population has a greater biomass than its
predator population.
(c) Each population is omnivorous.
(d) Each level of food chain returns inorganic nutrients
and energy to the producer.
26. Which two of the following statements regarding food
chains are correct ?
(i) Removal of 80% tigers resulted in increased growth
of vegetation.
(ii) Removal of most carnivores resulted in increased
population of deer.
(iii) Length of food chain is limited to 3 – 4 trophic levels
due to energy loss.
(iv) Length of food chain may vary from 2 – 3 trophic
levels.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
27. The given statements (i - iv) are the characteristics of
productivity.
(i) The rate of biomass production is called productivity
and is expressed in terms of a kcal m–2
.
(ii) Net primary productivity is rate of production of
biomass during photosynthesis.
(iii) Net primary productivity minus respiration loss is
called net primary productivity.
(iv) Primary productivity depends only on the plant
species inhabiting a particular area.
Identify the correct statements.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
28. Food chains differ from food webs in that
(i) food chains are single sequence of who eats whom
in a community.
(ii) food chains better represent the entire community.
(iii) food webs represent the complex interaction among
food chains.
(iv) food chain is the flow of energy in a population.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Ecosystem 305
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
29. Which of following is/are trend(s) in from ecological
succession ?
(i) An increase in complexity of species.
(ii) An increase in productivity.
(iii) An increase in community stability and species
diversity.
(iv) A decrease in non-living organic materials.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
30. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) An important characteristic of all communities is that
their composition and structure constantly change
in response to the changing environmental
conditions.
(ii) The climax community remains stable as long as the
environment remains changed.
(iiii) The entire sequence of communities that
successively change in a given area are called sere(s).
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
31. Which of the following include(s) ecosystem services ?
(i) Purification of air and water by forests.
(ii) Forests mitigate droughts and flood.
(iii) Forests act as store house of carbon.
(iv) Forests influence hydrological cycle.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
32. Which of the following factors influence communities ?
(i) Climate
(ii) Species interaction
(iii) Feeding relationships among organisms
(iv) Succession
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
33. Choose the correct statements regarding ecological
pyramids.
(i) The relationship between organisms at different
trophic levels is expressed in terms of number,
biomass and energy.
(ii) Any calculations of energy content, biomass or
number has to include one group of organism at that
trophic level.
(iii) In most ecosystems, all the pyramids of number,
biomass and energy are upright.
(iv) The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(v) Pyramid of energy is always inverted and can never
be upright.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i)
(c) (ii) and (v) (d) (i) and (v)
34. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
biogeochemical cycle?
(i) Gaseous exchanges of phosphorus between
organism and environment are negligible
(ii) All biogeochemical cycles include both organisms
and non-living components.
(iii) Most elements remain longest in the living portion
of their cycle.
(iv) The chemical elements used by organisms in large
quantities cycle back and forth between organisms
and environment.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
35. Assertion : Pyramid of energy may be upright or inverted.
Reason : Only 20% of energy goes to next trophic level.
36. Assertion : Net primary productivity is gross primary
productivity minus respiration.
Reason : Secondary productivity is produced by
heterotrophs.
37. Assertion : In a food chain, members of successive higher
levels are fewer in number.
Reason : Number of organisms at any trophic level
depends upon the availability of organisms which serve
as food at the lower level.
38. Assertion : A network of food chains existing together in
an ecosystem is known as food web.
Reason : An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food
web.
39. Assertion : Biotic community has higher position than
population in ecological hierarchy.
Reason : Population of similar individuals remains isolated
in the community.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
40. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Primary succession I. Autotrophs
B. Climax community II. Community that has
completed succession
C. Consumer III. Colonization of a new
environment
D. Producer IV. Animals
(a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
306 Biology
41. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Standing state I. Nitrogen, Carbon
B. Gaseous cycles II. Amount of nutrients
C. Standing crop III. Sulphur, Phosphorus
D. Sedimentary cycles IV. Living matter at different
trophic levels
(a) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(b) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(c) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(d) A – I, B – IV; C – III; D – II
42. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Phosphorus I. Atmosphere
B. Carbon II. Producers
C. Goat III. Rock
D. Grasses IV. T2
(a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
43. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Pioneer community on I. Crustose lichens
lithosphere
B. Ecological succession II. Mesophytes
C. Climax community III. Ecosystem
development
D. Ecological pyramid IV. Elton
(a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
44. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column - I Column - II
A. Presence of 3-4 storey I. Blue-green algae
of plants grown in a
forest
B. A biome having grasses II. Stratification
with scattered trees
C. Man made ecosystem III. Savannah
D. Pioneer in hydrosere IV. Dam
(a) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(d) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
45. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(a) Autotrophs – Fungi
(b) Primary consumers – Zooplankton
(c) Secondary consumers – Fishes
(d) Decomposers – Flagellates
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
46. Refer the given diagrammatic representation of trophic
levels in an ecosystem some spaces are marked A, B, C
and D. Identify A, B, C and D.
(a) A – Primary producer; B – Secondary consumer;
C – Man / Lion; D – Plants
(b) A – Secondary consumer; B – Primary producer;
C – Man / lion; D – Plants
(c) A – Primary producer; B – Secondary consumer;
C – Plants; D – Man / lion
(d) A – Secondary consumer; B – Primary producer;
C – Plants; D – Man / lion
47. Refer the given nutrient cycle in a terrestrial ecosystem
with few labels marked as A, B, C and D. Identify A, B, C
and D.
B
Detritus
D
C
Soil solution
Rock minerals
A
Litter fall
Uptake
Run off
(a) A – Consumers; B – Decomposition; C – Producers
D – Weathering
(b) A – Consumers; B – Weathering; C – Producers;
D – Decomposition
(c) A – Producers; B – Consumers; C – Decomposition;
D – Weathering
(d) A – Consumers; B – Producers; C – Decomposition;
D – Weathering
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Ecosystem 307
48. In the given food web few organisms are marked as (1),
(2), (3) and (4). Identify (1), (2), (3) and (4).
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(a) Deer Rabbit Frog Rat
(b) Dog Squirrel Bat Deer
(c) Rat Dog Tortoise Crow
(d) Squirrel Cat Rat Pigeon
49. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What
could be one of the possibilities about certain organisms
at some of the different levels ?
10
50
500
1
TC
SC
PC
PP
(a) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is “small
insectivorous birds”.
(b) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and “whale” is
on top level TC.
(c) Level PP is “peepal trees” and the level SC is “sheep”.
(d) Level PC is “rats” and level SC is “cats”.
50. Given below is one of the types of ecological pyramids.
This type represents
(a) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
(b) Pyramid of biomass in a fallow land
(c) Pyramid of biomass in a lake
(d) Energy pyramid in a spring
51. Which of the given pyramids represent the variation in
biomass at different trophic levels in pond ecosystem?
(a)
SC
PC
PP
(b)
SC
PC
PP
(c)
SC
PC
PP
(d)
PC
PP
52. Two food chains are given below.
(i) Tree® aphid ® insectivorous bird ® prey feed on
bird
(ii) Phytoplankton ® zooplankton ® plankton feeding
fish ® carnivorous fish
Which diagram is a pyramid of energy representing both
food chains?
(a)
Trophic level
4
3
2
1
(b)
Trophic level
4
3
2
1
(c) Trophic level
4
3
2
1
(d) Trophic level
4
3
2
1
53. The given diagram shows (I, II, III, and IV) the flow of
materials between different trophic levels. Which arrow
is incorrect?
Producers
Primary consumers
I
IV
II III
Decomposers
Secondary consumers
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
54. Which one is the correct food chain ?
(a) Eagle ® Snake ® Grasshopper ® Grass ® Frog
(b) Frog ® Snake ® Eagle ® Grasshopper ® Grass
(c) Grasshopper ® Grass ® Snake ® Frog ® Eagle
(d) Grass ® Grasshopper ® Frog ® Snake ® Eagle
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
308 Biology
55. In parasitic food chain, the pyramid of number is
(a) linear (b) upright
(c) inverted (d) inverted upright
56. If CO2
is removed totally from the biosphere, which
organisms will be affected first ?
(a) Consumers
(b) Secondary consumers
(c) Producers
(d) Primary producers
57. The correct order of the process of decomposition is
(a) Catabolism ® Fragmentation ® Leaching ®
Humification ® Mineralization
(b) Catabolism ® Fragmentation ® Humification ®
Leaching ® Mineralization
(c) Fragmentation ® Humification ® Catabolism ®
Leaching ® Mineralization
(d) Fragmentation ® Leaching ® Catabolism ®
Humification ® Mineralization
58. Productivity at the second trophic level is always
(a) greater than the productivity at the first trophic level.
(b) less than the productivity at the first trophic level.
(c) equal to the productivity at the first trophic level.
(d) extremely variable compared to the productivity at
the first trophic level.
59. Which one of the following animals may occupy more
than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at the same
time?
(a) Sparrow (b) Lion
(c) Goat (d) Frog
60. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to another
is governed by the 2nd law of thermodynamics. The
average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivores to
carnivores is
(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 25% (d) 50%
61. The phosphorus cycle differs from the carbon cycle in
that
(a) the phosphorus does not enter living organisms,
whereas carbon does.
(b) the phosphorus cycle does not include a gaseous
phase, whereas the carbon cycle does.
(c) the phosphorus cycle includes a solid phase,
whereas the carbon cycle does not.
(d) the primary reservoir of the phosphorus cycle is the
atmosphere, whereas the primary reservoir for the
carbon cycle is in rock.
62. Grasslands can support greater grazing rates by herbivores
than forests because
(a) net production of grassland is greater.
(b) more of the grassland is above the ground.
(c) grasslands receive more sunlight.
(d) grasslands produce less woody plant tissue.
63. Which of the following could not be considered an
ecosystem ?
(a) A small pond
(b) All the fish in a coral reef
(c) Earth
(d) A pile of dung in a pasture
64. There is no difference between
(a) secondary consumers and herbivores.
(b) primary consumers and herbivores.
(c) first trophic level and herbivores.
(d) primary carnivores and second trophic level.
65. Which of the following contribute(s) to the carbon cycle ?
(a) Respiration and photosynthesis
(b) Fossil fuel combustion
(c) Decompostion of dead organisms
(d) All of these
66. In an upright pyramid of biomass, the herbivores generally
occupy which of the following position ?
(a) First position (b) Second position
(c) Third position (d) Fourth position
67. The primary succession refers to the development of
communities on a
(a) freshly cleared crop field.
(b) forest clearing after devastating fire.
(c) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry phase.
(d) newly-exposed habitat with no record of earlier
vegetation.
68. Which of the following compartments of the global
ecosystem would be characterized by very slow
movement of materials within the compartment ?
(a) Oceans (b) Fresh water
(c) Atmosphere (d) Land
69. Which one of the following is not used for construction
of ecological pyramids?
(a) Number of individuals (b) Rate of energy flow
(c) Fresh weight (d) Dry weight
70. Which one of the following is not a function of an
ecosystem?
(a) Energy flow (b) Decomposition
(c) Productivity (d) Stratification
71. Which one of the following is a primary consumer in maize
field ecosystem?
(a) Lion (b) Grasshopper
(c) Wolf (d) Phytoplankton
72. In a food web, each successive trophic level has
(a) increased total energy content
(b) less total energy content
(c) more total energy content
(d) non-estimated energy content
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Ecosystem 309
73. First link in any food chain is a plant because
(a) green plants can synthesize food.
(b) they can eat everything.
(c) food is stored at one place.
(d) none of the above.
74. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem ?
(a) Mountain (b) Desert
(c) Forest (d) Ocean
75. Energy storage at consumer level is called
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) secondary productivity
(c) net primary productivity
(d) net productivity
76. In ecological succession from pioneer to climax
community, the biomass shall
(a) decrease
(b) increase and then decrease
(c) no relation between these communities
(d) increase continuously
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Biodiversity describes the study of diversity
(a) below species level.
(b) at species level.
(c) at community level.
(d) at all levels of biological organization.
2. Alpha diversity is present
(a) within community.
(b) between community.
(c) ranges of communities.
(d) all of the above.
3. Diversity between two communities is called
(a) alpha diversity (b) beta diversity
(c) gamma diversity (d) none of these
4. Diversity of habitat over the total landscape is called
(a) b-diversity (b) g-diveristy (gamma)
(c) landscape diversity (d) ecosystem diversity
5. Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas
show maximum biodiversity in our country?
(a) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch
(b) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
(c) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats
(d) Kerala and Punjab
6. IUCN stands for
(a) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(c) Indian Union for Chemical Nomenclature
(d) International Union for Conservation of Nutrients
7. According to IUCN 2004, the total number of plant and
animal species described so far is slightly more than
(a) 5 million (b) 7 million
(c) 1.5 million (d) 0.5 million
8. More than 70% of all the species recorded so far, are
(a) insects (b) plants
(c) animals (d) invertebrates
9. Exotic species
(a) are often endangered.
(b) usually increase biodiversity.
(c) often enhance the habitat for native species.
(d) usually reduce biodiversity.
10. The highest number of species in the world is represented
by
(a) algae (b) lichens
(c) fungi (d) mosses
11. Which of the following is not the example of recent
extinction
(a) Steller’s sea cow (b) Dodo
(c) Quagga (d) Pigeon
12. Which vertebrate group is more vulnerable to extinction?
(a) Birds (b) Amphibians
(c) Mammals (d) Fishes
13. From origin of life to its diversification on earth, there
have occurred following number of episodes of mass
extinction.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
14. The ‘Evil Quartet’ of biodiversity loss, does not include
(a) habitat loss
(b) introduction of alien species
(c) o-exploitation
(d) hunting
15. Amazon rain forest, called the ‘Lungs of the Planet’,
contribute following percentage of oxygen by
photosynthesis, to earth atmosphere
(a) 20% (b) 35%
(c) 42% (d) 50%
16. The taxa believed likely to join the endangered category
in near future is called
(a) Rare (b) Extinct
(c) Vulnerable (d) Living fossil Chapter 37 Bkqækøgtõkvû ãpæ
Cqpõgtøãvkqp
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biodiversity and Conservation 311
17. The Cichlid species of Lake Victoria were driven to, or
nearly to, extinction by the introduction of _________.
(a) North American sturgeon
(b) Nile perch
(c) Eels
(d) Bass
18. Which of the following is not currently a major cause of
the global reduction in biodiversity?
(a) Overexploitation
(b) Global warming
(c) Habitat destruction
(d) Introduction of foreign predators and disease
19. Which of the following is the most serious threat to
biodiversity?
(a) Competition from exotic species
(b) Commercial harvesting
(c) Habitat loss
(d) Overexploitation
20. Which of the following characteristics would cause a
country to be considered a high-priority region for
conservation efforts?
(a) A high degree of endemism
(b) Having low species richness
(c) Having little natural habitat remaining
(d) All of the above
21. Which of the following is not the approach for in-situ
conservation ?
(a) Biosphere reserve (b) Sanctuary
(c) Wild life safari park (d) Sacred groove
22. The area where wild populations, traditional life styles
and genetic resources are protected is called
(a) core zone (b) buffer zone
(c) biosphere reserve (d) manipulation zone
23. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of
biodiversity in India?
(a) Indo-Gangetic Plain (b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Aravalli Hills (d) Western Ghats
24. Hotspots of biodiversity means
(a) areas of the earth that contain many endemic species.
(b) species serves as proxy for entire communities in
particular area.
(c) species in particular niche/area.
(d) species diversity at particular area.
25. Endemic plants and animals are those which are
(a) cosmopolitan in distribution.
(b) restricted to certain area.
(c) found in arctic region.
(d) gregarious in habit.
26. Animals and plants are best protected in
(a) zoos (b) botanical gardens
(c) sanctuaries (d) national parks
27. The total number of national parks and sanctuaries in
India are
(a) 82 national parks and 410 sanctuaries.
(b) 83 national parks and 421 sanctuaries.
(c) 85 national parks and 450 sanctuaries.
(d) 87 national parks and 460 sanctuaries.
28. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ
conservation?
(a) National park (b) Wildlife sanctuary
(c) Seed bank (d) Sacred groves
29. In cryopreservation germplasm is maintained at
(a) – 196° F (b) 0° F
(c) – 100° F (d) none of these
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
30. Mark the correct statement
(a) Amazonian rain forest has greatest biodiversity on earth.
(b) According to Robert May estimates, the global
species diversity is 7 million.
(c) Biodiversity is greatest in tropics.
(d) All of the above
31. Best way to preserve the wild life is
(a) to kill the predators.
(b) vaccinize the animals.
(c) to preserve natural habitat.
(d) optimize the breeding habit.
32. Which one of the following statement is correct for
botanical garden?
(a) They provide a beautiful area for recreation.
(b) One can observe tropical plants there.
(c) They allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm.
(d) They provide the natural habitat for wildlife.
33. Which of the following is done in a wild life sanctuary?
(a) conservation of fauna
(b) conservation of flora
(c) utiliation of soil and flora
(d) prohibition of hunting
34. Which one of the following does not represent
biodiversity of a geographical region?
(i) Genetic diversity present is in the dominant species
of the region .
(ii) Species endemic to the region.
(iii) Endangered species found in the region.
(iv) The diversity in the organisms living in the region.
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (iii) & (iv)
(c) (ii) only (d) (iv) only
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
312 Biology
35. Which one of the following shows concept of speciesarea relationship?
(a) The number of species in an area increases with the
size of the area.
(b) Larger species require larger habitat areas than do
smaller species.
(c) Most species within any given area are endemic.
(d) The larger the area, the greater the extinction rate.
36. Which one of the following statement is true for genetic
diversity?
(a) The total genetic information contained within all
individuals of species.
(b) The total phenotypic information contained within
all individuals of a species.
(c) The variety of life-forms on earth.
(d) The variety of biotic communities in a region along
with abiotic components.
37. Which of the following is not a step in understanding
biodiversity?
(a) Naming the species
(b) Looking at other related species
(c) Assessing the species geographic range
(d) Quantifying the species genome
38. Which one is the most important human activity leading
to extinction of wildlife?
(a) Alteration and destruction of the natural habitats.
(b) Hunting for commercially valuable wildlife products.
(c) Pollution of air and water.
(d) Introduction of alien species.
39. Sacred groves are found in
(a) Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya.
(b) Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan.
(c) Western ghat regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra
and Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar areas of Madhya
Pradesh.
(d) All of the above
40. Modern ex-situ conservation includes
(i) cryopreservation techniques
(ii) in vitro-fertilization
(ii) propagation of plants by using tissue culture methods
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
41. Biodiversity loss occurs due to the reasons given below.
(i) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(ii) Co-extinction
(iii) Over-exploitation
(iv) Alien species invasion
Identify the correct reasons.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
42. The major cause of loss of numbers of migratory birds is
(i) Bad weather (ii) Urbanization
(iii) Pesticides (iv) Fragmentation
(v) Loss of habitat
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (iv) and (v) only
(c) (i), (ii), (v) only (d) (ii), (iv), (v) only
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
43. Assertion: Communities that comprise of more species
tend to be more stable.
Reason: A higher number of species results in less animal
variation in total biomoss.
44. Assertion : Species diversity decreases while ascending
a mountain.
Reason : With increase in altitude and rise in temperature
diversity of species becomes less.
45. Assertion: The presently occurring species extinction is
different from the mass extinctions that have occurred
earlier.
Reason : Extinction in present day is due to natural causes,
whereas earlier it was due to man-made causes.
46. Assertion : Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast
from developing countries such as India.
Reason : No value is attached to these forests because
these are poor in biodiversity.
47. Assertion: Diversity observed in the entire geographical
area is called gamma diversity.
Reason : Biodiversity decreases from high altitude to low
altitude.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
48. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Nile Perch in Lake I. Obvious reasons for
Victoria biodiversity conservation
B. Narrowly utilitarian II. Habitat destruction
C. Main cause for III. High endemism
biodiversity loss
D. Hotspots IV. Alien species
(a) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(b) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(c) A – I, B – III, C – II , D – IV
(d) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biodiversity and Conservation 313
49. Match column -I with column- II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Biodiversity I. Edward Wilson
B. In-situ conservation II. Co-extinction
C. Plant pollinator mutualism III. On-site conservation
D. Ex-situ conservation IV. Off-site conservation
(a) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(b) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(c) A – I, B – III, C – II , D – IV
(d) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
50. Match the following and then choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Endemism I. Khasi and Jaintia hills
Meghalaya
B. Hotspot of India II. Advanced ex-situ
conservation
C. Sacred groove III. Species found in a
particular area only
D. Cryopreservation IV. Zoological park and
Botanical gardens
E. Ex-situ conservation V. Western Ghats
(a) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – IV
(b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E– V
(c) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I
(d) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – II, E – III
51. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Narrowly utilitarian I. Conserving biodiversity
argument for major ecosystem
services
B. Broadly utilitarian II. Conserving biodiversity
argument for philosophical or
spiritual need to realise
that every species has
intrinsic value and moral
duty to pass our
biological legacy in good
order to future generation.
C. Ethical argument III. Conserving biodiversity
for direct economic
benefits like food,
medicine, industrial
products etc.
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III (b) A – III, B – I, C – II
(c) A – II, B – I, C – III (d) A – I, B – III, C – II
52. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Over-exploitation I. Environmental damage
by humans and threat to native
species
B. Introduction of Nile II. Decline in plant
Perch in Lake Victoria population
C. Less solar energy III. Extinction of more than
2000 species of native
birds
D. Introduction of Water IV. Extinction of Cichlid fish
Hyacinth in India
E. Colonization of V. Extinction of Passenger
tropical pacific pigeon
Islands
(a) A – II, B – V, C – IV, D – III, E – I
(b) A – V, B – IV, C – II, D – I, E – III
(c) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E – V
(d) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – V, E – III
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
53. Given below are pie diagrams A, B and C related to
proportionate number of species of major taxa of
invertebrates, vertebrates and plants respectively.
Critically study and fill in the blanks I, II, III and IV.
Other animal
groups
Crustaceans
Insects
Fishes
Invertebrates Vertebrates
Reptiles
Mammals
A B
Birds
I
II
Plant
Algae
Lichens
Ferns and
allies
Mosses
A B C
Birds
IV III
(a) I- Molluscs, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi,
IV-Angiosperms
(b) I- Molluscs, II-Amphibians, III-Angiosperms,
IV-Fungi
(c) I- Hexapoda, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi,
IV-Angiosperms
(d) I- Turtles, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi, IV-Angiosperms
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
314 Biology
54. Using the figure, determine the percentage of bird species
that will be lost if the island's inhabitable land area is
reduced from 100,000 km2
to 1 km2
.
Slope
S = 1.89
0.15
0.001 0.01 0.1 1 10 100 1000 10,000 100,000
2
5
10
20
30
50
100
200 S : Number of bird species
A : Island land area (km2
)
(a) 17 percent of the bird species will be lost.
(b) 20 percent of the bird species will be lost.
(c) All of bird species will be lost.
(d) 93 percent of the bird species will be lost.
55. Which of the following boxes show maximum, greater and
minimum diversity ?
A B
C
(a) A- Minimum diversity, B - Greater diversity, C -
Maximum diversity
(b) A - Maximum diversity, B - Greater diversity,
C - Minimum diversity
(c) A - Maximum diversity, B - Minimum diversity,
C - Greater diversity
(d) A - Minimum diversity, B - Maximum diversity,
C - Greater diversity.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
56. Following arrangement is correct from the point of view
of decreasing biodiversity in angiosperms (N), fungi (F),
pteridophytes (P) and algae (A).
(a) N > F > P > A (b) N > F > A > P
(c) F > N > P > A (d) F > N > A > P
57. India’s share in global species diversity is around
(a) 8% (b) 14 %
(c) 17 % (d) 2.4 %
58. If S is species richness, A is area, Z is slope of the line,
and the C is Y-intercept, then the species richness will be
shown as
(a) S = C + Az
(b) S = C + AZ
(c) S = C. AZ (d) S = C. Az
59. Which animal has become extinct from India?
(a) Snow Leopard (b) Hippopotamus
(c) Wolf (d) Cheetah
60. A threatened species category includes
(a) only endangered species.
(b) only vulnerable species.
(c) endangered and rare species.
(d) endangered, vulnerable and rare species.
61. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to
conserve the plant diversity of an area?
(a) By developing seed bank
(b) By tissue culture method
(c) By creating botanical garden
(d) By creating biosphere reserve
62. Animal species should be preserved mainly because
(a) zoologists want to study them.
(b) they are lovely creatures.
(c) they are useful to mankind.
(d) man cannot recreate a species of animals after its
destruction.
63. Management of biosphere for providing maximum benefit
to the present generation and also maintaining its potential
for future generations, is the theme of
(a) afforestation (b) conservation
(c) deforestation (d) population
64. All forms of life should be conserved because
(a) they maintain diverse genetic resources.
(b) they have economic values.
(c) they are important for maintaining balance of nature.
(d) they will be otherwise lost.
65. Species diversity increase as one proceeeds from
(a) high altitude to low altitude and high latitude to low
latitude.
(b) low altitude to high altitude and high latitude to low
latitude.
(c) low altitude to high altitude and low latitude to high
latitude.
(d) high altitude to low altitude and low latitude to high
latitude.
66. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic
species introduced in India?
(a) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
(b) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
(c) Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
(d) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Biodiversity and Conservation 315
67. The table below give the populations (in thousands) of
ten species (A = J) in four areas (I – IV) consisting of the
number of habitats given within brackets against each
area. Study the table and answer the questions.
Area and
Number of
Habitats
Species and their population (in thousands) in the area
A B C D E F G H I J
I. (11)
II. (11)
III. (13)
IV. (12)
2.3 1.2 0.52 6 – 3 1.1 9 – 10.3
10.2 – 0.62 – 1.5 3 – 8.2 1.1 11
11.3 0.9 0.48 2.4 1.4 4.2 0.8 8.4 2.2 4.1
3.2 10.2 11.1 4.8 0.4 3.3 0.8 7.3 11.3 2.1
Which area out of I to IV shows maximum species
diversity?
(a) I (b) II
(c) III (d) IV
68. The greatest threat to global biodiversity is
(a) natural disasters such as storms
(b) pollution
(c) overexploitation of natural resources
(d) alteration of habitats by humans
69. Why do migratory species present special preservation
challenges?
(a) Because they are endemic, they are especially
susceptible to habitat destruction.
(b) Their conservation may require international
cooperation when they require habitats in different
countries.
(c) They are often prone to population number decline
during their long migratory journeys.
(d) They reside in biodiversity hotspots that are most
susceptible to habitat degradation.
70. Biosphere reserves differ from national parks and wildlife
sanctuaries because in the former
(a) human beings are not allowed to enter.
(b) people are an integral part of the system.
(c) plants are paid greater attention than the animals.
(d) living organisms are brought from all over the world
and preserved.
71. Sacred groves are especially useful in
(a) preventing soil erosion.
(b) year-round flow of water in rivers.
(c) conserving rare and threatened species.
(d) generating environmental awareness.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Pollution causes undesirable changes in which the
following characteristics of air, water, land or soil ?
(a) Physical (b) Chemical
(c) Biological (d) All of these
2. To improve the quality of environment (air, water and soil)
the Govt. of India passed the ‘Environment (Protection)
Act’ in year
(a) 1981 (b) 1986
(c) 1987 (d) 1974
3. Which one of the following is a most efficient device to
eliminate particulate matters from the industrial
emissions ?
(a) Cyclonic separators
(b) Trajectory separators
(c) Incineration
(d) Electrostatic precipitator
4. The scrubber is used mainly to remove which of the
following gas/es from the exhaust after spraying water/
lime ?
(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) O2
and N2
(d) CO and CO2
5. The diameter of particulate matter that causes greatest
harm to human health is
(a) £ 2.5 µm (b) £ 0.25 µm
(c) £ 1.0 µm (d) £ 0.1µm
6. Which of the two expensive metals are used as catalysts
by catalytic converters and are fitted into automobiles for
reducing emission of poisonous gases ?
(a) Platinum - palladium, rhodium
(b) Cadmium, rhodium
(c) Copper, cadmium
(d) Lead, mercury
7. Which of the following level of sound may damage ear
drum and can impair the hearing ability permanently ?
(a) 80 dB (b) 100 dB
(c) 120 dB (d) 150 dB
8. Euro II norms stipulate that sulphur be controlled at
_______ ppm in diesel and _______ ppm in petrol.
(a) 350; 150 (b) 150; 350
(c) 350; 250 (d) 150; 250
9. All automobiles and fuel -petrol and diesel were to have
met the Euro III emission specifications in some cities
from 1 April 2005 and have to meet the Euro-IV norms by
(a) 1 April 2008 (b) 1 April 2009
(c) 1 April 2010 (d) 1 April 2012
10. Which of the following minimum percentage of impurities
by domestic sewage make the water unfit for human use ?
(a) 1 (b) 5
(c) 0.1 (d) 0.5
11. The amount of organic matter in sewage water can be
estimated by
(a) measuring oxygen demand
(b) weight of micro-organisms
(c) salt analysis
(d) calorimetery
12. Full form of B.O.D. is
(a) Biological organism death
(b) Biotic oxygen demand
(c) Biochemical oxygen demand
(d) Biological organisation day
13. In B.O.D. test oxygen plays an important role to
(a) destroy inorganic matter
(b) destroy pollution
(c) destroy waste organic matter
(d) none of these
14. Presence of large amount of nutrients in water also cause
excess growth of planktonic (free-floating) algae, called
___________.
(a) biomagnification
(b) eutrophication
(c) algal bloom
(d) biofortification
Chapter 38 Epøktqpïgpvãn Ëõõwgõ
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Environmental Issues 317
15. Which of the following species of plant is considered as
the world’s most problematic aquatic weed ?
(a) Lantana
(b) Eichhornia
(c) Parthenium (carrot grass)
(d) Brown algae
16. The waste water from Industries may contain toxic heavy
metals having density of more than
(a) 5 g / cm3
(b) 10 g /cm3
(c) 2 g /cm3
(d) 15 g /cm3
17. Concentration of DDT for first tropic level
(phytoplanktons) and top trophic level (fish eating birds)
is _____ respectively in aquatic food chains if DDT is
0.003 pb in water.
(a) 0.025 ppm, 25 ppm (b) 0.003 ppm, 2 ppm
(c) 0.5 ppm, 2 ppm (d) 0.04 ppm, 2 ppm
18. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because it inhibits
(a) calmodulin (b) calcium ATPase
(c) magnesium ATPase (d) carbonic anhydrase
19. Natural ageing of lake by biological enrichment of its water
is called
(a) biomagnification (b) eutrophication
(c) biodegradation (d) water logging
20. FOAM (Friends of the Arcata Marsh) is a group of citizens
responsible for the integrated process of
(a) reducing eutrophication
(b) sewage and water treatment
(c) radio- active waste treatment
(d) minimizing global warming
21. The ‘Polyblend’ is a/ an
(a) recycled modified plastic waste used for laying the
roads.
(b) electronic waste buried in the landfills.
(c) plastic film- waste to make disinfectants.
(d) fine powder of plastic waste used to make the plastic
bags.
22. Green house gases include
(a) CO2
, CFC, CH4
and (NO)
x
(b) CO2
, O2
, N2
, NO2
and NH3
(c) CH4
, N2
, CO2
and NH3
(d) CFC, CO2
, NH3
and N2
23. Without Green house effect the average temperature of
earth surface would have been
(a) 18 °C (b) 8°C
(c) – 8°C (d) –18°C
24. Slash and burn agriculture, which is commonly known as
Jhum cultivation in the north-eastern states of India, leads to
(a) deforestation (b) reforestation
(c) desertification (d) water-logging
25. ___________ is a cyclical zero-waste procedure, where
waste products from one process are cycled in as nutrients
for other processes.
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Green house effect
(c) Integrated organic farming
(d) Biomagnification
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
26. Read the following statements.
A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes
within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this;
(i) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in
the crops in the vicinity.
(ii) The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft.
(iii) The lake water turned green and stinky.
(iv) Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined
intially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis.
Which two of the above were the main causes of fish
mortality in the lake ?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
27. Pollution in big cities can be controlled to a large extent by
(i) improving traffic condition and road.
(ii) road side plantation
(iii) proper disposal of garbage and domestic as well as
municipal wastes.
(iv) cannot be controlled
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) all of these
28. Which of the following statements about eutrophication
are ?
(i) It can be a naturally occurring process.
(ii) It is commonly found in standing rather than running
water.
(iii) It can lead to oxygen depletion.
(iv) It is commonly associated with high levels of
phosphates and nitrates.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) all of these
29. Mark the statement that describes the eco-friendly
disposal of municipal solid- waste.
(a) It should be burnt to completion.
(b) It should be dumped in open waste land.
(c) It should be dumped in sanitary landfills.
(d) It should be sorted out into bio-degradable,
non- bio-degradable and recyclable wastes and
treated separately.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
318 Biology
30. Which of the following is the correct statement ?
(a) Cultural eutrophication is an accelerated form of
eutrophication.
(b) In the presence of prime contaminants, such as
nitrates and phosphates, the growth of algae is
arrested.
(c) The water from electricity generating units enhances
the growth of indigenous fauna and flora.
(d) All of the above
31. ‘EcoSan’ toilets, being used in Kerala and Sri Lanka are
hygienic and cost effective solution to human waste
disposal. Mark the correct statement regarding EcoSan.
(a) Recycled human waste from this can be used as a
natural fertilizer.
(b) They are called composting toilets.
(c) They do not depend on water for the disposal of
excreta.
(d) All of the above
32. Mark the correct statement.
(a) The ozone of stratosphere is good ozone.
(b) Troposphere, on top of stratosphere, is away from
earth surface.
(c) The thickness of ozone is measured in dB.
(d) The wavelength of UV- B is more than that of UV- A.
33. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct about
noise pollution?
(a) It is an undesired high level of sound.
(b) It is measured in dB.
(c) It can cause damage to heart, increase blood
cholesterol and even raise blood pressure etc.
(d) All of the above
34. After the conventional sedimentation, filtering and
chlorine, lots of dangerous pollutants still remain. To
combat this, the biologists developed a series of six
connected marshes where appropriate plants, algae, fungi
and bacteria were seeded into this area, which
(i) Neutralize the pollutants
(ii) Absorb the pollutants
(iii) Assimilate the pollutants
(a) All of these (b) None of these
(c) only (i) and (iii) (d) only (i) and (ii)
35. Mark the correct statement.
(a) The major contribution in green house gases is of
CH4
.
(b) Global warming is because of ozone depletion.
(c) When organic waste enters into a water body its
BOD increases.
(d) All of the above
36. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Montreal
Protocol?
(i) Persistent organic pollutants.
(ii) Global warming and climate change.
(iii) To control the emission of ozone depleting
substances.
(iv) Biosafety of genetically modified organisms.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
37. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Noise pollution does not leave any residue in the
environment.
(b) Noise pollution creates nervous disorders.
(c) Plants are efficient absorbers of noise of low
frequency.
(d) Loss of hearing is a common disorder .
38. Which of the following would be most likely to help to
slow down the greenhouse effect?
(a) Ensuring that all excess paper packaging is burned
to ashes.
(b) Promoting the use of private rather than public
transport.
(c) Converting tropical forests into grazing land for
cattle.
(d) Re-designing land-fill dumps to allow methane to be
collected.
ASSERTION/REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed
by a statement of Reason.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
39. Assertion : Methane, component of green house gases,
contributing to global warming is about 20 percent.
Reason : Introduction of multi-point fuel injection engines
in automobiles has decreased methane content in the
exhausts.
40. Assertion : A suspended particulate matter (SPM) is an
important pollutant released by diesel vehicles.
Reason : Catalytic converters greatly reduce pollution
caused by automobiles.
41. Assertion : Presently, the global atmosphere is warming
up.
Reason : The depletion of stratospheric ozone layer has
resulted in increase in ultraviolet radiations reaching the
earth.
42. Assertion : Water pollutants are measured by BOD.
Reason : If BOD is more, the water is polluted.
43. Assertion : Eutrophication shows increase in productivity
in water.
Reason : With increasing eutrophication, the diversity of
the phytoplankton increases.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Environmental Issues 319
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
44. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. DDT I. CH4
, CO2
B. Platinum- palladium II. SO2
and Rhodium
C. Acid rain III. Biological
magnification
D. Global warming IV. Catalytic converter
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(b) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(d) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
45. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Catalytic converter I. Particulate matter
B. Electrostatic II. Carbon monoxide and
precipitator nitrogen oxides
C. Earmuffs III. High noise level
D. Land fills IV. Solid wastes
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(b) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
(c) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(d) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
46. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Environment I. 1987
(Protection) Act
B. Air (Prevention and II. 1986
Control of Pollution) Act
C. Water (Prevention and III. 1980
Control of Pollution) Act
D. Concept of Joint IV. 1974
Forest Management
of Govt. of India
(a) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV
(d) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
47. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(Organisms) (Concentration of DDT)
A. Zooplankton I. 2 ppm
B. Small fish II. 0.04 ppm
C. Large fish III. 0.5 ppm
D. Fish-eating birds IV. 25 ppm
(a) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I
(d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
48. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Ahmed Khan I. Spreading information
and help on the practice
of integrated organic
farming
B. Ramesh Chandra II. Protecting wildlife
Dagar
C. Amrita Devi Bishnoi III. A plastic sack
manufacturer of
Bangalore developed
polyblend
(a) A – III; B – I; C – I (b) A – II; B – I; C – I
(c) A – I; B – II; C – II (d) A – III; B – II; C – II
49. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(a) Fossil fuel burning - release of CO2
(b) Nuclear power - radioactive wastes
(c) Solar energy - green house effect
(d) Biomass burning - release of CO2
50. Match the items of column-I with column-II and choose
the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. UV I. Biomagnification
B. Biodegradable
organic matter II. Eutrophication
C. DDT III. Snow blindness
D. Phosphates IV. BOD
(a) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(b) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(d) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
51. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Colloidal materials I. Typhoid, Jaundice,
Cholera
B. Water-borne diseases II. Irreparable computes
and other electronic
goods
C. E-wastes III. Faecal matter bacteria,
cloth and paper fibres
D. Manure IV. Troposphere
E. Bad ‘Ozone’ V. Cattle excreta (dung)
(a) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – V, E – IV
(b) A – III, B – I, C – V, D – II, E – IV
(c) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – V, E – IV
(d) A – III, B – I, C – V, D – IV, E – II
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
320 Biology
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
52. According to size of air pollutants, range and types of
chemical the device given below is best used to control
which of the following pollutants?
(a) Large particulates
(b) Charged particulate matter
(c) Dissolved gases
(d) Fine particles
53. Which of the following figures shows correct relative
contribution of greenhouse gases to global warming?
(a) CH4
20%
CFCs
14%
N O
6%
2
CO2
60%
(b)
CH4
20%
CFCs
14%
CO2
6%
N O
60%
2
(c)
CH4
14%
CFCs
20%
N O
6%
2
CO2
60%
(d) CH4
20%
CFCs
6%
N O
14%
2
CO2
60%
54. The given graph shows the effect of sewage discharge
on some important characteristics of a river. Which of the
following is the correct label for A, B and C ?
Sewage
Discharge
Direction of Flow
Concentration
B
(a) (A) Dissolved oxygen, (B) Point of sewage discharge,
(C) BOD
(b) (A) BOD, (B) Point of treated water discharge,
(C) Dissolved oxygen
(c) (A) Dissolved oxygen, (B) Point of treated water
discharge, (C) BOD
(d) (A) BOD, (B) Point of sewage discharge,
(C) Dissolved oxygen
55. The diagram below shows the effect of polluting a river
with untreated whey. What does graph X represent?
(a) Bacterial count.
(b) Number of fish.
(c) Mass of curds.
(d) Concentration of rennet.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Environmental Issues 321
56. The given diagram shows electrostatic precipitator.
Identify A, B and C.
(a) A - Discharge corona, B - Negatively charged wire,
C - Collection plate grounded
(b) A - Discharge corona, B - Positively charged wire,
C - Collection plate grounded
(c) A - Discharge corona, B - Negatively charged wire,
C - Collection plate burnt
(d) A - Uncharge corona, B - Positively charged wire,
C - Collection plate never grounded
57. What does ‘x’ indicate in the given figure?
X
(a) Greenhouse effect (b) El Nino Effect
(c) Ozone hole (d) Marsh meadow stage
58. Which of the following phenomenon is represented by
the given figure?
Sunlight
Green House Gases
Atmosphere
Earth Surface
Radiant heat
Trapped by
GHGs
(a) Green house effect (b) El Nino effect
(c) Ozone hole (d) Eutrophication
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
59. CNG is better than petrol/ diesel, since
(a) CNG burns more efficiently.
(b) CNG burns completely.
(c) CNG cannot be adulterated.
(d) All of the above
60. In clean water, the concentration of
(a) BOD is low but DO is high.
(b) Both BOD and DO are high.
(c) BOD is high but DO is low.
(d) Both BOD and DO are low.
61. Water pollution can be stopped best by
(a) treating effluents to remove injurious chemicals.
(b) rearing more fishes.
(c) cultivating useful water plants.
(d) spraying with DDT.
62. Fishes die by sewage because
(a) of its bad smell.
(b) it replaces food material of fishes.
(c) it increases oxygen competition among fishes.
(d) CO2
is mixed in large amounts in water.
63. A lake affected by high levels of artificial eutrophication
will have
(a) high nutrient levels, large phytoplankton
populations, and low oxygen levels at depth.
(b) high levels of nutrients, low phytoplankton levels,
high oxygen levels in surface waters.
(c) low nutrient levels, large phytoplankton populations,
and low oxygen levels at depth.
(d) low nutrient levels, low phytoplankton populations,
and high oxygen levels at depth.
64. Two lakes, A and B are identical in all aspects except that
lake A has higher temperature. Which of the following is
true ?
(a) A has higher rate of oxygen dissolution.
(b) B has higher rate of oxygen dissolution.
(c) Oxygen dissolution of both is the same.
(d) Both the lakes have same BOD.
65. Today the concentration of green house gases is very
high because of
(a) use of refrigerator.
(b) increased combustion of oils and coal.
(b) deforestation.
(d) all of the above
66. Which constituent of the atmosphere is likely to change
if the forest cover is removed ?
(a) O2
level is increased
(b) CO2
level is increased
(c) O2
level is significantly increased
(d) CO2
level is significantly decreased
67. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is most likely to
happen on a long term basis?
(a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to death.
(b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will die due to
lack of fodder.
(c) Large areas will become deserts.
(d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer due to a
reduced availability of variety of germplasm.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
322 Biology
68. Which of these is not an advantage of CNG over diesel?
(a) Burns more efficiently.
(b) It is cheap.
(c) Cannot be siphoned off by thieves.
(d) Easy to lay down pipelines for delivery.
69. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter are
advised to use unleaded petrol because
(a) lead causes inactivation of catalyst.
(b) lead reduces the emission of poisonous gases.
(c) lead is a heavy metal.
(d) lead decreases the efficiency of vehicle.
70. Which of the following steps is not taken for reducing
vehicular pollution?
(a) Use of unleaded petrol.
(b) Use of high-sulphur petrol and diesel.
(c) Use of catalytic converters in vehicles.
(d) Application of stringent pollution-level norms for
vehicles.
71. Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of
the toxicant at successive trophic levels. This happens
because
(a) a toxic substance accumulated by an organism can
not be metabolized.
(b) a toxic substance accumulated by an organism can
not be excreted.
(c) a toxic substance is passed on to the next trophic
level.
(d) All of the above
72. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
‘Eco San’ toilets?
(a) It is a sustainable system for handling human excreta
or faecal matter by using dry ‘composting toilets’.
(b) These are very useful for the rural areas where sewer
systems are not possible.
(c) These toilets are hygienic, efficient, practical & most
effective for the disposal of human waste.
(d) All of the above
73. Which one of the following statement pertaining to
pollutants is correct?
(a) DDT is a non-biodegradable pollutant.
(b) Excess fluoride in drinking water causes
osteoporosis, hardening of bones, stiff joints.
(c) Excess cadmium in drinking water causes black foot
disease.
(d) Methylmercury in water may cause "Itai Itai" disease.
74. The effect of todays radioactive fall out will be harmful to
children of future generation because
(a) infants are more susceptible to radiations.
(b) susceptibility to radiation increase with age.
(c) mutated genes are frequently recessive.
(d) contamination of milk supply is not cumulative.
75. Which of the following is not an environmental problem?
(a) Soil erosion (b) Water logging
(c) Desertification (d) Reforestation
76. Which of the following is not one of the prime health
risks associated with greater UV radiation due to depletion
of stratospheric ozone?
(a) Increased liver cancer
(b) Increased skin cancer
(c) Damage to eyes
(d) Reduced immune system
77. As a result of global warming, the sea level will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remain the same (d) none of these
78. The most adverse effect of radioactive pollutant is
(a) gene mutation (b) hepatitis
(c) polio (d) T.B.
79. Drawback of DDT as pesticide is that
(a) it becomes ineffective after sometime.
(b) it is less effective than others.
(c) it is not easily/rapidly degraded in nature.
(d) its high cost.
80. Global warming can be controlled by
(a) reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil
fuel.
(b) increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth
of human population.
(c) increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of
energy usage.
(d) reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil
fuel
81. Climate of the world is threatened by
(a) increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen.
(b) decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen.
(c) increasing amount of atmospheric carbondioxide.
(d) decreasing amount of atmospheric carbondioxide.
82. Which one of the following is not correct as regards to
the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5
micro meters or less?
(a) It can be inhaled into the lungs.
(b) It can cause respiratory problems.
(c) It can directly enter into our circulatory system.
(d) It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs.
83. Algal blooms impart a distinct colour to water due to
(a) their pigments.
(b) excretion of coloured substances.
(c) formation of coloured chemicals in water facilitated
by physiological degradation of algae.
(d) absorption of light by algal cell wall.
84. In the coming years, skin related disorders will be more
common due to
(a) air pollution
(b) use of detergents
(c) water pollution
(d) depletion of ozone layer
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Environmental Issues 323
85. Vast tracts of rainforest have been clear-cut and burned.
This practice has increased atmospheric carbon dioxide
levels significantly because
(a) forest provided a place for the carbon dioxide to be
used.
(b) burning of the forest released a large amount of
carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
(c) grasslands that replaced the forests can’t utilize as
much carbon dioxide.
(d) all of the above
86. In an aquatic ecosystem, maximum biomagnification is
seen among
(a) fishes (b) phytoplanktons
(c) microscopic plant (d) zooplanktons
87. Soil fertility can be destroyed by
(a) cutting down forests
(b) acid rain
(c) overgrazing and over-irrigation
(d) all of the above
88. The presence of ozone in the atmosphere of earth
(a) is advantageous since it supplies O2 for people
travelling in jets.
(b) helps in checking the penetration of ultraviolet rays
to earth.
(c) hinder higher rate of photosynthesis.
(d) has been responsible for increasing the average
global temperature in recent years.
89. Nuclear power stations even with adequate radiation
safety measures generate
(a) thermal pollution of water bodies.
(b) thermal pollution of soil.
(c) noise polllution.
(d) all of the above
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints
&
Solutions
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-2 Biology
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-3
Cjãòvgt 1 : Vjg Îkøkpé Yqtnæ
1. (d) All living organisms share certain unified and basic
characteristics (includin energy utilization, regulation
or homeostasis, growth, development, reproduction,
adaptation) metabolism and interaction.
2. (a) All cells arise from pre-existing cells by a process of
cell division. Cell division is the phenomenon of
production of daughter cell from parent cell. It occurs
continuously in plants and only up to a certain age
in animals. The continuous growth in plants termed
“unique”, while in animals, cells divide up to a certain
stage.
3. (c) In unicellular organisms, both Growth and
Reproduction are inclusive events as unicellular
organisms simply grow by cell division, in which
their population size also increases. Both the features
are exclusive in higher organisms.
4. (c) Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive
events in majority of the higher animals and plants.
Growth may be defined as a positive change in size,
often over a period of time. Reproduction leads to
production of progenies, possesing features more
or less similar to those of parents.
5. (a) Non-living objects have characteristic growth called
extrinsic growth in which object grows after
accumulating substance over its surface. Living
organisms show intrinsic growth (i.e., grows from
inside).
6. (b) Reproduction ensures the continuity of the species,
generation after generation. Genetic variations are
created and inherited during reproduction. “Like
begets like” is the phrase to explain the similarity
between parents and offsprings.
7. (d) Fragmentation is a sexual mode of reproduction in
which an organism is split into fragments. Each of
these fragments develops into mature, fully grown
individuals that are clones of the original organism.
The fungi, the filamentous algae and the protonema
of mosses all easily multiply by fragmentation.
8. (c) Photoperiodism is the physiological reaction of
organisms to the length of day or night. It occurs in
plants and animals. It can also be defined as the
developmental responses of plants to the relative
lengths of light and dark periods. Photoperiod
exclusively affects the reproduction in seasonal
breeders, both plants and animals.
9. (a) Catabolism – breakdown of substances eg.,
Respiration
Anabolism – Formation of substances. eg.,
Photosynthesis.
Catabolism + Anabolism = Metabolism.
These are defining features of all life forms.
Simultaneous Catabolism and Anabolism called as
Amphibolism.
10. (c) The term biodiversity is used for the variety and
variability among all forms of living organisms like plants,
animals, and micro-organisms present in a given region
under natural conditions. Biodiversity can be defined
as the totality of genes, species and ecosystem of a
region. India is very rich in biodiversity.
11. (a) ICBN (International Code of Botanical Nomenclature)
is one of the code of nomenclature which is
independent of zoological and bacteriological
nomenclature. The foundations of ICBN was found
in Philosophia Botanica, a book written by C.
Linnaeus.
12. (b) Binomial nomenclature means that the scientific name
of any organism consist of a generic epithet and a
specific epithet. Binomial nomenclature was
developed by Linnaeus.
13. (c) In printed scientific names, only the genus is
capitalized. Genus is an assembly of related species
which evolved from a common ancestor and have
certain common characters. Eg, Solanum tuberosum
and Solanum melongena are two species which
belongs to the same genus of Solanum.
14. (d) Taxonomic hierarchy is the sequence of
arrangements of taxonomic categories in a
descending order during the classification of
organisms. Each category of taxonomic hierarchy
refers to as a unit of classification.
15. (c) Systematics, often used interchangeably with
taxonomy, is the study of diversity of organisms,
their comparative and evolutionary relationships on
the basis of findings from various fields of biology.
16. (d) Taxon (Plural: taxa) is a grouping of organisms of
any level in hierarchial classification which is based
on some common characteristics. It represents real
biological objects placed in any category while
category itself is an abstract term.
17. (d) Biological classification is the scientific arrangement
of organisms in a hierarchial series of groups and
subgroups on the basis of similarities and differences
in their traits. It helps in building evolutionary
pathways and in identifying new organisms.
18. (d) The characteristics of life include: responsiveness
to the environment; growth and change; ability to
reproduce; have a metabolism and breathe; maintain
homeostasis; being made of cells; passing traits onto
offspring. Differentiation from cells to tissues is not
a characteristic of life.
19. (c) A family is a subdivision of an order consisting of a
group of related genera which in turn are composed
of groups of related species. Families are
characterized on the basis of vegetative and
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-4 Biology
reproductive parts of the plants species. Suffix added
in families of both plants and animals may be –aceae
or –ae.
20. (a) The order generally ends with ales. Order being a
higher category is the assemblage of families which
exhibit a few similar characters.
21. (b) Manuals contain information for the identification
of names of species found in an area. They also
provide information about keys, description of family,
genus and species.
22. (d) Taxonomic keys are aids for rapid identification of
unknown plants. Flora is an inventory of the plants
of a defined geographical region. Herbarium is a safe
place for storing specimens as well as provide
suitable atmosphere for research. Monograph is a
comprehensive taxonomy treatment of a taxonomic
group, generally a genus or a family, providing all
taxnomic data relating to the group.
23. (b) Key is a taxonomical aid used for identification of
plants and animals based on the similarities and
dissimilarities. The keys are based on set of
contrasting characters, generally in a pair called
couplet. Each character of a couplet called lead. Keys
are generally analytical in nature.
24. (c) Herbarium is the store house of dead, dried, pressed
and preserved plant specimens on paper sheets,
called herbarium sheets. The sheets, along with
description of plant specimen, are arranged according
to standard system of classification, and are stored
for future use. All sheets carry labels having
information about date and place of collection,
English, local and botanical names, family and
collector’s name etc. The herbarium sheets can be
used as a quick reference for taxonomic studies.
25. (a) The famous botanical garden 'Kew' is located in
England. Royal Botanic Garden, Kew is a nondepartmental public body in the United Kingdom
sponsored by the Department for Environment, Food
and Rural Affairs. It is an internationally important
botanical research and education institution, it
employs 750 staff.
26. (c) Key is a type of taxonomical aid used for the
identification of plants and animals based on their
similarities and dissimilarities. Keys are generally
analytical in nature.
27. (a) Each statement in the key is called a lead. Catalogue
is a list or record, systematically arranged and often
including descriptive material.
28. (b) The keys are based on contrasting characters
generally in a pair called couplet. Key is an important
taxonomic aid used for identification of plants. Each
character of the couplet or statement in the key is
called as “lead”. Keys are generally analytical in
nature. There are separate taxonomic keys specific for
each taxonomic category such as Family, Genus, etc.
29. (c) Growth is the act or process, or a manner of growing;
development; gradual increase. It is an exclusive
event in majority of the higher animals and plants. In
plants, growth occurs continuously throughout their
life span and in animal, growth is seen only up to a
certain age. In living organisms, growth is from
inside. Therefore, it cannot be taken as a defining
property of living organisms.
30. (d) Accumulation of material by external agency cause
extrinsic growth which can not be the feature of living
organism.
31. (b) Biological museums have the collection of preserved
animals and plants specimens for study and
references. Biological museums are generally set up
in educational institutes, i.e. schools and colleges.
The specimens may be preserved dry or in
preservative solution in jars or containers. The
insects are preserved in insect boxes after collecting,
killing and pinning. The larger animals, like mammals
and birds are stuffed and are chemically treated for
long term preservation. Museums also have
collection of animal skeletons.
32. (d) Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals
are twin characteristics of growth. Growth is defined
as increase in size and mass during the development
of an organism over a period of time. It is measured as
an increase in biomass and is associated with cell division
by mitosis, subsequent increases in cell size, and with
the differentiation of cells to perform particular functions.
33. (d) All the statements regarding nomenclature are
correct. Nomenclature is giving distinct scientific
names to various structures including living
organisms for their identification. It is a set of rules
used for forming the names or terms in a particular
field of arts or sciences. Nomenclature is only
possible when the organism is described correctly
and we know to what organisms the name is attached
to (called identification).
34. (d) Herbarium is a collection of plant parts that usually
have been dried, pressed, preserved on sheets. The
herbarium sheets also carry a label that provides
information about date and place of collection.
Herbarium serves the quick referral systems for
taxonomical studies. It can also termed as Dry
Garden.
35. (a) In plants, growth by cell division occurs continuously
throughout their life span.This continuos growth in
plant is axial (i.e., takes place on two axes) and
unique. Plant growth consists of primary and
secondary growth, on the basis of time when it occurs.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-5
36. (b) Metabolism is defined as the sum total of all the
chemical reactions occurring in our body. All plants,
animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism.
Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are not living
things but are nonliving reactions.
37. (d) Biodiversity is the term used to describe the variety
of life found on Earth and all of the natural processes.
This includes ecosystem, genetic and cultural
diversity, and the connections between these and
all species. The different aspects of biodiversity all
have a very strong influence on each other.
38. (d) Order being higher category is the assemblage of
families which exhibit a few similar characteristic.
Dog (Canis familaris) and Cat (Felis domesticus)
belong to two different families—Cancideae and
Felidae respectively.
39. (c) The term ‘taxon’ is used to refer to any rank or level
or category of the classification. Based on certain
observable characteristics like insects represent a
group of organisms which share some common
features like three pairs of jointed legs hence insects
can be easily recognized and classified.
40. (b) Reproduction refers to the production of progeny
possessing features more or less similar to those of
parents. The fungi, the filamentous algae, the
protonema of mosses, all easily multiply by
fragmentation.
41. (d) All the given statements are correct. All living
organisms have the ability to respond the
environment stimuli which could be physical,
chemical or biological. Plant responds to external
factors like light, water, temperature etc. Photoperiod
is defined as the developmental responses of plants
to the relative lengths of light and dark periods. It
exclusively affects the reproduction in seasonal
breeders, both plants and animals. Human being is
the only organism who has self - consciousness.
42. (b) Nomenclature is the providing of standardize names
to the organisms such that a particular organism
known by the same name all over the world.
Identification is the correct descripton of an organism
and its recognition in its scientific name. The branch
of science which deals with the study of principle
and procedure of classification known as taxonomy.
It is of two types.
(i) Classical taxonomy – Based on observable
morphological characters.
(ii) Modern taxonomy – Based on external and
internal features of organisms.
43. (a) All the given descriptions are related to taxonomic
category called species. Species, the lowest category
in the taxonomic hierarchy, is the basic unit of
taxonomy. It is the group of individual organisms
with fundamental similarities.
44. (c) Three different genera such as Solanum, Datura and
Petunia are placed in the family solanaceae. In case
of plants, classes with a few similar characters are
assigned to a higher category called division. Phylum
is used in case of animals.
45. (b) All the given descriptions are related to museum.
Museum is one of the taxonomic aids which may be
defined as a place where large collection of specimens
of plants and animals are preserved for its further
study and references. Museums are generally set up
in educational institutes such as schools and
colleges. Museums often have collections of
skeletons of animals too.
46. (c) Growth may be defined as a positive change in size,
often over a period of time. It can occur as a stage of
maturation or a process toward fullness or fulfillment.
Growth by cell division occurs continuously
throughout their life span in plants.
47. (a) Taxonomic studies of all known organisms have led
to the development of common categories like
kingdom, phylum or division, class, order, family,
genus and species. Higher the category, greater is
the difficulty of determining the relationship to other
taxa at the same level.
48. (b) Genus comprises a group of related species which
has more characters in common in comparison to
species of other genera. Organisms placed in the
same genus are most closely related.
49. (a) Statement (i) and (ii) are correct regarding botanical
garden. A botanical garden (or botanic garden) is a
garden dedicated to the collection, cultivation and
display of a wide range of plants labeled with their
botanical names. Botanic garden holds the
documented collections of living plants for the
purposes of scientific research, conservation, display
and education.
Statement (iii), (iv) and (v) are related to herbarium.
50. (a) Herbarium is a storehouse of collected plant
specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on
paper sheets.
Herbarium sheet is 41 ´ 39 cm2
1 1 2
16 11 inches
2 2
æ ö ç ÷ ´
è ø .
It serves two primary functions–
(1) Accurate identification
(2) Alpha taxonomic research. (based on gross
morphology)
51. (c) Fungi shows Fragmentation, budding, etc but not
regeneration while Planaria truely regenerate during
its life cycle.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-6 Biology
Mossess shows fragmentation for propagation of
their progenies. Thallus tip, protonema fragments
and even rhizoids can grow into new moss thallus.
52. (b) Division is a category higher than that of class. Term
phylum is used for animals while division is used for
plants. Classes with few similar characteristics are
assigned to division.
53. (c) Herbarium and Botanical Gardens only have
preserved specimens. Rest all taxonomic aids have
living organisms or their listed descriptions.
54. (a) A category is a rank or level in the hierarchial
classification of organisms. Taxon is a unit in
classification which may represent any level of
grouping of organisms based on certain common
characteristics. There is some confusion in the use
of taxon and category, for example Bryophyta is a
taxon while division is a category.
55. (b) The species is genetically distinct and reproductively
isolated natural population. Sexual reproduction is
absent in prokaryotes and some protists. In such
cases morphological differences, cytotaxonomy and
chemo-taxonomy are resorted too.
56. (d) Herbarium sheet carry a label providing information
about date and place of collection, English local and
botanical names, family, collectors name etc. Families
are characterized on the basis of both vegetative
and reproductive features of plant species.
57. (b) Flora contains the actual account of habitat and
distribution of plants of a given area. It provides the
index to the plant species found in a particular area.
58. (a) Panthera is a polytypic Genus and it contain several
species like Panthera leo, Panthera tigris and
Panthera pardus. These species have several
common features. Polytypic Genera have multiple
species while monotypic genera have one species
only.
59. (c) Biological concept of species is based on
reproductive isolation. The most accepted concept
of species proposed by Ernst Mayr. It is called
Biological concept of species. According to this
concept,
A species is (1) Closely related
(2) Share common gene pool.
(3) Interbreeding.
– exception of this concept are – Mule, Hinny, Tigon,
Liger
60. (c) Botanical Gardens provide ex-situ conservation
strategy as it reside large variety of plants collected
from various places, To enhance study, Research
and Recreation, Botanical gardens plays important
role. National Botanical Garden present at Lucknow,
while Indian botanical Garden situated at Howrah.
61. (c) International code for Botanical Nomenclature
(ICBN). Standardize all scientific names for plants.
ICBN came into existance in 1961. The naming system
uses three words (Trinomial system) was proposed
by Lamarck. Trinominal system of nomenclature
followed by Polynomial system of nomenclature.
eg., Corvus splendens splendens (Indian crow)
Gorilla gorilla gorilla (Gorilla)
62. (a) Species is a natural population of individuals which
resemble one another in all essential morphological
and reproductive characters so that they are able to
interbreed freely in nature to produce fertile offspring.
Two different taxonomic species essentially have
different characteristics.
63. (b) A - IV; B - III; C - II; D - I
64. (a) A - IV; B - III; C - II; D - I
65. (c) A - II; B - IV; C - I; D - III
66. (b) A - IV; B - III; C - I; D - II
67. (b) A - V; B - IV; C - II; D - I; E - III
68. (a) Tiger and tigris both are from same genus with
particular taxonomic category.
69. (c) Housefly, Musca domestica, is a fly of the order
Diptera. It is the most common of all domestic flies.
Primate is a mammal of the order primata.
70. (c) Cats belong to the family Felidae.
71. (c) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II. Growth may be defined as
a positive change in size, often over a period of time.
Reproduction is the process by which living
organisms produce young on of their own type.
Metabolism is defined as the sum total of all the
chemical reactions occurring in our body. Cellular
organization refers to the components of a cell and
how these individual parts are arranged within the cell.
72. (c) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – V, E – IV. Taxon is a taxonomic
group of any rank. Species, the lowest category in
the taxonomic hierarchy, is the basic unit of taxonomy.
It is the group of individual organisms with
fundamental similarities. Division is similar to phylum
and used in case of plants. Genus is a group of related
species having more character in common with others
species. Order is identified based on a number of
similar characters.
73. (c) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – V, E – IV.
74. (d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
75. (b) There are 7 obligate hierarchial levels of taxonomic
categories. These started from species, which is the
unit/basis of taxonomical studies. It constitute the
group of interbreeding organisms. This is natural
unit of taxonomical group. Group of families with
more or less similar characteristics called order. The
upppermost category in which Divisions/Phylum
present called Kingdom. It form the uppermost
category of hierarchial system in taxonomical studies.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-7
76. (d) Species is the lowest category in basic taxonomic
hierarchy and has the maximum common
characterstics with other species under the same
genus. The genus is an aggregate or a group of
closely related species. Family is the group of closely
related genera, and has less common characterstics
than species or genus rank.
Order is a higher taxon and is the assemblage of
families having similar characterstics.
Class is a group of related orders.
Phylum: The classes with similar features are grouped
into phylum in animals and division in plants.
The phyla are grouped into still broader categories,
called kingdom.
77. (b) Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to
the same species if they can reproduce freely with each
other and form seeds. The formed seed must be viable.
Two animals can be regarded as species when they
can interbred each other and form fertile progency.
78. (c) Taxa is a plural form of taxon. Taxon is a grouping of
organisms of any level in hierarchial classification
which is based on some common characteristics. It
represents real biological objects placed in any
category while category itself is an abstract term.
79. (a) Taxonomical hierarchy (introduced by Linneaus) is
arrangement of various taxonomic levels in the
descending order, starting from kingdom upto
species. The hierarchy indicates the various levels
of kinship. The number of similar characters of
categories decreases from lowest rank to highest rank
i.e., from species to kingdom. Thre are 7 obligate
categories which constitute taxonomical hierarchy.
In addition to these obligate categories there are
some optional categories are as follows. e.g., Tribe,
subclass, superclass, etc.
80. (a) Class is a group of related orders. The lizards, birds
and cattle belong to class reptilia, aves and mammals
respectively.
81. (c) Ex-situ conservation means off-site conservation. It
is the process of protecting an endangered species
of plant or animal by removing it from an unsafe or
threatened habitat and placing it or part of it under
the care of man. Botanical garden is one of the
method of ex-situ conservation.
82. (d) The disadvantage of using common name for species
is that the names may change, one name does not
apply universally, one species may have several
common names and one common name may be
applied to two species.
83. (b) Replication of the genetic information causes transfer
of genetic information from one generation to the
next. It is very important feature of all living
organisms.
84. (b) Families are characterized on the basis of both
vegetative and reproductive features of plant
species. Tomato (Lycopersicon esculentum) and
potato (Solanum tuberosum) belongs to the same
family solanaceae.
85. (c) Identification is determining the correct place in a
system of classification and finding out the correct
name of the organism. It is carried out with the help
of keys. It not only assigns the organism to a
particular group, locate its correct name but also
provide information if the organism is new to
systematics and requires giving a new name.
86. (b) Species is the lowest or basic taxonomic category
which consists of one or more natural populations
of individuals that resemble one another more closely
than individuals of other species, interbreed freely,
have a distinct genetic set up and are reproductively
isolated from others e.g., Panthera Leo (Lion),
Mangifera indica (Mango), Solanum tuberosum
(Potato).
87. (c) Classification is the process by which anything
grouped into convenient categories based on some
easily observable characters. In angiosperms
characters of flowers are used in classification
because characters of angiospermic flowers are
preserved for its further studies and references. In
any organism, reproductive character (i.e., Floral
characters) are more stable and less susceptible to
enviromental influence than vegetative characters.
88. (a) All the members of a taxonomic category possess
some similar characters which are different from
those of others. The placement of individuals or
organisms in species, genus, family, order, class and
phylum are determined by their specific similar
characters and relationships. Maximum similarity
occurs in species which is also the lowest category
in the hierarchy of categories. Similarity of characters
decreases with the ascent in hierarchy.
89. (c) Genus is the first higher category above the level of
species. A genus may have one to several species.
A genus having a single species is called monotypic.
Currently, the genus Homo is monotypic with a single
species of Homo sapiens. A genus having two or
more species is called polytypic. The genus Panthera
is polytypic. Some species of this genus are P. leo
(Lion), P. tigris (Tiger), P. onca (Jaguar) and P.
pardus (Leopard).
90. (c) Phylum is a taxonomic category higher than class
and lower in rank to kingdom. The term phylum
(coined by George Cuvier) is used for animals while
the term division (coined by Eichler) is used for
plants.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-8 Biology
91. (a) Species is the lowest taxonomic category. Class is a
category made of one or more related orders
possessing similar correlated characters. Family is
composed of one to many related genera. Division
comprises of several related classes.
92. (d) Order is a higher taxon and is the assemblage of
families having similar characteristics. However, the
common characteristic will be fewer than at family or
genus level. In mammals the common orders are
primates (monkey, gorilla and human), carnivora,
rodentia and cetacea (whale and dolphin).
93. (c) Genus is an assembly of related species which
evolved from a common ancestor and have certain
common characters. In the botanical name of wheat
(Triticum aestivum), the first word Triticum denotes
the genus which starts with a capital letter.
94. (c) Species is the lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy.
Species is a group of animals, plants or other living
things that all share common characteristics and that
are all classified as alike in some manner.
95. (a) Potato, tomato and brinjal are three different species
but all belong to the genus Solanum. Genus is an
assembly of related species which evolved from a
common ancestor and have certain common
characters. Solanum is a polytypic genera with more
than one species.
96. (a) Order being a higher category is the assemblage of
families which exhibit a few similar characters. The
similar characters are less in number as compared to
different genera included in a family.
97. (d) Couplet represents the choice made between two
opposite options which results in acceptance of only
one and rejection of the other.
Cjãòvgt 2 : Bkqnqékeãn Cnãõõkhkeãvkqp
1. (d) R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed a five kingdom
classification. The main criteria for classification used
by him include cell structure, thallus organisation,
mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic
relationships.
2. (c) Monera is the group of prokaryotes. They are
basically unicellular, may be mycelial, colonial and
filamentous. They do not contain any organized
nucleus with distinct membrane.
3. (a) Haeckel created the kingdom Protista to include all
unicellular eukaryotic micro-organisms. They have
a typical eukaryotic structure with membrane bound
organelles and nucleus.
4. (a) The cyanobacteria or blue-green algae are the largest
and most diverse group of photosynthetic bacteria.
They have chlorophyll ‘a’ similar to green plants.
They are the first organisms to make atmosphere
acrobic.
5. (a) Mycoplasma are the simplest or smallest known
organisms that completely lack a cell wall and can
survive without oxygen.
6. (d) In protists, reproduction takes place by means of
asexual and sexual methods. Asexual reproduction
occurs through binary fission (e.g. Euglena), cyst
formation (e.g., Entamoeba), budding, sporulation,
etc. In sexual reproduction, fertilization occurs
through syngamy and conjugation.
7. (c) Chrysophytes are a group of diatoms, golden algae
(desmids) and golden brown photosynthetic
microscopic protists. Their body is covered by a
transparent siliceous shell.
8. (d) Amoeboid protozoans are organisms that live in
fresh water, sea water or moist soil. They move and
capture their prey by putting out pseudopodia (e.g.
Amoeba). Some of them such as Entamoeba are
parasites.
9. (a) Albugo is the parasitic fungi on mustard and belongs
to the class phycomycetes and kingdom fungi.
10. (c) Neurospora belongs to class ascomycetes and
kingdom Fungi. It is used extensively in biochemical
and genetic work.
11. (d) Deuteromycetes is also known as fungi imperfecti
because the perfect (sexual) stage is either absent or
not reported. Alternaria, Colletotrichum and
Trichoderma belong to deuteromycetes.
12. (d) Deuteromycetes is commonly known as fungi
imperfecti due to absence of perfect sexual stage.
They are classed by the colour and structure of the
conidia. Since most of the conidia structures look
like ascomycetes type, they are believed to be
derived from ascos which does not have the ability
to reproduce sexually.
13. (a) Bladderwort and venus fly trap are partially
antotrophs. They trap insects for obtaining mtrogen
and are called insectivorous plants e.g. itcher plant.
14. (d) The capsomere is a subunit of the capsid, an outer
covering of protein that protects the genetic material
of a virus. Capsomeres self-assemble to form the
capsid.
15. (d) Cholera is a bacterial disease caused by the pathogen,
Vibrio cholerae.
16. (a) The symbiotic association of fungi and algae is called
Lichen. In lichen, there are two components i.e., algal
partner called phycobiont and fungal partner called
mycobiont.
17. (d) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasite which can
reproduce only by invading and taking over other
cells as they lack the cellular machinary for self
reproduction. Viruses have either DNA or RNA as
the genetic material. Viruses having RNA as the
genetic material are known as Retroviruses.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-9
18. (a) In fungi (ascomycetes and basidiomycetes),
kayrogamy is delayed and occurs just before meiosis.
In the stage intervening between plasmogamy and
karyogamy the cells often contain two nuclei or
dikaryons (n + n). Such cells are called dikaryotic
cells. The phase is known as dikaryophase.
19. (a) In many members of basidiomycetes, cell division is
accompanied by clamp connection. These are bridge
(hook) like connections. They function as bypass
hyphae through which nuclei migrate to make all of
mycelium dikaryotic.
20. (b) Plasmogamy is the first stage of sexual reproduction
in which the cytoplasm of two sex cells fuse with
each other. The nuclei of sex cells come close to
each other but do not fuse. Thus, the resulting cell
becomes binucleate or dikaryon.
21. (a) Aristotle was the earliest scientist to attempt a more
scientific basis of classification. He classified plants
into trees, shrubs and herbs on the basis of simple
morphological characters and animals into two groups
based on absence of presence of red blood cells.
22. (a) Yeast being a unicellular fungus does not show
filamentous nature. It is a microscopic fungus
consisting of a single oval cell that reproduces by
budding.
23. (d) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria use the energy
obtained by the oxidation of chemicals for the
synthesis of food. They play a great role in recycling
of nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and
sulphur.
24. (c) Virus is a small infectious agent that replicates only
inside the living cells of other organisms. Viruses
can infect all types of life forms, from animals and
plants to microorganisms, including bacteria and
archaea. Viruses can pass through bacterial proof
filters as they are smaller than bacteria.
25. (b) Archaebacteria are found in most harsh habitats.
Their cell wall is adapted to tolerate extreme
conditions (wall contains protein and non-cellulosic
polysaccharides). Cell membranes are characterized
by the presence of branched chain lipids that make
them highly resistent to heat and low pH.
26. (c) Methanogens are archaebacteria that live in marshy
area produce methane as a metabolic byproduct in
anoxic conditions. Methane is not their preferred
carbon source.
27. (c) Cyanobacterial cells (blue-green algal cells) are larger
and more elaborate than bacteria. In both the
organisms the cell structure is typically prokaryotic
type one envelope organisation with peptidoglycan
wall, naked DNA, Blue- grenalgal have chlorophyll,
bacteria is devold of chlorophyll.
28. (a) Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) is a single stranded
RNA virus that infects a wide range of plants,
especially tobacco and other members of the family
Solanacea.
29. (d) Bacteria are microscopic organisms placed under
kingdom monera whose single cells have neither a
membrane-enclosed nucleus nor other membraneenclosed organelles like mitochondria and
chloroplasts.
30. (c) Chrysophytes belong to the kingdom protista.
Examples are diatoms and golden algae. Their walls
are embedded with silica and thus the walls are
indestructible.
31. (c) Dinoflagellates are mostly marine and photosynthetic
organism. They appear yellow, green, brown, blue
or red depending on the main pigments present in
their cells. Most of them have two flagella; one lies
longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow
between the cell plates.
32. (c) Mycoplasma refers to a genus of bacteria that lack
cell wall around their cell membrane. Without a cell
wall, they are unaffected by many common antibiotics
such as penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics
that target cell wall synthesis. They can be parasitic
or saprotrophic.Mycoplasma are the facultative
anaerobes, they grow best where there is little or no
oxygen.
33. (b) Sac fungi is a common name of ascomycetes which
produce spores in a distinctive type of microscopic
sporangium called an ascus. They are characterized
by well-developed thallus and production of
ascospores. They are the largest class of fungi.
Examples of sac fungi are yeasts, morels, truffles,
and Penicillium.
34. (b) Viroids cause potato spindle tuber disease (PSTV),
chrysanthemum stunt, citrus exocortis, cucumber
pale fruit etc. They cause persistent infections, i.e.,
never recovered.
35. (d) Kingdom animalia includes all heterotrophic,
multicellular complex eukaryotes. They depend either
upon plants or on other animals for their food
requirements. Kingdom monera includes prokaryotic
organisms lacking membrane bound nucleus. Hence,
nuclear membrane cannot be found in Monera.
Protista is a eukaryotic kingdom.
36. (c) Dinoflagellates are mostly single-celled organisms
classified in the kingdom protista. Dinoflagellates
characteristically have two flagella for locomotion
and most have a rigid cell wall of cellulose encrusted
with silica. Their cell wall is divided into two halves
called theca that may fit as two halves of a soap box
or a petri dish. Some species (e.g., Noctiluca miliaris)
are bioluminescent.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-10 Biology
37. (b) Cyanobacteria are aquatic and photosynthetic, i.e.,
they live in the water, and can manufacture their own
food. They are quite small and usually unicellular,
though they often grow in colonies large enough to
see. They are the first organisms to make the
atmosphere aerobic.
38. (b) Chrysophytes are plant-like protists that can be
found in marine and freshwater environments which
are often low in calcium. There are three main types
of chrysophytes: diatoms (bacillariophyta), goldenbrown algae (chrysophyceae), and yellow-green
algae (xanthophyceae).
39. (d) Euglenoids is one of the best-known groups of
flagellates. They are commonly found in freshwater,
especially when it is rich in organic materials, with a
few marine, and endosymbiotic members. Most
euglenoids are unicellular. Many euglenoids have
chloroplasts and produce energy through the
process of photosynthesis, but others feed by
phagocytosis, or strictly by diffusion. This group is
known to contain carbohydrate paramylon.
40. (b) Phycomycetes is a large and important class of
parasitic or saprophytic fungi, the algal or alga like
fungi. The plant body ranges from an
undifferentiated mass of protoplasm to a welldeveloped and much-branched mycelium. Mycelium
is aseptate and coenocytic. Asexual reproduction
takes place by spores and sexual reproduction by
the formation of conidia or sporangia.
41. (c) Ascomycetes are commonly known as sac-fungi.
They are mostly multicellular e.g., Penicillium or
rarely unicellular, e.g., Yeast.
42. (c) All the described statements are related to slime
moulds. Slime moulds are saprophytic protists. They
are a simple organism that consists of an acellular
mass of creeping jelly-like protoplasm containing
nuclei, or a mass of amoeboid cells. When it reaches
a certain size it forms a large number of spore cases.
43. (c) Basidiomycetes are commonly known as club fungi.
Other commonly known forms of basidiomycetes are
mushrooms, bracket fungi or puffballs.
44. (b) Deuteromycetes is an artificial group without any
common relationship. They are commonly known as
fungi imperfecti due to absence of perfect sexual
stage. They have septate hyphae and reproduce
asexually by means of conidia.
45. (a) Fusion of two nuclei is called karyogamy. Fusion of
protoplasms between two motile or non-motile
gametes called plasmogamy. Meiosis in zygote results
in haploid spores.
46. (b) Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic (containing a blue
photosynthetic pigment) autotrophs. They are
prokaryotic and represent the earliest known form of
life on the Earth.
47. (b) Euglena has chlorophyll so it can be regarded as
plant. It is not possible to classify Euglena on the
basis of two kingdom system of classification.
48. (c) Viruses maintain an inert crystalline structure outside
living cell viroids do not have protein coat
49. (a) Nostoc is a cyanobacterium. Cyanobacteria are gram
(–) ve prokaryotes which perform oxygenic
photosynthesis like plants. Cyanobacteria can be
unicellular (e.g. spirulina), colonial. (e.g. Nostoc) or
filamentous (e.g. Oscillatoria)
50. (a) Cell wall is a characteristic of bacteria, plants and
fungi.
51. (c) Heterotrophs were the first to be evolved and fungi
in the plant kingdom are heterotrophs. Yeast with its
characteristic absence of chlorophyll and its
vegetative propagation through budding and
saprophytic nature shows it is a fungus.
52. (a) Phycomycetes, ascomycetes, basidiomycetes and
deuteromycetes are four classes of fungi which are
divided on the basis of the septation of the mycelium
and the characteristics features of reproduction.
Phycomycetes, ascomycetes, basidiomycetes and
deuteromycetes are respectively commonly known
as algal like fungi, sac fungi, club fungi and fungi
imperfecti.
53. (d) Ascus is a sac, typically cylindrical in shape, in which
the spores of ascomycetes fungi develop. Basidium
is a microscopic club-shaped spore-bearing structure
produced by certain fungi. Euglena, Spirulina and
sponges are the examples of protista, cyanobacteria
and animalia respectively.
54. (b)
55. (a) Archaebacteria, euglenoids, phycomycetes and algae
are classes of monera, protista, fungi and plantae
respectively.
56. (a) Ernst Mayr was a renowned taxonomist, tropical
explorer, ornithologist, and historian of science. His
work contributed to the conceptual revolution that
led to the modern evolutionary synthesis of
Mendelian genetics, systematics, and Darwinian
evolution, and to the development of the biological
species concept. Robert Harding Whittaker was a
distinguished American plant ecologist. He was the
first to propose the five-kingdom taxonomic
classification of the world's biota into the Animalia,
Plantae, Fungi, Protista, and Monera in 1959. Louis
Pasteur was a French chemist and microbiologist
renowned for his discoveries of the principles of
vaccination, microbial fermentation and
pasteurization. He gave the name virus. Theodor Otto
Diener discovered the viroid, a plant pathogen one
fiftieth of the size of the smallest viruses.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-11
57. (d) Puccinia, Ustilago, Agaricus and Saccharomyces
are commonly called as rust fungi, smut fungi,
mushroom and yeast respectively.
58. (c) Protozoans are single celled microscopic eukaryotic
organisms that are noted for their ability to move
independently. Protozoans are classified on the basis
of their locomotion - amoeboid (Amoeba), ciliated
(Paramecium), flagellated (Trypanosoma) and
Sporozoans (Plasmodium).
59. (c) Rhizopus is a genus of common saprophytic fungi
on plants and specialized parasites on animals. They
are found on a wide variety of organic substrates,
including "mature fruits and vegetables", jellies,
syrups, leather, bread, peanuts and tobacco.
Rhizopus stolonifer is more commonly known as
black bread mold. Gonyaulax is one of the
dinoflagellates responsible for the advent of red
tides. Yeast is a unicellular fungus, used to make
bread and beer. Penicillium is a genus of
ascomycetous fungi of major importance in the
natural environment as well as food and drug
production. Some members of the genus produce
penicillin, a molecule that is used as an antibiotic.
60. (d) Albugo is the parasitic fungi which is found on
mustard. It is the member of phycomycetes that are
found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood in
moist and damp places.
61. (d) Amoeboid protozoans move and capture their prey
by putting out pseudopodia (false feet).
62. (a) Saprophytes are heterotrophic and absorb soluble
organic matter from dead substrates. Vegetative mean
of reproduction in fungi are fragmentation, budding
and fission. Steps involved in sexual cycle of fungi
are plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis in zygote
resulting in haploid spores.
63. (b) The correct labeling in the figures of bacterial cell
and Nostoc are - A- cell wall, B - cell membranes, C -
DNA, D-heterocysts, E - mucilaginous sheath.
64. (a) A - Cocci (spherical), B - Bacilli (rod shaped), C -
Spirilla (spiral), D - Vibrio (comma shaped). These
are all the shapes of the bacteria.
65. (a) Euglenoids include flagellates like Euglana which
have plant like characteristics (chlorophyll) in
addition to some animal characteristics.
Paramoecium is a ciliated protozoan, aquatic and
actively moving organisms because of the presence
of thousands of cilia. Agaricus (mushroom) belongs
to class basidiomycetes of kingdom Fungi.
66. (c) The given diagram is of bacteriophage (viruses that
infect the bacteria). They have tadpole-like structure,
i.e., with head and tail. Nucleic acid generally DNA
is present inside the head. Tail is having hollow core
end is surrounded by tail sheath. At the end of tail,
end plate is present to which tail fibres are attached.
67. (b) Heterocysts are pale-yellow, thick-walled cells that
are capable of nitrogen fixation and therefore play a
major part in the nitrogen cycle.
68. (a) The structure marked as A, B, C and D are
respectively head, collar, sheath and tail fibres. In
head (structure marked as A), the protein coat (called
the capsid) made of small subunits called
capsomeres, protect the nucleic acid.
69. (a) True sexual reproduction is absent in bacteria, but
there occurs genetic recombination, i.e., bringing
together of genetic material of two bacterial cells,
i.e., transformation, transduction, conjugation.
70. (b) The plant body of fungi typically consists of
branched and filamentous hyphae, which form a net
like structure, known as mycelium. In yeast, the plant
body is unicellular but sometimes cells remain
attached in short chains, forming a pseudomycelium.
71. (c) A virus is an infective agent that typically consists
of a nucleic acid molecule in a protein coat. It is too
small to be seen by light microscopy, and is able to
multiply only within the living cells of a host. It can
be considered living organisms because it reproduces
inside the host cell.
72. (c) Lichens are formed by symbiotic relationship
between algae or cyanobacteria and fungi. Lichens
typically grow in harsh environments most lichens,
especially epiphytic fruticose species and those
containing cyanobacteria, are sensitive to
pollutants. Hence, they have been widely used as
SO2 pollution indicator organisms.
73. (b) When moist bread is kept exposed in air, it becomes
mouldly and black because spores are present in the
bread.
74. (d) Viruses are defined as infectious nucleoproteins. A
complete virus particle is called virion whose main
function is to deliver its DNA or RNA gesnome into
the host cell, so that genome can be expressed by
the host cell. In a particular virus either DNA or RNA
is genetic material, never both are present in a virus.
Hence, viruses are:
(i) Double stranded DNA or ds DNA - Hepatitis B
(ii) Single stranded DNA or ss DNA - coliphage
(iii) Double stranded RNA or ds RNA - Reo virus,
wound Tumor virus
(iv) Single stranded RNA or ss RNA - Tobacco
mosaic virus (TMV)
75. (d) Smut disease is caused by Ustilago species of
basidiomycetes fungi. It is characterized by formation
of black coloured chlamydospores or teleutospores
(called smut spores) due to which the affected part
becomes black.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-12 Biology
76. (d) Basidiomycetes are commonly known as club fungi.
They are fungus whose spores develop in basidia.
They include the majority of familiar mushrooms and
toadstools.
77. (c) Saccharomyces cervisiae is a yeast used in making
bread (Baker’s yeast) and commercial production of
ethanol. Paramecium and Plasmodium are of animal
kingdom while Penicillium is a fungi. Lichen is
composite organism formed from the symbiotic
association of an alga and a fungus. Nostoc and
Anabaena are examples of kingdom monera.
78. (d) Bacteria are microscopic organisms whose single
cells have neither a membrane-enclosed nucleus nor
other membrane-enclosed organelles like mitochondria
and chloroplasts. Bacteria are found to be primitive
organisms because they do not have well-defined
nucleus and shows amitotic division.
79. (c) Food can be kept for a longer time in cold house
than in normal condition because bacterial
multiplication is reduced in cold house.
80. (b) Mycorrhizae is symbiotic association between fungi
and roots of higher plants, e.g., in the roots of Pinus.
This association provides the fungus with food.
Fungus help in the absorption of water and nutrient.
81. (d) The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans
in making curd from milk and in production of
antibiotics are the heterotrophic bacteria.
Lactobacillis bacteria convert milk into curd.
82. (a) The pileus, or cap, is a common characteristic of the
club fungi (basidiomycetes). The mycelium is
branched and septate.
83. (d)
30 min 30 min 30 min
30 min 30 min 30 min
30 min 30 min
1248
16 32 64
128 256
¾¾ ¾¾® ¾¾ ¾¾® ¾¾ ¾¾®
¾¾ ¾¾® ¾¾ ¾¾® ¾¾ ¾¾®
¾¾ ¾¾® ¾¾ ¾¾®
84. (b) In fungi, asexual reproduction takes place by sporescalled conidia or sporangiospores or zoospores, and
sexual reproduction is by oospores, ascospores and
basidiospores.
85. (d) When two hyphal cells of different mating types fuse,
they form a dikaryotic cell which is heterokaryotic.
86. (b) Protozoans comes under the kingdom protista
(single-celled eukaryotes). They are heterotrophs
and live as predators or parasites. They are divisible
into four major groups — zooflagellata, sarcodina,
sporozoa and ciliata.
87. (b) Bacteria are prokaryotes while yeast belongs to the
kingdom Fungi (they are multicellular eukaryotes).
Yeast is exception in fungi because it is unicellular
but forms pseudomycelium.
88. (b) The sexual cycle in fungi involves the following three
steps : plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis
(i) Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or
non-motile gametes called plasmogamy.
(ii) Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy.
(iii) Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores.
89. (a) A Gonyaulax reproduces in such a great numbers
that the water may appear red, producing a red tides
and kills large marine animals like fishes. Gonyaulax
belongs to dinoflagellates.
90. (c) Fruiting bodies, morphology of mycelium and mode
of spore formation are the basis of classification of
fungi into phycomycetes, ascomycetes,
basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes.
91. (b) Bracket fungi belong to basidiomycetes. This class
of fungi lacks sex organs but the process of
plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two
vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or
genotypes.
92. (c) Deuteromycetes is commonly known as fungi
imperfecti. Once the sexual stage of members of
deuteromycetes was discovered they were often
moved to ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
93. (b) M. W. Beijerinek demonstrated that extract of
infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in
healthy plants and called the fluid as "Contagium
vivum fluidum".
Cjãòvgt 3 : Rnãpv Mkpéæqï
1. (b) The natural system of classification for higher plants
was given by Bentham and Hooker in their Genera
Plantarum (1862 - 1883). The characters employed
in this system include those of study of form
(morphology), internal structure (anatomy),
development (embryology), reproduction, cell
structure (cytology), life processes, (physiology),
behaviour and biochemistry.
2. (d) Phylogenetic system of classification indicates the
evolutionary as well as genetic relationships among
organisms. It is based on fossil record, biochemical,
anatomical, morphological, embryological,
physiological, genetics, karyotype and other studies.
3. (b) Cytotaxonomy is the classification of organisms
based on cellular structure and function, especially
on the structure and number of chromosomes.
4. (d) Isogamous and anisogamous type of reproduction
are found in Chlamydomonas. Fusion of flagellated
gametes of similar size is called isogamous whereas
fusion of two gametes of different size is called
anisogamous.
5. (c) Fusion of two gametes which are of dissimilar size is
called anisogamous. Fusion of flagellate gametes of
similar size is called isogamous. Oogamous is the
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-13
fusion between one large, non - motile female gamete
with a smaller, motile male gamete. Agamous does
not involve the fusion of male and female gametes in
reproduction.
6. (b) Certain marine brown and red algae produce large
amounts of hydrocolloids (water holding
substances), e.g., algin (brown algae) and carrageen
(red algae) which are used commercially. Chlorella
and Spirullina are unicellular green algae, which are
rich in proteins and used as food supplements.
7. (b) The members of phaeophyceae or brown algae are
found primarily in marine habitats. The common forms
are Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum
and Fucus.
8. (b) Rhodophyceae are commonly called as red algae
because of the predominance of the red pigment (r -
phycoerythrin) in their body. They are mostly found
in salt water.
9. (d) Flagellate forms and stages are completely absent in
class rhodophyceae (red algae).
10. (a) In class phaeophyceae, the plant body is usually
attached to the substratum by a holdfast (A), and has
a stalk, the stipe (B) and leaf like photosynthetic organ
- the frond (C).
11. (b) Bryophytes play an important role in plant
succession on bare rocks/soil. Bryophytes include
the various mosses and liverworts that are found in
moist shaded areas in the hills. Moss stage is the
second stage in biological succession on a bare rock
that slowly changes rocky substratum into fertile
soil. Important members of moss stage are Tortula,
Grimmia and Polytrichum.
12. (d) In gymnosperms, the reproductive structures are
mostly in the form of compact cones except female
organs of Cycas. There are two types of sporophylls,
usually segregated to form distinct cones or strobili
(male and female cones).
13. (c) In bryophytes, sex organs are of two types, male
antheridium and female archegonium. They are
multicellular and jacketed, i.e., covered by jacket of
sterile cells.
14. (b) Laminaria (kelp) and Fucus (rock weed) are the
examples of brown algae. Brown algae are the common
name of phaeophyceae. They are found primarily in
marine habitats and show great variation in size and
form.
15. (a) Pyrenoids are the rounded bodies found in the
chloroplast of green algae and are the centres of
conversion of glucose to starch and also collection
of starch.
16. (a) Selaginella is a member of lycopsida, which produce
two kinds of spores-macro (large) and micro (small)
spores. Thus, known as heterosporous pteridophytes.
17. (d) Pteridophytes are classified into four classes :
Psilopsida (Psilotum), Lycopsida (Selaginella,
Lycopodium), Sphenopsida (Equisetum) and
Pteropsida (Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum).
18. (b) Cycas (a gymnosperm) and Adiantum (known as
Maiden hair fern, a pteridophyte) resemble each other
in having motile sperms. Seeds, cambium are common
in gymnosperms but absent in pteridophytes. True
vessels are absent in both pteridophytes and
gymnospems.
19. (a) The predominant stage of the moss is the presence
of gametophyte which consists of two stages – the
first stage is protonema and the second stage is leafy
stage. Protonema stage develops directly from the
spores and leafy stage develops from the secondary
protonema as a lateral bud.
20. (d) Gametophyte of bryophytes bears protonemal and
leafy stage. In gymnosperm, female gametophyte is
not free living. Antheridiophores and
archegoniophores are present in Marchantia which
is a bryophyte. Origin of seed habit started in
pteridophyte.
21. (b) Rhodophyta are commonly called as red algae
because of the predominance of the red pigment (r –
phycoerythrin) in their body. They occur in both
well lighted regions close to the surface of water and
also at great depths in ocean where relatively little
light penetrates. They exhibit a red colour because
the wavelengths of light that are absorbed by
chlorophyll are passed to phycoerythrin.
22. (a) Double fertilization is a process, unique to flowering
plants (angiosperms). The gymnosperms do not
exhibit double fertilization or triple fusion like
angiosperms.
23. (d) Mosses and ferns belong to bryophtes and
pteridophytes respectively. In bryophytes, the
dominant phase in the life cycle is the gametophytic
plant body. However, in pteridophytes, the main plant
body is a sporophyte, which is differentiated into
true root, stem and leaves. These organs possess
well – differentiated vascular tissues.
24. (d) Gymnosperms (including conifers) and angiosperms
both have advanced support tissues true leaves,
stems and roots they also are the two groups that
produce pollen and seeds.
25. (a) Monoecious is a plant species in which male
(microsporangiate) and female (megasporangiate)
organs are found on the same plant (for example
pinus). Dioecious plant is a plant species in which
male and female organs appear on separate
individuals.
26. (d) 27. (d)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-14 Biology
28. (c) Algae are defined as chlorophyllous, thalloid
avascular plants with no cellular differentiation. The
size and form of algae is highly variable. Not all the
algae are filamentous. The size ranges from the
microscope unicellular forms to colonial forms and
to the filamentous forms.
29. (a) Statement (i) and (ii) are correct.
Riccia is liverwort in which simplest sporophyte
consists of capsule only while Polytrichum is moss
in which sporophyte consists of foot, seta & capsule.
Volvox is a fresh water green colonial alga.
Reproduction is both sexual and asexual in Volvox.
Sexual reproduction is of oogamous type.
30. (d) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes
never grow independently but develop within the
sporophyte structures.
31. (d) Isogamous fertilization is the fusion of two similar
gametes while anisogamous fertilization is fusion of
two morphologically dissimilar motile gametes.
In rhodophyceae, the major pigments are chlorophyll
‘a’ and ‘d’ but the stored food is floridean starch.
32. (b) Double fertilization is a characteristic of angiosperms
not gymnosperms. But in both of these two groups,
gametophytic phase is highly reduced and is retained
inside sporophytic structures. Sequoia is the tallest
gymnosperm not angiosperm. Tallest angiosperm
belong to the genus Eucalyptus.
33. (a) In rhodophyceae (red algae) food is stored in the
form floridean starch. Whereas mannitol and laminarin
are stored food material of class phaeophyceae (brown
algae). In the diplontic life cycle, sporophyte represents
the dominant phase.
34. (d) In chlorophyceae, the stored food material is starch
and the major pigments are chlorophyll- a and b. In
phaeophyceae, laminarian is the stored food and
major pigments are chlorophyll a, c and fucoxanthin.
35. (c)
36. (d) Gemmae are a means of asexual reproduction found
in many bryophytes (e.g, liverworts). They are 1 to
many celled, specially produced clonal plant
fragments. They are green, multicellular, asexual buds
which develop in small receptacles (called gemma
cups) located on the thalli. Gemmae become detached
from the parent body and germinate to form new
individuals.
37. (b)
38. (c) Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid,
autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms. They
reproduce by vegetative, asexual and sexual
methods. Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size is
termed as anisogamous.
39. (a) The members of chlorophyceae include freeswimming unicellular species, colonies, nonflagellate unicells, filaments, and more. They also
reproduce in a variety of ways, though all have a
haploid life-cycle, in which only the zygote cell is
diploid. The zygote will often serve as a resting spore,
able to lie dormant though potentially damaging
environmental changes such as desiccation.
40. (c) Bryophytes are small, non-vascular plants, such as
mosses, liverworts and hornworts. Bryophytes do
not have seeds or flowers. Instead they reproduce
via spores.
41. (a) Liverworts (belongs to bryophytes) is a flowerless,
spore-producing plant - with the spores produced in
small capsules. Liverworts are small, green, terrestrial
plants. They do not have true roots, stems, or leaves.
Instead, they have an above ground leaf-like
structure, known as a thallus, and an underground
structure, known as a rhizoid. Most liverworts are
found in moist environments and they tend to be
less resistant to desiccation than their relatives, the
mosses.
Like mosses, many species of liverworts reproduce
by making gemmae.
42. (c) The leaves are small (microphyll) as in Selaginella
or large (macrophyll) as in ferns. Funaria,
Polytrichum and Sphagnum are common examples
of mosses.
43. (c) Gymnosperms are seed-bearing vascular plants, such
as cycads, ginkgo, yews and conifers, in which the
ovules or seeds are not enclosed in an ovary.
Gymnosperm seeds develop either on the surface of
scale or leaf-like appendages of cones or at the end
of short stalk. The largest group of living
gymnosperms are the conifers (pines, cypresses and
relatives) and the smallest is ginkgo, a single living
plant species found in China.
44. (b) In angiosperms, the male sex organ is the stamen
and the female sex organ is the pistil or the carpel.
Each stamen consists of a slender filament with an
another at the tip. The anther, following meiosis,
produce pollen grains. Pistil consists of an ovary
enclosing one to many ovules.
45. (a) Haplontic life cycle is a simplest and most primitive
type of life-cycle found in all chlorophyceae. In
haplontic pattern of life cycle, the somatic phase
(plant) is haploid (gametophyte) while the diploid
phase (sporophyte) is represented by zygote. During
germination, the zygote (2n) divides meiotically
producing haploid (n) zoospores, which develop into
individual plant. Here the unicellular or filamentous
gametophyte (n) alternates with one-celled zygote
or sporophyte (2n).
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-15
46. (c) Agar, one of commercial products obtained from
Gracilaria and Gelidium are used to grow microbes
and in preparation of ice-creams and jellies. In
phaeophyceae, major pigments are chlorophyll a, c
and fucoxanthin.
47. (d) The leaves in gymnosperms are well adapted to
withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and
wind. In conifers, the needle like leaves reduces
surface area. Their thick cuticle and sunken stomata
also help to reduce water loss.
48. (b) Double fertilization is a characteristics feature of
angiosperms. It involves two fusions in which one
male gamete fuses with egg cell to from zygote and
the other male gamete fuses with the diploid
secondary nucleus to produce the triploid primary
endosperm nucleus (PEN).
49. (a) Phaeophyceae possesses chlorophyll a, c,
carotenoids and xanthophylls. Members of
phaeophyceae show variations in colour from olive
green to different shades of brown depending upon
the amount of the xanthophyll pigments.
50. (a) Mosses that belong to the bryophytes have evolved
from algae. The fact that protonema has a thallus like
body shows that mosses have evolved from algae.
51. (a) Red algae generally grow attached to rocky stones.
Some deep water red algae are calcareous and build
up hard stony thalli responsible for the production
of lime stones and coral reefs.
52. (a) Coconut tree is distributed in coastal areas since it is
adapted to saline water.
53. (a) Red algae generally grow attaced to rocky stones.
Some deep water red algae are calcareous and build
up hard stony thalli responsible for the production
of lime stones and coral reefs.
54. (b) The peristome teeth are present at the mouth of the
capsule. The teeth may be solid cellular tissue or
composed only of the thickened portions of the cell
walls of adjacent cells. When the teeth of peristome
are solid structures composed of bundles of dead
cells, it is termed nematodontous peristome are solid
structures composed of bundles of dead cells, it is
termed nematodyntous peristome. It is found in
polytrichum, Pogonatum and Tetraphis. Peristome
when composed of thin, membranous, transversely
barred teeth, and each tooth is made up of the
thickened portions of the cell walls of adjacent cells.
Such a peristome is called orthodontous.
55. (b) Algae are a simple, non-flowering, and typically
aquatic plant of a large assemblage that includes the
seaweeds and many single-celled forms. Example -
Chlamydomonas.
Fungi is a diverse group of eukaryotic single-celled
or multinucleate organisms comprising the
mushrooms, moulds, mildews, smuts, rusts, and
yeasts. Example - Rhizopus.
Angiosperms comprises those that have flowers and
produce seeds enclosed within a carpel, including
herbaceous plants, shrubs, grasses, and most trees.
Example - Solanum tuberosum.
Pteridophytes are the vascular plants (those having
xylem and phloem tissues). They include the highly
diverse true ferns and other graceful, primarily forestdwelling plants. Example - Equisetum.
Gymnosperms are seed-bearing vascular plants in
which the ovules or seeds are not enclosed in an
ovary. Example - Cycas.
56. (a) Pteridophytes are the vascular plants (those having
xylem and phloem tissues) that reproduce by
releasing spores rather than seeds, and they include
the highly diverse true ferns and other graceful,
primarily forest-dwelling plants. The pteridophytes
are further classified into four classes: psilopsida
(eg, Psilotum), lycopsida (eg, Selaginella),
sphenopsida (eg, Equisetum) and pteropsida (eg,
Dryopteris).
57. (a) 58. (a)
59. (b) Artificial system of classification is based on the
few morphological characters. Natural system of
classification is based on the natural affinities among
the organisms and considers external as well as
internal features. Phylogenetic system of
classification is based on the evolutionary
relationships between the various organisms.
60. (c)
61. (b) Bryophytes are called as the amphibian of the plant
kingdom because these plants can live in soil but are
dependent on water for sexual reproduction. Gemma
is specialised structure in liverworts for asexual
reproduction. Monocotyledons and dicotyledons
are two groups of angiosperms. Species of
Sphagnum, a moss provide peat that have been long
been used as a fuel.
62. (c) Rhodophyceae is red algae in which food is stored
as floridean starch which is very similar to
amylopectin and glycogen in structure.
63. (d) 64. (a)
65. (a) The options A B ,C and D are Volvox
Chlamydomonas Laminaria and Chara respectively.
A, B and D belong to Chlorophycae (green algae)
where as C belongs to Phaeophycae (brown algae)
66. (b)
67. (d) In haplontic cycle, there is a single dominant phase
i.e., haploid gametophyte which is free living
photosynthetic phase. In diplontic life cycle, diploid
sporophyte is dominant vegetative phase. The
sporophyte is independent photosynthetic phase of
the plant. Haplo-diplontic life cycle is intermediate
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-16 Biology
condition where both phases are multicellular and
often free living.
68. (b) The correct name of the plants A, B, C and D are
respectively Selaginella, Equisetum, Salvinia and
Ginkgo. The first three plants belong to
pteridophytes and the fourth one belongs to
gymnosperms.
69. (a) The life cycle of an angiosperm is defined by the
formation of the seed and its development to a fullgrown plant which, in turn, produces seeds.
Angiosperms are vascular plants with flowers that
produce seeds enclosed in an ovule—a fact that is
recognized as the angiospermic condition.
70. (b) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirogyra and
Chara are green algae. The common forms of brown
algae are Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria,
Sargassum and Fucus. Polysiphonia, Porphyra,
Gracilaria and the Gelidium are members of red
algae.
71. (b) Bryophytes completely lack vascular tissue system
and absorb water by generally body surface.
Whereas pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants
to possess vascular tissues -xylem and phloem.
72. (c) Fusion of male gamete with the egg results in the
formation of zygote. This zygote produces a multicellular well differentiated sporophyte which is the
dominant phase of the pteridophytes.
73. (d) In bryophytes, zygotes donot undergo reduction
division immediately. They produce a multicellular
body called a sporophyte. The sporophyte is not a
free-living but attached to the photosynthetic
gametophyte and derives nourishment from it.
74. (c) 1 microspore mother cell meiotic division
¾¾¾¾¾¾® 4
haploid microspores or pollen grains
4 microspore mother cells = 4 × 4 pollen grains
= 16 pollen grains.
75. (b) Bryophytes have multicellular jacketed sex organs
to protect gametes against drying effects of air and
retention of zygote inside archegonium to provide
nourishment to developing embryo.
76. (d) Species of Sphagnum, a moss, provides peat that
have long been used as a packing material for sending
flowers and live plants to distant places because it is
hygroscopic.
77. (b) Number of chromosome in root cells of wheat plant
is
2n = 42
n =
42
2
= 21
The number of chromosome in the cell of pollen grain
is 21 because pollen grains are haploid (n) in nature.
78. (a) In green algae (chlorophyceae), the photosynthetic
pigments are chlorophyll a and b, carotenes and
xanthophylls. In phaeophyceae (brown algae), the
pigments are chlorophyll a, c and carotenes and
fucoxanth. Rhodophyceae are red algae and contain
the major pigment as chlorophyll a and phyeoerythrim.
Phycoerythrin gives red colour to rhodophyceae.
79. (d) The ovules are not enclosed inside the ovary. Instead
they are borne naked on the leafy sporophylls, and
hence the name gymnosperms (gymnos- naked
sperma- seed) is given Double fertilization is absent
in gymnosperms.
80. (b) The female sex organ archegonium is formed in
bryophytes (Funaria), pteridophytes (Dryopteris)
and gymnosperms (Ginkgo).
81. (b) In angiosperms, a mature male gametophyte is derived
from a pollen mother cell by one meiotic and two
mitotic divisions. In the pollen sac (microsporangium)
of the anther, haploid microspores are formed by
meiosis. Mitosis then follows to produce a two-celled
pollen grain with a small generative cell and a large
vegetative cell. This generative cell will undergo
further mitosis to form two male gametes (nuclei).
The pollen tube grows through a spore in the pollen
grain, with the tube (vegetative) nucleus at its tips
and the male nuclei behind.
82. (d) Algae are eukaryotic organisms that have no roots
stems or leaves but do have chlorophyll and other
pigments for carrying out photosynthesis
83. (a) A protonema is a creeping, green, filamentous,
thread-like chain of cells which is produced by the
germination of the spores and forms the earliest stage
(the haploid phase) of a bryophyte life cycle. When
a moss first grows from the spore, it grows as a
protonema which develops into a leafy gametophore.
84. (d) Pteridophytes are the vascular plants (those having
xylem and phloem tissues) that reproduce by
releasing spores rather than seeds, and they include
the highly diverse true ferns and other graceful,
primarily forest-dwelling plants. The spreading of
living pteridophytes is limited and is restricted to
narrow geographical region because its
gametophytes require cool, damp, shady places to
grow and also it requires water for fertilization.
85. (a) Plant classification proposed by Carolus Linneaus
was artificial because it was based on a few
morphological characters such as habit, colour,
number and shape of leaves, etc.
86. (d) Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to
colonise rocks and hence, are of great ecological
importance. They decompose rocks making the
substrate suitable for the growth of higher plants.
Since mosses form dense mats on the soil, they
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-17
reduce the impact of falling rain and prevent soil -
erosion.
87. (b) According to the features described, the unknown
plant belongs to bryophytes. Bryophytes refer to a
group of plants comprising the mosses, liverworts,
and hornworts. They do not have a true vascular
system and are unable to pull water and nutrients up
from the ground at any significant distance. This
distinguishes bryophytes from ferns and flowering
plants.
88. (b) Mosses are non-vascular plants which means they
cannot transport water and nutrients to the aerial
parts of the plant.
89. (b) The correct sequence of the plants group which
appeared first on the earth to appear most recently
in time is: Algae ® Moss ® Fern ® Gymnosperms
® Angiosperms
90. (b) Chemotaxonomy is based on chemical products
particularly secondary metabolites. Various families
of plants have been identified on the basis of
raphides (Crystals of calcium oxalates).
91. (d) In order to colonize the land, the plants needed to
acquire the mechanisms to prevent desiccation of
tissues and the ability to screen ultraviolet radiation.
Because there are several successful groups of
plants that lack mechanisms for moving water
throughout the plant.
92. (c) No known seed plant has flagellated sperms.
93. (c) Life cycle of any sexually reproducing plant consists
of two morphological phases i.e., haploid
gametophyte and diploid sporophyte that regularly
alternate with each other. This phenomenon is termed
as alternation of generation.
94. (a) Angiosperms are highly evolved and well adapted
land plants. They have both vessels and tracheids
in xylem for better conduction of water. Roots are
modified into tap roots, adventitious roots,
pneumatophores etc. to suit the desired climate.
Sex organs are highly developed, sporophylls are
organized into flowers and the flowers are highly
coloured or attract pollinators at different times and
places. Insect pollination is more prevalent because
it is more efficient and leads to less wastage of pollen
grains as compared to wind pollination. So the
flowers are made attractive to attract a variety of
insects. Seeds are more protected as they are
enclosed inside a fruit. All these adaptations have
made angiosperms more adaptive in diverse habitats.
95. (a) Asexual reproduction (in algae) is by the production
of different types of spores, and the most common
type is zoospore. Zoospores are flagellated (motile)
and on germination give rise to new plants.
96. (b) The red algae usually reproduce vegetatively by
fragmentation, asexually by non-motile spores and
sexually by non-motile gametes. Red algae is the
common name of Rhodophyta. They are called red
algae because of the presence of red pigment, rphycoerythrin.
Cjãòvgt 4 : Apkïãn Mkpéæqï
1. (a) Radial symmetry is found in coelenterates,
ctenophores and echinoderms. The right and left, or
the dorsal and ventral sides, in such symmetry are
not differentiated. This type of symmetry is
advantageous to sessile (attached) animals as they
can feed from all directions.
2. (b) Pathway of water transport is not the common
fundamental feature for animal classification.
3. (a) Bilateral symmetry is a symmetrical arrangement, as
of an organism or a body part, along a central axis,
so that the body is divided into equivalent right and
left halves by only one plane.
4. (c) Sponges are pore bearing animals belong to phylum
porifera. They have a water transport or canal system.
Spongilla is a fresh-water sponge.
5. (c) Cnidarians are aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or freeswimming, radially symmetrical animals. The
presence of the stinging capsules or nematocytes is
the characteristic feature of cnidarians and they are
present on the tentacles and the body for anchorage,
defense and for the capture of prey. Some of the
cnidarians, e.g., corals have a skeleton composed of
CaCO3
.
6. (b) Meandrina (brain coral) belongs to phylum
coelenterate. Coelenterates are radially symmetrical,
diploblastic aquatic animals with diffused nervous
system.
7. (d) Ctenophores are commonly known as sea-walnuts
or comb-jellies. They are exclusively marine, radially
symmetrical, diploblastic organisms with tissue level
of organization. The body bears eight external rows
of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion.
8. (d) Flame cells function like a kidney, removing waste
materials. Flame cells are ciliated cells that form part
of the excretory and osmoregulatory system of
platyhelminthes, rotifers, and nemertine worms. This
system, known as a protonephridium, consists of
branching tubules that open to the exterior through
excretory pores; flame cells occur at the ends of the
tubules, into which their cilia project.
9. (b) Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms called polyp
and medusa. Polyp is a sessile and cylindrical form
like Hydra, Adamsia, etc. whereas, the latter is
umbrella-shaped and free-swimming like Aurelia or
jelly-fish.
10. (a) Ctenophora is a small phylum of marine coelenterates
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-18 Biology
like free swimming and biradially symmetrical animals.
In ctenophora, sexes are not separate. Reproduction
takes place only by sexual means. In Cnidaria, which
exist in both forms, polyps produce medusae
asexually and medusae form the polyps sexually.
Porifera (sponge) reproduce asexually by
fragmentation and sexually by formation of gametes.
Protozoans come under protista which reproduce
asexually as well as sexually.
11. (d) Choanocytes (also known as "collar cells") are cells
that line the spongocoel. The water current of the
body of sponge is maintained by the movement of
flagella of choanocytes.
12. (b) Nereis is a genus of polychaete worms in the family
nereidae. It possesses setae and parapodia.
Parapodia are paired, lateral appendages extending
from the body segments.
13. (d) Phylum arthropoda is the most numerous phyla of
all living organisms, both in number of species and
in number of individuals.
14. (d) Limulus commonly known as king crab belongs to
phylum arthropoda. It is a living fossil and large sized
marine arthropod.
15. (b) The radula is an anatomical structure that is used by
molluscs for feeding, sometimes compared rather
inaccurately to a tongue. It is a minutely toothed,
chitinous ribbon, which is typically used for scraping
or cutting food before the food enters the
oesophagus. The radula is unique to the molluscs,
and is found in every class of mollusc except the
bivalves.
16. (c) Malpighian tubule is the organ of excretion in insects
and many other arthropods. It lies in the abdominal
body cavity.
17. (a) Echinoderms are a phylum of marine animals. The
adults are recognizable by their (usually five-point)
radial symmetry, whereas the larvae are bilaterally
symmetrical. For example starfish, sea urchins, sand
dollars, and sea cucumbers, as well as the sea lilies
or "stone lilies".
18. (a) Phylum hemichordata consists of a small group of
worm-like marine animals with organ system level of
organization. They are bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and coelomate animals. Excretion takes
place through proboscis gland.
19. (c) The chordate is the phylum which includes humans
and other vertebrates. However, not all chordates
are vertebrates. All chordates have the following
features at some point in their life (in the case of
humans and many other vertebrates, these features
may only be present in the embryo): Pharyngeal slits,
dorsal nerve cord, notochord, Post-anal tail.
20. (a) Animals that belong to class chondrichthyes are
marine with streamlined body and have cartilaginous
endoskeleton. Some of them have electric organs
(e.g., Torpedo) and some possess poison sting (e.g.,
Trygon).
21. (d) Trygon belongs to chondricthyes, possesses poison
sting. Chondricthyes is also called cartilaginous
fishes and includes all members of shark, skates,
rays and chimareae.
22. (b) Lampreys and hag fishes (Myxine) are unusual,
jawless fish that comprise the order cyclostomata,
so named because of the circular shape of the mouth.
The brains of lampreys and hagfishes differ a lot,
but they also show a large number of similarities, as
do all craniate brains.
23. (d) In amphibia, respiration occurs through gills, lungs
and skins. With the exception of a few frog species
that lay eggs on land, all amphibians begin life as
completely aquatic larvae. Respiratory gas exchange
is conducted through thin, gas-permeable skin and
the gills. As amphibian larvae develop, the gills (and
in frogs, the tail fin) degenerate, paired lungs
develop, and the metamorphosing larvae begin
making excursions to the water surface to take air
breaths.
24. (b) In amphibians, the heart is three chambered (two
ventricles and one auricle). Accessory chambers are
sinus venosus and truncus arterious.
25. (d) Crocodile belongs to class reptilia. Reptiles have
usually three chambered heart but crocodile have
four-chambered heart.
26. (d) Naja, Viper and Bungarus are poisonous snakes.
The poison of snake is called venom. Bungarus is
the highly poisonous land snake.
27. (d) Chordates show the presence of nerve cord,
notochord and pharyngeal gill slits.
28. (a) Aquatic annelids like Nereis possess lateral
appendages (called parapodia) which help in
swimming. Radula is the rasping organ for feeding
which is present in the mouth of molluscs.
29. (a) Circulatory system in arthropods is of open type
i.e., blood does not flow in definite vessels. Irregular
spaces known as lacunae or sinuses, filled with blood
are present.
30. (a) Porifera is commonly referred to as sponges. They
are multicellular organisms that have bodies full of
pores and channels allowing water to circulate
through them. Water canal system is the
characteristic feature of the porifera.
31. (c) Statements (iii), (iv) and (v) are correct. The pelvic
fins of male sharks bear claspers. In cnidarians (e.g.
Obelia) polyps produce medusae asexually and
medusae form the polyps sexually.
32. (a) Acoelomates are animals that have no body cavity
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-19
or coelom. The examples are poriferans,
coelenterates, ctenophores, platyhelminthes, etc.
Pseudocoelomates are animals that have false or
pseudocoelom. Examples are aschelminthes.
Coelomates are animals that have true coelom
enclosed by mesoderm on both sides. Examples:
annelida to arthropoda. Hence, roundworms are
pseudocoelomates, molluscs and insects are
coelomates while flatworms are acoelomates. The
charactersties features given above describe
tenophora.
33. (d) Ctenophores, also known as comb jellies/sea
gooseberries/sea walnuts, or Venus's girdles, are
voracious predators.
34. (a)
35. (c) Notochord is a flexible rod like structure that forms
the main support of the body in the lowest chordates.
It is not absent in humans throughout their life.
Notochord is present in embryonic stage and get
changed or replaced by vertebral column in the adult.
36. (a) In option (a) all the characteristics belong to class
reptilia. In options (b), (c) and (d) the characteristics
belong to the classes amphibia, osteichthyes and
chondrichthyes respectively.
37. (d) Animals belong to phylum porifera are mostly marine
except a few which are found in fresh water. E.g.
Spongilla, Euspongia.
38. (d) Aves are warm blooded, oviparous, bipedal flying
vertebrates with an exoskeleton of feathers.
Forelimbs are modified as wings for flying and hind
limbs are adapted for walking, perching and
swimming.
39. (a) Platypus is an anoviparous mammal. Spongilla and
Euspongia are fresh water sponges. crocodiles have
four chambered heart. In the members of class
chondrichthyes, the notochord is persistent
throughout life.
40. (d) Sponges, cnidarians, flatworms and ctenophorans
do not have circulatory systems.
41. (c) Species of the phylum echinodermata are
deuterostomes.
42. (c) The digestive system of platyhelminthes is
incomplete. A complete digestive system has two
openings, mouth and anus.
43. (c) Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod like
structure formed on dorsal side during embryonic
development in some animals.
44. (c) Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia are examples of
phylum Porifera. Physalia, Adamsia, Pennatula,
Gorgonia and Meandrina are examples of phylum
coelenterata (Cnidaria).
45. (c) Nephridia present in phylum- annelida help in
osmoregulation and excretion. In aschelminthes, an
excretory tube removes body wastes from the body
cavity through the excretory pore.
46. (d) Mollusca are the second largest phylum after
arthropoda and includes predominantly marine
animals.
47. (a) Cyclostomata is a group of chordates that includes
the living jawless fishes: the lampreys and hagfishes.
The name cyclostomata means "round mouths".
Their mouths cannot close due to the lack of a jaw,
so they have to constantly cycle water through the
mouth.
48. (c) Mammals are tetrapod that have hair, a fourchambered heart, a diaphragm, and mammary glands.
49. (a) As the name suggests, amphibians can live in aquatic
as well as terrestrial habitats. Respiration is by gills,
lungs and through skin. The heart is three chambered
(two auricles and one ventricle) and the fertilization
is external.
50. (c) Nereis is dioecious but earthworms and leeches are
monoecious.
51. (a) Name of coelenterate is derived from stinging
capsules. It exhibits metagenesis containing two
body forms in which sessile and cylindrical form is
called polyp and umbrella shaped and free –
swimming is called medusa.
52. (b) Both duck billed platypus and spiny ant eaters are
mammals because of their constant body temperature
and presence of diaphragm.
53. (b) Ctenidium is a gill situated on the right side of the
branchial chamber. It helps in respiration by beating
cilia. During development, ctenidium shifts from left
side to right side which is called "torison". It is
characteristic feature of gastropods.
54. (b) Tapeworm, roundowrm & pinworm are all
endoparasites. The main cause of the intecstinal
infection is impeoperly woked food. However
taprworm infection occur by eating improperly
cooked food, roundworm is transmitted by
contaminated food & water and pinworm or ringworm
is transmitted through food or imporoper sanitary
condition.
55. (b) Sponges are multicellular but they have cellular level
of body organization i.e., true tissue, movable parts,
or appendages are not formed. Although, there is
some physiological division of labour, accompanied
with structural differentiation amongst body cells.
But here similar cells are arranged neither in
permanent layer nor masses to form tissues.
56. (a) The water vascular system is a unique organ system
that functions in locomotion, feeding, respiration and
excretion. Ambulacral canal is connected to outside
through external tube feet. Hydraulic pressure of fluid
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-20 Biology
and contraction of muscle of tube feet make possible
movement of Echinoderm.
57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (c) 61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (a)
64. (c) Pteropus (flying fox) belongs to class mammalia. The
skin of mammals is unique in possessing hair. They
are viviparous with exception (Ornithorhynchus is
oviparous).
65. (a) Molluscans are soft bodied animals. Their body is
unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot and
visceral hump. In Pila, the buccal cavity contains a
rasping organ, the radula with transverse rows of
teeth.
66. (d) The sea lamprey (Petromyzon marinus) is a parasitic
lamprey. Ichthyophis is a limbless amphibian, belongs
to apoda class of amphibia. Limulus (horse shoe crab)
is a living fossil and long sized marine arthropod.
Adamsia is a genus of sea anemones in the family
Hormathiidae.
67. (c) Chondrichthyes are the cartilaginous fish with a
flexible skeleton made of cartilage rather than bone.
68. (a) A - (i); B - (ix); C - (viii); D - (v); E - (iii)
69. (d) A - (v); B - (iv); C - (iii); D - (i); E - (ii)
70. (b) A - (iii); B - (i); C - (iv); D - (ii); E - (v)
Pseudocoelomates is a group of invertebrates with a
three-layered body that has a fluid-filled body cavity
called pseudocoelom. E.g, roundworms, rotifers.
Diploblastic animals are with two germ layers -
ectoderm and endoderm, e.g, cnidaria. In cellular level
of organization, the cells are arranged as loose cell
aggregates, e.g, porifera. In radial symmetry,
symmetrical arrangement of parts of an organism is
around a single main axis, so that the organism can
be divided into similar halves by any plane that
contains the main axis. The body plans of
echinoderms, ctenophores, cnidarians, and many
sponges and sea anemones show radial symmetry.
Metamerism is the phenomenon of having a linear
series of body segments fundamentally similar in
structure, e.g, annelida.
71. (a) Diploblastic animals have two germinal layers, outer
ectoderm and inner endoderm, e.g., porifera and
coelenterate. Triploblastic animals have three
germinal layers – outer ectoderm, middle mesoderm
and inner endoderm, e.g., platyhelminthes,
aschelminthes, annelida, arthropoda, molluscs,
echinodermata and chordata.
72. (a) Locusts are the swarming phase of certain species
of short-horned grasshoppers in the family Acrididae.
Scorpions are predatory arthropod animals having
eight legs and are easily recognised by the pair of
grasping pedipalps and the narrow, segmented tail.
Prawn is an arthropod (invertebrate having jointed
limbs and a segmented body with an exoskeleton
made of chitin. Pila is a genus of large freshwater
snails with an operculum.
73. (b) Aurelia is a genus of scyphozoan jellyfish (Cnidaria,
Scyphozoa). Adamsia is a genus of sea anemones. It
is usually found growing on a gastropod shell
inhabited by the hermit crab, Pagurus prideaux. A
cnidocytes (also known as a cnidoblast or
nematocyte) is an explosive cell containing one giant
secretory organelle that defines the phylum Cnidaria
(corals, sea anemones, hydrae, jellyfish, etc.).
Pleurobranchus is a genus of sea slugs, specifically
side-gill slugs, marine gastropod mollusc.
74. (a) All the figures (A, B, and C) are the examples of
porifera phylum. A, B and C are respectively Sycon,
Euspongia (also called horny sponge) and
Spongilla. They are primitive, sessile, aquatic, water
dwelling filter feeders that pump water through their
bodies to filter out particles of food matter.
75. (b) Acoelomates : The animals which do not have coelom
e.g., sponges, coelenterates, ctenophorans and
flatworms. Pseudocoelomates : Body cavity is not
lined by mesoderm continuously, but it is present as
scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and
endoderm. Aschelminthes (round worms) are
pseudocoelomates.
Eucoelomates (Coelomates) : The animals which
possess true coelom. True coelom is found in
annelids, echinoderms and chordates.
76. (d) The given figure is of tapeworm. Tapeworm belongs
to phylum Platyhelminthes which are mostly
endoparasites, bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic
and acoelomate animals with organ level of
organization.
77. (b) Ascaris belongs to nematode phylum which is a non
- segmented roundworms / threadworms/ pinworms.
Nereis is a genus of polychaete worms. It possesses
setae and parapodia for locomotion. Hirudinaria, also
known as cattle leech, belongs to annelida phylum. It
acts as a parasite on cattle.
78. (a) Octopus (also called devil fish) belongs to molluscs.
Asterias (Pentaceros) is a genus of the Asteriidae
family of sea stars. Ophiura albida is a species of
brittle star in the order Ophiurida of Echinodermata
phylum.
79. (c) Balanoglossus is a deuterostome, and resembles the
Ascidians or sea squirts, in that it possesses
branchial openings, or "gill slits". It has notochord
in the upper part of the body and has no nerve chord.
80. (b) Cnidoblast are use for anchorage, defense and for
the capture of prey.
81. (a) The given figures (A, B and C) are respectively
hippocampus, catla (both are bony fishes) and
salamander (amphibian). Hippocampus have a
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-21
skeleton made up of bony plates, they use gills to
breath and have an inflatable bladder to help regulate
their buoyancy in the water. Catla is a member of
ostoichthyes and possesses air bladder to regulate
buoyancy.
82. (a) The given figures (A, B, C and D) are respectively
chameleons, crocodile, turtle and cobra. Reptiles are
the first true land vertebrates and dominant in
Mesozoic era. They are cold blooded vertebrates.
Heart in reptiles are usually three chambered but four
chambered in crocodiles.
83. (b) Animals (like annelida and amphibia) that are
bilaterally symmetric have mirror symmetry in the
sagittal plane, which divides the body vertically into
left and right halves, with one of each sense organ
and limb pair on either side. Bilateral symmetry
developed due to cephalization.
84. (a) Germinal layers marked as A, B, C and D is mesoglea,
ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm respectively.
"A" label represent Mesoglea layer, which is
undifferentiated and present in between the
ectoderm (B) and the endoderm (C).
85. (c) The given figure shows the structure of cnidoblast.
Cnidoblast is the characteristic feature of porifera
phylum. A cnidoblast (also known as a cnidocytes
or nematocyte) is an explosive cell containing one
giant secretory organelle that defines the phylum
Cnidaria (corals, sea anemones, hydrae, jellyfish, etc.).
They are used for prey capture and defense from
predators.
86. (b) The given figure (Nereis) is an example of annelida.
Annelida is a group commonly referred to as
segmented worms, and they are found worldwide
from the deepest marine sediments to the soils.
Circulatory system is of closed type.
87. (c) Octopus belongs to mollusca. Body of octopus is
covered by calcareous shell and unsegmented with
a distinct head, muscular foot, and visceral hump.
88. (c) Figure c (scorpion) is an example of arthropoda.
Arthropoda contains respiratory organs like, gills,
book gills, book lungs or tracheal system.
89. (d) The given figure shows the examples of Mollusca.
These animals are triploblastic and bilaterally
symmetrical in nature. They are usually dioecious
and oviparous with indirect development.
90. (b) Animal 2 and 4 are bilaterally symmetrical. Bilateral
symmetry is a symmetrical arrangement, as of an
organism or a body part, along a central axis, so that
the body is divided into equivalent right and left
halves by only one plane.
91. (d) Sea horse and flying fish are cold blooded animals.
Ornithorhyncus is oviparous. Crocodile has four
chambered heart. Ascaris and Ancylostoma are
segmented roundworms.
92. (b) Prawn, scorpion and locusta belong to phylum
Arthropoda. Arthropoda is the largest phylum of
animalia, and includes the insects arachnids,
crustaceans and others. It is a group of animals with
features including bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblostic tube within tube plan, organ system
level of organization and metemerically segmented
body.
93. (a) Medusa and polyp are the stages in the life cycle of
cnidarians. Medusa is a sexual free swimming form
and polyp is asexual form. The jellyfish have both a
medusa and polyp stage in their life cycle, but the
sea anemones do not have the medusa stage and
spend the life cycle as polyps.
94. (a) The segmentation of the annelids allows more
complex coordinated movement.
95. (d) For transition from aquatic to terrestrial life, the
development of feathers for insulation was not
required. The amphibians and reptiles do not have an
insulation layer and the mammals have hair for
insulation.
96. (b) The most unique mammalian characteristic is the
presence of milk producing glands (mammary glands)
by which the young ones are nourished. The skin of
mammals is unique in possessing hair.
97. (c) Penguin, kiwi and ostrich all belong to class Aves
(i.e. birds) under phylum chordata and they do not
give birth to their young ones. They are oviparous
while kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin and loris, all
belong to class mammalia and are viviparous.
98. (c) Silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn belong to
phylum arthropoda. Their body is covered by
chitinous exoskeleton and have jointed appendages.
99. (b) Loligo, Sepia and octopus are examples of phylum
Mollusca.
Enterobius is an example of nematode. Pennatula is
a colonial coral, belongs to coelenterate phylum.
Bonellia (the green spoon worm) is a marine worm
(phylum Echiura) noted for displaying exceptional
sexual dimorphism and for the biocidal properties of
a pigment in its skin.
100. (a) Hemichordates have now been placed with the nonchordates because true notochord is absent in them
but a buccal diverticulum is present in pre-oral region
which is often called stomochord.
101. (a) In animals, carbohydrates are stored in the form of
glycogen while in plants, carbohydrates are stored
in the form of sucrose. So, option (a) belongs to
kingdom Plantae.
102. (d) An arthropod has a segmented body covered by an
exoskeleton made from chitin and other chemicals.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-22 Biology
This exoskeleton serves as protection and provides
places for muscle attachment. Arthropods must moult
because their exoskeletons do not grow with them.
The body feature from which the phylum takes its
name is the jointed appendages, which include
antennae and mouthparts as well as walking legs.
103. (b) Trachae act as passage of air during respiration in
both cockroach and mammals. In cockroach, the
cuticular lining is spirally thickened forming taenidia
which prevents the trachael tubes from collapsing.
In mammals, cartilaginous ring supporting the walls
of the trachae prevent their collapsing.
104. (d) The sub-phylum vertebrata (or craniata) have a welldeveloped nervous system that is differentiated into
brain and spinal cord. Brain is protected by a brain
box called cranium, so they are also called as craniata.
105. (c) The organism attached to the substratum possess
radial symmetry in all vertical planes. All the animals
belonging to cnidaria (e.g., jellyfish) and
echinodermata (e.g.,
starfish) are radially symmetrical, and typically
sessile in their adult form. In radial symmetry, the
parts in an organ or organism when cut through the
centre in any direction produces two halves that are
mirror images of each other.
106. (b) Sponges may have calcareous or siliceous spicules.
All sponges are not marine, some are freshwater
living also. Sponges may be asymmetrical or
bilaterally symmetrical, besides being radially
symmetrical. So, these characters are with exception.
The character without exception is the regenerative
power of sponges.
All sponges have a good power of regeneration.
They can regrow any part of the body lost or cut off.
Small fragments can grow into a complete sponge.
107. (a) Diaphragm is a membrane that separates thoracic
cavity from abdominal cavity. It is present only in
mammals. All other chordates do not have diaphragm
as their body cavity is not divided into thoracic and
abdominal cavities.
108. (c) Four chambered heart in birds indicates their reptilian
ancestry.
109. (d) Exoskeleton is probably the most responsible for the
great diversification of insects on land. An
exoskeleton is the external skeletons that supports
and protects an animal's body, in contrast to the
internal skeleton (endoskeleton) of, for example, a
human. Examples of exoskeleton animals include
insects such as grasshoppers and cockroaches, and
crustaceans such as crabs and lobsters.
110. (b) Balanoglossus is a connecting link between
invertebrates and non-invertebrates. Balanoglossus
belongs to phylum Hemichordata which was earlier
considered as a sub-phylum under phylum chordata.
But, now it is placed as a separate phylum under
non-chordata because notochord and post-anal tail
are absent in it.
111. (b) The animal found by the boy belongs to mollusca
phylum. Mollusca are the second largest phylum after
arthropoda and include predominantly marine
animals. They are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical,
schizocoelic and unsegmented protostomes. They
have moist skin, a complete digestive tract, a ventral
nerve cord, and had gone through torsion.
112. (a) Porifera is commonly referred to as sponges. They
are multicellular organisms that have bodies full of
pores and channels allowing water to circulate
through them, consisting of jelly-like mesohyl
sandwiched between two thin layers of cells.
113. (b) Pheretima belongs to annelida phylum. Annelida is
a group commonly referred to as segmented worms,
and they are found worldwide from the deepest marine
sediments to the soils in our city parks and yards.
114. (c) Butterfly, Nereis, scorpion and pila are animals which have
a fluid filled body cavity with a complete lining derived
from mesoderm, Hence, called as coelomate animals.
115. (c) Interstitial cell refers to any one of a number of
different types of cells characterized by their
interstitial nature (i.e., their interposition between
other cells that were usually characterized earlier or
more completely).
Cnidocytes is present in coelenterates as an organ
used for prey capture and defense from predators.
Choanocytes are flagellated cells, present in porifera
and function as the sponge's digestive system.
Gastrodermal cells are present in cnidarians and helps
in digestion.
116. (c) (i) Terrestrial or aquatic animals having organ
system level of organization
(ii) Bilateral symmetrical and coelomate animals
and possesses three germinal layers.
(iii) A file like rasping organ called radula is present.
Radula is an anatomical structure that is used
by molluscs for feeding, sometimes compared
rather inaccurately to a tongue.
(iv) Usually dioecious and oviparous animals.
(v) Examples include Pila, Octopus, and Dentalium.
Cjãòvgt 5 : Morphology of Flowering Plants
1. (b) The direct elongation of the radicle leads to the
formation of primary roots which grows inside
the soil. The radicle is the first part of a seedling
(a growing plant embryo) to emerge from the seed
during the process of germination. The radicle is
the embryonic root of the plant, and grows
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-23
downward in the soil (the shoot emerges from
the plumule).
2. (b) Tap root or primary roots develop from the radicle. It
forms lateral branches or secondary roots which are
further branched to form tertiary roots. This type of
root system is seen in the mustard plant.
3. (a) Fibrous root system is found in monocotyledonous
plants. In monocotyledons, primary root is short lived
and replaced by a large number of roots which
originate from the base of the stem and constitute
the fibrous root system.
4. (c) Root developing from any part of the plant other than
the radicle is called adventions roots. Adventitious
roots are found in some plants like grass, Monstera
and banyan tree.
5. (a) Root consists of four regions: root cap, region of
maturation, region of elongation and region of
meristematic activity. Root hairs develop from the
region of maturation. Region of maturation is the
area of origin of lateral roots. Root hair region is
called piliferous zone. This root hair absorbs water
and minerals from the soil.
6. (b) Water absorption takes place through root hairs.
The latter are present only in the maturation zone.
7. (b) In maize, Pandamus, etc., adventitious roots develop
from the lower nodes of the stem to provide
mechanical support and are called stilt roots.
8. (c) Some plants are profusely branched and branches
are thick and heavy. From these branches, roots arise
and hang downwards in the air and later penetrate the soil
and function as prop (for support) to the branch, e.g., Ficus
bengalensis (Banyan).
9. (c) In some plants, roots arise from lower nodes of stem
and enter the soil and become stronger. Such roots
are called shift roots. They protect the plant against
winds, e.g., sugarcane, maize, screwpine.
10. (a) Pneumatophores or respiratory roots are erect, short
root showing vertical and negatively geotrophic (grow
in an upward direction). It protrudes some distance
above substratum and occurs in certain halophytes,
which grow in saline marshes (mangroves).
11. (c) Pneumatophores or respiratory roots are short
vertical and negatively geotrophic (grow in upward
direction). Examples, – Rhizophora, Heritiera and
Avicennia.
12. (d) A root differs from stem, without any exception, by
the presence of unicellular root hairs and the absence
of nodes and internodes.
13. (a) Stem is generally green when young and later often
become woody and dark brown.
The stem bears buds which may be terminal or axillary.
14. (b) A node is formed at the place from where a leaf arises,
i.e., the place of origin of a leaf on the stem apex is
differentiated as the node. The space between two
successive nodes is called internode.
15. (b) Underground stems are non green stems that may
take part in perennation, store food or help in
vegetative propagation. Underground stems of
potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia are
modified stem to store food in them.
16. (d) Tendrils are spirally coiled, thread - like sensitive
structures which develop from axillary buds and can
coil around a support and help the plant in climbing.
E.g., cucumber, pumpkins, water melon and
grapevines.
17. (b) Thorn is a stiff, sharp-pointed woody projection on
the stem or other part of a plant. Thorns are found in
many plants such as Citrus, Bougainvillea. They
protect plants from grazing animals.
18. (c) A lateral branch with short internodes and each node
bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found
in aquatic plants like Pistia and Eichhornia.
19. (a) In mint and jasmine, a slender lateral branch arises
from the base of the main axis and after growing
aerially for some time arch downwards to touch the
ground.
20. (d) Lamina on the leaf blade is usually flattened green
photosynthetic part consisting leaf veins and
veinlets. Its upper surface is called adaxial while the
lower surface is called abaxial. The shape margin,
apex, surface and extent of incision of lamina vary in
different leaves.
21. (a) Leaves of dicotyledonous plants possess reticulate
venation while parallel venation is the characteristics
of most monocotyledonous. In reticulate venation,
the main veins of leaf form numerous irregular
branches and as a result a net like arrangements is
formed. Reticulated venation is the most common
vein formation in leaves. It can be found in the leaves
of maple trees, oak trees and rose bushes.
In parallel venation veins are arranged parallel to
each other.
22. (d) Pinnate are feather like leaves. The segmentation of
the leaf-blade is towards the mid-rib, so that the
leaflets are borne laterally on midrib or rachis.
Example, Neem.
23. (d) The arrangement of mature leaves on the stem or its
branches is called phyllotaxy. These are meant for
getting maximum amount of light for photosynthesis.
24. (d) In alternate (or spiral) type of phyllotaxy, only one
leaf is borne at each node and leaves are arranged
alternatively giving a spiral form. Example chinarose,
mustard and sunflower.
25. (a) In onion and garlic, scale - leaves store food and
water and are, therefore, thick and fleshy.
26. (a) The flower is the reproductive unit in angiosperms
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-24 Biology
and is meant for sexual reproduction. Flower is the
seed-bearing part of a plant, consisting of
reproductive organs (stamens and carpels) that are
typically surrounded by a brightly coloured corolla
(petals) and a green calyx (sepals).
27. (b) When both the essential whorls are present in the
same flower, it is described as bisexual, e.g.,
cruciferae, malvaceae etc.
28. (a) On the basis of symmetry, flower may be
actinomorphic (radial symmetry) or zygomorphic
(bilateral symmetry). In actinomorphic symmetry,
flower can be divided into two equal halves in any
radial plane passing through the centre. Examples -
mustard, Datura and chilli.
29. (a) Staminode is a sterile or abortive stamen, frequently
resembling a stamen without its anther.
30. (b) Pollen grains are produced within the anther of
stamen. Anther is the pollen-bearing part at the upper
end of the stamen of a flower. Most anthers occur at
the tip of a slender, stem-like filament and have two
lobes. Each lobe contains two pollen sacs. When
pollen matures in the pollen sacs, the lobes of the
anthers burst open in the process known as
dehiscence to release the pollen.
31. (d) Gynoecuim or pistil is the female whorl that is
differentiated into the ovary, style and stigma.
Androecium is the male reproductive organ
consisting of stamen. Each stamen is distinguishable
into anther and filament joined by a connective.
32. (a) During the post fertilization period, the ovules
develop into seeds (A) and the ovary matures into a
fruit (B).
Seed is a fertilized and ripened ovule and the
characteristics of gymnosperms and angiosperms.
Fruit is the part of a seed-bearing plant that contains
the fertilized seeds capable of generating a new plant.
Fruit develops from the female part of the plant.
Apples, peaches, tomatoes, etc. are fruits.
33. (c) Hilum is the scar on a seed marking the point of
attachment of the developing seed vessel to the fruit.
34. (d) Cotyledons and testa respectively are the edible parts
in ground nut and pomegranate. Cotyledon is an
embryonic leaf in seed-bearing plants, one or more
of which are the first leaves to appear from a
germinating seed. Testa is the outer layer of seed
coat. It is thick, hard and leathery, whereas tegmen
is the inner layer of seed coat which is thin and
papery.
35. (d) Tomato and tobacco both belong to the family
Solanaceae. Solanaceae has some identifying
characteristics-bicarpellary, syncarpous superior
ovary, axile plancentation, fruit is berry or capsule.
36. (c) Cauliflower has the scientific name Brassica oleracea
belonging to the variety botrytis.
37. (a) Botanical name of banana is Musa paradi-sica.
38. (a) Bulb of Allium cepa is a modified stem.
39. (d) When stamens are attached to the petals, they are
epipetalous as in brinjal, or epiphyllous when
attached to the perianth as in the flowers of lily.
40. (d) Calyx or sepals are the outermost lower most nonessential but protective whorl of the flower. Sepals
are green, leaf like and protect the flower in bud stage.
When the sepals are free from one another, the calyx
is said to be polysepalous (mustard) and when the
sepals are wholly or partially united with one another
by their margins then the calyx is said to be
gamosepalous.
41. (c) Reticulate venation is the characteristic of dicots. In
reticulate venation the main vein a of leaf forms
numerous irregular branches and as a result a net
like arrangement is formed.
42. (a) In parietal placentation, the ovules develop on the
inner wall of the ovary or on peripheral part.
43. (b) Androecium (male whorl) is composed of stamens.
Each stamen which represents the male reproductive
organ consists of a stalk or a filament or an anther.
44. (a) A bud is present in the axil of petiole in both simple
and compound leaves, but not in the axil of leaflets
of the compound leaf. In Australian Acacia, the
petioles expand, become green and synthesize food.
45. (d) The zone of elongation region of a root increases
length of the root. The external cells possess the
power of absorption of water and minerals salts from
the soil. The root hair zone represents the zone of
differentiation or maturation because different types
of primary tissues differentiate or mature in this
region. Maize and sugarcane have stilt roots.
46. (d) The cells of the elongation zone gradually
differentiate and mature. Hence, this zone proximal
to the region of elongation, is called the region of
maturation. From this region some of the epidermal
cells form very fine and delicate, thread like structures
called root hairs. Stems of maize and sugarcane have
supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes of
the stem called stilt roots.
47. (a) Statements - i, ii, iii and iv are not correct.
(i) Calyx and corolla are helping or accessory whorls
whereas androecium and gynoecium are
reproductive organs of a flower.
(ii) Actinomorphic flowers can be divided into two equal
radial halves in any radial plane and zygomorphic
flowers can be divided into two similar halves in one
particular plane.
(iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as ebracteate and
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-25
flowers with bract, reduced leaf found at the base of
the pedicel are called as bracteates.
(iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed without fertilization of
the ovary.
48. (a) Statement (i) and (ii) are correct about leaf.
(iii) Leaves originates from the shoot apical
meristems and arranged in an acropetal order.
(iv) Leaves are the most important vegetative
organs for photosynthesis.
49. (b) According to the position of gynoecium, the flowers
are of three kinds: perigynous, hypogynous and
epigynous. The given statements describe the
perigyny condition of flowers.
In perigynous condition of flower, the calyx, corolla
and androecium arises from the around of ovary. In
these flowers the ovary is semi inferior. e.g, plum,
rose and peach.
50. (a) The statements describe the phyllotaxy condition of
plants. Phyllotaxy is the arrangement of leaves on
an axis or stem. Phyllotaxy facilitate the leaves to
obtain maximum light for photosynthesis.
51. (c) Fruit is a mature or ripened ovary, developed after
fertilization. When pericarp is thick and fleshy, it is
differentiated into outer epicarp, middle mesocarp
and inner endocarp. In mango and coconut, the fruit
is known as a drupe.
52. (c) Tulip, Gloriosa, Aloe and Asparagus belong to
family liliaceae. The plumule and radicle are enclosed
in sheaths are called coleoptile and coleorhiza
respectively.
53. (b) Vexillary aestivation is found in papilionaceous
family. In cymose type of inflorescence, the main axis
terminates in a flower, hence is limited in growth. In
parietal placentation ovary is one chambered but it
becomes two cambered due to formation of the false
septum.
54. (b) A leaf having a single or undivided lamina is called
simple leaf. The lamina can have different types of
incisions, which may reach upto half (-fid), more than
half (-partite) or near the base or midrib (-sect).
Depending upon the pinnate or palmate venation,
the incisions are known as pinnatifid, palmatifid,
pinnatipartite, palmatipartite, pinnatisect and
palmatisect etc.
55. (b) Ginger is horizontal in position and generally
branched and producing aerial leaves or shoots
above ground and adventitious roots on lower side
in favourable season. Thus, shoot growth is not
effected by gravity.
56. (c) Plants do propagate more vegetatively since they
multiply faster vegetatively.
57. (b) Ginger is an example of rhizome (e.g. prostrate stem
creeping horizontally under soil surface). It has no
effect of gravity. Rhizome of ginger contains nodes,
internodes and scaly leaves. Buds are emerges from
axils of scaly leaves. Response to light by plants is
called phototropism. In this sense, shoot shows
positive phototropism and root shows negative
phototropism.
58. (c) In fabaceae ovary is present. Placentation is marginal
with many ovules.
59. (c) Pericycle is the outermost layer of stele. In dicot
stems, pericycle strengths the stem and provide
protection for the vascular bundles. In angiosperms
(dicots) pericycle gives rises to lateral roots
contribute to the vascular cambium often diverging
into a work cambium.
60. (b) Valvate, twisted, imbricate and vexillary are types of
aestivation.
A: Valvate aestivation - In this sepals or petals or
tepals just touch one another without any
overlapping, e.g. Calotropis.
B: Twisted aestivation - In this one margin of each
petal overlaps the margin of an adjacent petal and
the other margin being overlapped by margin of
another adjacent petal, e.g. China rose, cotton.
C: Imbricate aestivation: If the margin of sepals or
petals overlap one another but not in any particular
direction as in Cassia and Gulmohar, the aestivation
is called imbricate.
D: Vexillary aestivation - It is the characteristics
aestivation of corolla of pea when posterior petal is
outermost. E.g, bean.
61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (a)
64. (d) When the calyx, corolla and androecium arise below
the ovary, the flower is called hypogynous. In these
flowers the ovary is superior, e.g., mustard, China
rose and brinjal. In perigynous condition of flower,
the calyx, corolla and androecium arise from the
around of ovary. In these flowers the ovary is semi
inferior, e.g., plum, rose and peach. When the calyx,
corolla and androecium arise from the top of the
ovary, the flower is called epigynous. In these flowers
the ovary is inferior, e.g., guava, cucumber and the
ray florets of sunflower.
65. (c) Simple leaf is a leaf whose blade is not divided to the
midrib even though lobed. Simple is a leaf with entire
lamina or when incised, the incisions do not touch
the midrib. Testa is the outer layer of seed coat. It is
thick, hard and leathery. Cacti are succulent plant
with a thick fleshy stem which typically bears spines,
lacks leaves, and has brilliantly coloured flowers.
Pitcher plants and Venus fly trap are insectivorous
plants. They have modified leaves to catch insects.
Garlic and onion have fleshy leaves which store food.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-26 Biology
66. (c) A: Gamosepalous: Sepals united
B: Polysepalous: Sepals free
C: Gamopetalous: Petals free
D: Polypetalous: Petals united
E: Epiphyllous: Stamens are attached to the perianth
as in flower of lily.
F: Staminode: A sterile or abortive stamen, frequently
resembles a stamen without its anther.
67. (d) Coleorhiza is the sheath that envelops the radicle in
certain plants and that is penetrated by the root in
germination. Endosperm is the part of a seed which
acts as a food store for the developing plant embryo,
usually containing starch with protein and other
nutrients. Grape is a parthenocarpic fruit.
Parthenocarpic fruit is formed without the fertilization
in the ovary. Mango is a single seeded fruit
developing from monocarpellary superior ovary.
Maize has a membranous seed coat.
68. (b) Many plants belonging to the fabaceae family are
sources of pulses (gram, arhar), edible oils (soyabean,
ground nut), dye (indigofera), fibres (sun hemps),
fodder (Sesabania), ornamental (lupin, sweet pea),
and medicine (mulaithi).
69. (a) The figures show the types of placentation.
Placentation is the arrangement of the placenta or
placentae in the ovary of a flower. The function of
placentation is to transfer nutrients from maternal
tissue to a growing embryo.
A: Marginal placentation is found in monocarpellary
ovary. In this ovary is unilocular and ovules arranged
along margin of unilocular ovary. Examples - pea,
Clitoria, groundnut.
B: Axile placentation is found in bi- or multicarpellary
and multilocular ovary. Ovules are arranged along
the central axis of placenta and the number of
chambers corresponds to the number of carpels.
Examples - lemon, tomato, Hibiscus, cotton.
C: Parietal placentation is found in bi- or
multicarpellary ovary but unilocular. Ovules are
arranged along periphery or the inner wall of the
ovary, and number of placentae corresponds to the
number of carpels. Examples, Cucurbita, Argemone.
D: Free central placentation is found in
multicarpellary, syncarpous ovary. Ovules are borne
along the central axis which is not connected with
the ovary wall by septum. Example, Dianthus roam
Primrose.
E: Basal placentation is found in monocarpellary but
unilocular. In this placentation, the placenta develops
at the base of the ovary and a single ovule is attached
to it. Examples - sunflower, marigold.
70. (d)
71. (d) In the given figure, the root tip shows their different
regions which are marked as A, B and C. The correct
labelling of A, B and C are region of maturation,
region of elongation and region of meristematic
activity respectively.
72. (a) Roots are modified in some plants to perform
functions other than absorption and conduction of
water and minerals. Figure A shows tap roots of
turnip, carrot and adventitious roots of sweet potato
and figure B shows pneumatophores in Rhizophora.
Tap roots system is the characteristics of dicot
plants. Tap roots (develop from radicle) and
adventitious root (develop from any part of the plant
other than the radicle) get swollen and store foods.
Pneumatophore is a specialized structure developed
from the root in certain plants growing in swamps
and marshes. These types of roots come out of the
ground and grow vertically upwards. Pneumatophore
helps to get oxygen for respiration.
73. (a) Leaf is the main photosynthetic organ of plants. In
the given figure of leaf, the part marked as A, B, C
and D are lamina, axillary bud, stipule and leaf base,
respectively.
Lamina or leaf blade is green and expanded portion
of the leaf. In the middle of the lamina, a strong vein
called midrib is present which extends from its base
or apex. Axillary bud is borne at the axil of a leaf and
is capable of developing into a branch shoot or flower
cluster. Stipule is a small leaf-like appendage to a
leaf, typically borne in pairs at the base of the leaf
stalk. Leaf base is the lower part of the lamina, and is
attached to petiole or stem.
74. (b) In racemose inflorescence, the main axis continues
to grow. The flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal
succession, which means the older flowers are at the
base and younger flowers are near the apex. E.g.,
radish, mustard, Amaranthus.
In cymose inflorescence, the axis terminates in a
flower, hence, is limited in growth. The flowers are
borne in a basipetal order, which means older flowers
are at the apex and younger flowers are near the
base. E.g. cotton, jasmine, Calotropis.
75. (a) Aestivation is the arrangement of petals and sepals
with respect to one another in a floral bud before it
opens. The given figure shows different types of
aestivation. Figures A, B, C and D show valvate,
twisted, imbricate and vexillary aestivation.
In valvate aestivation, sepals or petals or tepals just
touch one another without overlapping, e.g.
Calotropis. In twisted aestivation, one margin of
each petal overlaps the margin of an adjacent petal
and the other margin is overlapped by margin of
another adjacent petal, e.g. China rose, cotton. If the
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-27
margin of sepals or petals overlap one another but
not in any particular direction as in Cassia and
Gulmohar, the aestivation is called imbricate. Vexillary
is the characteristics aestivation of corolla of pea
when posterior petal is outermost.
76. (a) Based on the position of floral parts on thalamus,
flowers are divided into three types shown in the
figures. Figures A, B and C are respectively
hypogynous, perigynous and epigynous flower.
When the calyx, corolla and androecium arise below
the ovary, the flower is called hypogynous. In these
flowers the ovary is superior. e.g., cruciferae, liliaceae.
In perigynous condition of flower, the calyx, corolla
and androecium arise around the ovary. In these
flowers the ovary is semi inferior. e.g., Saxifraga.
When the calyx, corolla and androecium arise from
the top of the ovary, the flower is called epigynous.
In these flowers the ovary is inferior. e.g., umbiliferae,
compositae.
77. (a) The given figure shows types of compound leaves.
A compound leaf consisting of several or many
distinct parts (leaflets) is joined to a single stem. They
are of two types - pinnately (figure A) and palmately
compound leaves (figure B).
In pinnately compound leaves, a number of leaflets
are present on a common axis, the rachis, which
represents the midrib of the leaf as in neem. In
palmately compound leaves, the leaflets are attached
at a common point i.e. at the tip of petiole as in silk
cotton.
78. (a) Phyllotaxy is the arrangement of leaves on a stem or
axis. Phyllotaxy is usually of three types which are
shown in the given figures A (alternate), B (opposite)
and C (whorled).
In alternate type, one leaf is borne at a node and
leaves are arranged alternately giving a spiral form,
e.g, mango, mustard and tobacco. In opposite
arrangements, each node give rise to two leaves,
arranged opposite to each other, e.g, Calotropis and
guava plants. In whorled arrangement more than two
leaves are formed from each node, e.g, Nerium.
79. (d) In the given figure of flower, the structure marked as
A, B, C and D are respectively gynoecium, stamen,
ovule and thalamus.
Gynoecium constitutes the inner essential whorl
flower comprising carpels. Carpel is the unit of
gynoecium. Each carpel contains ovary and stigma.
Ovules are produced within ovary. Stamen is the
male fertilizing organ of a flower, typically consisting
of a pollen-containing anther and a filament. Ovule
is the part of the ovary of seed plants that contains
the female germ cell and after fertilization becomes
the seed. Thalamus is an expanded tip of the pedicel.
Components of whorls are concentrically arranged
on a thalamus.
80. (a) In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as drupe.
Drupe develops from monocarpellary superior ovaries.
In mango, the pericarp is differentiated into an outer
thin epicarp, middle fleshy edible mesocarp and an
inner stony hard endocarp. In coconut, the mesocarp
is represented by the fibrous part.
81. (b) In the given figure of dicotyledonous seeds, the
structure marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively
hilum, micropyle, plumule, cotyledon and radicle.
Hilum is the scar on a seed marking the point of
attachment of the developing seed vessel to the fruit.
Micropyle is a small opening or pore present just
below the hilum. It is the way of entry of water into
the seed. Plumule is the developing bud of a plant
embryo, situated above the cotyledons and
consisting of the epicotyl and immature leaves.
Cotyledon is an embryonic leaf in seed-bearing
plants, one or more of which are the first leaves to
appear from a germinating seed. Radicle is the first
part of a seedling (a growing plant embryo) to emerge
from the seed during the process of germination.
The radicle is the embryonic root of the plant, and
grows downward in the soil (the shoot emerges from
the plumule).
82. (c) In the given figure of monocotyledonous seeds, the
structure marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively
endosperm, embryo, scutellum, coleoptile and
coleorhiza. Endosperm is the part of a seed which
acts as a food store for the developing plant embryo,
usually containing starch with protein and other
nutrients.
Embryo is the part of a seed which develops into a
plant, consisting (in the mature embryo of a higher
plant) of a plumule, a radicle, and one or two
cotyledons. Scutellum is the large shield like
cotyledon of the embryo of certain monocots. It is
specialized for the absorption of food from the
endosperm. Coleoptile is the first leaf above the
ground, forming a protective sheath around the stem
tip. It surrounds the plumule. Coleorhiza is the sheath
that envelops the radicle in certain plants and that is
penetrated by the root in germination.
83. (b) The given plants A (Pisum sativum), B (Solanum
nigrum) and C (Allium cepa) belong to fabaceae,
solanacea and liliaceae families respectively.
84. (b) Figure A, B and C are respectively tap root, fibrous
root and adventitious root. The root branches of the
primary root are called as Taproot system. The
monocotyledons will have the primary root as shortlived and has many numbers of small lateral roots.
These roots develop at the stem base and they form
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-28 Biology
a root system called as fibrous root system, which is
observed in the wheat plant (monocot). In some
plants like banyan tree, monstera, and grass, parts
of the plant other than radicle will be responsible for
the development of root system called as
adventitious root system.
85. (a) All the functions are carried out by the root system
of the parts (marked as 5 and 6) of flowering plants.
The flowering plant consists of an axis, root system
and shoots system. The flowering plants consist of
a long cylindrical axis which is differentiated into an
underground root system. Root is the descending,
non-green, underground part lacking nodes,
internodes, leaves and buds. Root system consists
of primary roots (5) and secondary roots (6). The
main functions of the root system are absorption of
water and minerals from the soil, providing a proper
anchorage to the plant parts, storing reserve food
material and synthesis of plant growth regulators.
Shoot system is an aerial system, usually above the
soil and originates from the plumule. It consists of
flower (1), fruits (2), stem (3), leaves (4) and branches.
86. (c) The flower is the most characteristic structure of the
angiosperms. It is a complex unit consisting typically
of those parts which directly or indirectly contribute
to the process of reproduction.
87. (c) The major part of the grain is occupied by a large
endosperm which is rich in starch. The endosperm
has one to three layered peripheral protein layer
called aleurone layer which separates the embryo
with endosperm.
88. (d) Fibrous root system is better adopted than tap root
system for anchorage of plants to soil. In fibrous
root system, the roots originate from the base of the
stem. E.g, wheat plant. Tap root system is the primary
root which is short lived and is replaced by a large
number of roots (called fibrous root).
89. (c) Leaf is a green, flattened outgrowth of the plant
arising from the node of the stem and is specialized
to perform the process of photosynthesis. Therefore,
leaf is known as the kitchen or food factory of the
plant.
90. (a) The correct sequence of the zones seen in the root
tip is: CBEAD i.e. root cap zone, zone of meristems,
zone of elongation, root hair zone and zone of
maturation.
Root cap zone protects the tender apex of the root as
it makes its way through the soil. Zone of meristems
have cells of very small size, thin walled and with
dense protoplasm. They divide repeatedly. The cells
in zone of elongation undergo rapid elongation and
enlargement and are responsible for the growth of
the roots in length. Root hair region is called the
piliferous zone. In cell maturation zone, secondary
growth takes place. It is the area of origin of lateral
roots.
91. (c) Underground stems of potato, ginger and Colocasia
are modified to store food in them whereas leaves of
certain insectivorous plants such as pitcher plant,
venus-fly trap are modified leaves.
92. (b) The arrangements of flowers on the floral axis
(peduncle) are called as inflorescence. Most
prominent function of the inflorescence is the
formation of more flowers.
93. (c) The character of flower which is represented by floral
formula but not by the floral diagram is the position
of gynoecium.
94. (d) Gram and peas are exalbuminous (non-endospermic)
seeds because they usually store reserve food
materials in cotyledons. In these seeds, the
endosperm is used up and not present in mature
seeds.
95. (c) Morphologically, seed (ripened ovule) is the
integumented mature, megasporangium which is
developed from a fertilized ovule and is with an
embryo (future plant, enclosed by seed coat.)
96. (c) Floral features of family solanaceae
Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary
Flowers: Actinomorphic, bisexual flowers
Calyx: Calyx is composed of five sepals that are united
and persistent. Aestivation is valvate.
Corolla: Corolla consists of five united petals with
valvate aestivation.
Androecium: It consists of five epipetalous stamens.
Gynoecium: It consists of bicarpellary, syncarpous
superior ovary with axile placentation.
Fruits: Berry
Seeds: Numerous, endospermous
Floral formula: Å K(5) C(5).A5 G(2)
97. (c) Liliaceae is the characteristics of monocotyledonous
plants. Floral characters of this family are:
tricarpellary, actinomorphic, polyandrous, superior
ovary, axile placentation.
98. (c) Hypogynous flowers (Superior ovary): In this, the
ovary occupies the highest position on the thalamus,
while other floral parts are situated below it. In such
flowers, the ovary is superior. E.g., China rose,
mustard, etc.
Perigynous flowers (Half inferior ovary): In this,
the ovary is situated at the centre and other floral
parts are arranged on the rim of the thalamus. The ovary
here is said to be half inferior. E.g., plum, rose, peach.
Epigynous flowers (Inferior ovary): In this, the
thalamus grows around the ovary fusing with its
wall. The other floral parts are present above the
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-29
ovary. Hence, the ovary is said to be inferior. E.g.,
flowers of guava and cucumber.
99. (b) In fabaceae family, flower is zygomorphic, imbricate
aestivation and polypetalous.
100. (c) Marginal placentation is a placentation with ovules
borne on the wall along the ventral suture of a simple
ovary. Gram, arhar, sunhemp, moong, pea & lupin belong
to Fabaceae family that bears marginal placentation.
101. (c) In roots, node and internodes are absent.
102. (c) The given floral formula in the question belongs to
the family fabaceae. This family was earlier called
Papilonoideae, a subfamily of family leguminosae.
103. (d) Root system generally grows beneath the ground
into the soil. Functions of root system are as follows:
– It provides great anchorage and support to the
plant. Huge trees such as mango, red wood stand
erect due to the root.
– The root hairs absorb nutrients, water and
oxygen from the soil and conduct them to the
upper parts of the plant.
– Some of the tap roots are specially modified for
storage of carbohydrates and water.
104. (b) Region of elongation lies above the region of
meristematic activity. Cells in this region undergo
rapid elongation and enlargement and are
responsible for the growth of the root in length.
105. (a) Region of maturation lies above the region of
elongation. The cells of the elongation zone gradually
differentiate and mature. Epidermal cells of this region
form delicate thread like root hair, which helps in the
absorption of water and minerals from the soil.
106. (b) X – embryo, Y – scutellum, C – radicle
The embryo is small and situated in a groove at one
end of the endosperm. It consists of one large and
shield shaped cotyledon known as scutellum and a
short axis with a plumule and a radicle.
107. (a) Calyx of the flower contains sepals which are green
in colour and look like leaf and protect the other
whorls of the flower. Corolla is present inside the
calyx and made up of petals. Petals are different in
color and shapes and protects the other whorls
present inside it. It attracts insects for pollination
due to its color. Androecium is present inside the
corolla and made up of stamens. Each stamen
contains filament, anther and a connective.
108. (d) The aleurone layer is the outermost layer of the
endosperm, followed by the inner starchy endosperm.
This layer of cells is sometimes referred to as the
peripheral endosperm. It lies between the pericarp
and the hyaline layer of the endosperm.
Cjãòvgt 6 : Apãvqïû qh Ènqygtkpé Rnãpvõ
1. (d) A group of structurally similar or dissimilar cells that
perform a common function and have a common
origin is called a tissue. A plant is made up of different
kinds of tissues. The complex tissues are, however,
composed of different kinds of cells and they perform
different types of functions.
2. (c) Apical, intercalary and lateral meristems are
differentiated on the basis of position. Apical meristem
is situated at the shoot apex and the root apex.
Intercalary meristem is present at the base of internodes,
e.g., in grasses or at the base of leaves e.g., in Pinus or
at the base of nodes, e.g., mint. Lateral meristems are
present along the lateral sides of stem and roots.
3. (d) Intercalary meristem develops between regions of
mature or permanent tissue (at the base of the grass
leaf). The cells of this tissue possess the ability to
divide and produce new cells, as do apical and lateral
meristems. Intercalary meristem helps the bamboo
and grasses to elongate.
4. (a) Lateral meristem divides only periclinally or radially
and is responsible for increase in girth or diameter. It
includes vascular cambium and cork-cambium.
5. (c) Divisions of cells in both primary as well as
secondary meristems, the newly formed cells become
structurally and functionally specialized and lose the
ability to divide. Such cells are termed as permanent
or mature cells and constitute the permanent tissues.
6. (a) The apical meristem, or growing tip, is a completely
undifferentiated meristematic tissue found in the
buds and growing tips of roots in plants. Its main
function is to begin growth of new cells in young
seedlings at the tips of roots and shoots (forming
buds, among other things). The apical meristem of
the root is present in all roots.
7. (b) Axillary buds are present in the axils of leaves and
are capable of forming a branch or a flower.
8. (c) Apical meristem is a completely undifferentiated
meristematic tissue found in the buds and growing
tips of roots in plants. Its main function is to begin
growth of new cells in young seedlings at the tips of
roots and shoots (forming buds, among other
things). The axillary bud is an embryonic shoot which
lies at the junction of the stem and petiole of a plant.
As the apical meristem grows and forms leaves, it
leaves behind a region of meristematic cells at the
node between the stem and the leaf.
9. (a) Collenchyma is living mechanical tissue, found
beneath the epidermis (i.e., hypodermis) of
herbaceous dicot stem.
The intercellular spaces in this tissue are absent
because in intercellular spaces at the corner of cells
thickenings of cellulose and pectin develop due to
which the cell wall become rigid and thick at corners.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-30 Biology
10. (b) Parenchyma is the commonest simple tissue. This is
the most primitive tissues from which other tissues
are evolved and hence also called as fundamental
tissue. The main function of parenchyma is storage
of food.
Photosynthesis, respiration, secretion, assimilation,
etc. are some of the important processes which occur
in parenchymatous cells.
11. (d) Sclerenchyma consists of long, narrow cells with thick
and lignified cell walls having a few or numerous
pits. They are usually dead and without protoplasts.
They are simple dead mechanical tissue occuring in
mature organs of plants body. They are chiefly
distributed in cortex, pericycle, xylem and phloem
region.
12. (c) The collenchyma occurs in layers below the
epidermis or outer layer of cells in young stems and
in leaf veins in dicotyledonous plants. Collenchyma
cells are elongated cells with irregularly thick cell
walls that provide support and structure. Their thick
cell walls are composed of the compounds cellulose
and pectin.
13. (a) Xylem is a complex permanent tissue mainly
responsible for conduction of water and minerals
from the roots to the top of plants (unidirectional).
14. (a) Bast fibres (phloem fibres) are sclerenchymatous
dead cells that provide mechanical strength. They
have thick wall with simple pits.
15. (a) The presence of vessels is a characteristic feature of
angiosperms. Vessels help in conduction of water
and dissolved salts form roots to the different parts
of the shoot and provides mechanical support.
16. (c) A mature sieve element possess a peripheral
cytoplasm and a large vacuole but lacks nucleus.
Sieve tube consists of row of cells arranged one
above the other to form long pipes. Sieve tube occurs
in angiosperms. The functions of sieve tubes are
controlled by the nucleus of companion cells.
17. (b) In roots, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and
metaxylem lies towards the centre. Such arrangement
of primary xylem is called exarch.
18. (c) The xylem and phloem strands alternate with each
other separated by parenchymatous cells. Such kinds
of vascular bundles are called radial and found mainly
in roots.
19. (b) Pericycle in roots is active in the formation of root
branches or lateral roots.
20. (a) The first formed primary xylem elements are called
protoxylem and the later formed primary xylem is
called metaxylem. In stems, the protoxylem lies
towards the centre (pith) and the metaxylem lies
towards the periphery of the organ. This type of
primary xylem is called endarch.
21. (b) Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is
distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by
position of cortex. Protoxylem is the first-formed xylem
developing from procambium and consisting of narrow
cells with annular, spiral, or scalariform wall thickenings.
22. (a) Intercalary meristems are derived from apical
meristems and separated from the same by permanent
cells. They are responsible for localised growth.
23. (c) In monocot leaves, the mesophyll cells are
undifferentiated.
24. (c) Lignin is the important constituent in the cell wall of
xylem. Xylem consists of four different types of
elements- tracheids, vessels, and xylem parenchyma
and xylem fibres. Wall of tracheids are highly
thickened by the deposition of lignin, except at
certain points called as pits.
25. (c) Heartwood differs from sapwood in having dead and
non-conducting elements. In old trees, the inner
region that comprises dead elements with highly
lignified walls is called heartwood. Heartwood does
not conduct water but gives mechanical support to
the stem. On the other hand, the peripheral region,
which is lighter in colour are called sapwood. It is
involved in the conduction of water and minerals
from root to leaf.
26. (b)
27. (c) By counting the number of annual rings at base
stem of a tree the age of the tree can be determined.
28. (c) Cork cambium and vascular cambium are lateral
meristem. Lateral meristems are responsible for
increase in thickness of the axis.
29. (b) Phellogen and phellem are respectively called as cork
cambium and cork. Phellogen is defined as the
meristematic cell layer responsible for the
development of the periderm. Cells that grow inwards
from the phellogen are termed phelloderm, and cells
that develop outwards are termed phellem or cork.
30. (b) Vascular cambium is located between the xylem and
the phloem in the stem and roots of a vascular plant,
and is the source of both the secondary xylem growth
(inwards, towards the pith) and the secondary
phloem growth (outwards).
31. (a) In hypodermis or outer cortical cells, a layer becomes
meristematic which is known as cork cambium or
phellogen. Phellogen cuts off cells on both sides.
The cells cut off on outer side are phellem or cork
cells and cells cut off on inner side are phelloderm or
secondary cortex.
32. (a) Lenticels are some loosely arranged areas in the
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-31
periderm formed due to rapid activity of phellogen.
Lenticels are characteristics of woody stem. They
help in gaseous exchange and transpiration.
33. (c) In monocotyledonous leaf, all the cells of mesophyll
are alike. Reticulate venation is absent. There is no
differentiation of mesophyll into palisade and spongy
parenchyma. Bulliform cells are present.
34. (a) Sclereids (stone cells) are sclerenchymatous cells
which are lignified, extremely thick walled so that the
lumen of the cells is almost obliterated. Sclereids are
most abundant in soft tissues like cortex, phloem,
medulla, fleshy fruits, seed coats and fruit walls.
35. (d) All the statements are correct regarding Bulliform or
motor cells. They are large, bubble-shaped, empty
colourless epidermal cells that occur in groups on
the upper surface of the leaves of many grasses.
Loss of turgor pressure in these cells causes leaves
to "roll up" during water stress.
36. (a) The end walls of sieve tube elements are perforated
in a sieve like manner to form the sieve plates. A
mature sieve element possesses a peripheral
cytoplasm and a large vacuole but lacks a nucleus.
37. (c) The stomatal aperture, guard cells and the
neighbouring (and encircling) cells is called a
stomatal complex or stomatal apparatus. Stomata
consist of an opening or stomatal pore, and two
kidney-shaped guard cells. The guard cells are used
for opening and closing the stomatal pore, in order
to regulate the evapotranspiration and gas exchange.
These guard cells are kidney shaped in dicot and
dumb-bell shaped in monocots. The epidermal cells
surrounding the guard cells are specialized and are
known as subsidiary cells or accessory cells. Stomata
are often more common on the lower leaf surfaces.
38. (b) Sclerenchyma is simple dead supportive tissue with
highly thick walled cells composed of cellulose or
lignin with little or no protoplasm. Collenchyma are
present beneath the epidermis of young stem, petiole
and midrib of leaves etc. in dicotyledonous plants.
Xylem parenchyma cells are living and this walled,
and their cell walls are made up of cellulose.
Companion cells are specialized parenchymatous
cell, which are closely associated with sieve tube
elements.
39. (c) Xylem is composed of four different kinds of
elements, namely, tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and
xylem parenchyma whereas companion cells are
present in phloem.
40. (d) All the statements are correct about epidermal tissue
system. It is the outer protective layer of cells of a
plant, which may be thickened by a cuticle. It
consists of epidermis and epidermal outgrowth.
Epidermis is the superficial layer covering the entire
surface of the primary plant body. All the epidermal
cells are living (parenchymatous) and contain
vacuolated protoplasm. Stomata are the structures
present in the epidermis of leaves. Epidermal
outgrowths are of two kinds- trichomes and
emergences.
41. (d) Xylem fibres have highly thickened walls and
obliterated central lumens whereas xylem
parenchyma are thinned wall and their cell walls are
made up of cellulose.
42. (c) The described statements are associated with the
phloem parenchyma. Phloem parenchyma is living
and has thin cell walls. These cells form the packing
tissue between all the other types of cells. These
cells stores compounds such as starch.
43. (b) It consists of simple tissues such as parenchyma,
collenchyma and sclerenchyma.
44. (d) The described statements are associated with
trichomes. Trichomes are hair-like outgrowth from
an epidermal cell of a plant, as a bristle, prickle, root
hair, etc. They are ephemeral or persistent and their
cell wall is made up of cellulose. Trichomes serve a
variety of functions on the basis of their location.
As root hairs (and as leaf hairs in epiphytes),
trichomes absorb water and minerals. As leaf hairs,
they reflect radiation, lower plant temperature, and
reduce water loss. They also provide defense against
insects.
45. (a) Phloem transports food materials, usually from leaves
to the other parts of the plant. The companion cells
are specialised parenchymatous cells which are
closely associated with sieve tube elements.
46. (a) All the statements describe the anatomy of
dicotyledonous root. Dicot root consists of a single
layer of epiblema which bears unicellular root hairs.
Endodermis is followed by one or more layers of
pericycle. Inner to pericycle lies radially arranged
vascular bundles. This arrangement keeps the xylem
bundles in direct contact with the outer tissue of the
roots which conduct water absorbed by root hairs
to the inside. Xylem is exarch.
47. (b) The abaxial epidermis bears more stomata than the
adaxial epidermis. Mesophyll has two types of cellsthe palisade parenchyma and the spongy
parenchyma.
48. (a) Statement (i) and (iii) are correct about heartwood/
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-32 Biology
Duramen.
Heartwood is the older, non-living central wood of a
tree or woody plant, usually darker and harder than
the younger sapwood. The heartwood does not
conduct water but it gives mechanical support to
the stem.
Sapwood is the peripheral region of the secondary
xylem. It is lighter in colour and involved in the
conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.
49. (c) The described statements are associated with spring
wood or early wood. Spring woods are the softer
more porous portion of an annual ring of wood that
develops early in the growing season. It consists of
large thin-walled xylem cells.
50. (d) All the given statements represent the anatomical
features of monocotyledonous stem. Monocot stem
is characterised by epidermis (2-3layered),
hypodermis and undifferentiated ground tissue stem.
Vascular strand is numerous and scattered. Vascular
bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed.
51. (d) Statements (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct.
(i) Uneven thickening of the cell wall is not the
characteristics of sclerenchyma.
(iv) A mature sieve elements are devoid of nucleus
at maturity.
52. (b) The first formed primary xylem elements are called
protoxylem and the later formed primary xylem is
called metaxylem. Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are made
up of sclerenchymatous cells.
53. (b) The given statements are associated with
sclerenchyma plant tissue. Sclerenchyma cells are
strengthening tissue in a plant, formed from cells
with thickened, typically lignified, walls. Such cells
occur in many different shapes and sizes, but two
main types occur: fibres and sclereids. Fibres are
greatly elongated cells whose long, tapering ends
interlock, thus providing maximum support to a plant.
They can be found almost anywhere in the plant
body, including the stem, the roots, and the vascular
bundles in leaves. Sclereids are extremely variable in
shape and are present in various tissues of the plant
such as the periderm, cortex, pith, xylem, and phloem.
54. (a) Secondary cortex is also called phelloderm. Cork
cambium. cork and secondary cortex are collectively
called periderm.
55. (d) Guard cells are specialized cells in the epidermis of
leaves, stems and other organs that are used to
control gas exchange. The guard cells are produced
in pairs with a gap between them that forms a stomatal
pore. Guard cells are dumbbell shaped in monocots
(e.g grasses) and bean shaped in dicots.
56. (a) Lenticels are raised pores in the stem of a woody
plant that allows gas exchange between the
atmosphere and the internal tissues. Parenchymatous
cells are usually present in cortex. The ground tissue
system is divided into three main zones- cortex,
pericycle and pith. The conjoint vascular bundles
usually have the phloem located only on the outer
side of the xylem.
57. (a) Root hairs - Helps absorbs water and minerals from
the soil.
58. (b) Fusiform initials are vertically elongated cells that
produce xylem and phloem elements.
Ray initial are isodiametric and produce
parenchymatous rays in secondary xylem and
phloem.
59. (a) The root apex and shoot apex are meristematic in
nature. These meristematic tissues are embryonic in
origin. It is primary in origin because it developes
from embryonic tissues. It is also primary in function
because it forms the primary structure of the plant
cell, the root apex and shoot apex, that live till the
death of the whole plant. Hence, plants have the
feature of indefinite growth.
60. (a) In woody trees, the central portion of stem is dark in
colour. It is hard and tough due to deposition of
resins, tannins, gums and formation of tyloses. This
central hard portion is called heart wood. It is formed
by secondary growth. Due to cambial activity
secondary xylem becomes non-functional and forms
heart wood or duramen. It is more durable and little
susceptible to attack of pathogens. The cambial
activity continues in this region.
61. (b) Vessels are more efficient for water conduction as
compared to tracheids. Vessels resemble tracheids
very much in structure and function. But unlike
tracheids these are like long tubes arranged in vertical
row formed of cylindrical cells arranged to end with
their end walls completely dissolved. These are also
dead and lignified.
62. (b) In isobilateral leaves, the upper epidermis contains
specialized cells, i.e., bulliform or motor cells. They
are highly vacuolate and can store water, if available. However, in case of water deficiency the
bulliform cells lose water and become flaccid. As a
result the leaf gets rolled up to reduce the exposed
surface. The bulliform cells are also useful in the
unrolling of leaf during its development.
63. (a) Sieve tubes are the conducting elements of phloem
(a vascular tissue which conducts organic food in
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-33
plant body) which are elongated tubular channels
formed by end to end union of numerous cells. The
septa between individual sieve tube cells or sieve
elements are bulged out. They are called sieve plates
possessing a number of perforations (sieve pores or
sieve pits) and helps in conduction of food.
64. (d) A - Xylem vessel: They are a long straight chain
made of tough long dead cells known as vessel elements or vessel members. They have a lignified cell
wall and a large central cavity. Vessel members are
interconnected through perforations in their common walls.
B - Xylem tracheids: Tracheid is an elongated,
tapering xylem cell having lignified, and pitted, intact
walls which lacks perforations in the cell wall.
Tracheids have pits where the cell wall is modified
into a thin membrane, across which water flows from
tracheid to tracheid.
C - Xylem fibres: They have highly thickened walls
and obliterated central lumens. They may either be
septate or aseptate.
D - Xylem parenchyma: These cells are living and
thin walled, and their cell walls are made up of
cellulose. They store food materials in the form of
starch or fat and other substances like tannins.
65. (d) A - Bulliform cells: They are large, bubble-shaped,
empty colourless epidermal cells that occur in groups
on the upper surface of the leaves of many grasses.
B - Pericycle: It is a thin layer of plant tissue between
the endodermis and the phloem. Initiation of lateral
roots and vascular cambium during the secondary
growth takes place in these cells.
C - Endarch xylem: When protoxylem lies towards
the centre (pith) and metaxylem lies towards the
periphery of the organ, it is called endarch xylem.
This type of xylem occurs in stems.
D - Exarch xylem: When protoxylem lies towards the
periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre, it
is called exarch xylem. This type of xylem occurs in
roots.
E - Bundle sheath cells: They are layer of cells in
plant leaves and stems that forms a sheath
surrounding the vascular bundles. These cells are
found in dicot leaf.
66. (b) A - Meristems: It is a region of plant tissue, found
chiefly at the growing tips of roots and shoots and
in the cambium, consisting of actively dividing cells
forming new tissue.
B - Parenchyma: It is the cellular tissue, typically
soft and succulent, found chiefly in the softer parts
of leaves, pulp of fruits, bark and pith of stems, etc.
It involves in photosynthesis, storage and secretion.
C - Collenchyma: They are simple, living and
mechanical tissue. They are present beneath the
epidermis of young stem, petiole and midrib of leaves
etc. It provides mechanical support to the growing
parts of the plant such as young stem and petiole of
a leaf.
D - Sclerenchyma: Sclerenchyma cells are the
principal supporting cells in plant tissues that have
ceased elongation. These are chiefly distributed in
cortex, pericycle, xylem and phloem region. Based
on the size and shape, sclerenchyma cells are of two
types- fibres and sclereid.
E - Epidermal tissue: It is the outer protective layer of
cells of a plant, which may be thickened by a cuticle.
It consists of epidermis and epidermal outgrowth.
Stomata are the structures present in the epidermis
of leaves.
67. (a) A - Cuticle: It is a protecting film covering the
epidermis of leaves, young shoots and other aerial
plant organs without periderm. It consists of lipid
and hydrocarbon polymers impregnated with wax,
and are synthesized exclusively by the epidermal
cells.
B - Bulliform cells: They are large, bubble-shaped,
empty colourless epidermal cells that occur in groups
on the upper surface of the leaves of many grasses.
Loss of turgor pressure in these cells causes leaves
to "roll up" during water stress.
C - Stomata: They are minute aperture structures on
plants found typically on the outer leaf skin layer,
also known as the epidermis. They consist of two
specialized cells, called guard cells that surround a
tiny pore called a stoma.
D - Epidermis: It is the outer layer of tissue in a plant,
except where it is replaced by periderm. It is a singlelayered group of cells that covers plants leaves,
flowers, roots and stems. It forms a boundary
between the plant and the external environment.
68. (d) A - Stomata: They are minute aperture structures on
plants found typically on the outer leaf skin layer,
also known as the epidermis. They consist of two
specialized cells, called guard cells that surround a
tiny pore called a stoma. It helps in transpiration and
gaseous exchange. Transpiration is the transport of
water through an actual, vegetated plant into the
atmosphere. Transpiration is an important part of
the evapotranspiration process, and a major
mechanism of the water cycle in the atmosphere.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-34 Biology
B - Bark: Bark is the outermost layers of stems and
roots of woody plants. Plants with bark include trees,
woody vines, and shrubs. Bark refers to all the
tissues outside of the vascular cambium. It serves
as protection of stem against damage from parasites,
herbivorous animals and diseases, as well as
dehydration and fire.
C - Cambium: It is a cellular plant tissue from which
phloem, xylem, or cork grows by division, resulting
(in woody plants) in secondary thickening.
D - Cuticle: It is a protecting film covering the
epidermis of leaves, young shoots and other aerial
plant organs without periderm. It consists of lipid
and hydrocarbon polymers impregnated with wax,
and are synthesized exclusively by the epidermal
cells. In addition to its function as permeability barrier
for water and other molecules (prevent water loss),
the micro and nano-structure of the cuticle confer
specialised surface properties that prevent
contamination of plant tissues with external water,
dirt and microorganisms.
69. (c) Spring wood is the part of an annual ring of wood,
characterized by large, thin-walled cells, formed
during the first part of the growing season. It is lighter
in colour with low density. It produces a larger
number of xylem elements having vessels with wider
cavities.
Autumn wood or late wood is the wood element
formed during winter when cambial activity is more.
It is darker in colour with high density. Wood
elements are lesser in amount and have narrow lumen.
70. (a) A - Stele: It is the central core of the stem and root of
a vascular plant, consisting of the vascular tissue
(xylem and phloem) and associated supporting tissue.
B - Endodermis: It is an inner layer of cells in the
cortex of a root and of some stems, surrounding a
vascular bundle.
C - Casparian strips: It is a band of cell wall material
deposited on the radial and transverse walls of the
endodermis, and is chemically different from the rest
of the cell wall - the cell wall being made of lignin and
without suberin - whereas the Casparian strip is made
of suberin and sometimes lignin.
D - Bark: Bark is the outermost layers of stems and
roots of woody plants. Plants with bark include trees,
woody vines, and shrubs.
71. (b) A - Fibres: Fibres are thick walled, elongated and
pointed cells, generally occurring in groups, in
various parts of the plants.
B - Sclereids: Sclereids is a thick-walled lignified
sclerenchyma cell. Sclereids are variable in shape
and are shorter than fibres.
C - Tracheids: Tracheids are the more ancient
tracheary elements, the main water conductive cells
of the pteridophytes and the gymnosperms. They
are elongate cells with tapering ends. Their cell walls
characteristically bear spiral (pteridiophytes), pitted
or bordered-pitted (gymnosperms) thickening. Water
moves from cell to cell through the side walls.
D - Vessels: Vessel is a long cylindrical tube like
structure made up of many cells called vessels
members.
E - Xylem parenchyma: Xylem parenchyma cells are
living and thin walled and their cell walls are made
up of cellulose. They store food materials in the form
of starch or fats and other substances like tannins.
72. (a) A: Lateral meristem is a meristem that is arranged
parallel to the sides of an organ and that is responsible
for increase in diameter of the organ. Fascicular
vascular cambium, interfascicular cambium and cork
cambium are the examples of lateral meristem.
B: Apical meristem is a completely undifferentiated
meristematic tissue found in the buds and growing
tips of roots in plants. Its main function is to begin
growth of new cells in young seedlings at the tips of
roots and shoots (forming buds, among other
things). During the formation of the primary plant
body, specific region of apical meristem produces
dermal tissue, ground tissue and vascular cambium.
C: Bast fibres or phloem fibres are made up of
sclerenchymatous cells. These are generally absent
in primary phloem but found in secondary phloem.
D: Sapwood is the peripheral region of the secondary
xylem. It is involved in the conduction of water and
minerals from root to leaf.
73. (c) In the given figure of root apical meristem, the part
marked as A, B and C is respectively cortex,
protoderm and root cap.
The apical meristem is a completely undifferentiated
meristematic tissue found in the buds and growing
tips of roots in plants. Its main function is to begin
growth of new cells in young seedlings at the tips of
roots and shoots (forming buds, among other
things).
74. (a) In the given figure of shoot apical meristem, the parts
marked as A, B and C are respectively leaf primordium;
shoot apical meristem and axillary bud (present in
the axils of leaf and are capable of forming a branch
or a flower). The shoot apical meristem is a population
of cells located at the tip of the shoot axis. It produces
lateral organs, stems tissues and regenerates itself.
75. (a) Figure A, B, C and D are respectively parenchyma,
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-35
collenchyma, sclerenchyma fibres and sclerenchyma
sclereid.
Parenchyma: It involves in photosynthesis, storage
and secretion. Collenchyma: It provides mechanical
support to the growing parts of the plant such as
young stem and petiole of a leaf. Sclerenchyma fibres:
It provides mechanical strength to various plant
organs and specialised to tolerate stress of bending,
sheering, compression and pull. Sclerenchyma
sclereid: It forms protective covering of testa in many
legume seeds.
76. (a) The given figures A (tracheid) and B (vessel) are
types of xylem (C). Xylem is the vascular tissue in
plants which conducts water and dissolved nutrients
upwards from the root and also helps to form the
woody element in the stem. It consists of tracheids,
vessels, parenchyma cells, and woody fibres.
Tracheid is an elongated, tapering xylem cell having
lignified, and pitted, intact walls which lacks
perforations in the cell wall. Tracheids have pits where
the cell wall is modified into a thin membrane, across
which water flows from tracheid to tracheid. The cells
die when mature, leaving only their lignified cell walls.
Tracheids are found in all vascular plants. It is
adapted for conduction and support.
Vessels are a long straight chain made of tough long
dead cells known as vessel elements or vessel
members. The vessel cells, devoid of protoplasm,
are arranged end to end and the cell walls have
disappeared. This makes a tube. They have a lignified
cell wall and a large central cavity.
77. (c) In the given fig. of phloem tissue A, B & C are
respectively sieve tube, phloem parenchyma and
campanion cells. Companion cells (c) are specialized
parenchymal cells adjacent to a sieve tube in the
phloem of flowering plants. It is beliveved to regulate
the flow of nutrients through the tube.
78. (d) Stomata are tiny pores, and composed of two bean
shaped epidermal cells called guard cells which
enclose stomatal pore.
Stomata are mostly present in epidermal layers of
leaves and in other aerial parts like young stems,
floral parts etc. Guard cells in dicots are kidney
shaped and in monocots are dumb bell shaped. The
guard cells may be surrounded by varying number
of specialized epidermal cells called subsidiary cells
or accessory cells.
79. (a) Vascular bundles (VBs) is a strand of conducting
vessels in the stem or leaves of a plant, typically
with phloem on the outside and xylem on the inside.
In the given figures A, B and C the types of vascular
bundles are respectively radial, conjoint closed and
conjoint open. When xylem and phloem are arranged
in the radius of the plant in alternative manner then it
is called radial vascular bundle. Radial VBs are always
closed and present in all types of roots. In conjoint
vascular bundle, xylem and phloem are situated at
the same radius of vascular bundles. Such VBs are
common in stems and leaves.
80. (c) In the given figure of T. S of monocot root, the part
marked as A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are respectively
root hairs, epiblema, cortex, endodermis, pericycle,
phloem, protoxylem, pith and metaxylem.
Monocot root do not undergo any secondary
growth. It consists of thin walled cells in the epiblema;
unicellular root hairs, passage cells and casparian
thickenings in the endodermis; parenchyma cells in
the pericycle; conjuctive tissue; distinct pith and
radial vascular bundles with polyarch condition and
an exarch xylem. Cuticle and stomata are absent.
81. (d) In the given figure of T.S of dicot root, the parts
marked as A, B, C, D, E and F are respectively cortex,
epiblema, pith, endodermis, root hairs and pericycle.
Dicot root consists of a single layer of epiblema which
bears unicellular root hairs. Endodermis is followed
by one or more layers of pericycle. Inner to pericycle
lies radially arranged vascular bundles. This
arrangement keeps the xylem bundles in direct
contact with the outer tissue of the roots which
conduct water absorbed by root hairs to the inside.
Xylem is exarch.
82. (b) In the given figure of dicot stem, the parts marked as
A, B,C, D, E, F, G, H and I are respectively epidermal
hair, epidermis, hypodermis, parenchyma,
endodermis, pericycle, vascular bundle, medullary
rays and medulla or pith. Dicot stems with primary
growth have pith in the centre, with vascular bundles
forming a distinct ring visible when the stem is
viewed in cross section. The outside of the stem is
covered with an epidermis, which is covered by a
waterproof cuticle. The epidermis also may contain
stomata for gas exchange and multicellular stem hairs
called trichomes. A cortex consisting of hypodermis
(collenchyma cells) and endodermis (starch
containing cells) is present above the pericycle and
vascular bundles. Inner to endodermis is present a
few layers of heterogenous pericycle. Vascular
bundles are conjoint, collateral and open. Medullary
rays are present in between vascular bundles.
Cambium helps in secondary growth.
83. (a) In the given figure of monocot stem, the structure
marked as A, B, C, D, E and F are respectively
epidermis, hypodermis, vascular bundle, phloem,
xylem and ground tissue. Monocot stem is
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-36 Biology
characterised by epidermis (2- 3 layered), hypodermis
and undifferentiated ground tissue stem. Vascular
strand is numerous and scattered. Vascular bundles
are conjoint, collateral and closed.
84. (b) In the given figure of dicot leaf, the part marked as A,
B, , D, E, F, G and H are respectively epidermis,
palisade mesophyll, spongy mesophyll, sub-stomal
cavity, stoma, phloem, xylem and bundle sheath.
Dicot leaf is characterised by upper and lower
epidermis, cuticle, mesophyll cells (present between
upper and lower epidermis) and vascular bundles.
Mesophyll possess chloroplast, is divided into
palisade and spongy parenchyma. Vascular bundles
are scattered in spongy parenchyma and the
vascular bundles in midrib region is largest. VBs are
conjoint, collateral and closed.
85. (a) In the given figure of monocot leaf, the structure
marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G are respectively
adaxial epidermis, xylem, mesophyll, sub-stomal
cavity, abaxial epidermis, stoma and phloem.
Monocot leaf (isobilateral) is somewhat similar to
dorsiventral leaf in having epidermis, cuticle, and
mesophyll cells. Stomata are present on the both
the surfaces of epidermis. Mesophyll cells are
undifferentiated into palisade and spongy
parenchyma. Vascular bundles are conjoint,
collateral, closed with phloem towards lower side
and xylem towards upper side.
86. (a) In the given figure of secondary growth of a dicot
stem, the parts marked as A, B, C, D, E and F are
respectively phellem, phellogen, medullary rays,
secondary xylem, secondary phloem and cambium
ring.
87. (d) Most of the cells of phellem are dead. But at some
places living cells are also found. Suberin is not
deposited in these places, These places are known
as Lenticels. Lenticels are certain loosely arranged
areas in the periderm formed due to rapid activity of
phellogen. Lenticels appears on the outer surface of
the plant either in small points or in the form of areas
of protruberance.
Usually they are formed below the stomata. These
cells are also known as complementary cells/
complementary tissue and helps in gaseous
exchange and transpiration.
88. (a) In the given figure of a typical dicot root, the marked
structure A, B, C and D are respectively primary
phloem, vascular cambium, secondary phloem and
primary xylem.
89. (c) Figure a, b, c and d are respectively collenchyma,
sclerenchyma, xylem tissues and parenchyma
tissues. Collenchyma, sclerenchyma and
parenchyma tissues are types of simple permanent
tissues. Figure c (xylem tissue) is a type of permanent
tissue having many different types of cell. Xylem is
one of the two types of transport tissue in vascular
plants, phloem being the other. The most distinctive
xylem cells are the long tracheary elements that
transport water. Tracheids and vessel elements are
distinguished by their shape; vessel elements are
shorter, and are connected together into long tubes
that are called vessels.
90. (c) Annual ring is a ring in the cross section of the stem
or root of a temperate woody plant, produced by
one year's growth. Trees at sea do not have annual
rings because there is no marked climatic variation.
In climates with well-marked alternations of seasons
(either cold and warm or wet and dry), the wood cells
produced when water is easily available and growth
is rapid (generally corresponding to the spring or
wet season) are often noticeably larger and have
thinner walls than those produced later in the season
when the supply of water has diminished and growth
is slower. There is thus a sharp contrast between the
small, thick-walled late-season wood cells produced
one year, and the large, thin-walled cells of the spring
wood of the following year results. Where the climate
is uniform and growth continuous, as in wet, tropical
forests, there is usually little or no gross visible
contrast between the annual rings, although
differences exist. When rings are conspicuous, they
may be counted in order to obtain a reasonably
accurate approximation of the age of the tree. They
are also reflective (by their range of thickness) of the
climatic and environmental factors that influence
growth rates.
91. (a) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
constitute the ground tissue. In leaves the ground
tissue consists of thin-walled chloroplast containing
cells called mesophyll cells that actively involve in
the process of photosynthesis.
92. (a) Potato is a stem tuber. When we peel the skin of a
potato tuber, we remove periderm. Periderm is the
corky outer layer of a plant stem formed in secondary
thickening or as a response to injury or infection.
93. (b) In most dicot stems and roots, secondary growth
occurs due to addition of secondary tissues
(secondary cortex, secondary phloem and secondary
xylem) formed by the activity of vascular cambium in
the stelar region inside pericycle and cork cambium
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-37
in the extrastelar regions (region outside pericycle
i.e., cortex)
94. (b) Intercalary meristem occurs between mature tissues
and is the separated region of apical meristem. It is
found in between the plant organs. By the activity
of this meristem, length of the plant organs increases.
95. (c) In a very old stem, the secondary xylem elements in
the inner part turn darker in colour and is called the
heartwood or duramen. It is very strong and durable
and imparts great amount of mechanical strength to
the stem. The sapwood or alburnum is the light
coloured peripheral part of the secondary xylem
consists of dead tracheids. Vessels and fibres are
some living cells. It helps in the conduction of water
and solutes.
96. (d) The trees growing in desert will not show distinct
annual rings because climatic variations (autumn and
spring seasons) are absent in deserts.
97. (b) Open means presence of cambium during secondary
growth. Vascular cambium divides to form secondary
xylem towards inner side while secondary phloem
towards outside.
98. (d) Primary meristems are those meristems which
originate from the embryonic meristem. They are
located at the tips of stems, roots and appendages.
Apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristem
because they appear early in life of a plant and
contribute to the formation of the primary plant body.
99. (c) Phloem is a conducting tissue that transports food
materials, usually from leaves to other part of the
plants. In phloem, sieve elements arranged one above
the other in distinct linear rows and have sieve plates
(oblique or transverse perforated septa) on their end
walls. These are associated with companion cells.
100. (c) Teak, mango and palm belong to angiosperms in
which presence of vessels is a characteristic feature.
Pine is a gymnosperm which lack vessels in their
xylem.
101. (d) Guard cells differ from epidermal cells in having
chloroplast. The cell wall of guard cells are not
uniform, inner walls are thicker than the outer walls,
epidermal cells are uniformly thin.
102. (b) Lateral meristem increases the width of plant organ
so it is responsible for secondary growth. Lateral
meristem includes vascular or cork cambium.
Lateral meristems are both primary and secondary in
origin (mostly secondary in origin). There are two
examples of primary lateral meristem :
(i) Marginal meristem : It occurs at the margin of
leaf. Its activity increases the width of leaf so
total growth of leaf is called intercalary marginal
growth.
(ii) Intra-fascicular cambium or fascicular
cambium: This cambium occurs inside the
vascular bundle. Except intrafascicular cambium
all cambia are secondary in origin.
103. (c) The periodical activity of the cambium, thus results
in distinct growth layers or rings of secondary xylem.
These are called growth rings. The growth rings of
spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year
constitute an annual ring.
104. (d) Vessel is a long cylindrical tube-like structure made
up of many cells called vessel-members, each with
lignified walls and a large central cavity. Vessel
members are interconnected through perforations in
their common walls. The presence of vessels is a
characteristic feature of angiosperms.
105. (d) The internal structure of a typical monocotyledon
root is similar to dicotyledon root. Number of xylem
bundles are more than six (polyarch) in
monocotyledon root (exceptionally the number of
xylem bundles are two to six in onion). Pith is well
developed in monocotyledon root. Monocot roots
do not undergo secondary growth.
106. (a) Plant tissues are broadly classified on the basis of
stages of development into two categories:
(i) Meristematic tissue - They have ability to divide.
(ii) Permanent tissue - They have lost the ability to
divide.
107. (c) In plant conducting tissue xylem has an important
integral cell as xylem vessel which is without nucleus.
The phloem on other hand has a row of sieve tubes
which are also without nucleus at maturity.
108. (d) Soft wood is non-porous, homoxylous
gymnospermic wood rich in tracheids and xylem
parenchyma, vessels and fibres are absent and resin
canals are present, e.g., Deodar (Cedrus), Pine (Pinus)
109. (b) Collenchyma is a type of simple tissue which occurs
in layers below the epidermis of dicotyledonous
plants. It consists of living usually elongated cells
with unevenly thickened walls (due to deposition of
cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin) and acts as
support especially in areas of primary growth. This
tissue provides mechanical support to the rowing
parts of the plants such as young stem and petiole
of a leaf.
110. (c) By observing the arrangements of vascular bundles,
the student will discover the nature of stem. If the
vascular bundles are arranged in a ring then it is a
dicot stem and if the vascular bundles are scattered,
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-38 Biology
then it is a monocot stem.
111. (b) Trichomes is a small hair or other outgrowth from
the epidermis of a plant stem, typically unicellular
and glandular. Trichomes that often cover the plant
body are the result of divisions of epidermal cells.
They may be branched or unbranched and soft or
stiff. The trichomes help in preventing water loss
due to transpiration. Transpiration is a process where
plants absorb water through the roots and then give
off water vapor through pores in their leaves.
Cjãòvgt 7 : Uvtwevwtãn Ñtéãpkõãvkqp kp Apkïãnõ
1. (d) Squamous epithelium is formed of thin discoidal and
polygonal cells that fit like tiles in a floor, so is also
called pavement epithelium. It is found in the walls
of blood vessels, in the alveoli of lung for exchange
of gases, and in Bowman’s capsule of nephron for
ultra filtration.
2. (b) Ciliated columnar epithelium is usually found in the
respiratory tract and fallopian tubes.
3. (c) Mast cell are a cell found in connective tissue that
contains numerous basophilic granules and release
substances such as heparin and histamine in
response to injury or inflammation of tissues.
4. (d) Basement membrane is a thin extracellular
supporting layer that separates a layer of epithelial
cells from the underlying lamina propria and is
composed of the basal lamina and reticular lamina
5. (d) Compound epithelium covers the dry surface of the
skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx,
inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and pancreatic
ducts.
6. (c) Gland is an organ in the human or animal body which
secretes particular chemical substances for use in
the body or for discharge into the surroundings.
7. (d) Plasmodesmata are narrow channels that act as
intercellular cytoplasmic bridges to facilitate
communication and transport of materials between
plant cells. Adhering, tight and gap junctions are
specialized junctions that provide both structural and
functional links between the individual cells of animal
tissues.
8. (d) A tendon is a fibrous connective tissue which
attaches skeletal muscle to bone. Tendons may also
attach muscles to structures such as eyeball. A
tendon help in the movement of bone or structure.
9. (c) Chondrocytes are the only cells found in cartilage. They
produce and maintain the cartilaginous matrix, which
consists mainly of collagen and proteoglycans. The
chondrocytes lie between the muscle dfibres. It is found
in the epiglottis (part of the larynx) and the pinnae (the
external ear flaps of many mammals including humans).
10. (c) Elastic cartilage or yellow cartilage is a type of
cartilage present in the outer ear, Eustachian tube
and epiglottis. It contains elastic fibre networks and
collagen fibres. The principal protein is in elastic
cartilage is elastin.
11. (c) Tendons, which attach skeletal muscles to bones
and ligaments which attach one bone to another are
examples of dense regular connective tissues in
which collagen fibres are present in rows between
many parallel bundles of fibres.
12. (b) Muscle tissue plays the vital role of providing
movement and heat generation to the organs of the
body. Muscle cells are specialized for contractility
and electrical conductivity.
13. (d) In all connective tissue except blood (a fluid
connective tissue), the cells secrete fibres of
structural proteins called collagen or elastin.
14. (b) A neuron (also known as a neurone or nerve cell) is
an electrically excitable cell that processes and
transmits information through electrical and chemical
signals. These signals between neurons occur via
synapses, specialized connections with other cells.
A typical neuron possesses a cell body (soma),
dendrites, and an axon.
15. (d) Cartilage is a type of connective tissue which is
present in human external ears, the nose tip, ribcage
joints, etc.
16. (d) Cells of smooth muscle tissue are spindle shaped
and pointed at their ends. Striations are absent due
to different arrangement of actin and myosin
filaments. Smooth muscle is the earliest form of muscle
to evolve.
17. (a) Cardiac muscles are involuntary, cross striated &
non-fatigued fibres. Cell junctions fuse the plasma
membranes of cardiac muscle cells and make them
stick together. Communication junctions
(intercalated discs) at some fusion points allow the
cells to contract as a unit, i.e., when one cell receives
a signal to contract, its neighbouring cells are also
stimulated to contract.
18. (d) Smooth muscle is an involuntary, spindle shaped,
uninucleated, tapering and non-striated muscle.
Smooth muscle is responsible for the contractility of
hollow organs, such as blood vessels, the
gastrointestinal tract, the bladder, or the uterus. Its
structure differs greatly from that of skeletal muscle,
although it can develop isometric force per crosssectional area which is equal to that of skeletal
muscle.
19. (b) Neurons forms the structural and functional unit of
nervous tissue. They are excitable cells. While the
neuroglial cells constitute the rest of the neural
system that protect and support neurons and are
non-excitable.
20. (d) Each neuron has an enlarged portion, the cell body
(perikaryon), containing the nucleus and from the
cell body extend several processes (dendrites)
through which impulses enter from their branches.
21. (d) Spermathecae are present in sixth, seventh, eighth
and nineth segments of the earthworm. They store
the sperms received from another earthworm during
copulation.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-39
22. (d) Except the first, the last and clitellar segment in each
segment bears a ring of tiny curved, chitinous
structure known as setae. Setae helps in locomotion
and copulation.
23. (d) In cockroaches, the development is paurometabolus,
which means development through nymphal stage.
The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to
reach the adult form.
24. (b) Cockroaches are usually brown or black.
Cockroaches belong to kingdom animalia, phylum
arthropoda, class insecta and order Blattaria. Some
species invade human dwellings and are considered
pests. Others are beneficial to the environment as
important recyclers of decayed organic material.
25. (d) Both the sexes of cockroach have anal cerci which
are jointed structures. But in the male, in addition,
there is a paired unjointed needle-like anal style, which
serve to distinguish between the male and the female.
26. (b) Testes are paired, 3-4 lobed, situated dorsolaterally
in the 4th, 5th, 6th abdominal segments.
27. (a) Grasshoppers, locusts and cockroaches have biting
and cutting type of mouth parts. The mouth parts of
mosquito are piercing and sucking type; and of housefly is siphoning type.
28. (b) The phallic organs (also called conglobate gland)
are related to male reproductive system of cockroach.
This organ is present below the utricular gland in
the 6th segment. It communicates with exterior by a
pore close to gonophore.
29. (b) Gizzard has an outer layer of thick circular muscles
and thick inner culicle forming six highly chitinous
plate called teeth. It helps in grinding food particles.
30. (a) The frog never drinks water but absorbs it through
the skin. The skin is always maintained in a moist
condition.
31. (b) Frog having a pair of forelimb and hindlimb is
appended to the trunk. The forelimb consists of the
proximal upper arm, the middle fore arm, wrist and a
hand bearing four fingers. The hindlimb consists of
proximal thigh, the middle shank, a long ankle and a
foot bearing five toes.
32. (d) Frog has different type of sense organs like organs
of touch (sensory papillae), taste (taste buds), smell
(nasal epithelium), vision (eyes) and hearing
(tympanum with internal ears).
33. (d) In cockroaches, males bear a pair of short, thread
like anal styles which are absent in females. In both
sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed
filamentous structures called anal cerci.
34. (d) Anal style is a pair of short, thread-like structure
present in males only. In both sexes, the 10th segment
bears of pair of jointed filamentous structures called
anal cerci.
35. (c) They are commonly found in ducts of glands and
tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys.
36. (d) Compound Epithelium consists of more than one
layer of cells. Only the cells of the deepest layer rest
on the basement membrane. Being multi-layered,
compound epithelia have little role in secretion or
absorption, but they provide protection to
underlying tissues against mechanical, chemical,
thermal or osmotic stresses. Compound epithelia may
be stratified or transitional.
37. (d) Muscle tissue is contractile tissue grouped into
coordinated systems for greater efficiency. In
humans the muscle systems are classified by gross
appearance and location of cells. The three types of
muscles are striated (or skeletal), cardiac, and smooth
(or non-striated).
38. (b) Neurons, the unit of neural system are excitable cells
while chondrocytes are cartilagenous cells.
39. (d) Female reproductive system consists of the large
ovaries, lying laterally in the 2nd–6th abdominal
segments. Each ovary is formed of a group of eight
ovarian tubules or ovarioles, containing a chain of
developing ova. A pair of spermatheca is present in
the 6th segment which opens into the genital chamber.
40. (d) A cell junction (or intercellular bridge) is a type of
structure that exists within the tissue of some
multicellular organisms, such as animals. Cell
junctions consist of multiprotein complexes that
provide contact between neighbouring cells or
between a cell and the extracellular matrix. There are
three major types of cell junctions: adherens
junctions, desmosomes and hemidesmosomes
(anchoring junctions); gap junctions (communicating
junction); tight junctions (occluding junctions).
41. (c) Crop is the part of foregut which is used for storing
of food.
42. (a) Squamous epithelium is an epithelium whose most
superficial layer consists of flat, scale-like cells called
squamous epithelial cells. The epithelium may be
composed of one layer of these cells, in which case
it is referred to as simple squamous epithelium or it
may possess multiple layers, referred to then as
stratified squamous epithelium.
43. (b) Connective tissue is a group of tissues in the body
that maintains the form of the body and its organs
and provides cohesion and internal support. The
connective tissues include several types of fibrous
tissue that vary only in their density and cellularity,
as well as the more specialized and recognizable
variants-bone, ligaments, tendons, cartilage, and
adipose (fat) tissue.
44. (d) Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue
located mainly beneath the skin. (For more refer
answer 66)
45. (b) All the given statements are associated with bone.
Bone is a rigid body tissue consisting of cells
embedded in an abundant, hard intercellular material.
This material consists of two important components
- collagen and calcium phosphate. It forms the major
portion of the human skeleton. Bone support and
protect the various organs of the body, produce red
and white blood cells, store minerals and also enable
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-40 Biology
mobility.
46. (b) The smooth muscle fibres are involuntary, taper at
both ends and do not show striation. The wall of
internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach
and intestine contains this type of muscle tissue.
47. (c) There are three ganglia lie in the thorax, and six in the
abdomen. Each eye consists of about 2000 hexagonal
ommatidia.
48. (c) In cokroach, respiratory system consists of a network
of trachea, that open through 10 pairs of small holes
called spiracles present on the lateral side of the body.
49. (d) Digestive system of cockroach is divided into -
foregut, midgut and hindgut. The mouth opens into
a short tubular pharynx which further opens into a
narrow tubular structure called oesophagus. The
oesophagus opens into a sac-like structure called
crop where food is stored. The crop is followed by
gizzard and proventriculus. The gizzard helps in
grinding the food particles. The entire foregut is lined
by cuticle. At the junction of foregut and midgut, a
ring of 6 - 8 blind tubules are present. These are
called gastric or hepatic cecae which secrete digestive
juice. The hindgut is broader than the midgut. The
hindgut is differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum.
The rectum opens through anus. Malpighian tubules
are the excretory organs which absorb nitrogenous
wastes and convert them into uric acid. Uric acid is
excreted out through the hindgut.
50. (c) Cockroaches absorb nitrogenous waste products
and convert them into uric acid which is excreted
out-through hindgut. Hence they called as uricotelic.
51. (c) Blood vascular system of cockroach is an open type.
They are dioecious and both sexes have well
developed reproductive organs.
52. (c)
53. (c)
54. (b) External ear are absent in frog and only tympanum
can be seen externally.
55. (d) Typhlosole is the characteristic feature of earthworm.
It can be defined as an extra flap of tissue or an
infolding along the inner wall of the intestine. The
typhlosole in earthworms increases the surface area
of the intestine for efficient secretion and absorption
during digestion.
56. (b)
57. (b) In all connective tissues except the cell secretes fibers
of structural proteins called collagen or elastin. The
fibres provide strength elasticity and flexibility to
the tissues.
58. (d) Mast cells secrete histamine are especially prevalent
in the connective tissue of skin and respiratory tract
and in surrounding blood vessels. Histamine is a
vasodilator and lower blood pressure. It is also
involved in allergic reactions.
59. (c) In each body segment of earthworm, except the first
last and clitellum, there are rows of S-shaped setae
embedded in the epidermal pits in the middle of each
segment. Their principle role in locomotion.
60. (a) The development of cockroaches is
paurometabolous which means development
through nymphal stage.
61. (a) Cardiac muscle cells are short cylindrical cells joined
end to end and by side branching to form a network.
Intercalat discs are the dense junctions formed in
between the cardiac muscle cells where they meet
each other. Intercalated discs are the specialised
regions of the cell membranes. As cardiac muscle
possesses considerable rhythmicity and generates
its own wave of excitation, these discs function as
boosters for muscle contraction wave.
62. (b) Cartilage comprises of mucopolysaccharide called
chondroctin sulphate. Bone is a hard connective
tissue. Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
63. (c) Cuboidal epithelium is a single layer of cube shaped
cells with a centrally located nucleus. Ciliated
epithelium is a type of bodily tissues that is lined
with "ciliated" cells, which are basically cells that
have small, hair-like protrusions known as "cilia" that
can either help the cells move along the tissue or can
help debris and waste move along the surface of the
cells. Columnar epithelial cells occur in one or more
layers. The cells are elongated and column-shaped.
The nuclei are elongated and are usually located near
the base of the cells. Squamous cells have the
appearance of thin, flat plates. The shape of the
nucleus usually corresponds to the cell form and
help to identify the type of epithelium. Keratinized
squamous epithelium consists of multiple layers of
squamous cells. The apical layer of cells are dead
and filled with the protein keratin.
64. (b) (Refer answer 63)
65. (c) Loose connective tissue (which includes areolar
tissue, reticular tissue, and adipose tissue) holds
organs in place and attaches epithelial tissue to other
underlying tissues. It also surrounds the blood
vessels and nerves. Cells called fibroblasts are widely
dispersed in this tissue. Dense regular tissue includes
tendons and ligaments. Tendon connects skeletal
muscle with a bone. Ligaments attach one bone to
another. Dense irregular tissue includes skin.
Specialized connective tissue includes cartilage,
bones and blood. Cartilage is a rubbery tissue made
by cells called chondroblasts. It does not have any
blood vessels within it so healing is not easy if it is
damaged and may not occur at all if the damage is
extensive enough. Bone is a rigid organ that
constitutes part of the vertebral skeleton. It support
and protect the various organs of the body, produce
red and white blood cells, store minerals and also
enable mobility. Blood delivers necessary
substances such as nutrients and oxygen to the cells
and transports metabolic waste products away.
66. (a)
67. (b)
68. (d) Cartilage is a soft skeletal tissue (a specialized
connective tissue) which forms the endoskeleton of
the vertebrates. It is a vascular and nutrient are
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-41
diffused through the matrix.
69. (c)
70. (a) 1 - A; 2 - B; 3 - C; 4 - D
71. (a) In the given structure of male reproductive system
of cockroach, the label marked as A to D are
respectively 8th sternum; anal cercus; 10th tergum
and anal style.
Anal style is a pair of short, thread-like present in
males. In both sexes, the 10th segment bears of pair
of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci.
72. (d) The given figure represents loose connective tissue
(areolar tissue). Loose connective tissue has cells and
fibres loosely arranged in a semi-fluid ground
substances, for example, areolar tissue present beneath
the skin. Often it serves as a support framework for
epithelium. It contains fibroblasts (cells that produce
and secrete fibres), macrophages and mast cells.
73. (a) The figure I & II represent dense regular and dense
irregular connective tissue respectively. In the dense
regular connective tissues, the collagen fibres are
present in rows between many parallel bundles of
fibres. Tendons and ligaments are example of this
tissue. Dense irregular connective tissue has
fibroblasts and many fibres (mostly collagen) that
are oriented differently. This tissue is present in the
skin.
74. (a) The given figure represents the image of cartilage.
Cartilage is an important structural component of
the body. It is a firm tissue but is softer and much
more flexible than bone. It is a connective tissue found
in joints between bones e.g. the elbows, knees and
ankles; ends of the ribs; between the vertebrae in
the spine; ears and nose; bronchial tubes or airways.
Cartilage is made up of specialized cells called
chondrocytes (B). These chondrocytes produce
large amounts of extracellular matrix composed of
collagen (A) fibres, proteoglycan, and elastin fibres.
There are no blood vessels in cartilage to supply the
chondrocytes with nutrients.
75. (c) A - Pronotum; B - Mesothorax; C - Metathorax;
D - Tegmina; E - Anal cerci
76. (b) A - Ocellus; B - Compound eye; C - Mandible;
D - Maxilla; E - Labrum; F - Labium.
77. (b) A - Crop; B - Gizzard; C - Hepatic cecae; D -
Malpighian tubule
Crop is a sac-like structure which store food. The
crop is followed by gizzard and proventriculus. The
gizzard has an outer layer of thick circular muscles
and thick inner cuticle; forming six highly chitinous
plate called teeth. Food particles are ground in the
gizzard. At the junction of foregut and midgut, a
ring of 6 - 8 blind tubules are present. These are
called gastric or hepatic cecae and secrete digestive
juice. Malpighian tubules are the excretory organs
which absorb nitrogenous wastes and convert them
into uric acid. Uric acid is excreted out through the
hindgut.
78. (c) Alary muscles (structure marked as C) are located in
pairs in the chambers of cockroach heart. They are
13 pairs of wing shaped involuntary muscles which
expand and contract to facilitate the flow of
haemolymph through the heart.
79. (a) A - Spermatheca; B - Collaterial gland;
C - Gonapophyses
80. (b) The figure represents the image of adipose tissue.
Adipose is a loose connective tissue that fills up
space between organs and tissues and provides
structural and metabolic support. It is part of the
nutrient glue that holds us all together. Adipose
tissue is often referred to as fat.
81. (b) The given figures A, B and C are skeletal muscle,
smooth muscle and cardiac muscle respectively. Skeletal
muscle fibres occur in muscles which are attached to
the skeleton. They are striated in appearance and are
under voluntary control. Smooth muscle fibres are
located in walls of hollow visceral organs, except the
heart, appear spindle-shaped, and are also under
involuntary control. Cardiac muscle cells are located in
the walls of the heart, appear striated, and are under
involuntary control.
82. (d) Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th
segments. They produce blood cells and
haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma.
Blood cells are phagocytic in nature.
Lateral hearts are present in 7th and 9th segments
and connects dorsal blood vessel with ventral blood
vessel. The Nephridia is an organ which occurs in
pairs and performs a function similar to the vertebrate
kidney. Nephridia remove metabolic wastes from an
animal's body.
83. (c) In the given figure the marked label 1, 2, 3 and 4 are
oesophagus, crop, gizzard and malpighian tubules.
Gizzard is a short muscular organ which is used for
grinding food.
84. (a) The given figure shows the image of areolar tissue, a
type of loose connective tissue. Loose connective
tissue (which includes areolar tissue, reticular tissue,
and adipose tissue) is the most common type of
connective tissue in vertebrates. It holds organs in
place and attaches epithelial tissue to other
underlying tissues. It also surrounds the blood
vessels and nerves. Areolar tissues are present
beneath the skin and serve as a support framework
for epithelium. It contains fibroblast, macrophages,
collagen fibres and mast cells.
85. (d) Tissue 1 is columnar cells bearing cilia and tissue 2
is multicellular glandular epithelium.
Ciliated columnar epithelial cells possess fine hairlike outgrowths, cilia on their free surfaces. These
cilia are capable of rapid, rhythmic, wavelike beatings
in a certain direction. This movement of the cilia in a
certain direction causes the mucus, which is secreted
by the goblet cells, to move (flow or stream) in that
direction. Ciliated epithelium is usually found in the
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-42 Biology
air passages like the nose. It is also found in the
uterus and fallopian tubes of females. Columnar
epithelium with goblet cells is called glandular
epithelium. Some parts of the glandular epithelium
consist of such a large number of goblet cells that
there are only a few normal epithelial cells left.
86. (d) Label 3 and 4 are respectively genital chamber and
vestibulum which is collectively called genital pouch.
87. (d) Without respiration, no animal can survive.
Cockroach is not as simple as Hydra where oxygen
can diffuse directly into the cells. There is a system
of tubes in cockroach, the tracheal system, with the
help of which oxygen goes directly into the tissues
by intracellular capillary system.
88. (b) If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still alive for
as long as one week, because the head holds a bit of
a nervous system while the rest is situated along te
ventral part of the body.
89. (c) Ligaments attach a bone with another bone in
movable/synovial joints. Broken or cut ligaments
make movement at joints very painful and restricted.
90. (b) Neurons are the basic structural and functional units
of the nervous system. Neurons are least likely to be
replaced by new cells as they have least regeneration
power.
91. (c) The head is triangular in shape which lies anteriorly
at right angles to the longitudinal body axis. The
head is formed by the fusion of six segments. The
flexible neck facilitates movement in all directions.
92. (b) The development of cockroach is paurometabolous
meaning that their development is through nymphal
stage. The nymphs look very much like adults. The
nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach
adult form. The last nymphal stage has wingpads
while adult cockroaches have wings.
93. (c) In cockroach, oesophagus opens into a sac-like
structure called crop (used for storing of food). Crop
followed by gizzard that helps in grinding the food
particles. A ring of 6-8 blind tubules (called hepatic
of gastric caecae) is present at the junction of foregut
and midgut, which secrete digestive juice.
Malpighian tubules, present at the junction of midgut
and hindgut helps in the removal of excretory
products. Hindgut is differentiated into ileum, colon
and rectum. The rectum opens out through anus.
94. (c) Epithelial tissue covers the body surface, or lines
the body cavity. The cells rest upon a non-cellular
basement membrane which is secreted by epithelial
cells. It is not nourished by blood, so nonvascularized.
95. (b) On the basis of the mode of pouring of secretion,
gland are divided into – (a) exocrine, and (b)
endocrine glands.
Exocrine glands secrete mucus, saliva, oil, digestive
enzymes and other cell products. These products
are released through ducts or tubes. In contrast,
endocrine glands do not have ducts. Their products
called hormones are secreted directly into the fluid
bathing the gland.
96. (b) Due to the lack of blood vessels, cartilage grows
and repairs more slowly than other tissues.
97. (a) Cardiac muscle cells or cardiac myocytes are the
muscle cells (myocytes) that make up the cardiac
muscle. When these cells are damaged by a heart
attack, they are usually replaced by connective
muscle cells.
98. (d) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the human
body. In the dense regular connective tissues, the
collagen fibres are present in rows between many
parallel bundles of fibres. Tendons, which attach
skeletal muscles to bones are example of this tissue.
99. (b) Bone marrow is the flexible tissue in the interior of
bones. In humans, red blood cells are produced by
cores of bone marrow in the heads of long bones in
a process known as haematopoiesis. Bone marrow
is also a key component of the lymphatic system,
producing the lymphocytes that support the body's
immune system.
100. (d) Loose connective tissue is a category of connective
tissue which includes areolar tissue, reticular tissue,
and adipose tissue. It holds organs in place and
attaches epithelial tissue to other underlying tissues.
101. (a) The neuroglial cells are non-excitable cells that
protect and support neurons.
102. (d) Hair is a protein filament that grows from follicles
found in the dermis or skin. While hair is growing
beneath the epidermis, its outer covering is soft. Once
it goes past the epidermis, the outside layer hardens
into keratin. Inside the follicle, the hair is growing
and is “connected” to blood vessels and nerves.
Outside the skin, the hair is essentially dead.
103. (d) Cell junctions come across most frequently in the
preparation of ciliated epithelium. A cell junction is a
structure within a tissue of a multicellular organism.
Cell junctions are especially abundant in epithelial
tissues. They consist of protein complexes and
provide contact between neighbouring cells,
between a cell and the extracellular matrix, or they
built up the paracellular barrier of epithelia and control
the paracellular transport.
104. (c) The columnar epithelium is composed of a single
layer of tall and slender cells. Their free surface have
microvilli found in the lining of stomach and intestine
and help in secretion and absorption.
105. (c) Connective tissue fills the spaces between organs
and tissues, and provides structural and metabolic
support for other tissues and organs. The three basic
components of connective tissue are cells, protein
fibres and ground matrix.
106. (b) Columnar epithelium is an epithelium consisting of
one or more layers of elongated cells of cylindrical
or prismatic shape. Columnar epithelial cells resemble
elongated boxes. They have oval nuclei that usually
are situated in the lower part of the cell. The cells are
closely joined together and rest on a basement
membrane, known as the basal lamina. Some cells
have tiny hair-like structures known as cilia on their
upper surfaces. These tiny fronds beat in unison to
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-43
waft particles across the cell surface. Columnar cells
with cilia can be found in the respiratory tracts. Other
cells have minute finger-like projections called
microvilli. These help to increase the surface area
available for absorption and can be found in the lining
of the intestines.
107. (c) Sensory system of earthworm does not have eyes
but does possess light and touch sensitive organs
(receptor cells) to distinguish the light intensities
and to feel the vibrations in the ground.
108. (b) The given specimen shows the characteristics of
earthworm (Pheretima). An earthworm is a tubeshaped, segmented worm commonly found living in
soil that feeds on live and dead organic matter.
"Earthworm" is the common name for the largest
members of oligochaeta in the phylum annelida.
109. (a) Frog maintains ecological balance because these
serve as an important link of food chain and food
web in the ecosystem.
Cjãòvgt 8 : Cgnn : Vjg ×pkv qh Îkhg
1. (b) Rudolf Virchow (1855) first explained that cells
divided and new cells are formed from pre-existing
cells (omnis cellula-e-cellula). It is also know as law
of cell lineage.
2. (b) Ribosome is sub-spherical granular structure which
is devoid of any covering membrane.
3 (b) The prokaryotic cells do not have nuclear membrane
while eukaryotic cell have well organized nuclear
membrane.
4 (b) In some prokaryotes like cyanobacteria or Blue-Green
algae, there are other membranous extensions in the
cytoplasm called chromatophores.
5. (a)
6. (c) Several ribosomes may attach to a single mRNA and
forms a chain called polysomes. The ribosomes of a
polysome translate the mRNA into proteins.
7. (d) Integral proteins occur inside the lipid bilayer
passing to its diferent depths. Some intrinsic proteins
run throughout the thickness of the membrane. They
are called transmembrane proteins.
8. (b) An energy dependent process, in which ATP is
utilised is called an active transport.
e.g., Na+ / K+ Pump.
9. (b) The ratio of protein and lipids varies considerably in
different cell types. The membrane of the erythrocytes
has approximately 52% of proteins and 40% lipids.
10. (b) The lipid component of the membrane is mainly
consists of phosphoglycerides. Phosphoglyceride
are glycerol-based phospholipids and main
component of biological membranes. Each
glycerophospholipid molecule consists of a small
polar head group and two long hydrophobic chains.
11. (a) RBC (red blood cell) of the human is the best material
for the study of structure of cell membrane. Chemical
studies on the RBC cell membrane enabled the
scientists to infer the possible structure of plasma
membrane. The plasma membrane of the RBC
consists of a complex, well-ordered group of lipids
and proteins stretched over the outer surface of the
cell in the form of a lipid bilayer punctuated by
penetrating or attached proteins. This membrane has
numerous properties that arise in part from specialized
interactions between specific membrane proteins or
lipids, or both.
12. (c) Middle lamella is the cementing layer between the
cells. It is made up of Ca and Mg pectates.
13. (a) Plasmodesmata is an effective transport pathway
present between two adjacent cells. They are
microscopic channels which traverse the cell walls
of plant cells and some algal cells, enabling transport
and communication between them.
14. (b) Cell wall is a very tough, flexible and rigid layer that
surrounds the cell membrane. Cell wall determines
the shape of the cells and provides a strong structural
support to prevent the bacterium from bursting or
collapsing.
15. (b) The endomembrane system includes endoplasmic
reticulum, golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles.
16. (b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is found
throughout the cell but its density is higher near the
nucleus and the Golgi apparatus. Ribosomes present
on the rough endoplasmic reticulum are called
'membrane bound' and are responsible for the
assembly of many proteins (in a process called
translation (a step in protein synthesis).
17. (d) Endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes are the cell
organelles which were discovered after the
introduction of electron microscope.
18. (c) The Golgi apparatus (also known as the Golgi complex,
Golgi body) is an organelle, identified in 1897 by the
Italian physician Camillo Golgi and named after him in
1898. Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation
of glycoproteins and glycolipids. It functions as a
factory in which proteins received from the ER are
further processed and sorted for transport to their
ultimate endpoints: lysosomes, the plasma membrane.
19. (a) Golgi apparatus principally performs the function of
packaging material to be delivered either to the intra
– cellular targets or secreted outside the cell.
20. (d) Lysosomes are originated by golgi complex and
contain many hydrolytic enzymes (hydrolases –
lipases, proteases, carbohydrases) which are
optically active at the acidic pH.
21. (a) Contractile vacuole is a sub-cellular structure
(or organelle) which is found primarily in protists
(for eg, Amoeba) and unicellular algae. Contractile
vacuole is responsible for excretion and
osmoregulation. It absorbs excess water and wastes
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-44 Biology
from a microorganism's cell and excretes them into
the environment by contracting. Contractile
vacuoles function in a periodic cycle by expanding
while collecting water and contracting to release the
water.
22. (b) The mitochondrion is a double membrane-bound
organelle found in most eukaryotic cells. It contains
outer and inner membranes composed of
phospholipid bilayers and proteins. The two
membranes have different properties. Because of this
double-membrane organization, there are five distinct
parts to a mitochondrion- the outer mitochondrial
membrane, the intermembrane space (the space
between the outer and inner membranes), the inner
mitochondrial membrane, the cristae space (formed
by infolding's of the inner membrane), and the matrix
(space within the inner membrane). Mitochondria are
also called as the power house of the cell.
23. (d) Plastids are found in all plant cells and in euglenoides.
24. (a) Elaioplasts are a type of leucoplast that is specialized
for the storage of lipids in plants. Elaioplasts house
oil body deposits as rounded plastoglobuli, which
are essentially fat droplets.
25. (c) Grana is a stacked membranous structure within the
chloroplasts of plants and green algae that contains
the chlorophyll (green pigment). It is the site of the
light reactions of photosynthesis. The sac-like
membranes that make up grana are known as
thylakoids.
26. (a) Microtubules are the largest cytoskeletal filaments
in cells and found throughout the cytoplasm. They
are filamentous intracellular structures that are
responsible for various kinds of movements in all
eukaryotic cells. They are involved in nucleic and
cell division, organization of intracellular structure,
and intracellular transport, as well as ciliary and
flagellar motility. They are formed by the
polymerization of a dimer of two globular proteins,
alpha and beta tubulin.
27. (d) The cytoskeleton is a series of intercellular proteins
that help a cell with shape, mechanical support, and
movement. Cytoskeleton has three main structural
components: microfilaments, intermediate filaments,
and microtubules.
28. (c) Axoneme with 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement occurs in
cilia and flagella. Cilia are hair like growths of the cell
membrane. Flagella are comparatively longer and
responsible for movement. The axoneme usually has nine
pair of centrally located microtubules. Such an arrangement
of axonemal microtubules is referred to as the 9 + 2 array.
29. (d) Microtubular organization and type of movement
differentiates prokaryotic flagella or eukaryotic flagella.
30. (b) Basal body is a short cylindrical array of
microtubules. It is formed from a centriole and
associated with the formation of cilia and flagella. It
is located at the base of eukaryotic cilia and flagella,
which is a continuation of the 9 outer-axonemal
microtubule doublets, but with the addition of a C
tubule to form a centriole-like triplet. Basal bodies
may be self-replicating and serve as a nucleating
centre for axonemal assembly, which are anchored in
the cytoplasm by rootlets.
31. (b) A centriole is a barrel - shaped cell structure found in
most animal eukaryotic cells, though absent in higher
plants and most fungi.
32. (b) Nucleolus is a small rounded body within a resting
nucleus that contains RNA and proteins. It is usually
associated with a specific chromosomal site and
involved in ribosomal RNA synthesis and the
formation of ribosomes.
33. (a) Satellite is a small chromosomal segment separated
from the main body of the chromosome by a
secondary constriction. In humans it is usually
associated with the short arm of an acrocentric
chromosome. They play a vital role in the formation
of the nucleolus after cell division. In humans,
chromosomes number 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22 are
examples of SAT (satellite) chromosomes.
34. (a) Centromeres consist of a complex combination of
proteins and DNA. They are essential to the division
and ensure the accurate segregation of
chromosomes. Metacentric chromosomes have the
centromere in the centre, such that both sections are
of equal length. Human chromosome 1 and 3 are
metacentric.
35. (b) Vacuole is a membrane bound organelle, found in both
animal and plant cells but are much larger in plant
cells. Vacuoles are essentially enclosed compartments
which are filled with water containing inorganic and
organic molecules including enzymes in solution,
vacuoles might store food or any variety of nutrients
a cell might need to survive. They can even store
waste products so the rest of the cell is protected
from contamination.
36. (a) Ribosomes are about 15 nm by 20 nm in size.
37. (a) Protein synthesis is the process by which amino acids
are linearly arranged into proteins through the
involvement of ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA,
messenger RNA, and various enzymes. In animal cells,
protein synthesis occurs on ribosomes present in
cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria.
38. (b) The quasi-fluid nature of lipid enable lateral movement
of proteins within the overall bilayer. This ability to
move within the membrane is measured as its fluidity.
39. (d) In some prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, there are
membranous extensions into the cytoplasm called
chromatophores which contain pigments.
40. (b) Mitochondria divide by fission.
41. (d) Nerve cells are the longest cells of the body.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-45
42. (b) Prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes, each consisting of
a small (30S) and a large (50S) subunit. Polyribosomes
(or polysomes) are a cluster of ribosomes, bound to a
mRNA molecule in translation during the process of
protein synthesis. It was first discovered and
characterized by Jonathan Warner, Paul Knopf, and
Alex Rich in 1963. Polysomes indicate the synthesis
of identical polypeptide in multiple copies.
43. (d) All the given statements are related to Schwann
Theodor. Schwann was a German physiologist. His
contributions to biology include the development
of cell theory, the discovery of Schwann cells in the
peripheral nervous system, the discovery and study
of pepsin, the discovery of the organic nature of
yeast, and the invention of the term metabolism.
44. (a) All the statements are correct.
45. (b) All the given statements regarding cilia and flagella
are correct.
46. (d) All the given function is related to cell wall. Cell wall
is a very tough, flexible and fairly rigid layer that
surrounds some types of cells. It surrounds the cell
membrane and provides these cells with structural
support and protection. It also acts as a filtering
mechanism.
47. (c) The vacuole is bound by a single membrane called
tonoplast.
48. (a) The centrioles occur in nearly all animal cells, but
absent in plant cells with few exceptions such as
zoospores of algae, sperm cells of ferns, and motile
algae. Middle lamella is a thin, amorphous and
cementing layer between two adjacent cells. It is
made up of pectates of calcium and magnesium.
49. (a) Endomembrance system is a grouping of some
membrane organelles which function in close
coordination with one another, viz., endoplasmic
reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles.
50. (c) In bacteria, a sticky, gelatinous material called
glycocalyx collects outside the cell wall to form an
additional surface layer. Glycocalyx covering of the
bacterial cell may be loose, thin sheath or thick and
tough coat. Loose glycocalyx covering is termed slime
layer while tough and thick type is known as capsule.
51. (a) The special membranous structure formed by the
extension of prokaryotic plasma membrane is known
as mesosome while polysome is structure formed by
combination of many ribosomes.
SER is the major site of synthesis of lipids. The site
of protein synthesis is RER.
52. (d) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct. The
endomembrane system include endoplasmic
reticulum (ER), golgi complex, lysosomes and
vacuoles. Since the functions of the mitochondria,
chloroplast and peroxisomes are not coordinated with
the above components, these are not considered as
part of the endomembrane system. The mitochondrial
matrix possesses single circular DNA molecule, a few
RNA molecule, ribosomes (70S) and the components
required for the synthesis of proteins.
53. (d) The given characters are related to cell organelle -
vacuole. Vacuole is a membrane bound organelle,
found in both animal and plant cells but are much
larger in plant cells. Vacuoles are essentially enclosed
compartments which are filled with water containing
inorganic and organic molecules including enzymes
in solution, though in certain cases they may contain
solids which have been engulfed. Vacuoles might
store food or any variety of nutrients a cell might
need to survive. They can even store waste products
so the rest of the cell is protected from contamination.
54. (d) All the functions described are performed by Golgi
apparatus.
The Golgi apparatus is an organelle found in most
eukaryotic cells. It was identified in 1897 by the Italian
physician Camillo Golgi and named after him in 1898.
Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of
glycoproteins and glycolipids.
55. (a) In animal cells lipid like steroidal hormones are
synthesized in SER. In plant cells, the vacuoles can
occupy up to 90% of the volume of the cell.
Chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments are responsible
for trapping light energy essential for
photosynthesis.
56. (a) The centrosome (occur only in animals cells) is the
main place where cell microtubules get organized.
Centrosome usually contains two cylindrical
structures called centrioles. Centrioles are composed
of groupings of microtubules arranged in a 9 + 3 pattern.
The pattern is so named because a ring of nine
microtubule "triplets" are arranged at right angles to
one another. Centrioles, found in animal cells, help to
organize the assembly of microtubules during cell
division. Centrioles replicate during the interphase
stage of mitosis and meiosis.
57. (c) Cells vary greatly in their shape. They may be disclike, polygonal, columnar, cuboid, thread like, or even
irregular. The shape of the cell may vary with the
function they perform e.g., xylem vessels are long as
they have to form long water conducting channels.
58. (b) Middle lamella is a thin, amorphous and cementing
layer between the primary walls of two adjacent cells.
Middle lamella is the first layer which is formed from
cell plate between newly formed daughter cells at
the time of cytokinesis. Middle lamella is absent on
the outer side of surface cells. It it made up of calcium
and magnesium pectates.
59. (d) Based on the position of the centromere, the
chromosomes can be classified into four types:
metacentric (centromere middle), sub-metacentric
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-46 Biology
(centromere slightly away from middle), acrocentric
(centromere close to end) and telocentric (terminal
centromere). The metacentric chromosome has
middle centromere forming two equal arms of the
chromosome. In acrocentric chromosome the
centromere is situated close to its end forming one
extremely short and one very long arm.
60. (b) The structure of cell membrane was proposed by
Singer and Nicolson (1972) widely accepted as fluid
mosaic model. According to this, the quasi-fluid
nature of liped enables lateral movement of proteins
within the overall bilayer. This ability to move within
the membrane is measured as its fluidity. The fluid
nature of the membrane is important for functions
like cell growth, formation of intercellular junctions,
secretion, endocytosis, cell division etc.
61. (b) Pili and fimbriae are non motile appendages that are
out growths of membrane. Pili are present in F+
bacteria and are used to transport F factor (fertility
factor) from F+
bacteria to F–
bacteria during
conjugation.
62. (d) Plant cells have cell wall to couuteract turgor
pressure (T.P) by exerting exactly equal and opposite
wall pressure. Wall pressure stops entry of water
into plant cells beyond a certain limit thus prevents
their bursting.
63. (a) Tonoplast is a membrane separating a vacoule from
the surrounding cytoplasm in a plant cell. It controls
ionic movement in and around the cell. Contractile
vacuole is a sub-cellular structure found in unicellular
algae. It absorbs excess water and wastes from a
microorganism’s cell and excretes them into the
environment. Food vaculole is a membrane-unclosed
cell vacuole with a digestive function. It contains
material taken up in by the process of phagocytosis.
Air vacuole is a small cavity or space in the tissues.
It stores metabolic gases.
64. (a) Metacentric chromosomes have the centromere in
the centre, such that both sections are of equal
length. Human chromosome 1 and 3 are metacentric.
Sub metacentric chromosomes are a chromosome
with the centromere so placed that it divides the
chromosome into two arms of strikingly unequal
length.
Acrocentric chromosomes have a centromere which
is located almost near the tip leading to one very
long and one very short section. Human
chromosomes 13, 15, 21, and 22 are acrocentric.
Telocentric chromosomes have centromere which is
located at the terminal end. Telomeres may extend
from both ends of the chromosome. Humans do not
possess telocentric chromosomes.
65. (a) SER (smooth endoplasmic reticulum) found in both
animal cells and plant cells, makes cellular products
like hormones and lipids. It also distributes those
products throughout the cell and to other places in
the organism.
Golgi apparatus is also involved in the transport of
lipids around the cell, and the creation of lysosomes.
Cristae are the infoldings or inward projections of
the inner membrane of the mitochondrion, which are
studded with proteins and increase the surface area
for chemical reactions to occur like cellular
respiration.
Peroxisome is a small organelle present in the
cytoplasm of many cells, which contains the reducing
enzyme catalase and usually some oxidases. This
organelle is involved in photorespiration.
Elaioplasts, a type of leucoplast, is specialized for
the storage of lipids in plants. Elaioplasts house oil
body deposits as rounded plastoglobuli, which are
essentially fat droplets.
66. (a) Leeuwenhoek – He is commonly known as "the
Father of Microbiology", and considered to be the
first microbiologist. First saw and described a living
cell.
Robert Brown was a Scottish botanist and palaeobotanist
who made important contributions nucleus and
cytoplasmic streaming.
Schleiden was a German botanist and co-founder of
the cell theory, along with Theodor Schwann and
Rudolf Virchow. He discovered that all plants are
composed of different kind of cells.
Schwann - He discovered that presence of cell wall
is unique to plant cells.
67. (b) Viruses – 0.02 - 0.2 micrometre
PPLO ( Pleuro Pneumonia like Organisms) – About
0.1 micrometre
Eukaryotic cells – 10-20 micrometre
Bacterium – 1-2 micrometre
68. (c) Mitochondria are double membrane cell organelles
with the outer membrane and inner membrane.
Lysosomes are a single membrane bound vesicular
structure. It contains many hydrolytic enzymes and
commonly called as suicidal bag of the cells.
Ribosome is a granular structure, without membrane.
It consists of RNA and proteins and is the protein
builders or the protein synthesizers of the cell.
69. (a) Golgi apparatus is a cellular organelle which is
involved in in the modifying, sorting and packaging
of proteins for secretion. Mitochondria are known
as the power house of the cell as they are the site of
chemical reactions that transfer energy from organic
compounds in ATP. Vacuole is a membrane bound
organelle and filled with water containing inorganic
and organic molecules including enzymes in solution.
Vacuoles might store food or any variety of nutrients
a cell might need to survive. Grana are a stacked
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-47
membranous structure within the chloroplasts of
plants and green algae that contains the chlorophyll
and is the site of the light reactions of
photosynthesis.
70. (a) RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum) bears ribosomes
on their surface. RER is involved in protein synthesis
and secretion. Cell wall is a characteristic feature of
plant cell, bacteria, fungi, algae and some archaea.
The major function of the cell wall is to provide
rigidity, tensile strength, structural support,
protection against mechanical stress and infection.
Flagella are a slender thread-like structure, especially
a microscopic whip-like appendage which enables
many protozoa, bacteria, spermatozoa, etc. to swim.
It is responsible for cell movement. Lysosome is a
single membrane bound vesicular structure and
contains many hydrolytic enzymes. It is commonly
called as suicidal bag of the cells and involved in
intracellular and extracellular digestion.
71. (b) Mycoplasma cells are bacteria without walls.
Plasmid is a genetic structure in a cell that can replicate
independently of the chromosomes. It is typically a
small circular DNA strand in the cytoplasm of a
bacterium or protozoan are saclike membranes that make
up grana in a chloroplast.
Lysosomes are a single membrane bound vesicular
structure. It contains many hydrolytic enzymes and
commonly called as suicidal bag of the cells. It is
involved in intracellular and extracellular digestion.
72. (c) Pair A is correct.
Centrioles – It is composed mainly of a protein called
tubulin.
Lysosomes – It stores hydrolytic enzymes.
Amyloplasts – They are responsible for the synthesis
and storage of starch granules, through the
polymerization of glucose.
Elaioplasts – It stores oil and fats.
Aleuroplasts – It stores proteins.
73. (b) Protein synthesis takes place in ribosomes, which are
attached to surface of endoplasmic reticulum by
ribophorin-I and ribophorin-II. About 50 hydrolytic
enzymes are found in the lysosome. They include
proteases, nucleases, glycosidases, lipases,
phospholipases, phosphatases and sulphatases. All
lysosomal enzymes are acid hydrolases and optimally
active at pH-5.0.
74. (b) Pili are orgonelles of adhesion allowing bacteria to
colonize and resist flushing.
75. (b) Elaioplasts are colourless plastids which store lipids.
Chromoplasts are yellow or reddish in colour because
of the presence of carotenoid pigments. Chloroplasts
are the most common type of plastids and are of
prime biological importance as they contain
chlorophyll and provide food to all organisms
through photosynthesis.
76. (b) Plasmodesmata are cytoplasmic bridges between two
adjacent cells which connect the neighbouring cells.
77. (d) Amyloplasts store carbohydrates (starch), e.g.,
potato whereas proteins are stored by aleuroplasts.
Chlorophyll pigments are presents in the thylakoid.
78. (c) Centrioles serve as basal bodies for cilia and flagella.
They are concerned with spindle formation during
cell division. Lysosomes are membrane-bound
organelles containing many hydrolytic enzymes,
which are optimally active at an acid pH (near pH
5). Thylakoids are membrane-bound organelles
found within chloroplasts. The thylakoid membrane,
forms many flattened, fluid-filled tubules that
enclose a single convoluted compartment. These
tubules tend to stack on top of each other to form a
structure called a granum.
79. (a) Centriole is a non-membrane bound organelle which
helps in cell division. It is composed mainly of a
protein called tubulin. Fimbria is a special structure
of bacteria. It is small bristle like fibres sprouting out
of the cell and help bacterias to attach with rocks in
stream and also to host tissue. Endomembrane
system includes those organelles (like ER, golgi body,
lysosome, vacuole) whose functions are coordinated.
Mitochondria are a double membrane cell organelle
which divide by fission and site of aerobic
respiration.
80. (c) Mesosome is special structure, formed by the
extensions of plasma membrane. It helps in the
formation of cell wall, DNA replication and
distribution to daughter cells. They also help in
respiration, secretion processes, to increase the
surface area of the plasma membrane and enzymatic
content. It is the characteristics of prokaryotes.
81. (a) In the given figure of cilia/flagella, the marked part
as A, B, C and D are respectively plasma membrane,
interdoublet bridge, central microtubule, and radial
spoke.
82. (a) The figures (A, B, C and D) are respectively
telocentric chromosomes, acrocentric chromosomes,
sub metacentric chromosomes and metacentric
chromosomes. These chromosomes are classified on
the basis of location of centromere.
83. (b) In the given diagram of chloroplast, the parts marked
as A, B, C and D are respectively granum, thylakoid,
stromal lamella and stroma.
Granum is a stacked membranous structure that
contains the chlorophyll and is the site of the light
reactions of photosynthesis. Thylakoids are saclike
membranes that make up grana. Stromal lamella are
the extensions that run from one granum, through
the stroma, into a neighbouring granum.The space
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-48 Biology
between the inner membrane and the thylakoid
membrane is filled with stroma, a matrix containing
dissolved enzymes, starch granules, and copies of
the chloroplast genome.
84. (a) In the given diagram of mitochondria, the structure
marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively outer
membrane, inner membrane, matrix (space within the
inner membrane), intermembrane space (the space
between the outer and inner membranes) and crista
(formed by infolding's of the inner membrane).
Mitochondria are a membrane-bound organelle
found in most eukaryotic cells and also called as the
power house of the cell.
85. (a) In the given diagram of endoplasmic reticulum, the
components marked as A, B, C, D and E are
respectively nucleus (viii), rough endoplasmic
reticulum (v), ribosomes (vii), cytoplasm (iii) and
smooth endoplasmic reticulum (iv).
Endoplasmic reticulum is a network of membranous
tubules within the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell,
continuous with the nuclear membrane. It usually
has ribosomes attached and is involved in protein
and lipid synthesis.
86. (a) In the given figure of plant cell, the structure marked
as A, B, C, D and E are respectively plasmodesmata,
rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus,
mitochondrion and ribosomes.
Plant cells are eukaryotic cell and have certain
distinguishing features, including chloroplasts
(Photosynthesis takes place) cell walls (allow plants
to have strong, upright structures) and intracellular
vacuoles (help regulate how cells handle water and
storage of other molecules).
87. (a) The given diagram shows the fluid mosaic model of
cell membrane. In the diagram the components marked
as A, B, C, D and E are respectively (i) sugar, (ii)
protein, (iii) lipid bilayer, (iv) integral proteins, and
(v) cytoplasm. The fluid mosaic model was devised
by SJ Singer and GL Nicolson in 1972, describes the
cell membrane as a two-dimensional liquid in which
phospholipid and protein molecules diffuse easily.
88. (c) The given cell organelle is Golgi body. Golgi
apparatus is found in most eukaryotic cells. It was
identified in 1897 by the Italian physician Camillo
Golgi and named after him in 1898. Functions as a
factory in which proteins received from the ER are
further processed and sorted for transport to their
eventual destinations: lysosomes, the plasma
membrane, or secretion.
89. (b) The figure shows the structure of metacentric (C)
chromosomes. The parts marked as A and B are
respectively are satellite and secondary constriction.
Metacentric chromosomes have the centromere in
the centre, due to which both sections are of equal
length. Human chromosome 1 and 3 are metacentric.
90. (b) The mitochondrial inner membrane forms infoldings
known as cristae, which allow greater surface area
for protein such as cytochrome to function properly
and efficiently.
91. (c) The given figure shows the structure RER (rough
endoplasmic reticulum). RER is involved in protein
synthesis and responsible for the assembly of many
proteins (in a process called translation).
92. (b) In fig., (A) shows the cell organelle mitochondria.
The mitochondria are bounded by two membranes,
i.e., outer membrane and inner membrane.
Mitochondria are referred as “power house” of the
cell as they produce 95% of ATP. This energy is
produced during the breakdown of food molecules
which involve glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation
and oxidative phosphorylation (Krebs cycle and
respiratory chain).
93. (d) Cell 1 is a bacterial cell and cell 2 is a plant cell. Cell
wall and ribosomes are present in both plant and
bacterial cells. Nucleus is not present in the bacterial
cells.
94. (c) The cellular structure Y (nucleus) helps in transfer
of genetic material from one generation to another.
Nucleus is a dense organelle present in most
eukaryotic cells, typically a single rounded structure
bounded by a double membrane, containing the
genetic material.
95. (a) The cell membrane (marked as X) helps control entry
and exit of substances into the cell. Nucleus passes
the information from the parent cell to the new cell. It
is also called the control center of the cell. A cell wall
is the tough, rigid layer present outside of the plant
cell. It provides structural support and protection to
the cell. Chloroplast occurs in the plant cells and
contains chlorophyll that helps the cell in making
food.
96. (a) Microtubules occur in the cytoplasm of all eukaryotic
cells. Besides cytoplasm, microtubules occur in many
specialized cellular structures like cilia, flagella, basal
bodies, centrioles, astral rays, spindle apparatus,
chromosome fibres etc.
97. (c) Bacteria and blue green algae are unicellular
organisms which are devoid of membrane bound
nucleus and organelles. Golgi apparatus is membrane
bound organelle absent in prokaryotes.
98. (c) In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy upto 90
percent of the volume of the cell. The vacuole is
bound by a single membrane called tonoplast.
99. (d) Cell wall is a characteristic feature to cells of plants,
bacteria, fungi, algae and some archaea. It is located
outside the cell membrane. The major function of the
cell wall is to provide rigidity, tensile strength,
structural support, protection against mechanical
stress and infection. It also help in diffusion of gases
in and out of the cell. Gametes, Amoeba and
Mycoplasma lack cell wall.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-49
100. (a) Lysosomes are membrane-enclosed organelles and
consist of hydrolytic enzymes which capable of
breaking down all types of biological polymers (like
proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids).
If lysosomes get ruptured in a cell, the cell dies due
to release of hydrolytic enzymes which destroys the
cells.
101. (c) Cell sap is a non-living fluid manufactured by the
cytoplasm of the living plant cell. It consists of water
and various substances that are often in the form of
a colloidal suspension. The cell sap adds osmotic
properties and turgor of the cell, according to the
elasticity of plant tissues and organs. It also serves
as a receptacle for the water and various substances
that participate in cell metabolism and as a place for
the deposit of the end products of metabolism.
102. (a) The concept of membrane fluidity refer to the fact
that both lipids and proteins may have considerable
freedom of lateral movements within the bilayer. The
fluidity of membranes in a plant in cold weather may
be maintained by increasing the number of
phospholipids with unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.
103. (d) Mitochondria are present in the living eukaryotic
cells and absent in prokaryotic cells like bacteria and
blue-green algae. This organelle is known as the
powerhouse of the cell as they are the site of chemical
reactions that transfer energy from organic
compounds in the form of ATP.
104. (c) Simple diffusion is a process in which plasma
membrane does not require any carrier molecule to
pass small non- charged molecules or lipid soluble
molecules between the phospholipids to enter or leave
the cell. The particles move from areas of high
concentration to areas of low concentration (they
move down their concentration gradient). Oxygen and
carbon dioxide and most lipids enter and leave cells
by simple diffusion.
105. (c) Vacuole is a non - living reservoir, bounded by a
selectively permeable membrane, the tonoplast. It is
not a air filled cavity but it is filled with a highly
concentrated solution called vascular sap or cell sap.
pH of vacuolar cell sap is acidic and hypertonic.
106. (c) Cell organelles like ribosomes and nucleolus lack the
unit membrane. Ribosomes are found individually in
the cytoplasm and also line the membranes of the
rough endoplasmic reticulum. It is composed of RNA
and ribosomal protein. Nucleolus is a part of nucleus
and characterized by the absence of limiting
membrane, presence of chromatin and granules and
fibrils of RNA and proteins.
107. (d) Endoplasmic reticulum bearing ribosomes on their
surface is called rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
RER is involved in protein synthesis and are
responsible for the assembly of many proteins (in a
process called translation).
108. (d) Active transport is the transport of ions or molecules
against a concentration gradient and it requires
energy to do so. That energy does not always have
to be directly supplied in the form of ATP.
109. (c) The cytoskeleton supports the cell and allows
movement of the entire cell and microtubules, motor
proteins and actin filaments are part of the
cytoskeleton.
110. (d) We can eliminate bacteria because they lack
organelles completely. Of the organelles listed the
only unique one is the chloroplast, which is found
exclusively in plants.
111. (a) The only definitive characteristic listed the presence
or absence of a nucleus.
112. (d) This connection allows material produced in the
nucleus to directly enter the ER via the nuclear pores.
113. (b) The pellet is undergoing cellular respiration, a
function that occurs in the mitochondria. You can
also assume that the single membrane of the cell
itself is ruptured, other single membrane-bound
organelles would be ruptured as well.
114. (c) Part in sample A and B are respectively mitochondria
and chloroplast. They were called as semiautonomous organelles because they are capable of
synthesis of their own proteins and contain their
own DNA; within the cell they are partially
dependent upon cellular metabolism.
115. (a) The samples belong to eukaryotic cells because
eukaryotic cell is a type of cell which have enclosed
membrane bound organelles and nucleus. And both
the mitochondria and chloroplast are membrane
bound organelles. Whereas prokaryotic cells are
morphologically the most primitive cells and they
don't have a membrane bound nucleus and
organelles. Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller in
size and multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic
cells.
116. (b) The cell wall protects the cell, maintains its shape
and provides supports and strength to it. Nucleus
controls the cell's activities. Chloroplast is a cell
organelle that makes food for the plant cell. The cell
membrane holds the parts of the cell together and
also separates the cell from its surroundings.
117. (a) Cell theory explains the general principles of
construction for all living things by focusing on
studying the working of cells. The use of
microscopes to study cell was in practice way before
the cell theory was formulated.
Cjãòvgt 9 : Bkqïqngewngõ
1. (c) In order to study the various biomolecules found in
living tissues, the living tissues are ground in
trichloroacetic acid using a mortar and a pestle to
form a thick soup. It is then strained to obtain
two fractions : acid soluble and acid insoluble
fraction. Chemicals present in both the fractions are
further separated by various analytical techniques
and identified.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-50 Biology
2. (a) Biomolecules are organic compounds normally
present as essential components of living organisms.
3. (d) Glutamic acid and aspartic acid are acidic amino acid
because they bear one amino acid group and two
carboxylic group. Lysine is a basic amino acid.
4. (d) Aromatic amino acid possess cyclic structure with a
straight side chain bearing carboxylic and amino
group. Valine is a neutral amino acid. It contains equal
number of amino and carboxylic groups.
5. (a) Arginine, lysine and histidine are basic amino acids
with two amino groups and one carboxylic group.
Arginine is the most and histidine is the least basic
amino acid.
6. (a) Glycine is the simplest amino acid with lowest
molecular weight. The side chain in glycine is
represented by
H (Hydrogen) atom (not alkyl group). Due to 2-
opposite H-atoms, this amino acid is symmetrical or
achiral. All other amino acids are assymetrical or chiral,
and can exist as D- and L-stereoisomers.
7. (b) Zwitterion is a neutral molecule with a positive and a
negative electrical charge, though multiple positive
and negative charges can be present. Amino acids
are the best known examples of zwitterions.
8. (d) Saturated fatty acids do not have any double bond
while unsaturated fatty acids have one or more
double bonds.
9. (d) Essential fatty acid are some polyunsaturated acid
which can not be synthesized in the animal body.
Therefore it must be supplied with food to avoid
their deficiency. Linoleic acid, linolenic acid and
arachidonic acids are some examples of essential fatty
acids.
10. (d) Phospholipids are composed of phosphate group and
one or more fatty acids. They have hydrophilic (polar)
phosphate group and long hydrophobic (non-polar)
hydrocarbon ‘tails’. The phospholipids readily form
membrane like structure in water.
11. (b) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane compound and has
three hydroxyl groups that are responsible for its
solubility in water and its hygroscopic nature. It is a
colourless, odourless, viscous liquid that is widely
used in pharmaceutical formulations.
12. (b) Fat is a group of natural esters of glycerol and various
fatty acids, which are solid at room temperature and
are the main constituents of animal and vegetable
fat.
13. (a) Lecithin is a choline containing phospholipid.
14. (c) A nucleotide is a compound made of a nitrogen base,
a pentose sugar and phosphate all linked together
by a covalent bond. Nucleosides are compounds
formed from a nitrogen base and pentose sugar.
15. (a) DNA and RNA are made up of nucleic acids. They
are the vehicles of genetic inheritance. Building
blocks of nucleic acids are called nucleotides. Each
nucleotide consists of three parts: a sugar (ribose
for RNA and deoxyribose for DNA), a phosphate,
and a nitrogenous base. These nucleotides linked
together with covalent bonds to form a sugarphosphate backbone with extended nitrogenous
bases.
16. (c) Inulin is a heterogeneous collection of fructose
polymers. It consists of glucosyl moiety and fructosyl
moiety, which are linked by b (2, 1) bonds. It is a
soluble dietary fibre which is a naturally occurring
oligosaccharide belonging to a group of
carbohydrates known as fructans. Unlike most
carbohydrates, inulin is non-digestible.
Inulin is naturally present in many different foods
such as asparagus, leek, onions, banana, wheat and
garlic. Higher concentrations exist in herbs.
17. (b) Proteins are polypeptide. A polypeptide is formed
of a linear row of amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
This constitutes the primary structure (1°).
18. (a) The collagen is the most abundant protein of animal
world.
19. (a) Quaternary structure is found only in multimeric
protein. In quaternary structure, more than one
polypeptide chains are involved to form a large
multiunit protein. e.g., haemoglobin.
20. (c) Glycosidic bonds are bonds established between
aldose or ketose group of carbohydrate with
alcoholic or nitrogen group of another organic
compound.Two amino acid molecules can be
covalently joined through a substituted amide
linkage, termed a peptide bond.
21. (b) Turn over number is the number of substrate
molecules which can be catalyzed by a single
molecule of an enzyme in a unit time. Turnover number
of enzyme is dependent on active site, rapidity of
reaction and separation of end products.
22. (c) The concentration of substrate at which velocity of
enzymatic action reaches half of its maximum value,
is called Km value or Michaelis Menten constant.
23. (b) A ribozyme is an RNA molecule that catalyzes a
chemical reactions, similar to the action of protein
enzymes.
24. (c) Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by end
product. Feedback inhibition occurs when the end
product of a reaction interferes with the enzyme that
helped produce it. The inhibitor does this by binding
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-51
to a second active binding site that's different from
the one attached to the initial reactant. The enzyme
then changes its shape and can't catalyze the reaction
anymore. This type of inhibition is done as a
regulatory mechanism to meet the metabolic needs
of the cell or organisms.
25. (d) Coenzyme is a non-proteinaceous organic substance
that usually contains a vitamin or mineral and
combines with a specific protein, the apoenzyme, to
form an active enzyme system.
26. (a) Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme which consists
of a protein part called apoenzyme and a non-protein
called cofactor. Coenzyme are also organic
compounds but their association with apoenzyme
is only transient and acts as cofactors.
27. (d) Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at high
temperature and high pressure. Inorganic catalysts
speed up reactions, but they do not have carbonhydrogen atoms. An example of this is magnesium
sulphate, which is a compound used to speed up
some reactions in the chemistry lab.
28. (c) Amino acids are the building blocks proteins. Amino
acid can be classified on the basis of characteristics
of their side chains.
29. (b) Lipid molecules are insoluble in water because lipid
molecules are hydrophobic, but they are readily
soluble in nonpolar organic solvents like chloroform
and benzene.
30. (c) Lysine is a basic amino acid.
31. (b) A protein is a heteropolymer and not a homopolymer.
32. (c) Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect.
Chitin is a structural heteropolysaccharide found in
the fungal walls as fungus cellulose and as chitin in
the exoskeloton of arthropods.
Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal world
while RuBisCo is the most abundant protein in the
whole of the biosphere.
In a polysaccharide, the individual mono-saccharides
are linked by a glycosidic bond. Phosphodiester
bonds help in polymerization of nucleotides to form
polynucleotide.
33. (a) Chitin is a long-chain polymer of a Nacetylglucosamine, a derivative of glucose. It is a
characteristic component of the cell walls of fungi,
exoskeletons of arthropods such as crustaceans (e.g.,
crabs, lobsters and shrimps) and insects, the radulae
of molluscs, and the beaks and internal shells of
cephalopods, including squid and octopuses.
34. (c) Abrin and ricin are toxin secondary metabolities. The
secondary metabolities which are used as drugs are
vinblastin, curcumin, etc.
35. (c) Almost all enzymes are proteins. Certain RNAs have
also been reported to have enzyme property. They
are called ribozymes or RNA enzymes. No enzyme
exists which is made up of lipid.
36. (a) Coenzymes are organic non-protein molecules that
bind with the protein molecule (apoenzyme) to form
the active enzyme (holoenzyme). They function as
intermediate carriers of electrons, specific atoms or
functional groups that are transferred in the overall
reaction. Every coenzyme is a cofactor is not a
coenzyme.
37. (d) Nitrogen bases are heterocyclic compounds. Length
of one turn of DNA is 34Å.
38. (c) Starch can hold iodine (I2
) molecules in its helical
secondary structure but cellulose being non helical,
can not hold I2
. Thus, cellulose does not shows blue
colour when treated with I2
.
39. (c) Enzymes are biological molecules (proteins) that act
as catalysts and help complex reactions occur.
Enzymes bind temporarily to one or more of the
reactants the substrate(s) of the reaction they
catalyze by lowering the amount of activation energy
needed and thus speed up the reaction.
40. (b) The correct sequence of the steps in catalytic cycle
of an enzyme actions is : iv, iii, ii, i.
41. (d) 42. (a)
43. (c) Prosthetic group is an organic substances which is
dialyzable, thermostable and firmly attached to the
protein or apoenzyme portion during the complete
catalytic cycle. Apoenzyme is a protein that forms
an active enzyme system by combination with a
coenzyme and determines the specificity of this
system for a substrate.
44. (b) In polysaccharides, individual monosaccharide is
linked by glycosidic bond. This bond is formed
between two carbon atoms of two adjacent
monosaccharides. A glycosidic bond is a type of
covalent bond that joins a carbohydrate (sugar)
molecule to another group, which may or may not be
another carbohydrate. Glycosidic bonds are formed
by dehydration.
45. (d) Essential amino acids are those which are taken from
food and not synthesized in the body whereas nonessential amino acids need not be supplied in the diet
and are synthesized in the body. Glycine, serine and
tyrosine are non-essential amino acids.
46. (c) Compound having double bond in their structure are
more unstable compound in comparison to single
bond holder compounds. Unsaturated fats those have
double bonds in their structures are more reactive
than saturated fats.
47. (c) In a DNA molecule, A-T rich parts melt before G-C
rich parts because there are two H-bond between A
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-52 Biology
and T whereas in between G and C, there are three Hbond.
48. (c) Non-essential amino acids are those amino acids
which need not be supplied in the diet because they
can be synthesised by the body, particularly from
carbohydrate metabolites, Glycine is one such non
essential amino acid. On the contrary, essential amino
acids are those amino acids which can not be
synthesised in the animal body and must be supplied
with food in adequate amounts. Out of twenty amino
acids, eight are considered essential in human diet.
49. (b) Palmitic acid is a solid saturated fatty acid, obtained
from palm oil and other vegetable and animal fats.
Lecithin is a group of phospholipids. It is composed
of units of choline, phosphoric acid, fatty acids, and
glycerol. It occurs in animal and plant tissues and
egg yolk, Phospholipids are fat derivatives in which
one fatty acid has been replaced by a phosphate
group and one of several nitrogen-containing
molecules. Tryptophan is an example of aromatic
amino acids. It is an essential amino acid which is a
constituent of most proteins. It is a precursor of the
neurotransmitter serotonin, melatonin, a hormone
related to sleep, and the B vitamin niacin. Tryptophan
is also necessary for normal growth and development
of infants. Glutamic acid is a non- essential acidic
amino acid. The carboxylate anions and salts of
glutamic acid are known as glutamates. Glutamate is
an important neurotransmitter that plays the principal
role in neural activation.
50. (a) Insulin is a type of carbohydrate. Basically it is a
peptide hormone produced by beta cells of pancreas.
It regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates and
fats by promoting the absorption of glucose from
the blood to skeletal muscles and fat tissue and by
causing fat to be stored rather than used for energy.
Trypsin is an proteinaceous enzyme which is found
in the digestive system where it hydrolyses proteins.
It is produced in the pancreas as the inactive protease
trypsinogen.
Adenylic acid is a nucleic acid. It is a compound
consisting of an adenosine molecule bonded to one
acidic phosphate group. It is present in most DNA
and RNA. It typically exists in a cyclic form with the
phosphate bonded to the nucleoside at two points.
Cholesterol is a sterol (or modified steroid), a lipid
molecule. It is biosynthesized by all animal cells
because it is an essential structural component of
cell membranes that is required to maintain both
membrane structural integrity and fluidity.
Cholesterol enables animal cells to (a) not need a cell
wall (like plants & bacteria) to protect membrane
integrity/cell-viability and thus be able to (b) change
shape and (c) move about (unlike bacteria and plant
cells which are restricted by their cell walls).
51. (a) Collagen is a class of extracellular proteins abundant
in higher animals. They are specially found in the
skin, bone, cartilage, tendon, and teeth, forming
strong insoluble fibres. It serves as connective tissue
between cells, yielding gelatin when denatured by
boiling and Trypsin is an enzyme found in the
digestive system of many vertebrates, where it
hydrolyses proteins. It is produced in the pancreas
as the inactive protease trypsinogen. Insulin is a
pancreatic hormone which regulates the metabolism
of carbohydrates and fats by promoting the
absorption of glucose from the blood to skeletal
muscles and fat tissue and by causing fat to be stored
rather than used for energy. GLUT – 4, also known
as glucose transporter type 4, is a protein that in
humans is encoded by the GLUT4 gene. GLUT4 is
the insulin-regulated glucose transporter found
primarily in adipose tissues and striated muscle
(skeletal and cardiac). The first evidence for this
distinct glucose transport protein was provided by
David James in 1988. The gene that encodes GLUT4
was cloned and mapped in 1989.
52. (b) A – II, B – V, C – I, D – III, E – IV
Component % of the total
cellular mass
A Water II 70 – 90
B Proteins V 10-15
C Carbohydrates I 3
D Lipids III 2
E Nucleic acid IV 5-7
53. (a) Carotenoids and anthocyanin are types of pigments.
Carotenoids are naturally occurring pigments
synthesized by plants, algae, and photosynthetic
bacteria. These richly coloured molecules are the
sources of the yellow, orange, and red colours of
many plants. Anthocyanin is a water soluble blue,
violet or red flavonoid pigment found in plants.
Terpenoids are large class of organic compounds
including terpenes, diterpenes, and sesquiterpenes.
They have unsaturated molecules composed of
linked isoprene units, generally having the formula
(C5H8
) n.
Alkaloids are nitrogenous organic compounds of
plant origin which have distinct physiological
actions on humans. They include many drugs
(morphine, quinine) and poisons (atropine,
strychnine).
Concanavalin A is member of legume lectins
(carbohydrate-binding protein) family. It binds
specifically to certain structures found in various
sugars, glycoproteins, and glycolipids, mainly
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-53
internal and non-reducing terminal a-D-mannosyl
and a-D-glucosyl groups.
54. (b) Cellulose, an insoluble substance, is the main
constituent of plant cell walls and of vegetable fibres
such as cotton. It is type of a polysaccharide which
consists of chains of glucose monomers. Chitin is a
derivative of glucose, and is a characteristic
component of the cell walls of fungi, the exoskeletons
of arthropods such as crustaceans (e.g., crabs,
lobsters and shrimps) and insects. Glycogen is a
polysaccharide which is deposited in the bodily
tissues as a store of carbohydrates. It forms glucose
on hydrolysis and found primarily in the liver and
muscle tissue. Starch is an odourless, tasteless white
substance occurring widely in plant tissue. It is
obtained chiefly from cereals and potatoes and
functions as a carbohydrate store and is an important
constituent of the human diet.
55. (c) Enzymes are generally classified on the basis of the
type of reactions that they catalyse, like
oxidoreductases, transferase, hydrolases,
isomerases, lyases and ligases.
56. (a) Adenine is purine while thymine is pyrimidine.
57. (c) Three molecules of fatty acid linked with one
molecule of glycerol to form a simple lipid called
triglycerides.
58. (c) Enzyme is made up of proteins. They are catalysts
(biocatalysts) that speed up chemical reactions in the
cell without themselves undergoing any permanent
chemical change.
59. (d) Cellulose is a polysaccharide and homopolymer that
consists of a long unbranched chain of glucose units.
60. (c) Valine is a neutral essential amino acid which
contains equal number of amino and carboxylic group.
61. (d) Phosphodiester bonds help in polymerization of
nucleotides to form polynucleotide.
62. (a) Ribozymes (ribonucleic acid enzymes) are also called
catalytic RNA. They are RNA molecules capable of
catalysing specific biochemical reactions, similar to
the act of protein enzymes. Ribozyme, discovered in
1982, demonstrated that RNA can be both genetic
material (like DNA) and a biological catalyst (like
protein enzymes). Examples of ribozymes include the
hammerhead ribozyme, the VS ribozyme, Leadzyme
and the hairpin ribozyme.
63. (c) Options (a), (b) and (d) are wrong.
(a) Inulin is a polymer of fructose.
(b) Starch forms helical secondary structure.
(d) Glycogen is glucosan homopolysaccharide which
is the major reserve food of animals, fungi and some
bacteria.
64. (b) The different amino acids are attached through–Co–
NH bond, called peptide bond or amide bond.
65. (c) The type of protein structure shown in the given
figures A, B, C and D are respectively primary
structure, quaternary structure, tertiary structure and
secondary structure.
66. (c) Cholesterol is a 4-ringed structure (3-cyclohexane
ring and
1-cyclopentane ring) found only in animals.
67. (c) Phosphate is bound to pentose sugar by ester bond.
68. (c) In the given graph which shows the change in the
concentration of substrate on enzyme action
activity, letter marked as A, B and C is respectively
Vmax, Km
, and Vmax/2.
(Vmax) is the maximum velocity of the enzyme which
determines the maximum speed of enzymatic reaction
during which the substrate concentration is
increased until a constant rate of product formation
is achieved. This is called maximum velocity (Vmax)
of the enzyme. Km
, the Michaelis – Menten constant
is the substrate concentration at which an enzyme
attains half its maximal velocity.
69. (c) The correct name of the structural formula of the
given amino acids - X, Y and Z are respectively
glycine, alanine and serine.
70. (a) The given structural formula represents glucose
(C6H12O6
).
71. (b) The graph shows the concept of activation energy.
Activation energy is the least amount of energy
required to activate atoms or molecules to a state in
which they can undergo a chemical reaction. The label
marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the graph are respectively
correlated with the statements I, II, III and IV.
72. (b) In the given graph, X and Y are respectively
activation energy with enzyme and activation energy
without enzyme.
73. (c) Parabolic curve in option (c) correctly represents the
effect of pH on the velocity of a typical enzymatic
reaction (V). Enzyme shows its highest activity at a
particular pH called the optimum pH. Activity
declines both below and above the optimum value.
74. (b) In the given curve the relation of temperature and
enzyme activity is shown.
75. (d) A combination of a nitrogen base with a pentose
sugar is known as nucleoside. The nitrogen base
combines with the sugar molecule at its carbon atom
1¢ in a glycosidic bond (C – N – C) by one of its
nitrogen atoms (usually 1 in pyrimidines and 9 in
purines). Depending upon the type of pentose sugar,
nucleosides are differentiated into ribonucleosides
and deoxyribonucleosides.
76. (d) Lecithin is a fat like substance called a phospholipid,
which is a part of plasma membrane. Adenine is a
nitrogenous base.
77. (a) This graph represents the effect of substrate
concentration on the velocity of enzyme action in
which the rate of engyme reaction is directly
proportional to the substrate concentration.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-54 Biology
78. (b) O
–
O
H N3
+
R H
shows zwitter ionic form. Zwitterions
are those ions that are electrically neutral overall but
contain non adjacent regions of positive and negative
charges. They are sometimes referred to as dipolar
ions. Free amino acid found in cells is an example of
zwitterion. General structure of an amino acid
exposes two parts, or groups, of the molecule that
can function as an acid/base pair, the –COOH and
–NH2
groups.
79. (d) According to weight percentage, the first three elements
in human body are O > C > H. % Weight of O (oxygen),
C (carbon) and H (hydrogen) in human body are 65.0,
18.5 and 0.5.
80. (b) In the comparison of cellular mass, the decreasing
order of the components is:
P (Protein):10 – 15% >N (Nucleic acid): 5 – 7 % > C
(Carbohydrates): 3% > L (Lipid): 2%
81. (a) Amino acids are building blocks of protein which
are joint by peptide bond.
82. (d) Relation between the protein and amino acid is similar
to one found in the nucleotides and nucleic acid. In
the first case, proteins are polysaccharide and amino
acids are the building blocks of proteins. Similarly
nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acid.
83. (a) Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acid.
Each nucleotide consists of three parts: a sugar
(ribose for RNA and deoxyribose for DNA), a
phosphate, and a nitrogenous base.
84. (b) The two strands of DNA run in opposite directions
to one another with the hydrogen bonds between
them. One strand of DNA has 5¢-3¢ direction and the
other strand has 3¢-5¢ direction. So they are
antiparallel. This direction is determined by the
presence of a free phosphate or OH group at the end
of the strand. If the strand has phosphate group at
the 5¢ end then a free OH group present at the 3¢ end.
85. (c) Enzymes increase the rate of reaction without being
consumed in the reaction.
86. (c) All enzymes are proteinaceous in nature. This
statement is now modified due to exception of
ribozyme. Ribozymes are RNA molecules which
catalyses specific biochemical reactions.
87. (a) Carbohydrates are organic compounds synthesized
in the chlorophyll containing cells of some bacteria,
algae and green plant cells, during photosynthesis.
Certain photoautotrophic bacteria, e.g. green sulphur
bacteria and purple sulphur bacteria contain
pigments like chlorobium chlorophyll and
bacteriochlorophyll respectively that helps them in
photosynthesis. During photosynthesis carbon
dioxide is reduced into carbohydrates by water and
oxygen is liberated.
88. (a) Palmitic acid is one of the most common saturated
fatty acids found in animals and plants. It has 16
carbons including the carboxyl carbon. Adenylic acid
is a nucleotide consisting of adenine, ribose or
deoxyribose, and a phosphate group. It is a
constituent of DNA or RNA. It is also called
adenosine monophosphate. Amino acids are organic
acids (with carboxylic group COOH) having amino
group (–NH2
) generally attached to carbon or carbon
next to carboxylic group. The carbon also bears a
variable alkyl group (R) or hydrogen or hydrocarbon.
In alanine it is represented by methyl group.
89. (c) The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by
the original activation energy of the system. Because
activation energy is the least amount of energy
required to start chemical reaction.
90. (d) Thiamine is nitrogen base. Acetic acid is a weak acid,
Cytidylic acid is a nucleotide.
91. (a) Homopolysaccharides composed of glucose which
includes glycogen and starch, the storage
carbohydrates of animals and plant respectively.
92. (b) Transferase is a class of enzyme that catalyse the
transfer of a group of atoms from one molecule to
another. The given reaction shows the involvement
of transferase enzyme.
93. (b) Transition state structure formed during an
enzymatic reaction is transient and unstable.
94. (b) Quaternary structure is the three-dimensional
structure of a multi-subunit protein. For a protein to
have a quaternary structure, it must consist of two
or more polypeptide subunits.
95. (d) Haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits. Two of these
are identical to each other. Hence, two subunits of a
type and two subunits of b type together constitute
the human haemoglobin (Hb).
96. (a) Temperature affects activity of enzyme. At very low
temperature (almost near freezing point) the enzymes
are inactivated whereas high temperature denatures
enzymes permanently. Temperature ranges for maximum
functioning of enzyme is 25 – 40 degree Celsius.
97. (c) A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous base
covalently attached to a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose)
but without the phosphate group. A nucleotide
consists of a nitrogenous base, a sugar (ribose or
deoxyribose) and one to three phosphate groups.
Nucleoside = Sugar + Base
Nucleotide = Sugar + Base + Phosphate
98. (a) Transferases catalyse reactions which involve group
transfer from one molecule to another.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-55
99. (d) The backbone is constructed from alternating ribose
sugar and negatively charged phosphate molecules
which are highly polar. Because the backbone is
polar, it is hydrophilic which means that it likes to be
immersed in water. The DNA is antiparallel means
that the two strands of DNA have opposite chemical
polarity, or stated another why their sugarphosphate backbones run in opposite directions.
100. (d) Nucleoside is the combination of pentose sugar with
nitrogenous bases (purines or pyrimidines). So, on
hydrolysis it does not yield phosphoric acid.
101. (c) Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acid
(DNA and RNA), therefore the information in a
genetic nucleic acid resides in the sequences of
nucleotide. The biological functions of nucleotides
are: storage of data (as part of DNA/RNA); energy
currency (ATP); cellular communication (cAMP;
ATP allosteric regulator) and co-enzyme catalysis.
102. (b) Km of an enzyme is the substrate concentration that
gives half maximal velocity. Enzyme-substrate (ES)
complex formation is essential in enzymatic reaction.
103. (c) Fats is a group of natural esters of glycerol along
with various faty acids. They are generally solid at
ordinary room temperature. Fats occur naturally in
food and play a important role in human nutrition.
Fats store energy in the body, protectbody tissues
by insulating them, cushion internal organs, and
transport fat-soluble vitamins in the blood. Fats are
soft, low-melting solids, with a density less than that
of water.
104. (d) Natural lipids are readily soluble in non-polar
hydrocarbons such as benzene and light petroleum.
105. (c) Nucleases, which belong to the class of enzymes
called hydrolases, are usually specific in action.
Nucleases is an enzyme that cleaves nucleic acids.
Hydrolases is one of the six main classes of enzymes
that catalyze a hydrolytic cleavage reaction.
106. (d) Enzymes are sensitive to temperature, enzyme
concentration, substrate concentration, product
concentration, activations, inhibitors and pH. Each
enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular
temperature and pH called the optimum temperature
and pH respectively. Activity declines both below
and above the optimum value.
107. (c) Primary structure of polypeptide is stabilized or
secondary structure of polypeptide is maintained by
hydrogen bonds.
108. (a) The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can
be compared by the Km value. Km is the MichaelisMenten constant. It is the substrate concentration
at which an enzyme attains half its maximal velocity.
109. (a) When the cofactor is removed from the enzyme,
catalytic activity of the enzyme is lost. Cofactors
were defined as an additional substance apart from
protein and substrate that is required for enzyme
activity.
110. (a) The above statement shows the catabolic pathway.
Catabolic pathways involve the breakdown of
nutrient molecules into usable forms (building
blocks). In this process, energy is either stored in
energy molecules for later use, or released as heat.
The energy, liberated during this degradation, is
trapped and stored in the form of chemical bonds
(ATP).
111. (a) With the increase in substrate concentration, the
velocity of the enzymatic reactions rises at first. The
reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity which
is not exceeded by any further rise in concentration
of the substrate. This is because the enzyme
molecules are fewer than the substrate molecules
and after saturation of these molecules there are no
free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional
substrate molecules.
Cjãòvgt 10 : Cgnn Cûeng ãpæ Cgnn Dkøkõkqp
1. (d) S-phase is a synthetic phase in which DNA molecules
replicate and synthesis of histone proteins occurs.
2. (b) G0
phase is non-cycling quiescent stage of cell which
leaves the cell cycle in the early half of G1
phase due
to absence of cycling factors.
3. (b) Interphase is the longest phase of the mitotic cycle,
last more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle. It
has three sub-phases : G1
, S and G2
. Interphase is
the most suitable period to carry out FISH for
detecting and locating gene mutations &
chromosome abnormalities.
4. (d) Interphase is called the resting phase during which
cell is preparing for division by undergoing both cell
growth and replication of DNA.
5. (a) Prophase is the first stage of mitosis which follows S
and G2
phases of the interphase. In the S and G2
phases, the new DNA molecules formed are not
distinct but interwined. Prophase is marked by the
initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.
6. (b) Prophase is the stage of mitosis in which the
following events takes place like,
(i) The nucleolus disappears.
(ii) In the cytoplasm, the mitotic spindle, consisting of
microtubules and other proteins, forms between the
two pairs of centrioles as they migrate to opposite
poles of the cell.
(iii) The nuclear envelope disappears at the end of
prophase. Which indicates the beginning of the sub
stage called prometaphase.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-56 Biology
(iv) Chromosomes become more coiled and can be
viewed under a light microscope.
(v) Each duplicated chromosome is seen as a pair of
sister chromatids joined by the duplicated but unseparated centromere.
7. (c) In metaphase of mitosis, centromeres of all the
chromosomes lie over the equator to form an apparent
plate called equatorial plate.
8. (b) Metaphase is the best stage to count the number of
chromosomes and study their morphology.
9. (d) Anaphase is the stage of mitosis or meiosis when
chromosomes are split and the sister chromatids
move to opposite poles of the cell.
10. (b) Nucleolus and nuclear membrane always disappears
during mitosis and meiosis. At the beginning of
mitosis, the chromosomes condense, the nucleolus
disappears, and the nuclear envelope breaks down,
resulting in the release of most of the contents of the
nucleus into the cytoplasm. At the end of mitosis,
the process is reversed. In diakinesis stage of
prophase I of meiosis I, nucleolus and nuclear
membrane disappear and chromosomes set free in
the cytoplasm.
11. (a) Meiosis I is known as reductional division due to
reduction in the number of chromosomes. Meiosis II
is called equational division because of maintaining
the same number of chromosomes.
12. (a) Interkinesis is a brief interphase which sometimes
occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II.
13. (d) The process of pairing of homologous chromosomes
i s
called synapsis. Synapsis occurs during zygotene
stage of meiosis-I.
14. (d) During telophase of mitosis, the nucleolous
condense and reappear. The nuclear envelope is
assembled around the chromatin mass and ER reform
again thus forming two daughter nuclei.
15. (d) The synaptonemal complex is formed at the region
of synapsis. It is a protein structure that forms
between homologous chromosomes (two pairs of
sister chromatids) during meiosis and is thought to
mediate chromosome pairing, synapsis, and
recombination. This stage appears in zygotene stage
of prophase I of meiosis I.
16. (b) Synapsis is the pairing of two homologous
chromosomes during meiosis. It allows matching-up
of homologous pairs prior to their segregation, and
possible chromosomal crossover between them. The
process of attachment of homologous chromosomes
leads to the formation of bivalents. These two events
occur in zygotene stage of prophase I.
17. (b) Crossing over is exchange of chromosomes
segments between non-sister chromatids of
homologous pair. It brings about gene recombination
and also produces genetic variation. The chromatids
are the unit of crossing over.
18. (b) Crossing over is the exchange of chromosomes
segments between non-sister chromatids of
homologous pair. It brings about gene recombination
and also produces genetic variation. Pachytene is
the third stage of the prophase of meiosis during
which the homologous chromosomes become short
and thick and divide into four distinct chromatids.
19. (a) Recombination involves the crossing over. Crossing
over occurs during pachytene stage. It is exchange
of chromosomes segments between non-sister
chromatids of homologous pair. Crossing over brings
about gene recombination and also produces genetic
variation.
20. (d) The points of attachment between homologous
chromosomes after their separation in diplotene
appear X-shaped. They are called chiasmata.
21. (b) Leptotene is the first stage of prophase I of meiosis
I. Leptotene is of very short duration in which
progressive condensation and coiling of
chromosomal fibres takes place. In leptotene, the
nuclear membrane enlarges and chromosomes
become distinct. Chromosomes appear as long and
slender threads bearing beads like structure called
chromomeres.
22. (b) Terminalization of chiasmata occurs in diakinesis
stage of meiosis I. It is the disappearance of
chiasmata of sliding towards the tips of the
chromosomes due to tight condensation.
23. (a) Electron micrographs of zygotene stage of prophase
I of meiosis I indicate that chromosomes
accompanied by the formation of complex structure
called synaptonemal complex. During this stage
chromosomes start pairing together (a process called
synapsis).
24. (d) Kinetochore is the portion of the chromosome
centromere to which the mitotic spindle fibres
(microtubules) attach. It is the location on the
centromere where the spindle fibre attaches.
25. (b) In plant cells, wall formation starts from the centre of
the cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral
walls (centrifugal).
26. (d) (i) Chromatids separate but remains in the centre
of the cell in metaphase.
(ii) Chromatids start moving towards opposite
poles in anaphase.
(iii) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are
still visible at the end of telophase.
27. (b) At the beginning of M phase or mitotic phase, the
nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear. The
decondensation of chromosomes occur. But when
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-57
nuclear envelop restart forming then nuclear lamina
assemble and chromosomes start condensing.
28. (a) A homologous chromosome is a set of one maternal
chromosome and one paternal chromosome that pair
up with each other inside a cell during meiosis.
29. (d) All the given statements are correct.
30. (d) Mitosis a type of cell division which results in two
daughter cells each having the same number and
kind of chromosomes as the parent cells have. The
significance of mitosis are:
(i) It helps in growth and development of multicellular organisms from a single-celled zygote.
(ii) The number of chromosomes remains the same
in all the cells produced by mitosis. Thus, the
daughter cells retain the same characters as
those of the parent cell.
(iii) It helps the cell in maintaining proper size.
(iv) It helps in restoring wear and tear in body
tissues, replacement of damaged or lost part,
healing of wounds and regeneration of detached
parts (as in tail of lizards).
(v) It is a method of multiplication in unicellular
organisms.
(vi) If mitosis remains unchecked, it may result in
uncontrolled growth of cells leading to cancer
or tumour.
31. (b) During S or synthesis phase, replication or
duplication of chromosomal DNA and synthesis of
histone proteins takes place. If the initial amount of
DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C.
However, there is no increase in the chromosome
number; if the cell has diploid or 2n number of
chromosomes at G1
, even after S phase the number
of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n.
32. (d) All the statements regarding Go
stage of the cell are
correct. Go
stage or resting phase is a period in the
cell cycle in which cells exist in a quiescent state. Go
phase is viewed as either an extended G1
phase, where
the cell is neither dividing nor preparing to divide, or
a distinct quiescent stage that occurs outside of the
cell cycle. Some (like cells, nerve and heart muscle
cells), become quiescent when they reach maturity
(i.e., when they are terminally differentiated) but
continue to perform their main functions for the rest
of the organism's life.
33. (a) All the statements regarding bivalents are correct.
A bivalent, sometimes referred to as a tetrad, is a pair
of associated homologous chromosomes which are
held together by a complex after chromosome
replication. During meiosis the process of synapsis
occurs in which bivalents are formed.
34. (b) Crossing over leads to recombination between
homologous chromosomes. Recombination is the
rearrangement of genetic information within and
among DNA molecules.
35. (a) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
(iii) Interphase constitutes more than 95% of the
duration of the cell cycle.
36. (d) Interkinesis or interphase II is a period of rest that
cells of some species enter during meiosis, between
meiosis I and meiosis II. No DNA replication occurs
during interkinesis however does occur during the
Interphase I stage of meiosis. Interkinesis is generally
short lived.
37. (b) Diplotene is the longest and most active subphase
of prophase I of meiosis. The beginning of diplotene
is recognized by the dissolution of the synaptonemal
complex and the tendency of the recombined
homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to
separate from each other except at the sites of
crossovers. These X shaped structures are called
chiasmata. Diplotene can last for months and years
in oocytes of some vertebrates.
38. (a) The cell cycle is divided into two basic phase : (i)
Interphase, (ii) M-phase. The M phase represents
the phase when the actual cell division of mitosis
occurs and the interphase represents the phase
between two successive M phase. In the 24 hour
average duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell
division proper lasts for only about an hour. The
interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of
cell cycle.
39. (c) During metaphase discontinuous fibres radiate out
from two spindle poles and get connected to the
disc shaped structure at the surface of the centromere
called kinetochores. These are called chromosome
fibres or spindle fibres. A kinetochore is a complex
protein structure that is analogous to a ring for the
microtubule hook; it is the point where microtubules
attach themselves to the chromosome.
40. (d) Cytokinesis is the division of cytoplasm, cytokinesis
follows karyokinesis. Karyokinesis is the division of
nucleus. The M phase starts with nuclear division,
corresponding to the separation of daughter
chromosomes and leads to division of cytoplasm.
41. (d) The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diakinesis.
This is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
During this phase the chromosomes are fully
condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled to
prepare the homologous chromosomes for
separation. Diakinesis represents end of prophase I
and transition to metaphase.
42. (c) Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material
between two homologous pair of chromosomes.
Crossing over is also an enzyme-mediated process
and the enzyme involved is called recombinase.
43. (d) During Metaphase II the chromosomes align along
the equator. The microtubules from opposite poles
of the spindle get attached to the kinetochores of
sister chromatids. Anaphase II occurs with the
simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-58 Biology
chromosome move towards the opposite poles of
the cell.
44. (c) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
Metaphase – Chromosomes are moved to spindle
fibre.
Anaphase – Centromere splits and chromatids
apart.
Zygotene – Pairing between homologous
chromosomes takes place.
Pachytene – Crossing between homologous
chromosomes occurs.
45. (a) Terminalization which occurs in diakinesis stage of
meiosis I, is the disappearance of chiasmata of sliding
towards the tips of the chromosomes due to tight
condensation. Synapsis is the pairing of two
homologous chromosomes. It allows matching-up
of homologous pairs prior to their segregation, and
possible chromosomal crossover between them. The
process of attachment of homologous chromosomes
leads to the formation of bivalents. Chiasmata is a
point at which paired chromosomes remain in contact
during the first metaphase of meiosis, and at which
crossing over and exchange of genetic material occur
between the strands. Synaptonemal complex is
formed at the region of synapsis. It is a protein
structure that forms between homologous
chromosomes (two pairs of sister chromatids) and is
thought to mediate chromosome pairing, synapsis,
and recombination.
46. (a) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
Anaphase – Movements of chromatids towards
opposite poles.
Prophase – Initiation of assembly of mitotic
spindle.
Interphase – Proteins are synthesized in
preparation for mitosis while cell
growth continues.
Metaphase – Spindle fibres attach to the
kinetochores of chromosomes.
47. (a) Pairs A and B are correctly matched.
Diplotene – Chiasmata
Meiosis – Haploid cells
48. (b) Pachytene is characterized by occurrence of
crossing over. Bivalent chromosomes now clearly
appear as tetrads. Diplotene follows pachytene and
involves dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
49. (a) Karyokinesis is the first step of M-phase of cell cycle.
It brings about division of nucleus to form two
daughter nuclei.
50. (b) During pachytene stage of meiosis-I crossing over
leads to recombination of traits. This is highly useful
for breeders in development of new improved
varities.
51. (d) Diakinesis is the final stage of prophase I of meiosis
I.
52. (d) G1
– First growth phase, S-Synthesis phase, G2
-
Second growth phase.
53. (a) Pair of anaphase I with their feature is correctly
matched.
Metaphase I: Spindle apparatus appear and the
chromosomes are arranged on equatorial plate, with
the centromeres towards the pole. Spindle fibres
become attached to the centromeres of the two
homologous chromosomes.
Interphase: It is the time during which cell is preparing
for division by undergoing both cell growth and
DNA replication.
Prophase I: It is the lengthy phase when compared
with mitotic phase. It is subdivided into 5 subphases: leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene
and diakinesis.
54. (b) In schematic break-up of the phases/ stages of cell
cycle, D-synthetic phase is the correct indication of
the stage/phase in the cell cycle.
55. (c) The figure A represents late anaphase while figure B
represent prophase stage of mitosis.
56. (a) Given diagram represents crossing over that takes
place in pachytene stage of prophase - I during
meiosis-I.
57. (d) Telophase is the stage of reconstitution of nuclei.
The chromosomes that have reached their respective
poles decondense and lose their individuality and
collect in a mass in the two poles. Nuclear envelope
assemble around chromatin mass. Nucleolus, golgi
complex and ER reform.
58. (a) The correct identification of X, Y and Z are
respectively G1
, S and G2
. During G1
phase, cell stores
ATP for cell division and synthesis of protein, RNA,
amino acids, ATP and nucleotides occur. S phase,
also called invisible stage of M phase, includes the
synthesis of DNA and histone proteins. In G2
phase
synthesis of RNA and proteins continues and
formation of macromolecules for spindle and
organelle formation occurs. In this the quantity of
DNA within the cells has increased to 4C but the cell
is still considered diploid.
59. (c) Metaphase chromosome is made up of two sister
chromatids which are held together by the
centromere. Chromosomes are moved to spindle
equator and gets aligned along metaphase plate
through spindle fibres to both poles.
60. (d) In anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes break
apart (called disjunction) while sister chromatids
remains associated at their centromere. At the end
of anaphase I, two groups of chromosomes are
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-59
produced at two poles, having half the number of
parental chromosomes.
61. (b) The given figures (A, B and C) showing meiotic phases
are respectively metaphase I, anaphase I and telophase
I.
Metaphase I: Spindle apparatus appear and the
chromosomes are arranged on equatorial plate, with
the centromeres towards the pole. Spindle fibres
become attached to the centromeres of the two
homologous chromosomes.
Anaphase I: The homologous chromosomes break
apart while sister chromatids remains associated at
their centromere. At the end of anaphase I, two
groups of chromosomes are produced at two poles,
having half the number of parental chromosomes.
Telophase I: The homologous chromosome pairs
complete their migration to the two poles as a result
of spindle action. As a result a haploid set of
chromosomes is present at each pole, with each
chromosome still having two chromatids. A nuclear
envelope reforms around each chromosome set, the
spindle disappears, and cytokinesis follows.
62. (c) The given figure shows (I - phase). Interphase (called
resting phase) is the time during which cell is preparing
for division by undergoing both cell growth and DNA
replication in a systemic manner. According to the
given figure, the phases marked as A, B, C and D are
respectively G1
, S, G2
and M phase.
G1
phase: It is also called antephase as during the
phase the cell stores ATP for cell division. In this
phase, synthesis of protein, RNA, amino acids, ATP
and nucleotides occur.
S phase: It is also called invisible stage of M phase.
In this stage, synthesis of DNA and histone proteins
occurs.
G2
Phase: In this phase, synthesis of RNA and proteins
continues and formation of macromolecules for spindle
and organelle formation occurs. In this the quantity of
DNA within the cells has increased to 4C but the cell is
still considered diploid.
M phase: In M phase, mitosis occurs when the
nucleus of the cell divides into two identical nuclei
with the same number and type of chromosomes,
followed by cytokinesis when the cytoplasm, for
both plant and animal cells, divides, thus creating
two daughter cells that are genetically equal and
approximately identical in size.
63. (c) The given figure shows anaphase I of meiosis. In
anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes break
apart while sister chromatids remains associated at
their centromere. At the end of anaphase I, two
groups of chromosomes are produced at two poles,
having half the number of parental chromosomes.
64. (b) In the somatic cell cycle, DNA replication takes place
in S phase. S Phase is the synthesis phase during
which replication of chromosomes occur.
65. (b) During S phase, replication of chromosomal DNA
and synthesis of histone proteins takes place. During
this time, the amount of DNA for cell doubles.
66. (a) In mitosis, a single cell divides to form two daughter
cells. So, the number of mitotic divisions can be
calculated by 2n
.
where, n is the number of division of cell.
2
n
= 128
2
n
= 27
n = 7
Thus, 7 mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell
to make 128 cells.
67. (d) During zygotene and S phase, the formation of
bivalents and DNA replication occurs respectively.
A bivalent, is a pair of associated homologous
chromosomes held together by a complex after
chromosome replication. During meiosis the process
of synapsis occurs in which bivalents are formed S
phase is the synthesis phase during which replication
of choromosomes occur.
68. (d) Meiosis results in four daughter cells and each with
having half the number of chromosomes of the parent
cell. Meiosis begins with a parent cell that is diploid,
i.e it has two copies of each chromosome. The parent
cell undergoes one round of DNA replication
followed by two separate cycles of nuclear division.
The process leads to production of four daughter
cells that are haploid, which means that they contain
half the number of chromosomes of the diploid parent
cell. The significance of meiosis are:
(i) It maintains the same chromosome number in the
sexually reproducing organisms. From a diploid cell,
haploid gametes are produced which in turn fuse to
form a diploid cell.
(ii) It restricts the multiplication of chromosome number
and maintains the stability of the species.
(iii) Maternal and paternal genes get exchanged during
crossing over which results in variations among the
offspring.
(iv) All the four chromatids of a homologous pair of
chromosomes segregate and go over separately to
four different daughter cells. This leads to variation
in the daughter cells genetically.
69. (a) One cell produces 4 daughter cells after meiotic
division. Thus, for the formation of 100 pollen grains,
100 25
4
= PMC are needed and each will undergo
one reduction/meiotic division.
70. (a) Mitosis division occurs in somatic cells while meiosis
occurs in reproductive cells. Here, meristem is a
somatic cell while gametangia is a reproductive cell.
71. (a) Metaphase is a stage of mitosis in the eukaryotic
cell cycle in which chromosomes are at their most
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-60 Biology
condensed and coiled stage. Metaphase is the best
stage in mitosis for analysing the chromosomes and
to study their morphology.
72. (b) In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by
cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate
condition arises leading to the formation of
syncytium (e.g., liquid endosperm in coconut).
73. (d) Meiosis happens only once in the life cycle of an
organism. Meiosis forms the basis of sexual
reproduction and can only occur in eukaryotes. In
Meiosis, the diploid cells’ genome, which is
composed of ordered structures of coiled DNA (called
chromosomes) is replicated once and separated
twice, producing four sets of haploid cells each
containing half of the original cells chromosomes.
74. (d) When cells are not to divide after G1
phase and start
undergoing differentiation into specific types of cells
such cells are said to be in G0
phase/G0
state.
75. (c) Mitosis occurs in both diploid and haploid cells while
meiosis is found only in diploid cells. Mitosis is the
cell division that takes place in somatic cells. It is a
process by which a cell separates its duplicated
genome into two identical halves.
76. (c) Mitosis a type of cell division by which eukaryotic
cells multiply. This division results in two daughter
cells and each having the same number and kind of
chromosomes as the parents cells have.
77. (c) Anaphase is characterized by splitting of the
centromeres and separation of chromatids.
Chromatids move to opposite poles from the
equatorial plates.
78. (b) In animal cell cytokinesis involves the contraction
of the contractile ring of microfilament. Contractile
ring of microfilaments develops peripherally below
the cell membrane in the equatorial region.
79. (c) Archesporial cell is a somatic cell where mitosis will
occur.
80. (a) Meiosis involves two sequential nuclear and cell
division. It results in four daughter cells each with
half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell,
as in the production of gametes and plant spores.
Meiosis begins with a parent cell that is diploid,
meaning it has two copies of each chromosome. The
parent cell undergoes one round of DNA replication
followed by two separate cycles of nuclear division.
The process results in four daughter cells that are
haploid, which means they contain half the number
of chromosomes of the diploid parent cell.
81. (b) During meiosis, daughter cells have the half number
of chromosomes with respect to parent cells.
Therefore daughter cell will be genetically different.
82. (a) Meiosis II maintains the haploid number of
chromosomes obtained after meiosis I while
changing 2n DNA content to n DNA during
anaphase II will remain same i.e. 8.
83. (a) In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from the parent
cell as well as amongst themselves due to
segregation, independent assortment and crossing
over.
84. (c) The separation of two chromatids of each
chromosome at early anaphase is initiated by the
force of repulsion between the divided kinetochores.
85. (a) Cell would normally proceed to mitosis without
interruption once it has entered the S phase.
86. (c) During Anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes
separate, after breaking apart (the process is called
disfunction) while sister chromatids remain
associated at their centromeres.
87. (a) The mitotic spindle forms and the nuclear membrane
disappear during prophase.
88. (c) Diplotene is the longest and the most active subphase of prophase I of meiosis. In diplotene, the
homologous chromosomes separate due to repulsion
as the nucleoprotein complex of synapsed
chromosomes dissolves, but are yet held by
chiasmata.
89. (d) The triploid nucleus formed in the embryo sac of a
seed plant by fusion of a sperm nucleus with two
polar nuclei or with a nucleus formed by the prior
fusion of the polar nuclei. A triploid nucleus cannot
undergo meiosis because not all of the chromosomes
can form homologous pairs.
90. (a) Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material
between homologous chromosomes. It leads to
recombination between homologous chromosomes.
91. (c) Centromere is the constricted region of the chromatid
containing kinetochore. It is joined in cells during
prophase and metaphase. It is important that the
centromere not divide till the end of the metaphase
because it holds the replicated DNA molecules
together.
92. (c) Mitosis does not introduce genetic variations as
mitosis is a mode of cell division in which the daughter
cells are genetically similar to the parent cell because
their nuclei have the same number and type of
chromosomes as are present in the parent cell.
93. (a) Sister chromatids are the two identical strands of a
duplicated chromosome. So, it carries the same
genetic information.
94. (c) Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in
the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms
whereas fertilization restores the diploid phase.
95. (a) The formation of new cell wall begins with the
formation of a simple precursor, called cell plate that
represents the middle lamella between the walls of
two adjacent cells.
96. (c) The correct sequence of the events in the meiosis is:
III, II, I, IV.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-61
III. Synapsis: Synapsis is the pairing of two
homologous chromosomes that occurs during
meiosis. It allows matching-up of homologous
pairs prior to their segregation, and possible
chromosomal crossover between them. It
occurs in zygotene sage.
II. Crossing over: Crossing over is exchange of
chromosomes segments between non-sister
chromatids of homologous pair. Crossing over
occurs during pachytene stage.
I. Terminalization: Terminalization of chiasmata
occurs in diakinesis stage of meiosis I. It is the
disappearance of chiasmata of sliding towards
the tips of the chromosomes due to tight
condensation.
IV. Disjunction of genomes: The process of
breakdown of homologous chromosomes is
called disjunction. This process occurs in
anaphase I.
Cjãòvgt 11 : Vtãpõòqtv kp Rnãpvõ
1. (a) A cell at full turgor has its osmotic potential (ys
) and
pressure potential (yp
) equal but opposite in sign.
where solute potentials (ys
) are always in negative
values.
2. (c) Cell wall and cell membrane are the cellular structures
which play an important role in determining the
movement of molecules in or out of the plant cell.
Cell wall is the rigid layer of polysaccharides lying
outside the plasma membrane of the cells of plants,
fungi, and bacteria. In the algae and higher plants it
consists mainly of cellulose. Cell membrane,
composed of lipids and proteins, is the
semipermeable membrane which surrounds the
cytoplasm.
3. (c) The shrinkage of the protoplast of a living cell from
its cells wall due to exosmosis under the influence of
a hypertonic solution is called plasmolysis.
4. (a) Phenomenon of plasmolysis occurs when cells are
kept in hypertonic (containing more solutes) solution.
Plasmolysis is a process in which cell loses water
(due to exosmosis) leading to shrinkage of plasma
membrane or protoplast away from its cell wall.
5. (a) When a cell is plasmolysed, it becomes flaccid, its
TP (turgor pressure) becomes zero and space
between cell wall and the plasma membrane is
occupied by hypertonic solution.
6. (c) Imbibition is the process of absorption of water by
hydrophilic surfaces of a substance without forming
a solution. It is a type of diffusion by which movement
of water takes place along a diffusion gradient. The
solid particles which adsorb water or any other liquid
are called imbibibants. The liquid which is imbibed is
known as imbibate. Examples are absorption of water
by seeds and dry wood.
7. (c) Imbibition is a process in which water is absorbed
by solids like colloids and leads to swelling and
increase the volume of the cell. It involves three
characteristics like volume change, heat production
and pressure development.
8. (a) A solution whose osmotic concentration (solute
potential) is less than that of another solution or cell
sap is called hypotonic solution. If a cell is placed in
such a solution, water starts moving into the cell by
the process of endosmosis, and cell becomes turgid.
9. (d) The movement of organic food or solute in soluble
form, from one organ to another organ is called
translocation of organic solutes. The process of
translocation requires expenditure of metabolic
energy and the solute moves at the rate of 100 cm/hr.
The translocation of solutes occurs in a mass along
with cell sap through the sieve tubes from a region
of higher turgor pressure to low turgor pressure (i.e,
along a turgor pressure gradient).
10. (b) The symplastic movement of water occurs from cell
to cell through the plasmodesmata.
11. (c) The casparian strips are formed due to deposition of
wax like substance called suberin.
12. (d) Apoplastic movement of water occurs exclusively
through the cell wall and intercellular spaces, without
crossing any membrane. It is continuous throughout
the plant, except at the band of suberised matrix called
casparian strips of the endodermis in the roots.
13. (c) Some plants have additional structures associated
with them that help in water and minerals absorption.
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of a fungus
with a root system. In mycorrhiza a large number of
fungal hyphal are associated with young root and
also extend into soil. The hyphal have large surface
area for absorption. The hyphal absorbs water and
minerals and handed over them to root. Root
provides the fungus with sugar and nitrogenous
compound.
14. (a) A pressure that is responsible for pushing up water
to small height in the stem is called positive root
pressure. Root pressure is a type of osmotic
pressure. It occurs within the cells of a root system
that causes sap to rise through a plant stem to the
leaves. Root pressure occurs in the xylem of vascular
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-62 Biology
plants when the soil moisture level is high either at
night or when rate of transpiration is low during the
day.
15. (c) The process of guttation takes place due to the root
pressure, developed in cortex cells of root.
16. (a) Cohesion of water and transpiration pull theory is
the most widely accepted theory put forth by Dixon
and Jolly in 1894, and further supported by Renner
(1911, 1915), Curtis and Clark (1951), Bouner and
Golston (1952), Kramer and Kozlowskl (1960). It is
also known as Dixons cohesion theory, or Cohesion
tension theory.
17. (a) The force which is responsible for the upward
conduction of water against the gravity comes from
the transpiration. Transpiration is a process in which
plants absorb water through the roots and then give
off water vapour through pores (called stomata) in
their leaves.
18. (b) Guard cells help in transpiration (a process in which
water losses from a plant in the form of water
vapour).These cells are paired epidermal cells that
control the opening and closing of stomata with the
changes in the turgidity of the cell.
19. (c) Inner wall of guard cell towards the stomatal aperture
is thick and elastic. These cells regulate the rate of
transpiration by opening and closing the stomata.
20. (c) Active absorption takes place by the activity of root
itself, particularly root hairs. The factor responsible
for water absorption is present within the roots. It
utilizes metabolic energy and water moves from the
region of higher water potential towards the region
of lower water potential.
21. (b) In root endodermis there is one way active transport
of ions because of the presence of suberin.
22. (a) Sinks are related to transport of materials. Basically
sinks are the growing regions of plants (e.g, apical
and lateral meristems, young leaves, developing
fruits, flowers and seeds, and the storage organs).
23. (d) Translocation of food in the flowering plants occurs
in the form of sucrose. It is transported by the
vascular tissue phloem from a source (regions of
excess carbohydrates, primarily mature leaves) to
sinks (regions where the carbohydrate is needed).
24. (d) During food development, photosynthesizing leaves
would be the source and the fruit would be sink.
They (source and sink) both may be reversed
depending on the seasons or the requirements of
the plants.
25. (b) The relation between source and sink is variable.
The direction of movement of organic solutes in
phloem can be upwards or downwards i.e.,
bidirectional.
26. (b) Phloem sap is mainly water and sucrose, but other
sugars, hormones and amino acids are also
translocated through phloem.
27. (d) Pressure flow hypothesis (also called mass flow
hypothesis, proposed by Ernst Munch) is the
accepted hypothesis for the translocation of sugar
from source to sink. This hypothesis explains the
transport the food materials from the phloem.
28. (a) The process of loading at the source produces a
hypertonic condition in the phloem. Hypertonic
condition occurs when glucose, which is prepared
with the help of photosynthesis at the source, is
converted into sucrose and the latter is moved into
the companion cells and then into the living phloem
sieve tube cells by active transport.
29. (d) Water in adjacent xylem moves into the phloem by
the process of osmosis (diffusion of a solvent
through a semipermeable membrane from a less
concentrated to a more concentrated solution until
both the solutions are of the same concentration).
As osmotic pressure builds the phloem sap will move
to areas of lower pressure.
30. (c) Phloem tissue is composed of sieve tube cells, which
form long columns with holes (through which food
material is conducted) in their end walls called sieve
plates.
31. (a) Plasmolysis is the shrinkage of plasma membrane or
protoplast from the cell wall due to exosmosis. The
process of plasmolysis is reversible which is known
deplasmolysis.
32. (d) Statement (d) is incorrect. Pinus seeds cannot
germinate and establish without the presence of
mycorrhiza, because pinus trees have an obligate
association with the mycorrhiza.
33. (d) Statement (d) is incorrect. The inner wall of each
guard cell, towards the stomatal aperture is thick and
elastic.
34. (d) All the given statements are correct.
35. (c) Statements (iv) and (v) are not correct.
(iv) Xylem is associated with the translocation of
mainly water, mineral salts, some organic
nitrogen and hormones from roots to the aerial
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-63
parts of the plants.
(v) Phloem translocates a variety of organic and
inorganic solutes mainly from the leaves to
other parts of the plants.
36. (c) Statement (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct and (ii) is
incorrect.
(ii) The apoplastic movement of water occurs
exclusively through the intercellular spaces and
the walls of the cells.
37. (d) All the given factors affect transpiration.
Transpiration is directly proportional to the light
intensity, temperature, wind velocity, leaf surface
area, root - shoot ratio and number, distribution and
percent of stomata and inversely proportional to CO2
concentration and atmospheric humidity.
38. (c) Statement (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct and (iv) is
incorrect regarding transpiration.
(iv) Transpiration cools leaf surfaces, sometimes 10
– 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling.
39. (c) Statements (iii) and (iv) regarding translocation of
mineral ions are correct.
(i) Mineral ions are frequently remobilised,
particularly from older senescing parts.
(ii) Older drying leaves export much of their mineral
contents to younger leaves.
40. (b) Some carrier proteins allow transport of only two
types of molecules to move together. This is called
cotransport. Symport and antiport are two types of
cotransport. Symport allows both the molecules to
move in the same direction and antiport allows both
the molecules to move in opposite direction.
41. (a) Water molecules posses kinetic energy water
molecules are in random motion. In liquid and
gaseous form the greater the concentration of water
in a system, greater is its kinetic energy or water
potential. Pure water has greatest water potential
i.e., zero. When a solute is added to pure water, it
decreases the free energy of water and thus
decreases the water potential ( ) yw .
42. (c) Diffusion of water from its pure state into a solution
Where the two are separated by a semi-permeable
membrane is termed as osmosis. The direction and
rate of osmosis depend upon the sum of two forces,
pressure gradient (gradient of yr ) and concentration
gradient (gradient of ys
). The net force or gradient
is determined by the difference in the water potentials
of solutions separated by a semipermeable
membrane.
43. (a) Normally stomata are open in the day time and close
during the night. The immediate cause of the opening
or closing of the stomata is a change in the turgidity
of the guard cells. The inner wall of each guard cell,
towards the pore or stomatal aperture, is thick and
elastic. When turgidity increases within the two
guard cells surraunding each stomatal pore, the thin
outer walls bulge out and force the inner walls into a
crescent shape. The opening of the stoma is also
due to the orientation of the microfibrils in the cell
walls of the guard cells. When the guard cells lose
turgor, due to water loss, the elastic inner walls regain
their original shape, the guard cells become flaccid
and the stoma closes.
44. (b) Transpiration pull or cohesion - tension theory was
given by Dixon and Joly in 1894. It was further
improved by Dixon in 1914. This theory is based
upon the cohesive and adhesive properties of water
molecules, which forms the unbroken continuous
water column in the xylem.
Water molecules are held together by strong
cohesion force which is due to hydrogen bonds
amongst them. There is another force of adhesion
which holds water to the walls of xylem vessels. Water
molecules are attracted to one another more more
than the water molecules in the gaseous state. It
produces surface tension that accounts for high
capillarity through tracheids and vessels. Water
column is present in tracheary elements. There is a
continuous column of water from roots through the
stem and to the leaves. These tracheary elements
form this continuous system through their
unthickened areas. Since, a large number of tracheary
elements are present together, no breakage in the
continuity of water occurs even if there is a blockage
of one or few of them.
45. (d) Minerals are present in the soil in the form of ions.
Ions cannot directly cross the cell membrane. They
are absorbed from the soil by both passive and active
transport. Specific proteins present in the membranes
of root hair cells actively pump ions from the soil
into the cytoplasm of the epidermal cells. Like all
cells, the endodermal cells have many transport
proteins embedded in their plasma membrane; they
let some solutes cross the membrane, but not others.
Transport proteins of endodermal cells are control
points, where a plant adjusts the quantity and types
of solutes that reach the xylem.
46. (b)
47. (c)
48. (c)
49. (b) Diffusion is the movement of ions, atoms or
molecules from a region of higher concentration to a
region of lower concentration. Osmosis is the
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-64 Biology
diffusion of a solvent through a semipermeable
membrane from a less concentrated to a more
concentrated solution until both the solutions are of
the same concentration. Imbibition is the process of
increase of the volume of a solid due to absorption
of water by hydrophilic colloids. Plasmolysis is a
process in which cell loses water (due to exosmosis)
leading to shrinkage of plasma membrane or
protoplast away from its cell wall.
50. (a) The given diagram represents the process of osmosis
where chamber B has lower concentration of water
hence possesses lower water potential. Osmosis will
occur from higher yw
to lower yw
so, it will occur
from chamber A to chamber B.
51. (c) The given experiment shows the process of osmosis
by using thistle funnel. X and Y are respectively
sugar solution and water. After a few days of
experiment, sugar level rises and water level drop
down. Level of sugar solution in the stem of thistle
funnel rises due to the movement of water molecules
in thistle funnel through semi-permeable membrane.
This demonstrates that the water molecules move
from low concentration (from beaker) to the high
concentration (inside thistle funnel).
52. (c) The given figure shows the water movement in the
leaf. The parts marked as A, B, C, D and E in the
figure is respectively xylem, phloem, palisade, guard
cells and stomatal pore.
53. (c) In the given figure which shows the pressure flow
hypothesis, the rate of translocation increases due
to increase in sucrose production at the source. This
hypothesis explains the translocation of sugar from
source to sink in the phloem.
54. (b) In the given figure which shows the symplastic and
apoplastic pathways of water and ion absorption
and movement in roots, the structure marked as A,
B, C and D are respectively xylem, casparian strip,
phloem and cortex. Casparian strip (marked as B),
impermeable substances made of suberin and
sometimes lignin is a band of cell wall material
deposited on the radial and transverse walls of the
endodermis. It obstructs the water movement
through the apoplastic pathway at the endodermis.
It forces water through the endodermal cell and in
such a way regulates the amount of water getting to
the xylem.
55. (c) Chemical potential of water is water potential. Water
always move from higher water potential to lower
water potential.
Water potential = Osmotic potential + Pressure
potential
y =y +y wsp
For cell A
(A) y =- + W 20 8
= 12 bars
For cell B
(B) y =- + W 12 2
= – 10 bars
y >y B A
i.e., – 10 > – 12
Thus, movement of water will occur from cell B to
cell A.
56. (b) When a plant is placed in pure water then the cell
becomes more turgid until the pressure potential of
the cell reaches its osmotic potential.
57. (c) Active transport uses energy (ATP) to pump
molecules against a concentration gradient. Cells
undergoing active transport bear abundant
mitochondria to provide ATP, needed to power active
transport. So, the production of ATP is blocked or
decreased and active transport is blocked or slow
down.
58. (d)
59. (a) Water will move from its region of higher chemical
potential to its region of lower chemical potential
until the equilibrium is reached.
60. (a) In the given statement of osmosis, the movement of
solvent molecule is not specified.
61. (d) Osmosis occurs in response to a driving force. The
net direction and the rate of osmosis depend on both
the pressure gradient and concentration gradient.
62. (b) Salted pickle is an example of hypertonic solution
whose osmotic potential is more than that of another
solution or cell sap. If a cell is placed in such a
solution, water comes out of the cell by the process
of exosmosis and cell becomes flaccid. Due to
exosmosis, the protoplasm shrinks i.e., bacterial cell
is plasmolysed and death occurs.
63. (c) A cell is said to be flaccid when water flows into the
cell and out of the cell and are in
64. (d) The phenomenon of imbibition has three important
characteristics i.e., increase in volume, production
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-65
of heat and development of imbibitional pressure.
65. (d) Seeds when soaked in water, they imbibe because of
the presence of the water potential gradient between
the seed coat and water. Seeds and other such
materials have almost no water hence they absorb
water easily. Imbibition is a process of absorption of
fluid by a solid body without resultant chemical
change in either of the material.
66. (b) The blow of a bottle packed with moistened mustard
seed and water is due to the process of imbibition.
Imbibition is a process in which water is absorbed
by solids like colloids and leads to swelling and
increase the volume of the cell. It involves three
characteristics like volume change, heat production
and pressure development.
67. (a)
68. (a) The upward conduction of water takes place through
the xylem. It can be proved by immersing the cut end
of a branch in an aqueous solution of a dye, i.e.,
eosine or basic fuschsin. In such an experiment only
xylem vessels and trachieds get stained.
69. (a) The movement of water from one cell of the cortex in
the adjacent one in roots is due to the water potential
gradient.
70. (d) X and Y are casparian strip and apoplast respectively.
Casparian strip (a impermeable substances made of
suberin and sometimes lignin, present on the radial
and transverse walls of the endodermis) breaks the
continuity of the apoplast pathway and forces the
water and solutes to cross the endodermis by passing
through the plasma membrane.
71. (a) Path of water absorption is as follow
Soil solution ® Root hairs ® Epiblema/epidermis
® Cortex ® Endodermis (passage cell) ® Pericycle
cell ® Protoxylem ® Metaxylem.
72. (d) A mutant plant, discovered by the Botanists was
incapable to produce material for making casparian
strip. So such plant would unable to control the
amounts of water and solutes it absorbs. This is
because casparian strip allows the plants to regulate
the movement of material through apoplast.
73. (d) Statements (b) and (c) are correct regarding guttation.
Guttation is a loss of water in the form of liquid from the
uninjured margins of the leaves of those plants which
grows in moist places. It occurs through hydathodes
(special type of stomata called water stomata).
74. (d) Guttation is not a universal process. Normally,
guttation is found in herbaceous plants like grasses
Balsam, Colocasia etc. and in some of the plants of
cucurbitaceae family. It occurs from the margins of
the leaves through the special pore (always open)
like structures (called hydathodes or water stomata).
75. (c) Cobalt chloride is used to study water from a leaf
and turns colour on absorbing water.
76. (c) Opening and closing of stomata occurs due to
changes in turgor pressure in guard cells. The
transpiration is regulated by the movement of guard
cells of stomata.
77. (a) Stomata closes because guard cells lose turgidity
and becomes flaccid. This may occur when the plant
has lost an excessive amount of water. In addition, it
generally occurs daily as light levels drop and the
use of CO2
in photosynthesis decreases.
78. (a) The correct order of the events takes place in the
mass flow in the phloem is: (ii) - (iv) - (iii) - (i) - (v)
(ii) Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis -
(iv). Sugar is transported from cell to cell in the leaf -
(iii). Solutes are actively transported into the sieve
elements - (i). Water diffuses into the sieve tube
elements - (v). Sugar moves down the stem.
79. (a) If a stem is girdled, root dies first as the food
synthesized by leaves is not able to reach to the
roots.
80. (a) Stoma opens when guard cells are turgid and swell
due to a decrease in their water potential. This
turgidity is caused by the accumulation of K+
(potassium ions) in the guard cells. As K+
levels
increase in the guard cells, the water potential of the
guard cells drops and water enters the guard cells.
81. (b) Transpiration helps in the movement of water and minerals
absorbed by the roots to the other parts of the plants.
82. (c) The rate of absorption of water is almost directly
proportional to the rate of transpiration.
83. (a) Sap will flow from high to low pressure areas in the
plant. Adding sugars to the sap causes water to enter
the phloem, thus increasing pressure. Removing
sugars causes water to leave the phloem, thereby
reducing pressure.
84. (a) Isotonic solution is the external solution which
balances the osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm.
Cjãòvgt 12 : Okpgtãn Pwvtkvkqp
1. (c) In 1860, Julius von Sachs, a prominent German
botanist, demonstrated for the first time that plants
could be grown to maturity in a defined nutrient
solution in complete absence of soil. This technique
of growing plants in a nutrient solution is known as
hydroponics or soilless growth.
2. (a) Experiment on hydroponics was demonstrated by
Von Sachs. Hydroponics is the process of growing
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-66 Biology
plants in nutrient rich sand, gravel, or liquid but
without soil.
3. (c) Most of the minerals present in soil can enter plants
through roots. In fact, more than sixty elements of
the 105 discovered so far found in different plants.
4. (c)
5. (c) Micronutrients or trace elements are essential
elements required by plants in traces only less than
10 mmole kg–1 of dry matter. These are eight in
numbers (Zn, Mn, B, Cu, Mo, Cl, Ni, Fe).
6. (b) Microelements or minor elements are mostly involved
in the functioning of enzymes as cofactors or metal
activators.
7. (a) Boron is required for uptake and utilization of Ca2+
,
membrane functioning, pollen germination, cell
elongation, cell differentiation and carbohydrate
(sugar) translocation.
8. (d)
9. (b) Magnesium is an essential mineral nutrient for life
and is present in every cell type in every organism. In
plants, magnesium is necessary for synthesis of
chlorophyll and photosynthesis. It is a constituent of
the ring structure of the chlorophyll and helps to
maintain the ribosome structure.
10. (b) Chlorine is absorbed by plants in the form of chloride
anion (Cl–
). It is essential for the water– splitting
reaction in photosynthesis, a reaction that leads to
oxygen evolution.
11. (a) Nitrogen and phosphorous are the constituents of
the proteins.
12. (a) 13. (c)
14. (c) Etiolation is not caused by deficiency of mineral
nutrition. It is the form and growth of seedlings
grown in darkness. It results in a pale, unusually tall
and slender appearance, dramatically different from
the stockier, green appearance of seedlings grown
in the light. Necrosis, chlorosis and shortening of
internodes are caused by deficiency of mineral
nutrition.
15. (a) Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that
reduces the dry weight of tissues by about 10% is
considered toxic.
16. (c) Elements are absorbed from the soil solution in the
form of ions. Uptake of mineral ions, can be divided in
two main phases.
In the first phase, uptake of mineral ions occurs freely
between external solution and free space or outer
space (intercellular space and cell wall) of cell. It is
called passive absorption and it does not require
any metabolic energy.
In the second phase, ions are taken into the inner
space (cytoplasm and vacuole).This entry or exit is
active, as it requires metabolic energy. Hence, it is
called active absorption.
17. (b) Denitrification is a process by which soil anaerobic
microbes convert nitrate (NO3
–
) or nitrite (NO2
–
) to
the gases, nitrous oxide (N2O) and molecular nitrogen
(N2
), which are then lost in the atmosphere. It is
carried out by bacteria Pseudomonas and
Thiobacillus.
18. (c)
19. (a) In nature, lightening and ultraviolet radiation provide
enough energy to convert nitrogen to nitrogen oxides
(NO, NO2
, N2O).
20. (d) In the process of biological nitrogen fixation by free
living and symbiotic nitrogen fixers, the dinitrogen
molecule (Nº N) is progressively reduced step-bystep to ammonia (NH3
) by addition of pairs of
hydrogen atoms. The overall process occurs in
presence of enzyme nitrogenase which is active in
anaerobic condition.
21. (b)
22. (b) Frankia is symbiont in root nodules of several nonlegume plants like Casuarina, Myrica and Alnus.
23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b)
26. (c) Leghaemoglobin is red colour haemoglobin like
pigment which absorbs oxygen and protect
nitrogenase enzyme from the oxygen.
27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) Macronutrients are those essential elements which
are present in easily detectable quantities, at least 10
m mole kg–1 of dry matter.
32. (d) Denitrification is the process of converting nitrates
and ammonia of soil to molecule nitrogen with the
help of aerobic bacteria like Pseudomonas and
Thiobacillus.
33. (d)
34. (d) Nitrification is the conversion of ammonia into nitrite
and nitrates by soil bacteria (nitrifying bacteria).
Heterotrophic plants are less dependent on nitrogen
obtained from nitrification since they receive some
nitrite and nitrate through their parasitic or
carnivorous nutritional modes.
35. (b) 36. (b)
37. (c) Manganese competes with iron and magnesium for
uptake, and with magnesium for binding with
enzymes. Manganese also inhibits calcium
translocation in shoot apex.
38. (d)
39. (d) The nitrite is further oxidised to nitrate with the help
of the bacterium Nitrobacter.
40. (a) The deficiency symptoms tend to appear first in the
young tissues whenever the elements are relatively
immobile and are not transported out the mature
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-67
organs, for example, elements like sulphur and
calcium are a part of the structural component of the
cell and hence are not easily released. The deficiency
symptoms of nitrogen, potassium and magnesium
are visible first in the senescent leaves.
41. (c) N2
- fixation is accomplished with the help of
nitrogen-fixing microbes, mainly Rhizobium.
The enzyme nitrogenase which plays an important
role in biological N2
fixation is very sensitive to
oxygen.
42. (b) Zinc (Zn2+) is an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase
and Mo of nitrogenase during nitrogen metabolism.
43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c)
47. (c) Due to deficiency of sulphur plant shows chlorosis
(i.e., yellowing due to degradation of chlorophyll)
followed by anthocyanin development. The younger
leaves show chlorosis before older ones. Sulphur is
not the constituent of chlorophyll. The main
constituent of chlorophyl is magnesium.
48. (c) Micronutrients include iron manganese, copper,
olybdenum, zinc, boron, chlorine and nickel.
49. (b) Nitrogen is one of the major constituents of proteins
nucleic acids vitamins and hormones.
50. (a)
51. (d) Ammonia is first oxidized to nitrite by the bacteria
Nitrosomonas and or Nitrococcus. The nitrite is
further oxidized to nitrate by Nitrobacter. These steps
are called nitrification. These nitrifying bacteria are
chemoautotroph's.
52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (a)
56. (d) Zinc is used in the synthesis of a type of auxin, IAA
(indole-3- acetic acid). Sulphur is present in two amino
acids - cysteine and methionine and is the main
constituent of several coenzymes, vitamins (thiamine,
biotin, Coenzyme A) and ferredoxin. Magnesium is a
constituent of ring structure called chlorophyll and
helps to maintain the structure of ribosome.
Molybdenum is a component of several enzymes
like nitrate reductase and nitrogenase which takes
part in the nitrogen metabolism.
57. (a)
58. (c) Nitrosomonas converts the ammonia to nitrogen
while the Azotobacter is aerobic free-living nitrogen
fixing bacteria residing in soil.
59. (c) Plants obtain sulphur in the form of sulphate (SO4
2–).
60. (a) Magnesium is a constituent of the ring structure of
chlorophyll. Function of manganese is to activate
many enzymes involved in photosynthesis,
respiration and nitrogen metabolism. The best
defined function of manganese is the splitting of
water to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis.
61. (c) Rhodospirillum is a free-living, anaerobic
photoautotrophic nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
62. (a) The given experimental set up shows the process of
hydroponics. Hydroponic is process of growing
plants in a soilless mineral nutrient solution. The A,
B, and C are respectively funnel for adding water,
aerating tube and nutrient solution respectively.
63. (c)
64. (b) The given figure represents nitrogen cycle which
shows the relationship between the three main
nitrogen pools - atmospheric soil and biomass. The
blanks in the figure marked as A, B, C and D are
respectively N2
, ammonification, plant biomass and
animal biomass.
65. (b)
66. (d) Plants absorb nitrogen from the soil in the form of
nitrate (NO3
–
) and ammonium ( NH4
+
) ions, both of
which are water soluble. Nitrate ions are absorbed
quickly by plant roots but leach easily. Ammonium
ions are attracted to soil particles and move slowly
through the soil to plant roots.
67. (a) Potassium helps to maintain an anion-cation balance
in cells and is involved in protein synthesis, opening
and closing of stomata, activation of enzymes and in
the maintenance of the turgidity of cells.
68. (a) Nitrogen is the mineral element that plants require in
greatest amounts. It serves as a constituent of many
plant cell components, including amino acids and
nucleic acids. Therefore, nitrogen deficiency rapidly
inhibits plant growth.
69. (d)
70. (b) Critical concentration of the nutrient may be defined
as the minimum tissue content of the nutrient that is
corrected with maximal growth or yield. As the
nutrient concentration of the tissue increases
beyond the adequatic zone, growth or yield decline
because of its toxicity.
71. (c) Nitrogen is the major constituents of proteins, nucleic
acids, vitamins and hormones. Phosphorous is a
constituent of cell membranes, certain proteins, all
nucleic acids and nucleotide and is required for all
phosphorylation reactions. Therefore, nitrogen and
phosphorous are utilized by plants for the formation
of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
72. (a) The entry or exit of ions to and from the symplast
required the expenditure of metabolic energy (ATP),
which is an active process.
73. (a)
74. (d) Denitrification (Z) is the process of converting nitrates
and ammonia of soil to molecule nitrogen with the
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-68 Biology
help of aerobic bacteria like Pseudomonas (X) and
Thiobacillus (Y).
75. (a) Biological nitrogen fixation is a process in which
nitrogen gas (N2
) from the atmosphere is incorporated
into the tissue of certain plants. Only a select group
of plants is able to obtain N this way, with the help
of soil microorganisms.
76. (d) Azotabacter and Beijernickia are free living aerobic
nitrogen fixing bacteria. Anabaena is both free living
and symbiotic nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria.
Rhizobium is symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria.
77. (d) Nitrogen is the mineral element required by plants in
the greatest amount. It is absorbed from the soil by
the plant in the form of nitrate.
78. (c) Rhodospirillum is a free-living anaerobic photoautotrophic nitrogen fixing bacteria.
79. (c) Nitrogen fixation requires a strong reducing agent
and energy in the form of ATP. N2
-fixation is
accomplished with the help of nitrogen fixing
microbes, mainly Rhizobium.
80. (b) The enzyme nitrogenase catalyses the conversion
of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia, the first stable
product of nitrogen fixation. This enzyme is highly
sensitive to the molecular oxygen, therefore it
requires anaerobic conditions. Therefore, nitrogen
fixation by organisms require anaerobic condition.
81. (b) Rhizobium can fix nitrogen for plants like clover and
beans. Rhizobia are soil bacteria that induce the
formation of special structures, called nodules, on
the roots of their host plants. Inside these nodules,
the rhizobia fix nitrogen by converting dinitrogen
(the nitrogen gas that makes up 80% of the air one
breathe) into ammonia. Ammonia is toxic, so it is
rapidly assimilated into organic compounds, most
of which the bacteria pass to the plant to fulfill its
nutritional need for nitrogen.
82. (a) 83. (a)
84. (a) Commercial fertilizers is a substance which contains
one or more known plant nutrients and that is used
for its plant nutrient content. Important minerals used
in it are nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium which
usually meet nutrients deficiencies in a more balanced
manner and require less labour to apply than straight
fertilizers used separately. The label representing 10
- 20 - 10 on its packet denotes the percentage of
nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium.
85. (d) Copper is absorbed on the clay particles as divalent
cations, from where it can be absorbed by the plants
by exchange mechanism. It is constituent of
plastocyanin which takes part in electron transport
during photosynthetic phosphorylation.
Manganese is absorbed by the plants when it is in
the bivalent form. Manganese participates in the
photolysis of water in pigment system II during
photosynthesis and thus it helps in the electron
transport from water to chlorophyll.
Iron is mainly available in the ferrous form and it is
absorbed in the ferric form, also. It is a part of
catalases, peroxidases, cytochromes etc. and plays
a role in electron transport system in photosynthesis.
86. (d) Anabaena is known for its nitrogen fixing abilities.
They are capable of transforming atmospheric
nitrogen into fixed nitrogen (inorganic compounds
usable by plants).
87. (b) Azotobacter is a free living non photosynthetic
aerobic nitrogen fixer.
88. (c) Only a few elements have been found to be absolutely
essential for plant growth and metabolism. These
elements are further divided into two broad
categories based on their quantitative requirements:
macronutrients and micronutrients.
89. (a) Foliar feeding is not a mechanisms or moving minerals
into roots. It is a technique of feeding plants by
applying liquid fertilizer directly to their leaves. Then
plants absorb essential elements through their
leaves. The absorption takes place through their
stomata and also through their epidermis.
90. (b) Nitrogen gas cannot be directly absorbed or utilized
directly by plants because nitrogen itself is
unreactive, and cannot be used by green plants to
make protein. Nitrogen gas therefore needs to be
converted into nitrate compound in the soil by
nitrogen-fixing bacteria in soil, root nodules or
lightning.
91. (d) Nodules, formed in leguminous roots, contains
nitrogen fixing bacteria. These bacteria can fix
atmospheric nitrogen into biologically usable forms.
92. (d) The kind of deficiency symptoms shown in plants
includes chlorosis, necrosis, and stunted plant
growth, premature fall of leaves and buds, and
inhibition of cell division. Chlorosis is the loss of
chlorophyll leading to yellowing in leaves. This
symptom is caused by the deficiency of elements
like N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, Zn and Mo. Likewise,
necrosis, or death of tissue, particularly leaf tissue,
occurs due to the deficiency of Cu, K, Ca and Mg.
93. (d) A lack of mitrogen in the soil causes the yellowing
of leaves in tomato plant.
94. (d)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-69
Cjãòvgt 13 : Rjqvqõûpvjgõkõ
1. (a) Photosynthesis is a physiochemical process by which
green plants and some other organisms use sunlight
to synthesize nutrients from carbon dioxide and
water, and generates oxygen as a by-product.
2. (d) Photosynthesis is the most important anabolic
process on earth. It is defined as the transformation
of photonic energy (i.e. light or radiant energy) into
chemical energy by the given parts of the plants. In
the process of photosynthesis, light energy drives
the synthesis of carbohydrates from carbon dioxide
and water with the generation of oxygen.
3. (b) Half leaf experiment proves that CO2
is essential for
photosynthesis.
4. (c) Joseph Priestley (in 1970) performed a series of
experiments that revealed the essential role of air in the
growth of green plants.
5. (a) Jan Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential to
the plant process that somehow purifies the air fouled
by burning candles or breathing animals. Ingenhousz
in an experiment with an aquatic plant showed that in
bright sunlight, small bubbles were formed around the
green parts while in the dark they did not form any
bubbles. Later he identified the bubbles as oxygen.
Hence, he showed that it is only the green parts of
the plants that could release oxygen.
6. (c) By studying purple sulphur bacteria and green sulphur
bacteria, Cornelius Van Niel was the first scientist to
demonstrate that photosynthesis is a light-dependent
redox reaction in 1931, in which hydrogen from an
oxidizable compound reduces carbon dioxide to cellular
materials. This can be expressed as: 2 H2A + CO2 ®
2A + CH2O + H2O, where A is the electron acceptor.
His discovery predicted that H2O is the hydrogen
donor in green plant photosynthesis and is oxidized
to O2
.
7. (d) Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use
the energy from sunlight to produce sugar (fuel) used
by all living things. The photosynthesis equation is
a chemical representation of the process of
photosynthesis which takes place in the
chloroplasts. Plants take in carbon dioxide and water
to produce glucose (carbohydrate) and oxygen. The
following is the chemical equation, which explains
this process:
6CO2
+ 12H2O
sunlight
chlorophyll
¾¾¾¾¾® C6H12O6
+ 6O2
+ 6H2O
8. (b) Paper chromatography is an analytical method that
is used to separate coloured chemicals or substances,
especially pigments. This can also be used in
secondary or primary colours in ink experiments. Leaf
pigments of any green plants can be separated by
using paper chromatography. A chromatographic
separation of the leaf pigments shows that the colour
we see in leaves is due to a single pigment but due to
four pigments: chlorophyll a (bright or blue green in
the chromatogram), chlorophyll b (yellow green),
xanthophylls (yellow) and carotenoids (yellow to
yellow orange).
9. (d) Accessory pigments are light-absorbing compounds
that traps light energy and channels it to chlorophyll
a, the primary pigment, which initiates the reactions
of photosynthesis. Accessory pigment includes the
carotenoids, phycobiliproteins, and chlorophylls b,
c, and d. Indeed, they not only enable a wider range
of wavelength of incoming light to be utilized for
photosynthesis but also protect chlorophyll a from
the photo-oxidation.
10. (c) The light-harvesting complex (or antenna complex)
is an arrangement of various proteins and chlorophyll
molecules embedded in the thylakoid membrane of
plants, which transfer light energy to one chlorophyll
a molecule at the reaction centre of a photosystem.
It is used by plants and photosynthetic bacteria to
collect more of the incoming light than would be
captured by the photosynthetic reaction centre alone.
The main function of the light-harvesting complexes
is to gather light energy and to transfer this energy
to the reaction centres for the photo-induced redox
processes.
11. (a) Chlorophyll a is the pigment that participates directly
in the light reaction of photosynthesis. It absorbs
the wavelengths of violet-blue and orange-red light
and functions as a primary electron donor during
the election transport chain in photosynthesis. It
also functions in transporting energy to the reaction
centre where P680 and P700 are located. The 'lightdependent reactions' is the first stage of
photosynthesis, in which plants capture and store
energy from sunlight. In this process, light energy is
converted into chemical energy, in the form of the
energy-carrying molecules ATP and NADPH.
12. (b) In PS - I, the reaction centre Chlorophyll a has
absorption maxima at P700 while in PS - II the reaction
centre Chlorophyll a has absorption centre maxima
at P680.
13. (c) An energy diagram for the transfer of electrons in
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-70 Biology
the light reaction of photosynthesis in plants is Zscheme. Plastocyanin transfers electrons to P700
reaction centre of PS I. On getting excited, P700 hand
over electrons to a special electron acceptor molecule,
which passed downhill to energy rich molecule. This
is called Z scheme due to its characteristic zig zag
shape. This shape is formed when all the carriers are
placed in a sequence on a redox potential scale.
14. (b) Electrons are picked up by an electron acceptor
which passes them to an electron transport system
consisting of cytochromes. Cytochromes are
compounds which consist of haem bonded to a
protein and function as electron transfer agents in
many metabolic pathways, especially cellular
respiration.
15. (b) PS II is located on the inner surface of appressed
parts of grana thylakoids. It comprises of about 200
chlorophylls, 50 caretonoids and one molecule P680.
P680 of PS-II absorbs light energy, gets excited and
transfers its electrons to electron acceptor and
becomes a strong oxidant. It paves the way for light
dependent splitting of water called photolysis.
16. (a) Photolysis of water is a process of breakdown of
water molecules into hydrogen (H+
) and oxygen [O]
and electrons by the influence of light during the
light reactions of photosynthesis. The hydrogen
released from the water molecule is transferred to
the hydrogen acceptor. NADP becomes reduced to
form NADPH
2
. The splitting of water is associated
with the PSII.
17. (a) Chemiosmotic hypothesis has been put forward by
Mitchell (1961) to explain the mechanism of ATP
synthesis.
18. (a) ATP synthesis is linked to the development of a
proton gradient accros the membranes of thylakoid.
19. (c) When electrons are transported through the electron
transport system (ETS), the protons accumulate
inside the thylakoid membranes. Lumen of thylakoid
becomes enriched with H+
ion due to photolytic
splitting of water.
20. (d) The light driven synthesis of ATP and NADPH
provides energy and reducing power for the
conversion of inorganic carbon into organic carbon;
for the production of sugars and fixation of CO2
into
trioses.
21. (c) Number of carbons in the primary CO2
fixation
product of C4
plant is 4. The C4
acid, oxaloacetic
acid (OAA) is formed in the mesophyic cells.
22. (b) The use of radioactive 14C by Melvin Calvin in algal
photosynthesis studieshad led to the discovery that
the first CO2 fixation product was a 3-carbon organic
acid.
23. (a) In Calvin cycle, carboxylation is the most crucial step
where CO2 is utilised for the carboxylation of RuBP.
In this CO2
reacts with ribulose 1,5 biphosphate to
yield two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate, a
reaction catalyzed by the chloroplast enzyme ribulose
biphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase, referred to as
RuBisCO.
24. (c) For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle, 3
molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH are
required.
25. (b) In C4 plants, a 4 - C compound oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
is the first stable product, and phosphoenol pyruvate
(PEP) is the CO2
acceptor. This reaction is catalyzed
by the enzyme PEP carboxylase or PEP case in
mesophyll cells of the leaf.
26. (c) In C4 plants, photosynthesis occurs in chloroplast
of mesophyll and bundle sheath cells. While in C3
plants photosynthesis occurs only in mesophyll
cells.
27. (b) In C4 plants, a 4 - C compound oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
is the first stable product, and phosphoenol pyruvate
(PEP) is the CO2
acceptor. This reaction is catalyzed
by the enzyme PEP carboxylase or PEP case in
mesophyll cells of the leaf.
28. (a) Chloroplast movement is influenced by light
exposure. Light-induced changes in the cellular
distribution or orientation of chloroplasts have been
observed in nearly all green plants including algae,
mosses, ferns, and angiosperms. Under low light
conditions, chloroplasts accumulate along the cell
walls that are perpendicular to the incident light.
Under high light conditions, they accumulate along
the walls that are parallel to the incident light. These
are the regions of plant leaf cells where internal
fluence rates of light are the highest and lowest,
respectively and it is believed likely that the lightinduced chloroplast movements serve an adaptive
function.
29. (a) In C4 plants, a 4 - C compound oxaloacetic acid
(OAA) is the first stable product, and phosphoenol
pyruvate (PEP) is the CO2
acceptor. This reaction is
catalyzed by the enzyme PEP carboxylase or PEPcase
in mesophyll cells of the leaf.
30. (a) In C4
plants, bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCO,
but lack PEPcase. The CO2
released in the bundle
sheath cells enters the C3
or the Calvin pathway,
common to all plants. Thus, the basic pathway that
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-71
results in the formation of sugars, the Calvin pathway
is common to the C3
and C4
plants.
31. (d) In C4
plants, C4
cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and
C3
- cycle occurs in a bundle sheath.
32. (d) C4 plants possess Kranz type of leaf anatomy. The
mesophyll is undifferentiated and its cells occur in
concentric layers around vascular bundles. C4 plants
possess dimorphic chloroplasts. While in C3 plants
leaf anatomy is not of Kranz type. Only one type of
chloroplasts are found.
33. (d) In C4
plants , the process by which C4
acids are
converted into C3
acids in the bundle sheath cell is
known as decarboxylation. Shortly after the
discovery of the C4
cycle the Crassulacean acid
metabolism (CAM) pathway was dissected and
elucidated as a C4
variant. This pathway is found in
desert succulents and epiphytes. In the typical C4
cycle, the fixation reaction occurred in a mesophyll
cell and the decarboxylation reaction occurred in a
bundle sheath cell, Decarboxylation is a chemical
reaction that removes a carboxyl group and releases
carbon dioxide (CO2
). Enzymes that catalyze
decarboxylation are called decarboxylases.
34. (c) Light induced CO2
liberation from a C2
compound
(glycolic acid) of dark phase is called
photorespiration. It occurs in green cells only.
Photorespiration is absent in C4 plants and is present
in C3 plants. Photorespiration involves three cell
organelles–Peroxisomes, chloroplasts and
mitochondria.
35. (d) Photorespiration is the process by which in the
presence of light plant consumes oxygen and
releases carbon dioxide (instead of fixing carbon
dioxide) during photosynthesis, resulting in a
decrease in photosynthetic output since no ATP is
produced and carbon (as well as nitrogen in the form
of ammonia) is lost inevitably. In this pathway there
is no synthesis of sugar, ATP or NADPH, due to
which photorespiration refers to as a wasteful
process. This process reduces efficiency of
photosynthesis in C3
plants.
36. (a) Light induced CO2
liberation from a C2
compound
(glycolic acid) of dark phase is called
photorespiration. It occurs in green cells only. It is
absent in C4
plants and present in C3
plants.
Photorespiration occurs because oxygen rather than
carbon dioxide links to the rubisco enzyme in the
Calvin cycle. It involves three cell organelles -
peroxisomes, chloroplast and mitochondria.
37. (a) The principle of limiting factors was formulated by
Blackman (1905). It states that when a process is
conditioned as to its rapidity by a number of separate
factors, the rate of process is limited by the pace of
slowest factor.
38. (a) During photosynthesis in green plants, light energy
is captured and used to convert water, carbon
dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich
organic compounds. Factors which influence the rate
of photosynthesis are of two kinds - external
(environmental) or internal. The amount of light, the
carbon dioxide supply, temperature, water supply,
and the availability of minerals are the most important
environmental factors that affect the rate of
photosynthesis in land plants. Plants factors affecting
photosynthesis includes number, age, size and
orientation of leaves, mesophyll cells and
chloroplast, internal CO2
concentration and the
amount of chlorophyll.
39. (d) Photosystem (PS) - I and II are two pigments system
of light reaction. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
is the light-requiring part of photosynthesis in higher
plants, in which an electron donor is required, and
oxygen is produced as a waste product. It consists
of two photoreactions, resulting in the synthesis of
ATP and NADPH2
. The hydrogen needed for the
reduction of NADP (nicotinamide adenine
dinucleotide phosphate) is made available from the
breakdown of water.
40. (b) In Z-scheme, the movement of electrons is downhill
in terms of an oxidation reduction or redox potential
scale.
41. (b) Chlorophyll a is the chief pigment associated with
photosynthesis.
42. (a) PS-I is located on the outer surface of non appressed
parts of the grana thylakoids and fret channels. This
system does not receive electrons from photosystem
II. This system is not directly involved with the
photo-oxidation of water and evolution of molecular
oxygen.
43. (c) The single chlorophyll a molecule forms the reaction
centre. The reaction centre is different in both the
photosystems.
44. (d) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only
photosystem I. In each flow of electrons, 2 molecules
of ATP are synthesized. NADPH is not produced. It
is not connected with photolysis of water, so no
oxygen is evolved.
45. (b) Photophosphorylation (discovered by Arnon) is of two
types- cyclic and non-cyclic phosphorylation. Non
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-72 Biology
cyclic photophosphorylation involves the
participation of both PS I and PS II. The first step is
photo-oxidation of water resulting in splitting of water
into H+
, e–
and release of O2
. It involves sequence
of electron transfer where NADP+
is reduced by PSI, PS-I is reduced by PS-II and PS-II is reduced by
water so that the electro transport is non-cyclic.
46. (c) The Calvin cycle takes place in the stroma of
chloroplasts of mesophyll cell because enzymes and
intermediates of the Calvin cycle are located in the
stroma of chloroplasts.
47. (d) Rubisco is an enzyme present in chloroplasts,
involved in fixing atmospheric carbon dioxide during
photosynthesis and in oxygenation of the resulting
compound during photorespiration. It is the most
abundant enzyme on the earth and catalyzes the
carboxylation of CO2
to ribulose 1, 5-bisphosphate,
initiates photorespiration when the CO2
/O2
ratio is
low.
48. (d) Water stress causes the stomata to close hence
reducing the CO2 availability.
49. (c) Light-induced CO2
liberation from a C2
compound
of dark phase is called photorespiration. This
process is considered to nullify the result of
photosynthesis as there is no synthesis of ATP or
NADPH.
50. (d) Photorespiration (C2 cycle) is enhanced by bright
light, high temperature, high oxygen and low CO2
concentration. In C3 plants, RuBisCO, acts as
ribulose biphosphate oxygenase under low
atmospheric concentration of C2 and increased
concentration of O2
. Thus, photorespiration is
favoured by C3 plants.
51. (d) All the statements regarding splitting of water is
correct. In photosynthesis, water splitting donates
electrons to power the electron transport chain in
photosystem II.
52. (d) All the statements regarding ATP synthetase are
correct. ATP synthase is an important enzyme that
provides energy for the cell to use through the
synthesis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). ATP is
the most commonly used "energy currency" of cells
from most organisms.
53. (d) C4
plants utilize the C4
carbon fixation pathway in
which the CO2
is first bound to a
phosphoenolpyruvate in mesophyll cell resulting in
the formation of four-carbon compound
(oxaloacetate) that is shuttled to the bundle sheath
cell where it will be decarboxylated to liberate the
CO2
to be utilized in the C3
pathway. In this
mechanism, the tendency of rubisco enzyme to photo
respire, or waste energy by using oxygen to break
down carbon compounds to CO2
, is minimized. Most
C4
plants have a special leaf anatomy (called Kranz
anatomy) in which the vascular bundles are
surrounded by bundle sheath cells, shows a response
to highlight intensities, lacks photorespiration and
have a greater productivity of biomass. Examples of
C4
plants include sugarcane, maize, sorghum,
amaranth, etc.
54. (c) In C3
plants the primary CO2
acceptor is RuBP and
the initial stable product is PGA. While in C4
plants,
the primary CO2
acceptor is PEP and the first stable
product is OAA.
55. (b) Six molecules of CO2
enter Calvin cycle to produce
one hexose molecule whereas 18 ATP, 12 NADPH +
H+
molecules are used up. The light reaction of
photosynthesis results in ATP and NADPH2
formation.
56. (b) C4
pathway is an adaptation of tropical plants to
reduce/avoid the photorespiratory loss. In C4
pathway, first acceptor of CO2
is a 3 carbon
compound - phosphoenol pyruvate.
57. (d) Mitochondria helps in cellular respiration by
transferring energy from organic compounds to ATP.
Chloroplast helps in photosynthesis. Dark reaction
takes part in the stroma of the chloroplast.
58. (b) In bacteria, photosynthesis utilizes light wavelength
more than 700 nm and their reaction centre is B-890.
59. (b) Light reaction or Hill reaction results in the formation
of ATP and NADPH2
, 6CO2
, 6H2O, ATP and
NADPH2
are utilised to produce one molecule of
glucose.
60. (b) Photosynthetic bacteria have a substance called
bacteriochlorophyll. The bacterio-chlorophyll
pigment absorbs light in the extreme UV and infrared parts of the spectrum which is outside the range
used by normal chlorophyll, seen in plants.
61. (a) C4
pathway/Hatch and Slack pathway ensures the
Calvin cycle to be operated only in bundle sheath
cell. It is an adaptation to photorespiratory loss.
Therefore, C4
plants are adapted to photorespiratory
loss.
62. (a)
63. (b)
64. (d) A : Emerson effect is the increase in the rate of
photosynthesis after chloroplasts are exposed
to light of wavelength 670 nm (far red light) and
700 nm (red light). It involves both photosystem
I and II.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-73
B : Hills reaction (or photolysis of water) is the lightdependent transfer of electrons by chloroplasts
in photosynthesis that results in the cleavage of
water molecules and liberation of oxygen. Hill
reaction was proposed by Robert Hill.
C : Calvin cycle (also called C3
pathway) is the set
of chemical reactions that take place in stroma of
the chloroplasts during photosynthesis. The
cycle is light-independent because it takes place
after the energy has been captured from sunlight.
D : Hatch & Slack cycle (also known as C4
pathway)
is a metabolic cycle involved in the non-lightrequiring phase of photosynthesis in certain
plants having specific metabolic and anatomical
modifications in their mesophyll and bundle
sheath cells which facilitate the temporary
fixation of carbon dioxide (CO2
) into four-carbon
organic acid. These acids are next broken down
to three-carbon organic acids along with CO2
in
bundle sheath cells, where this unbound CO2
is
then fixed into carbohydrates in a normal Calvin
cycle pathway.
65. (d) Dark reaction is a thermochemical reaction. It takes
place in the stroma of the chloroplast. Dark reaction,
also called CO2
fixation or carbon assimilation, occurs
even in the presence of light but it doesn’t require
light. Dark reaction consists of 3 phasescarboxylation, reduction and regeneration of CO2
acceptor.
66. (d) A : Light reaction occurs in the grana of the
chloroplast. It is the first stage of photosynthesis
in which plants capture and store energy from
sunlight. In this process, light energy is
converted into chemical energy, in the form of
the energy-carrying molecules ATP and NADPH.
It was observed by Arnon.
B : Dark reaction is a thermochemical reaction, which
takes place in the stroma of the chloroplast. It is
not a light driven reaction but are dependent on
the products of light reactions (ATP and
NADPH).
C : Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm. It is a
metabolic process that occurs in nearly all living
cells in which glucose is converted in a series of
steps to pyruvic acid and during which energy
is released in the form of ATP.
D : Krebs cycle is the sequence of reactions by
which most living cells generate energy during
the process of aerobic respiration. It takes place
in the mitochondria (matrix), using up oxygen and
producing carbon dioxide and water as waste
products, and ADP is converted to energy-rich ATP.
67. (a) A : Photolysis of water - oxygen evolving complex
ferric oxalate
B : ATP synthesis - Proton gradient concentration
C : Pigments - Absorbs light at specific wavelengths
D : High oxygen - Photorespiration
68. (a) Maize is a C4 plant. It possesses Kranz anatomy
which is absent in C3 plants.
69. (b) Reaction center in PS - II is P680. PS-II is located on
the inner surface of appressed parts of grana
thylakoid. PS-II is inolved only in non-cyclic electron
transport.
70. (d) Calvin cycle (also known as the Calvin-Benson cycle)
is the set of chemical reactions that take place in
stroma of the chloroplasts during photosynthesis.
The cycle is light-independent because it takes place
after the energy has been captured from sunlight.
The Calvin cycle proceeds in three stages:
1. Carboxylation - CO2
is covalently linked to a
carbon skeleton (RuBP)
2. Reduction - carbohydrate is formed at the
expense of ATP and NADPH
3. Regeneration - the CO2
acceptor RuBP reforms
at the expense of ATP.
In the given figure of Calvin cycle, the labelling
of carbohydrate molecule as I, II and III are
respectively RuBP, PGA phosphate and triose
phosphate.
71. (a) In the given diagram of Calvin cycle, CO2
is
incorporated at stage P.
72. (c) In the given diagrammatic representation of Hatch
and Slack pathway (also known as C4
pathway), the
steps marked as P, Q and R are respectively C4
acids,
decarboxylation and C3
acids. It is a metabolic cycle
involved in the non-light-requiring phase of
photosynthesis in certain plants having specific
metabolic and anatomical modifications in their
mesophyll and bundle sheath cells which facilitate
the temporary fixation of carbon dioxide (CO2
) into
four-carbon organic acid. These acids are then broken
down to three-carbon organic acids along with CO2
in bundle sheath cells, where this freed CO2
is then
fixed into carbohydrates in a normal Calvin cycle
pathway.
73. (a) ATP synthase works via a concentration gradient;
high (H+
) in the lumen, and low (H+
) in the stroma.
When the chloroplast is bathed in pH 4, the entire
thing will have a higher [H+
]; once it is put in the
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-74 Biology
basic solution, you’ll still have the high [H+
] in the
lumen but no longer in the stroma. This is exactly
what normally occurs via the light reactions
(cytochrome b6
f pumps protons into the lumen when
light activates the photosystems). So if you have a
proton gradient, you don’t need light to drive ATP
synthesis.
74. (d) In the given diagram of ATP synthesis through the
chemiosmosis, the correct labelling of the A, B, C
and D are respectively F0
, thylakoid membrane,
photosystem II and photosystem I. The
chemiosmotic theory (Mitchell 1961) explains how
ATP is generated in the chloroplast. ATP synthesis
in chloroplasts (photophosphorylation) proceeds
according to a mechanism that is basically similar to
that in mitochondria.
75. (d) Given figure represents Z scheme of light reaction.
The whole scheme of transfer of electrons, starting
from the PS II, uphill to the acceptor, down the electron
transport to PS I, excitation of electrons transfer to
another acceptor, and finally down hill to NADP+
causing it to be reduced to NADPH + H+
is called the
Z scheme, due to its characteristic shape.
76. (d) Given graph shows the action spectrum of
photosynthesis superimposed on absorption
spectrum of chlorophyll a.
77. (a) In the given figure of chloroplast section the parts
marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively stromal
lamella, grana, stroma, starch granule and lipid
droplets. Stromal lamella (A), grana (B) and stoma
(C) are considered as membrane system in the
chloroplast and are responsible for the trapping the
light energy and also the synthesis of ATP and
NADPH.
78. (a) In the given figure of chloroplast X and Y are
respectively grana and stroma. Grana are a
membranous structure within a chloroplast made up
of stacks of thylakoids. Stroma is the matrix of the
chloroplast which is a thick fluid in between grana
where various enzymes, molecules and ions are
found, and where the dark reaction (or carbohydrate
formation reactions) of photosynthesis occurs.
Grana and stroma are involved in photolysis of water
and CO2
fixation respectively.
79. (d) In non-cyclic reaction of photosynthesis, electrons
from chlorophyll molecules in photosystem I are used
in the formation of NADPH. The source of those
electrons is photosystem II which splits water molecule.
80. (d) Calvin cycle that take place in stroma of the
chloroplasts during photosynthesis, is lightindependent. But they usually do not occur in night
because this cycle is dependent on the products of
the light reactions. The Calvin cycle proceeds in three
stages: carboxylation [CO2
is covalently linked to a
carbon skeleton (RuBP)], reduction (carbohydrate
is formed at the expense of ATP and NADPH) and
regeneration (the CO2
acceptor RuBP reforms at the
expense of ATP.
81. (a) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH molecules will be required to
make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin
Pathways. Therefore to make 100 molecules of
glucose 1800 ATP and 1200 NADPH molecules are
required.
82. (d) Chloroplast is disrupted and the stroma separated
from the lamella, the isolated stroma will fix CO2
if it
is supplied with ATP+NADPH.
83. (d) Calvin cycle (also called C3
pathway) is the set of
chemical reactions that take place in stroma of the
chloroplasts during photosynthesis. The cycle is
light-independent because it takes place after the
energy has been captured from sunlight. The correct
sequence of Calvin cycle is: Carboxylation '
Reduction' Regeneration.
84. (b) 6CO2
, 18ATP and 12NADPH2
are required for the
production of one molecule of glucose, 18 ADP and
12 NADP through 6 rounds of Calvin cycle.
85. (a) PEPcase; C4
cycle in mesophyll and RuBisco, C3
cycle in bundle sheath is correct for C4
plants.
86. (a) In C4 plant, the first stable product is oxaloacetic
acid (OAA), which is a 4 C-compound where PEP
acts as the CO2 acceptor. So, the radioactivity will
first appear in OAA.
87. (c) Plant species possessing C4
pathway have highest
photosynthetic yield.
88. (d) According to Blackmans law of limiting factor, at any
given time photosynthesis can be limited either by
light or CO2
. Blackman proposed the law of limiting
factors in 1905 to determine the rate of
photosynthesis. According to this law, when a
process depends on a number of factors, its rate is
limited by the pace of the slowest factor.
89. (b) According to law of limiting factors given by
Blackman, when a process depends upon a number
of factors which are separate, the rate of the process is
limited by the pace of the slowest factor. Rate of yield is
dependent on light as photosynthesis is dependent
on light. During monsoon, the light is dim and so this
reduces rate of photosynthesis and hence yield.
90. (c) As the intensity of light increases, the rate of
photosynthesis also increases. But at higher light
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-75
intensity, the rate of photosynthesis decreases,
because of the following reasons–
(i) other factors required for photosynthesis
become limiting.
(ii) destruction of chlorophyll occurs, so there will
be no carbohydrate (sugar) formation.
91. (c) Under water stress, the rate of photosynthesis
declines because of stomatal closure leading to
decrease in CO2
supply and reduced water potential
that decrease leaf surface areas for photosynthesis.
92. (c) In C4
(sugarcane plant) plant, 14CO2
is fixed in malic
acid in which the enzymes that fixes CO2
is
phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase.
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase catalyzes the
addition of bicarbonate (HCO3
–
) to
phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to form the four-carbon
compound oxaloacetate and inorganic phosphate:
PEP + HCO3
–
Oxaloacetate + Pi
This reaction is used for carbon fixation in CAM
(Crassulacean acid metabolism) and C4
organisms,
as well as to regulate flux through the citric acid cycle
(also known as Krebs or TCA cycle) in bacteria and
plants.
93. (d) If the supply of oxygen is decreased to an illuminated
wheat plant, its photosynthesis would increase.
94. (d) According to the experiment performed by the
student, photosynthesis will not take place because
intact chloroplast is needed for the process of
photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is the process by
which green plants create energy from sunlight. It
occurs at the cellular level in the leaves of plants and
is the way in which they produce oxygen and
carbohydrates. The oxygen is released into the
atmosphere, and the carbohydrates, simple sugars,
are used by the plant for growth. In order to carry
out photosynthesis, green plants need several
ingredients. Chlorophyll, the pigment in plants that
makes them green, is essential to the photosynthetic
process. This chemical is produced naturally by all
green plants and its role in photosynthesis is to
absorb light.
95. (d) The electrons that are released by the photolysis of
water during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
ultimately end in NADPH.
96. (b) "ADP is phosphorylated and NADP is reduced"
occurs during light phase of the photosynthesis.
The 'light-dependent reactions' is the process by
which plants capture and store energy from sunlight.
In this process, light energy is converted into
chemical energy, in the form of the energy-carrying
molecules ATP and NADPH.
97. (a) During light reaction, as electrons move through the
photosystems, protons are transported across the
membrane because of the primary acceptor of e–
(located towards the outer surface of the membrane)
transfers its electrons not to an e–
carrier but to H
carrier.
98. (a) The water molecule is split as shown in the equation :
H O O H e 2
1
2 2 ® + + + – 2 2 forming oxygen and
hydrogen radicals.
99. (b) The function of water in photosynthesis is to supply
electrons in the light dependent reaction. The lightdependent reactions take place in the membranous
sections of the chloroplast - thylakoids (grana/
lamellae) which offer a large surface area to absorb
light energy. The main function of these reactions is
to provide a source of ATP and reduced NADP, which
are used to reduce CO2
in the light independent
reactions
100. (a) Liberation of oxygen is not concerned with cyclic
photophosphorylation. This system is not concerned
with photo-oxidation of water but only concerned with
the production of ATP. Non-cyclic
photophosphorylation is the light-requiring part of
photosynthesis in higher plants, in which an electron
donor is required, and oxygen is produced as a waste
product. It consists of two photoreactions, resulting
in the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.
101. (d) Cyclic and non-cyclic flow of e–
is used in plants
- to meet the demands of Calvin cycle,
- avoid producing excess NADPH + H+
, and
- balance ATP and NADPH + H+
ratio in
chloroplast
102. (b) Formation of ATP occurs during cyclic and non -
cyclic photophosphorylation. The net product of
cyclic photophosphorylation is ATP, NADPH and
O2
and in non - cyclic photophosphorylation
it is ATP only.
103. (d) During the electron transport from photosystem II
to photosystem I, ATP is synthesized and NADP+
is reduced to NADPH. So, the blockage of electron
transport will stop ATP synthesis and the reduction
of NADP+
to NADPH.
104. (b) The cooperation of two photosystems is required for
the upward electron transport from water to NADP+of
the two photosystems. Photosystem I is more directly
associated with the reduction of NADP+
, whereas the
photosystem II is more closely associated with the
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-76 Biology
extraction of electrons from water.
105. (d) Reduction of NADP+
into NADPH during light
reaction occurs in stroma because NADP reductase
enzyme is located on the stroma side of membranes
and PS I reduces NADP+
to NADPH + H+
in the
stroma.
106. (b) According to chemiosmotic hypothesis (Mitchell
1961) the ATP is synthesized on ATPase complexes
located on the non appressed portions of thylakoid
membranes particularly towards margins. Therefore,
if the thylakoid membrane within a chloroplast is
punctured so that there is no separation between
lumen and stroma of thylakoid, synthesis of ATP
will be affected the most.
107. (b)
108. (a) With the help of cytochrome b6
f, proton is pumped
to reach ATP synthetase to participate in ATP
synthesis.
109. (a) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3-PGA), a 3C-compound is
the first stable product in C3
plant.
110. (c) One molecule of RuBP and one molecule of CO2 are
required to produce two molecules of 3-PGA.
Therefore, for the production of 6 molecules of 3-
PGA, 3 molecules of RuBP and 3 molecules of CO2
are required.
111. (d) The algae have the chlorophyll pigment and make
their food by photosynthetic process in which
oxygen is released as a byproduct. Although all
algae essentially contain chlorophyll a pigment but
in some forms the green colour of chlorophyll
pigment is masked by other pigments. For example,
In phaeophyceae (brown algae), a brown pigment -
fucoxanthin and in rhodophyceae (red algae) a red
pigment-r-phycoerythrin masks the green colour of
the chlorophyll.
112. (d) Photosynthesis occurs particularly in specialized cell
called mesophyll cells. These cells contain
chloroplast, which is the actual sites for
photosynthesis. The cactus stem and guard cell of
stomata contain chloroplasts, so they can
manufacture food by photosynthesis. The epidermal
cells do not contain chloroplasts, so they do not
perform photosynthesis.
113. (a) Green plants capture solar energy (light) from sun
and convert it into chemical energy (food) with the
help of CO2
taken from atmosphere, water from soil
and releases oxygen.
114. (d) Accessory pigments are light-absorbing
compounds that traps light energy and channels it
to chlorophyll a which initiates the reactions of
photosynthesis. Accessory pigment includes the
carotenoids, phycobiliproteins, and chlorophylls b,
c, and d. Indeed, they not on enable a wider range of
wavelength of incoming light to be utilized for
photosynthesis but also protect chlorophyll a from
the photo-oxidation.
115. (d) The “tails” of chlorophyll molecules are associated
with the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplasts.
When excited by light, the chlorophyll moves into
an excited state and passes electrons to acceptor
molecules. This begins to set up the proton gradient
across the membrane that will drive ATP synthesis.
116. (c) Pigments are chemical compounds which reflect only
certain wavelengths of visible light. More important
than their reflection of light is the ability of pigments
to absorb certain wavelengths. Because they interact
with light to absorb only certain wavelengths,
pigments are useful to plants and other autotrophs
organisms which make their own food using
photosynthesis. Photosynthetic pigments are
located in the membranes of the thylakoid membranes
in specific areas called quantasomes. The
quantasomes are mainly present in grana lamellae.
117. (d) During light phase, ATP & NADPH are produced
whereas oxygen is byproduct during light phase.
118. (b) The electrons generated by photolysis of water are
used to replace the electrons lost by P680 of PS-II.
119. (d) Breakdown of water during the photosynthesis
molecules leads to release of electron, proton and
oxygen.
120. (b) Kranz anatomy is a special structure in the leaves of
plants that have a C4
pathway of carbon dioxide
fixation. The leaves contain a ring of mesophyll cells,
containing a few small chloroplasts concerned with
the initial fixing of carbon dioxide, surrounding a
sheath of parenchyma cells (the bundle sheath)
which has large chloroplasts involved in the Calvin
cycle. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells
have thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large
number of chloroplast.
Cjãòvgt 14 : Ôgõòktãvkqp kp Rnãpvõ
1. (b) Respiration is an enzyme controlled process of
biological oxidation of food materials in a living cell,
using molecular oxygen (O2
), producing CO2
and
H2O and releasing energy in a small steps and storing
it in biologically useful forms (generally ATP). Hence,
respiration is a catabolic, exothermic and oxidative
process.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-77
The reaction for respiration is:
C6H12O6
+ 6O2 ® 6CO2
+ 6H2O + Energy
2. (d) ATP is a nucleotide found in the mitochondria of all
plant and animal cells. It is the major source of
energy for cellular reactions and is commonly known
as the energy currency of the cell. This energy is
released during its conversion to ADP.
3. (a)
4. (d) Respiration is a metabolic process in which energy
is produced with the intake of oxygen and the release
of carbon dioxide from the oxidation of complex
organic substances along with water.
5. (a) Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm and does not
use oxygen. Thus, it is an anaerobic pathway. In this
process, glucose is partially oxidized/converted into
two molecules of pyruvate/ pyruvic acid. In aerobic
respiration pyruvate enters mitochondrion through
a specific transport protein. It undergoes oxidative
decarboxylation and dehydrogenation to produce
CO2
and NADH.
6. (a) Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol, where the glucose
molecule is converted into two molecules of the 3C
compound, pyruvate. The enzymes are located in
the fluid matrix of cytoplasm.
7. (d) During glycolysis, dehydration occurs in the
presence of enzyme enolase and cofactor Mg2+
.
2-phosphoglycerate loses a molecule of water and
is changed into phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP).
8. (b) Decarboxylation is the removal or loss of a carboxyl
group from an organic compound, usually resulting
in the formation of carbon dioxide. It does not involve
in glycolysis.
9. (d)
10. (b) In human muscle cell lactic acid fermentation occurs
where pyruvic acid produced in glycolysis is reduced
by NADH2
to form lactic acid without producing
carbon dioxide. In fermentation process less energy
is released.
CH COCOOH + NADH 3 2
Pyruvic acid
CH CHOHCOOH 3
Lactic acid
+
NAD
Lactate dehydrogenase
FMN, Zn2+
11. (c) Alcoholic fermentation is a process in which
molecules such as glucose etc are converted into
cellular energy and thereby produce ethanol and
carbon dioxide as metabolic waste products.
12. (b) In the fermentation of one glucose molecule, there is
net gain of two molecules of ATP.
13. (b) Yeast cell perform alcoholic fermentation under
anaerobic conditions where incomplete oxidation of
glucose is achieved by sets of reaction in which
pyruvic acid is converted to CO2
and ethanol
(C2H5OH). The enzymes, pyruvic acid decarboxylase
and alcohol dehydrogenase catalyse these reactions.
14. (d) In the presence of an enzyme complex, pyruvate
dehydrogenase complex, sulphur containing CoA
and NAD+
, pyruvate undergoes oxidative
decarboxylation or both oxidation (removal of
hydrogen) and decarboxylation (removal of CO2
). It
produces a 2-carbon active acetate group or acetyl
CoA, NADH + H+
and CO2
.
Pyruvate + NAD + CoA +
+ NADH + H + CO +
2
(3 – C)
Acetyl CoA
(2 – C)
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Complex
15. (a) 16. (c)
17. (b) Cytochrome is a compound which consists of haem
bonded to a protein and function as electron transfer
agents in many metabolic pathways, especially
cellular respiration.
18. (c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA cycle), also called
Krebs’ cycle and citric acid cycle, is the process by
which living cells break down organic molecules in
the presence of oxygen to produce the energy they
need to grow and divide. In all organisms except
bacteria the TCA cycle is carried out in the matrix of
intracellular structures of mitochondria.
19. (c) Enzymes of citric acid cycle are located in the cytosol
in prokaryotes and mitochondrial matrix in
eukaryotes.
20. (c) During the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic
acid a molecule of GTP is synthesized. This is a
substrate level phosphorylation. In the presence of
enzyme succinyl CoA synthase, succinyl CoA is
hydrolysized to CoA and succinate are formed. The
energy liberated during the process is used in
synthesis of ATP in plants, and GTP in animals.
21. (a)
22. (d) Oxaloacetic acid is the acceptor of acetyl coA in
Krebs’ cycle.
23. (a) Krebs’ cycle does not consume any ATP molecules.
It generates 2ATP/2GTP molecules through
substrate level phosphorylation.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-78 Biology
24. (a) Electron transport chain is a series of coenzymes
and cytochromes that takes part in the passage of
electrons from a chemical to its ultimate acceptor. It
takes place on the cristae of mitochondria found on
the inner surface of the membrane of mitochondria.
25. (c) In the electron transport system, the final acceptor
of proton is oxygen. Oxygen functions as the terminal
acceptor of electrons and is reduced to water along
with the hydrogen atoms in mitochondrial matrix. It
drives whole process by removing hydrogen from
system.
26. (d) Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain is cyt a3
.
cyt a3
posseses two copper centres. It helps in
transfer of electrons to oxygen.
27. (a) F1
head piece is a peripheral membrane protein
complex of mitochondria which is the major site of
synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi.
28. (a) The F
1
head piece is a peripheral membrane protein
complex of mitochondria.
29. (d) Oxidation of molecule of NADH gives rise to 3
molecules of ATP, while that of one molecule of
FADH2
produces 2 molecules of ATP.
Therefore 2 NADH = 6 ATP molecules 2
3 FADH = 6 ATP molecules 2
Total = 12 ATP molecules
30. (a) The electron transport chain is a process in which
the NADH and FADH2
produced during glycolysis,
b-oxidation, and other catabolic processes are
oxidized with a release of energy in the form of ATP.
The main purpose of electron transport chain is to
cycle NADH + H+
back to NAD+
.
31. (d) The enzyme responsible for oxidative
phosphorylation is ATP synthase. ATP synthase is
located in the F1
component of F0
– F1
or elementary
particles. ATP synthase becomes active in ATP
formation only where there is a proton gradient
having higher concentration of H+
or protons on the
F0
side as compared to F1
side. Increased proton
concentration is produced in the outer chamber of
outer surface of inner mitochondrial membrane by
pushing of protons with the help of energy liberated
by passage of electrons from one carrier to another.
32. (b) The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP
synthesis is cyt b c a a3
. These are arranged in order
of their increasing redox potential and electron flow
through the chain in step wise manner from the more
electronegative compound to the more
electropositive O2
. On the basis of redox potential
cytochrome acceptor order is cyt b c a a3
.
33. (c) Krebs cycle (also called as tricarboxylic acid cycle,
TCA) is amphibolic or having both catabolic and
anabolic rates, for e.g. acetyl CoA entering the cycle
is completely broken down to form CO2
and hydrogen
showing catabolic role. In anabolic role, acetyl CoA
is related to synthesis and breakdown of fatty acids,
steroids, carotenoids, terpenes and aromatic
compounds.
34. (b) The ratio of the volume of CO2
liberated to the
volume of oxygen absorbed per molecule during
respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (RQ). The
value of RQ indicates the types of respiratory
substrate.
RQ =
Volume of CO evolved 2
Volume of O consumed 2
102 RQ 0.7
145
= =
35. (c) The ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide evolved to
that of oxygen consumed by an organism, tissue, or
cell in a given time is called respiratory quotients.
36. (d)
37. (d) Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm, is a common phase
of aerobic and anaerobic respiration. It is a partial
breakdown of glucose molecule into two molecules
of pyruvic acid.
38. (d) Krebs’ cycle is the process by which living cells
break down organic molecules in the presence of
oxygen to produce the energy they need to grow
and divide. It cycle involves decarboxylation steps.
39. (d) Cellular respiration is the mechanism of breakdown
of food materials within the cell to release energy
and the trapping of this energy for synthesis of ATP.
In cellular respiration, NADH is oxidised to NAD+
.
40. (c) ETS (Electron transport system or chain) is a series
of coenzymes and coenzymes that takes part in the
passage of electrons from a chemical to its ultimate
acceptor. ETS is present in the inner mitochondrial
membrane, oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives
rise to 3 molecules of ATP, while that of one molecule
of FADH2
produces 2 molecules of ATP. In
respiration, energy of oxidation - reduction is utilized
for the production of proton gradient.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-79
41. (c) Fermentation represents anaerobic mode of
respiration. In fermentation the incomplete oxidation
of glucose is achieved by sets of reactions where
pyruvic acid is converted to CO2
and ethanol.
42. (a) Pyruvate, is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of
carbohydrates in the cytosol, after that it enters
mitochondrial matrix and undergoes oxidative
decarboxylation by a complex set of reactions
catalyzed by pyruvic dehydrogenase.
43. (c) 44. (d)
45. (c) The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise
removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three
molecules of CO2
. The passing on of the electrons
removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular
O2
with simultaneous synthesis of ATP.
46. (a) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form two
molecules of pyruvic acid, Glucose is phosphorylated
to give rise to glucose-6-phosphate by the activity
of the enzyme hexokinase. The scheme of glycolysis
was given by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and
J. Parnas, and is often referred to as the EMP pathway.
47. (a) Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm as all necessary
enzymes are found in it. This process is common in
aerobic/anaerobic respiration. In this process, one
glucose molecule is converted into two moles of
pyruvic acid.
48. (c) Compensation point is that value or point in the light
intensity and atmospheric CO2
concentration when
the rate of photosynthesis is just equivalent to the
rate of respiration in the photosynthetic organ. So
that there is no net gaseous exchange.
49. (b) The stomata are absent since gaseous exchange
takes place through diffusion in submerged plants.
50. (d) Glycolysis is the process of breakdown of glucose or
similar hexose sugar into two molecules of pyruvic
acid through a series of enzyme mediated reactions,
releasing energy (ATP) and reducing power
(NADH2
). It is the first step of respiration, which
occurs inside the cytoplasm and is independent of
O2
. In glycolysis, two molecules of ATP are consumed
during double phosphorylation of glucose to form
fructose 1, 6 diphosphate. Four molecules of ATP are
produced in the conversion of 1, 3-
diphosphoglycerate to 3-phospho-glycerate and
phosphenol pyruvate to pyruvate whereas, two
molecules of NADH2
are formed during oxidation of
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to
1,3-diphosphoglycerate. Since, each NADH is
equivalent to 3 ATP, so net gain in glycolysis is 8 ATP.
51. (b) Electron transport system is a series of co-enzymes
and cytochromes that takes part in the passage of
electrons from a chemical to its ultimate receptor.
The mitochondrial matrix contains all the soluble
enzymes of the citric acid or Kreb's cycle and those
involved in the oxidation of fatty acids.
52. (d) Electron transport takes place on the cristae of
mitochondria found on the inner surface of the
membrane of mitochondria. Conversion of pyruvic
acid into CO2
and ethanol is called fermentation.
Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm, is a common phase
of aerobic and anaerobic respiration. It is a partial
breakdown of glucose molecule into two molecules
of pyruvic acid. Krebs’ cycle is the process by which
living cells break down organic molecules in the
presence of oxygen to produce the energy they need
to grow and divide. It takes place in the mitochondrial
matrix.
53. (c) 54. (b)
55. (c) Krebs’ cycle involves decarboxylation.
56. (a) P, Q, R and S in the given major pathway of anaerobic
respiration are respectively NAD+, ethanol, lactic
acid and PEP respectively.
57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (b) 61. (d)
62. (c) Respiratory substrate is a organic substance that
can be broken down in respiration to release energy.
Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins are examples of
respiratory substrates. The most common among
them is carbohydrates, especially glucose. Different
substrates have different energy values.
63. (a) Respiration is the breakdown of C—C bonds. In
respiration, the breaking of the C—C bond of complex
organic molecules through oxidation provides carbon
skeleton for the synthesis of a large number of other
essential plant products, such as polysaccharide,
proteins, fats, nuclei acids, pigments, cytochromes
etc.
64. (c) ATP is the major source of energy for cellular
reactions and is commonly known as the energy
currency of the cell. This energy is released during
its conversion to ADP. Energy accumulates in ATP
in high energy phosphate bonds.
65. (d) In anaerobic respiration, oxygen is not used in the
breakdown of respiratory substrate.
66. (d) The oxygen obtained from cellular respiration
combines with the hydrogen obtained from the
oxidation of organic molecules to form water.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-80 Biology
67. (a) Glycolysis is a partial breakdown of glucose molecule
into two molecules of pyruvic acid. It occurs in
cytoplasm and a common phase of aerobic and
anaerobic respiration.
68. (b) Glucose – 6-phosphate ® 3-
phosphoglyceraldehyde ®
3-phosphoglyceric acid ® phosphoenol pyruvate
® pyruvic acid.
69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (c) If hexokinase is blocked then glucose will not convert
into glucose-6-phosphate which result in the blockage
of whole glycolytic pathway.
72. (b) 12 kcal of energy present in one molecule of ATP &
on oxidation of one mole of glucose into CO2
and
H2O energy released is 686 kcal. So no. of ATP which
can store this energy would be = 57.1 = 57 ATPs.
73. (a) Glycolysis is a partial breakdown of glucose molecule
into two molecules of pyruvic acid. Number of ATP
formed during glycolysis is 4 ( 2 ATP for each PGA).
Net gain of ATP during glycolysis is 2 (4 – 2= 2).
74. (c) 75. (c)
76. (a) Alcoholic fermentation is a process in which
molecules such as glucose etc are converted into
cellular energy and thereby produce ethanol and
carbon dioxide as metabolic waste products. During
alcoholic fermentation, NAD+
is produced when
acetaldehyde is reduced to ethanol.
77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (b) 81. (d)
82. (c)
83. (b) ATP synthetase is a complex V of the electron
transport chain. When the electrons are shunted
over the carriers via complex I to IV in the ETC, the
are coupled to ATP synthetase for the formation of
ATP from ADP and Pi.
84. (d) 85. (c)
86. (d) Chemiosmotic theory postulated by the British
biochemist, Peter Mitchell (1920-22) to explain the
formation of ATP in the mitochondrial electron
transport chain. As electrons are transferred along
the electron carrier system in the inner mitochondrial
membrane, hydrogen ions (protons) are actively
transported into the space between the inner and
outer mitochondrial membranes, which thus contains
a higher concentration of protons than the matrix.
This creates an electrochemical gradient across the
inner membrane, through which protons move back
into the matrix.
87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (b)
90. (b) In succulent plants like Opuntia there is an
incomplete oxidation of the carbohydrates resulting
in the formation of organic acids. CO2
is not released.
2C6H12O6
+ 3O2® 3C4H6O5
+ 3H2O + 386 kcal.
2
2
CO 0
R.Q. 0
O 3
= ==
91. (b)
92. (b) In glycolysis, the end product is pyruvic acid.
93. (d)
94. (d) Fermentat1ion is the process in which a substance
breaks down into a simpler substance.
Microorganisms like yeast and bacteria usually play
a role in the fermentation process, creating beer, wine,
bread, yogurt and other foods. Glycolysis occurs in
cytoplasm, is a common phase of aerobic and
anaerobic respiration. It is a partial breakdown of
glucose molecule into two molecules of pyruvic acid.
Krebs’ cycle is the process by which living cells
break down organic molecules in the presence of
oxygen to produce the energy they need to grow
and divide.
95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (d)
98. (b) In Krebs’ cycle, number of ATP molecules are
produced in large amount i.e. 24. Therefore it
generates large amount of energy.
99. (b) 100. (c) 101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (b)
Cjãòvgt 15 : Rnãpv Itqyvj ãpæ Dgøgnqòïgpv
1. (c) Growth is defined as a permanent or irreversible
increase in the dry weight, size, mass or volume of a
cell, organ or organism. Generally, growth is
accompanied by metabolic processes (both anabolic
and catabolic), that occur at the expense of energy.
2. (b) Seed germination is the process by which a plant grows
from a seed. Germination is the initial phase of growth
and emergence from the ground. Germination takes
place when the cotyledons emerge above the ground.
3. (d) Scarification is the method that renders the seed coat
permeable to water so that expansion of embryo is
not physically retarded. It breaks seed dormancy. It
may be mechanical abrasions or chemical (weakening
of seed coat by acids, water, solvent etc).
4. (a) Arithmetic growth is a type of growth in which the
rate of growth is constant and increase in growth
occurs in arithmetic progression i.e., 2, 4, 6, 8 etc. Here
after mitosis, only one daughter cell continues to divide
and other takes part in differentiation and maturation.
Here a linear curve is obtained with positive value.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-81
5. (a) The rate of growth can be measured by an increase
in size or area of an organ of the plant like leaf, flower,
fruit etc. in a unit time. The rate of growth is also
called efficiency index.
6. (c) Differentiation is maturation of cells derived from
optical meristems of root and shoot. It is applied to
the qualitative differences between cells, tissues and
organs. During differentiation cell undergoes few to
major anatomical and physiological changes both in
their cell walls and protoplasm. For example, to form
tracheary element, the cells would lose their
protoplasm.
7. (c) In different phases of growth, plants follow different
pathways and form different kinds of structures in
response to environment. The ability to change under
the influence of internal or external stimuli is called
plasticity, e.g., heterophylly in cotton, coriander and
larkspur. Occurence of different types of structures
on same plant in different growth phases or under
different environment conditions is known as
heterophylly.
8. (c) During mid- 1960s, three independent researches
reported the purification and chemical
characterization of three different kinds of inhibiters
: inhibitor - B, abscission II and dormin. Later all the
three were proven to be chemically identical. It was
named abscisic acid (ABA). ABA plays an important
role in seed development, maturation & dormancy.
9. (a) Auxin is a weakly acidic hormone having an
unsaturated ring structure and promotes cell
elongation especially in shoots. Auxins was first
isolated from human urine. Auxins like IAA and IBA
have been isolated from plants. NAA and 2, 4 - D are
synthetic auxins.
10. (d) Auxins inhibit the growth of axillary buds and
promote apical dominance. It induces parthenocarpic
development of fruits and such fruits are seedless
and auxin is also responsible for phototropism and
geotropisms. Ripening and maturity of fruits are
related to ethylene.
11. (c) A synthetic auxin 2, 4 – D (2, 4 – dichlorophenoxy
acetic acid) is a famous herbicide or weedicide
(especially kills broad leaved weeds). They are widely
used to kill dicotyledonous weeds and do not affect
mature monocotyledonous plants. It is used to for
preparation of weed free lawns by gardeners.
12. (a) Gibberellin is very a important plant hormone which
was first of all reported in Japan, where a disease in
rice called ‘bakane disease’ or foolish seedling
disease spread, in which rice plants became
abnormally long with significant internodal
elongation. Sawada reported that this ‘bakane
disease’ is caused by a chemical secreted by the
fungus Gibberella fujikuroi and later it was
supported by Kurosawa. Yahuta and Sumuki finally
isolated and crystallize these chemicals and named
them as gibberellic acids or gibberellins (GA3
).
13. (b) When GA is sprayed on rosette plants, there is a
rapid expansion of internodes and flowers with long
stalks are produced. This phenomenon is called
bolting. If GA is sprayed on single gene dwarf plant,
genetic dwarfism can be overcome and plant
becomes long, e.g., in maize and pea etc.
14. (d) Gibberellins (GAs) are plant hormones that regulate
growth and influence various developmental
processes, including stem elongation, germination,
dormancy, flowering, sex expression, enzyme
induction, and leaf and fruit senescence. GA is also
responsible for bolting (internode elongation just
prior to flowering).
15. (c) GA3
was one of the first gibberellins to be discovered
and remains the most extensively studied form.
16. (a) Cytokinins are mildly basic growth hormones which
are usually amino purine derivatives and promote
cell division in plants. Cytokinins inhibit apical
dominance while auxins promote apical dominance.
17. (d) Zeatin is the most common type of naturally
occurring cytokinin in plants which was isolated in
pure crystalline form from corn (Zea mays). It is also
isolated from coconut milk which is widely used in
the preparation of culture medium and promotes
multiple shoot generation from internodes and high
frequency thick spread roots.
18. (a) Kinetin (a modified form of adenine a purine) is a
type of synthetic cytokinin, a class of plant hormone
that promotes cell division. Kinetin was originally
isolated by Miller and Skoog et al. as a compound
from autoclaved DNA from Herring sperms that had
cell division -promoting activity. Chemically Kinetin
was identified as 6-furfurylamino purine.
19. (a) Cytokinins (CK) are a class of plant growth substances
that promote cell division, or cytokinesis, in plant roots
and shoots. Cytokinins are found in abundance in
young roots, leaves and young fruits where rapid cell
division occurs and are synthesized in the meristematic
regions of the plants. Cytokinins have been implicated
in many plant activities; usually along with some other
plant hormone such as auxins or ethylene. Among these
are: mitosis, chloroplast development, differentiation
of the shoot meristem, stimulating the development of
lateral buds and therefore branching, differentiation of
the tissues of the root, leaf formation and leaf
senescence.
20. (a) Ethylene is the only gaseous phytohormone. It is a
growth inhibitor and mainly concerned with
maturation and fruit ripening. It is a volatile gas
formed by the complete combustion of carbon rich
substances like coal, petroleum etc.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-82 Biology
21. (d) Ethylene promotes abscission and senescence of
leaves, flowers etc.
22. (a) Ethylene is highly effective in inducing fruit ripening
when it is produced in large amount which coincides
with respiratory climacteric i.e., a brief rise to a very
high level of respiration. This rise indicates the
beginning of senescence and death. Ethylene
increases the permeability of cell because of which
the fruit is softened and entry of oxygen into fruit is
accelerated. Climacteric can be prevented by
eliminating oxygen from the atmosphere to prevent
respiration.
23. (b) Ethephon is the compound used to supply ethylene.
It is readily absorbed in aqueous solution and
transported within the plant and it releases ethylene
slowly. Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes
and apples. It accelerates abscission of flowers and
fruits in cotton, cherry, walnut, etc.
24. (d) Abscissic acid (ABA), also known as abscisin II and
dormin. It is usually found in vascular plants, some
fungi and some green algae. It acts as an inhibitor
because it opposes the growth of promoting effect
of auxins, GA and cytokinins, thus keep their activity
under control. Leaf abscission, fruit fall and dormancy
occurs due to abscissic acid.
25. (b) In guard cells, the plant hormone abscisic acid (ABA)
inhibits stomatal opening and induces stomatal
closure through the coordinated regulation of ion
transport.
26. (a) ABA counteracts many effects of GA such as
induction of hydrolases and a-amylase in barley
seedlings.
27. (c) Phototropism is the orientation of a plant or other
organisms in response to light, either towards the
source of light (positive phototropism) or away from
it (negative phototropism).
28. (b) The effect of photoperiods or daily duration of light
hours (and dark periods) on the growth and
development of plants, especially flowering, is called
photoperiodism. Photoperiodism was first studied
by W.W Garner and H.A. Allard (1920) in Mary Land
Mammoth (mutant variety of tobacco).
29. (a) The period of daylight appears to initiate flowering
in long-day plants or inhibit flowering in short-day
plants. In actual fact, long-day plants will not flower
if the dark period exceeds a certain maximum and
conversely short-day plants will not flower unless
the dark period exceeds a certain minimum. These
periods are termed critical dark periods and must be
continuous to have effect.
30. (d) Short day plants (or long night plants) are those
plants where flowering takes place when they are
exposed to shorter photoperiod i.e day length is less
than the critical length. For examples, Maryland
Mammoth tobacco Nicotiana tobaccum, Xanthium,
rice etc.
31. (a) Day neutral plants are those plants where day length
does not influence flowering. These plants flower
in both shorter and longer photoperiod. For
example, maize, cotton, tomato etc.
32. (c) Vernalization is the cooling of seed during
germination in order to accelerate flowering when it
is planted.
33. (a) Seed dormancy is defined as a state in which seeds
are prevented from germinating even under
environmental conditions, normally favourable for
germination. These conditions are a complex
combination of water, light, temperature, gasses,
mechanical restrictions, seed coats, and hormone
structures.
34. (d) 6 - furfuryl amino purine, 2, 4 dichlorophenoxy acetic
acid and indole - 3 acetic acid are the examples of
kinetin, synthetic auxins and natural auxins
respectively.
Kinetin stimulates cell division in plants. 2, 4
dichlorophenoxy acetic acid is a common systemic
herbicide used in the control of broadleaf weeds.
Indole - 3 acetic acid induces cell elongation and cell
division and results in plant growth and
development.
35. (d) All the given statements are the characteristics of
growth of an organism. Growth can be defined as an
irreversible permanent increase in size of an organ or
its parts or even of an individual cell.
36. (d) Water does not oxidize glucose to provide energy. It
maintains the turgidity of growing cells and provides
medium for enzymatic reactions.
37. (a) IAA and IBM are natural auxins but NAA, 2, 4 -D
and 2, 4, 5 T are synthetic auxins.
38. (c) Ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of
plant organs especially of leaves and flowers. It
enhances the respiration rate during fruit ripening.
Ethylene is also used to initiate flowering and for
synchronising fruit-set in pineapples. It also induces
flowering in mango.
39. (d) The process of flowering also occurs in day neutral
plants but these plants do not require specific
photoperiods to flower. Such plants flower in almost
all the photoperiods ranging from few hours to 24
hours of uninterrupted light periods.
40. (c) Vernalisation is also seen in biennial plants. Biennials
are monocarpic plants that normally flower and die
in the second season.
41. (b) The growth of the leaf is measured in terms of surface
area.
42. (c) Statement (i) and (ii) are correct. Gibberellins are not
responsible for immature falling of leaves. Ethylene
and abscisic acid generally have a negative role and
are responsible for immature falling of leaves, rapid
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-83
fading of flowers, inhibiting germination etc.
43. (d) Cytokinin delays senescence of leaves and other
organs by preventing drainage of nutrients,
checking degradation of photosynthetic pigments
proteins and nucleic acids.
44. (d)
45. (d) All the given statements regarding ethephon are
correct. Ethephon is a synthetic plant growth
regulator that induces flowering and abscission by
promoting the release of ethylene and has been used
to cause early ripening (as of apples on the tree).
46. (b) When cytokinins are added directly to the abscission
layer, senescence of the zone is retarded. They delay
the degradation of protein and chlorophyll of the
plant parts and hence delay senescence. As they
act as anti senescent, they act antagonistic to
ethylene which accelerate senescence.
47. (a) NAA (naphthalene acetic acid) and 2, 4-D or 2,
4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid are synthetic auxins.
All these auxins have been used extensively in
agricultural and horticultural practices. They are
widely used as herbicides. 2, 4-D is widely used to
kill dicotyledonous weeds, it does not affect mature
monocotyledonous plants. It is used to prepare weedfree lawns by gardeners.
48. (b) Auxin delays abscission of young leaves and fruits.
Its effect is through nonformation of abscission zone
below a leaf or fruit. Abscission zone cuts off
nutrients and water supply. However, auxin
promotes the abscission of mature or older leaves
and fruits.
49. (c) Ethylene is a simple gaseous PGR. The most widely
used compound as source of ethylene is ethephon.
Ethephon in an aqueous solution is readily absorbed
and ‘transported within the plant and releases
ethylene slowly. Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in
tomatoes and apples and accelerates abscission in
flowers and fruits (thinning of cotton, cherry, walnut).
It promotes female flowers in cucumbers thereby
increasing the yield.
50. (a) Apical dominance is the phenomenon by which
presence of apical bud does not allow the nearby
lateral buds to grow. Apical bud inhibits the growth
of lateral buds by releasing auxins. When the apical
bud is removed, the lateral buds sprout. This
produces dense bushy growth. The phenomenon is
widely used in tea plucking and hedge-making.
51. (d) A : Zeatin is derived from the purine base called
adenine. Zeatin belongs to the family of plant-growth
hormones called cytokinins and was discovered in
immature corn kernels from the genus Zea.
B : Florigen (or flowering hormone) is the
hypothesized hormone-like molecule
responsible for controlling and/or triggering of
flowering in plants. It is produced in the leaves,
and acts in the shoot apical meristem of buds
and growing tips.
C : Indole-3-butyric acid (IBA) is a natural plant
hormone in the auxin family and is an ingredient
in many commercial horticultural plant rooting
products. It is used for stimulating plant growth
and root formation.
D : Naphthalene acetic acid (NAA) is a synthetic
plant hormone in the auxin family. It is toxic to
plants at high concentrations. It induces the
formation of more fertile branches in cotton plants.
52. (a) A : Abscissic acid (ABA), also known as abscisin
II and dormin. It is usually found in vascular
plants, some fungi and some green algae. It was
discovered for its role in regulating abscission
and dormancy. It simulates the closure of
stomata in the epidermis and increases the
tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses,
therefore it is also called as stress hormone.
B : Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone.
C : Cytokinins are found in abundance in young
roots, leaves and young fruits where rapid cell
division occurs and are synthesized in the
meristematic regions of the plants. They are
responsible for mitosis, chloroplast
development, and differentiation of the shoot
meristem, stimulating the development of lateral
buds and therefore branching, differentiation of
the tissues of the root, leaf formation and leaf
senescence.
D : Auxin is a plant hormone which causes the
elongation of cells in shoots and is involved in
regulating plant growth. They are also
responsible for apical dominance.
53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (c)
56. (c) Phytohormones can be broadly classified into two
groups based on their functions in a living plant
body - growth promoters and growth inhibitors.
Auxin, gibberellin and cytokinin are growth
promoters and ethylene and abscissic acid (ABA)
are growth inhibitors.
Functions of growth promoters - I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII
Functions of growth inhibitors - VIII, IX
57. (b) Gibberellin helps in cell growth of stem, leaves and
other aerial parts.
58. (c) The plant growth regulators (PGRs) are small, simple
molecule of diverse chemical composition. They
could be indole compounds (indole-3-acetic acid,
(IAA, IBA); adenine derivatives (N6
-furfurylamino
purine, kinetin) derivatives of carotenoids (abscisic
acid); terpenes (gibberellic acid, GA3
) or gases
(ethylene, C2H4
).
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-84 Biology
59. (d) Ethylene is produced from amino acid methionine.
Kinetin is a modified form of adenine, (purine).
60. (b) In the given graph of growth verses time, the phases
marked as A, B and C are respectively stationary
phase, lag phase and log phase. In lag phase, the
growth is slow, the growth increases during log
phase and becomes steady in the stationary phase.
61. (b) In the given figure of germination and seedling
development in bean, the structure marked as A, B,
C and D are respectively radicle, seed coat, epicotyl
and hypocotyl.
Radicle is the part of a plant embryo that develops
into the primary root. Seed coat is the protective
outer coat of a seed. Epicotyl is the region of an
embryo or seedling stem above the cotyledon.
Hypocotyl is the part of the stem of an embryo plant
beneath the stalks of the seed leaves or cotyledons
and directly above the root.
62. (d) Auxin concentration increases in shaded area, i.e.,
auxins are collected in the opposite side of light.
Increased concentration of auxin is stimulatory for
shoot growth and for this reason, shaded side shows
more growth than lighted side. Hence, bending of
shoot takes place towards light.
63. (b) The option (b) shows the correct graph of arithmetic
growth. Arithmetic growth refers to the situation
where a population increases by a constant number
of persons (or other objects) in each period being
analysed. In arithmetic growth, following mitotic cell
division, only one daughter cell continues to divide
while the other differentiates and matures. On
plotting length of the organ against time, a linear
curve is obtained.
64. (c) In the given graph of geometric growth rate, (c) is
the correct statement. According to this graph, with
limited supply of nutrients, the growth rate increases
rapidly leading to an exponential phase.
65. (c) (i) Absolute growth rate (AGR) is actual growth
per unit time.
AGR of leaf A = 10 – 5 = 5
AGR of leaf B = 55 – 50 = 5
(ii) Relative growth rate (RGR) is the growth per
unit time as percentage of initial size.
RGR of leaf A =
5
100 100%
5
´ =
RGR of leaf B = 5
100 10%
50
´ =
66. (a) Short day plants generally require light period of
less than 12 hours and continuous dark period of
about
14-1hours for subsequent flowering.
67. (b) All the plants (I, II and III) show photoperiodism.
Photoperiodism is the response of an organism to
seasonal changes in day length. Depending on the
length of the photoperiod required for flowering, plants
are classified as short day, long day and day neutral
plants. Plant I, II and II are respectively short day plant,
long day plant and day neutral plant.
Short day plants (or long night plants) are those plants
where flowering takes place when they are exposed to
shorter photoperiod i.e day length is less than the
critical length. For examples, Maryland Mammoth
tobacco Nicotiana tobaccum, Xanthium, rice etc.
Long day plants or short night plants are those plants
where flowering takes place when they are exposed to
longer photoperiod i.e more than critical day length.
Example - sugar beet, wheat, radish etc. Day neutral
plants are those plants where day length does not
influence flowering. These plants flower in both
shorter and longer photoperiod. For example, maize,
cotton, tomato etc.
68. (d) The given two statements are shown by the cell at
the root apex or shoot apexes.
69. (b) The period of growth is generally divided into three
phases: meristematic (cells of apical meristem divide),
elongation (proteins, protoplasm, cell wall material
is synthesized) and maturation (secondary walls are
laid down).
Maximal size in term of wall thickening and
protoplasmic modification are achieved by cells of
maturation phase.
70. (a) Arithmetic growth is a type of growth in which the
rate of growth is constant and increase in growth
occurs in arithmetic progression i.e., 2, 4, 6, 8 etc.
Here after mitosis, only one daughter cell continues
to divide, other takes part in differentiation and
maturation. In this type of growth, a linear curve is
obtained with positive value.
Arithmetic growth is expressed as Lt
= L0
+ rt. Where,
Lt
= Length after time t, L0
= Length at the beginning,
r = growth rate.
71. (a) In geometric growth, if total growth is plotted against
time, an S-shaped or sigmoid curve is obtained. It
consists of four parts-lag phase, log phase
(exponential phase) phase of diminishing growth and
stationary phase (steady growth for organs or
organisms of indefinite growth).
72. (b) Absolute growth rate is defined as the measurement
and the comparison of total growth per unit time.
73. (c) In the expression W1
= W0
e
rt, r is the relative growth
rate and is also the measure of the ability of the plant
to produce new plant material, referred to as efficiency
index.
74. (b) Relative growth rate is the measure of the ability of
the plant to produce new plant material.
Growth = 19 – 5 = 14 cm
Period = 7 days
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-85
Growth rate = 14/7 = 2 cm/day
Relative growth rate = 2/5 × 100 = 40%
75. (a) Differentiation is a process in which cells undergo
few to major structural changes both in their cell
walls and protoplasm.
76. (d) Development includes all changes that an organism
goes through during its life cycle from germination
of the seed to senescence. The correct sequence of
the developmental process in a plant cell is:
Cell division - Differentiation - Maturation -
Senescence
Cell division involves plasmatic growth.
Differentiation is a process in which cells undergo
few to major structural changes both in their cell
walls and protoplasm. Maturation is the process that
a living thing goes through as it ages and becomes
ripe or fully developed. Senescence is the stage in
the life history of an individual when the rate of
metabolic activities declines that leads to ageing and
then eventually death.
77. (b) Plant hormones are chemicals that at low
concentration, influences plant growth and
differentiation. They are signal molecules produced
within the plant, and occur in extremely low
concentrations.
78. (b) Experiment done by Charles Darwin and his son on
plant phototropism shows that the tip of the
coleoptile is the light receptor of the plant that caused
the bending of the entire coleoptile towards the light
source.
79. (b) Ethylene is a gaseous hormone. It is a natural plant
hormone which affects the growth, development,
ripening, and senescence (aging) of all plants. It is
normally produced in small quantities by most fruits
and vegetables. Many fruits produce larger
quantities of ethylene and respond with uniform
ripening when exposed to an external source of
ethylene.
80. (a) Kinetin (cytokinin) is a modified form of adenine, a
purine.
81. (b) IBA (indole butyric acid) is a natural plant hormone
in the auxin family and is an ingredient in many
commercial horticultural plant rooting products. It is
used for stimulating plant growth and root formation.
82. (a) IAA (Indole - 3 - acetic acid) is the most abundant
and the basic auxin natively occurring and
functioning in plants. IAA is translocated to other
parts for growth of the plant. It promotes elongation
of stems and roots.
83. (c) Flowering in pineapple is promoted by NAA
(Naphthalene acetic acid). NAA is a synthetic plant
hormone in the auxin family. NAA and 2, 4, D are
synthetic auxin plant hormones. All these auxins
have been used extensively in agricultural and
horticultural practices.
84. (a) Indole compounds (e.g, IAA, IBA) help to prevent
fruit and leaf drop at early stage but promote the
abscission of older mature leaves and fruits. Indole
is an aromatic heterocyclic organic compound. It has
a bicyclic structure, consisting of a six-membered
benzene ring fused to a five-membered nitrogencontaining pyrrole ring.
85. (d) The phenomenon of apical dominance can be seen
in most of the vascular plants in which, in the
presence of apical bud, growth of lateral buds (formed
just below the apex) is suppressed. At the removal
of apical bud, the lateral buds grow vigorously. It
shows that apical bud suppresses the growth of
lateral bud (axillary bud) just below it. This is known
as apical dominance. It is widely used in tea
plantation and hedge making.
86. (a) Auxins are widely used as herbicides. 2, 4-
Dichlorophe-noxyacetic acid is a common systemic
herbicide used in the control of broadleaf weeds. It
is one of the most widely used herbicides in the world.
2, 4 D, widely used to kill dicotyledonous weeds, do
not affect mature monocotyledonous plants. It is
used to prepare weed free lawns by gardeners.
87. (a)
88. (d) Terpenoids, which are derivatives of terpenes,
includes abscisic acid and gibberellin (plant growth
substances) and the carotenoid and chlorophyll
pigments. Gibberellins (GAs) are plant hormones that
regulate growth and influence various developmental
processes, including stem elongation, germination,
dormancy, flowering, sex expression, enzyme
induction, and leaf and fruit senescence.
89. (b) Ripening of citrus and apple fruits can be delayed
with the help of gibberellins. The fruits can be left on
the tree longer to extend market period. It is also
useful for safe and prolonged storage of fruits.
90. (a) Gibberellins (GAs) causes fruits like apple to elongate
and improve in shapes. GA are plant hormones that
regulate growth and influence various developmental
processes, including stem elongation, germination,
dormancy, flowering, sex expression, enzyme
induction, and leaf and fruit senescence. GA is also
responsible for bolting (internode elongation just
prior to flowering).
91. (b) In conifers, gibberellin (GA) has been found to cause
quicker early growth so that maturity is reached early.
It is useful for obtaining early and quicker yield of
economically important seeds.
92. (c) Germinating barley grains produce more malt when
provided with GA3
probably by forming higher
quantities of a -amylase and other hydrolytic
enzymes.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-86 Biology
93. (a) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the
remaining of the leaves with 2, 4, 5
trichlorophenoxyacetic acid could be most beneficial to
obtain maximum seed yield from the premature yellowing
of leaves of a pulse crops with decreased yield.
94. (a)
95. (a) The climacteric in plants is a stage of fruit ripening
associated with increased ethylene production and
a rise in cellular respiration. Apples, bananas, melons,
apricots, tomatoes (among others) are climacteric
fruit. Citrus, grapes, strawberries are non-climacteric
(they ripen without ethylene and respiration bursts).
96. (b) Abscisic acid is also called stress hormone as it
increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of
stresses and causes partial closure of stomata under
drought and thus acts as anti transpirant.
97. (a) Abscissic acid (ABA), also known as abscisin II and
dormin, is usually found in vascular plants, some
fungi and some green algae. It is a multipurpose plant
hormone which acts as an inhibitor because it
opposes the growth of promoting effect of auxins,
GA and cytokinins, thus keep their activity under
control. ABA is also known as stress hormone
because it is produced under conditions of stress
and causes partial closure of stomata under drought
and thus acts as antitranspirants.
98. (a) Long day plant or short night plants are those plants
where flowering takes place when they are exposed
to longer photoperiod i.e. more than critical day
length. Examples - spring barley, sugar beet etc.
99. (b) Short long day plants require short photoperiod for
initiation of flowering and long photoperiod for
blossoming, eg, Tripholium repens. Long short day
plants require long photoperiod for initiation of
flowering and short photoperiod for blossoming, eg,
Bryophyllum, Cestrum. Intermediate plants flower
within a definite range of photoperiod, eg, wild kidney
beans.
100. (d) Short day plants (or long night plants) are those
plants where flowering takes place when they are
exposed to shorter photoperiod i.e day length is less
than the critical length. For examples, Maryland
Mammoth tobacco (Nicotiana tobaccum),
Xanthium, rice etc.
101. (d) Seed dormancy is defined as a state in which seeds
are prevented from germinating even under
environmental conditions normally favourable for
germination. These conditions are a complex
combination of water, light, temperature, gasses,
mechanical restrictions, seed coats, and hormone
structures.
Role of microbes in breaking seed dormancy is not a
mechanical method. Microorganisms present in the
soil weaken and decompose the hard seed coat.
102. (d) Breaking of dormancy in leaf buds is brought about
by gibberellin but not by auxin.
103. (c) Differentiation of shoot is controlled by high
cytokinin: auxin ratio. The ratio of auxin to cytokinin
plays an important role in the effect of cytokinin on
plant growth. Cytokinin alone has no effect on
parenchyma cells. When cultured with auxin but no
cytokinin, they grow large but do not divide. When
cytokinin is added, the cells expand and differentiate.
When cytokinin and auxin are present in equal levels,
the parenchyma cells form an undifferentiated callus.
More cytokinin induces growth of shoot buds, while
more auxin induces root formation.
Cjãòvgt 16 : Dkégõvkqp ãpæ Adõqtòvkqp
1. (b) Premolars are not present in milk dentition. The
premolar teeth are transitional teeth located between
the canine and molar teeth. In humans, there are two
premolars per quadrant in the permanent set of teeth,
making eight premolars total in the mouth.
Milk dentition (also called deciduous teeth or
temporary teeth) is the first set of teeth in humans
and other diphyodont mammals. They develop
during the embryonic stage of development. They
are usually lost and replaced by permanent teeth,
but in the absence of permanent replacements, they
can remain functional for many years.
2. (c) Thecodont are the teeth embedded in the sockets of
the jaw bone. E.g., mammals
3. (c) Tongue is a freely movable muscular organ that is
attached to the floor of the oral cavity by the frenulum.
4. (b) The tongue functions primarily to move food into
position for chewing and swallowing. It also
functions in tasting food and facilitating speech.
5. (a) A cartilaginous flap called epiglottis prevents the
entry of food into the glottis - opening of the wind
pipe - during swallowing.
6. (b) The membranes of the digestive tract are from the
inside to the outside: mucosa, submucosa, circular
longitudinal muscles and serosa.
7. (c) Minerals are naturally occurring inorganic
substances with a definite and predictable chemical
composition and physical properties. They are
needed in the diet as a component of teeth and bone;
regulators of acid base balance and water balance
and parts of certain enzymes.
8. (a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn are tubular invaginations of
the epithelium around the villi, lined largely with
younger epithelial cells which are involved primarily
in secretion. They are present in the intestine. It
consists of two secreting cells - Paneth cells (found
in duodenum) and argentaffin cells.
9. (d) The opening of hepato-pancreatic duct in the
duodenum is guarded by sphincter of Oddi.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-87
10. (b) Liver does not produce any digestive enzymes. They
secrete alkaline bile juice.
11. (c) Salivary glands are exocrine glands, which secrete
saliva and an enzyme (called salivary amylase or
ptyalin) that breaks down starch into maltose. In
human, there are three pairs of salivary glands -
parotid gland (major and the largest among three),
submandibular gland and sublingual gland. They
secrete saliva to facilitate mastication and swallowing
and to begin the digestion of starches.
12. (c) Brunner’s (duodenal) glands are confined to sub
mucosa of duodenum and opens into crypts of
Lieberkuhn. It secretes mucous only.
13. (a) Bile is stored temporarily in the gall bladder until it is
needed by the small intestine to emulsify fats.
14. (a) Bile is stored temporarily in gall bladder until it is
needed by the small intestine to emulsify fats. After
it leaves the gall blader, it enters into the duodenum.
15. (b) Liver is the largest digestive gland. Hepatic lobules
are the structural and functional unit of liver. Liver is
basically an organ of homeostasis. Which controls
many metabolic activities essential for maintaining
constant blood composition.
Kupffer cells (present in the lining of blood spaces
of liver) are phagocytic and involved in the
breakdown of old red blood cells and ingestion of
potentially harmful bacteria. Glissons capsule is a
thin layer of dense connective tissue which surrounds
the liver lobule enclosing branches of portal vein,
the hepatic artery, the bile duct and lymphatic
capsule. Crypts of Lieberkuhn (present in the
intestine) are tubular invagination of the epithelium
around the villi, lined largely with younger epithelial
cells which are involved primarily in secretion.
16. (b) Bile is drained from the liver by a bile duct which is
formed by the joining of a cystic duct from the gall
bladder and a common hepatic duct from different
liver lobes.
17. (c) Saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase
that helps to digest the starch (carbohydrate) present
in the food partially.
18. (c) The digestive enzymes sucrase, lactase, and maltase
are involved in the breakdown of disaccharides into
the monosaccharides glucose, galactose and
fructose.
19. (a) Another name for salivary amylase is ptyalin. This
enzyme is secreted by salivary gland.
20. (a) Saliva is a complex mixture and a hypotonic solution
that is continuously secreted from salivary gland.
pH of saliva is 6.5.
21. (a) Maltase is a digestive enzyme, produced by the
intestine (crypts of Lieberkuhn). It acts on maltose,
maltotriose and alpha dextrin and convert them into
glucose at a pH greater than 7.
22. (b) Mechanically and chemically, stomach transforms a
food bolus into chyme. The bolus of food is carried
down the oesophagus by peristalsis, and finally
reaches the stomach. The stomach stores food for 4
- 5 hours, then the food mixes thoroughly with the
acidic gastric juices of the stomach by the churning
movements of its muscular wall and is called chyme.
23. (c) The disaccharidases are secreted with intestinal
juice. These disaccharidases help in the digestion of
disaccharides.
24. (d) Succus entericus refers to the digestive juice of
intestine. It is the alkaline secretion produced by the
intestinal glands in the wall of the duodenum. It
consists of water, mucoproteins, and hydrogen
carbonate ions. It helps to neutralize the highly acidic
and proteolytic chyme which enters the small
intestine from the stomach, and thus protects the
duodenum from damage.
25. (c) The enzyme trypsin is secreted by pancreas.
Trypsinogen is present in an inactive form in the
pancreatic juice. The enzyme Enterokinin
(enteropeptidase) secreted by the intestinal mucosa
– activates trypsinogen into trypsin.
26. (a) The chylomicrons are formed inside enterocytes and
are absorbed in lacteals.
27. (a) Rennin plays an important role in the coagulation of
milk.
28. (d) Pancreatic juice contains variety of enzymes that help
in the digestion of protein, fats and carbohydrates.
29. (d) Oxyntic cells are found on the inner wall of gastric
glands and secrete HCl.
30. (b) Trypsinogen is present in an inactive form in the
pancreatic juice. The enzyme enterokinin
(enteropeptidase) secreted by the intestinal mucosa
activates trypsinogen into trypsin.
31. (d) Chymotrypsin is a digestive enzyme which uses an
active serine residue to perform hydrolysis on the Cterminus of the aromatic amino acids of other
proteins. It is a protease enzyme that cleaves on the
C-terminal phenylalanine (F), tryptophan (W), and
tyrosine (Y) on peptide chains. It shows specificity
for aromatic amino acids because of its hydrophobic
pocket.
32. (d) Most of the fat digestion occurs in the small intestine.
33. (c) Peristalsis is the wave like movement caused by the
alternate contraction and relaxation of the muscles
of the alimentary canal. It is found in the stomach,
small intestine and large intestine.
34. (b) The enzyme Enterokinin (enteropeptidase) secreted
by the intestinal mucosa activates trypsinogen into
trypsin.
35. (a) HCl does not directly help in digestion. HCl of gastric
juice inactivates ptyalin and activates pepsin. It
converts proenzyme prorennin and pepsinogen into
active rennin and pepsin respectively by lowering
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-88 Biology
the pH of stomach between 1.5 - 2.5. HCl acidifies
the food and stops the action of ptyalin.
36. (b) Rennin, also known as chymosin, is a proteolytic
enzyme and synthesized by chief cells in the stomach.
Its role in digestion is to curdle or coagulate milk in
the stomach. It acts on milk protein and changes
casein into paracasein. If milk were not coagulated,
it would rapidly flow through the stomach and miss
the opportunity for initial digestion of its proteins.
37. (c) Chief (zymogen or peptic) cells secrete inactive
enzymes like pepsinogen, prorennin and lipase.
38. (a) Protein digestion takes place in two different phases:
in the stomach and in the small intestine. HCl
(hydrochloric acid) and pepsinogen secreted by
stomach interact to create pepsin, an enzyme that
plays a very important role in protein digestion.
Pepsin is one of three principal protein-degrading,
or proteolytic, enzymes in the digestive system, the
other two being chymotrypsin and trypsin. Pepsin
is an enzyme whose zymogen (pepsinogen) is
released by the chief cells in the stomach and that
degrades food proteins into peptides.
39. (b) Trypsin, produced in the pancreas as the inactive
protease trypsinogen, cleaves proteins into
peptones. Trypsin cleaves peptide chains mainly at
the carboxyl side of the amino acids lysine or arginine,
except when either is followed by proline. It is used
for numerous biotechnological processes.
40. (a) Most of the chemical digestion of food in humans is
completed in the small intestine. Small intestine is
the place where most of the digestive enzymes are
secreted by the pancreas, and enter the small
intestine via the pancreatic duct. The three major
classes of nutrients that undergo digestion are
proteins, lipids and carbohydrates.
41. (b) End product of protein digestion is amino acid.
Amino acids are organic acids that combine to form
proteins. Both amino acids and proteins are the
building blocks of life. When proteins are digested
or broken down, amino acids are left. The human
body uses amino acids to make proteins to help the
body, like - break down of food, growth, repair of
body tissue and many other body functions.
42. (c) Pancreatic juice contains a variety of inactive
enzymes such as trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen,
and carboxypeptidases.
43. (b) Glucose is stored in the liver as glycogen. It can be
converted to free glucose by the process of
glycogenolysis, which involves the activation of a
phosphorylase enzyme by the hormone glucagon.
Glucagon is made by the pancreas and is released
when the blood sugar levels fall.
44. (b) Diglyceride is a glyceride consisting of two fatty
acid chain covalently bonded to a glycerol molecule
through ester linkages. On digestion, Diglycerides
give two fatty acids and one glycerol. Lipase acts in
this conversion.
45. (b) Semi digested food in stomach or intestine is called
chyme. Chyle is a term for lymph having fat particles.
46. (d) Enterokinase is present in the intestinal juice.
47. (a) Emulsification is the process of break down of large
fat globules into smaller globules so that the
pancreatic enzymes can easily act on them.
48. (d) Protection of the walls of the stomach against the
action of its own digestive juice results from the
neutralizing, buffering and coating mucus covering
its inner surface.
49. (d) The pancreatic lipase (present in the pancreatic juice)
and the intestinal lipase (present in the intestinal
juice) hydrolyse the fat molecules into triglycerides,
diglycerides, monoglycerides, and ultimately into
glycerol.
50. (b) Active transport is the absorption of nutrients from
lower concentrated region to higher concentrated
region (i.e. against concentration gradient). It
requires energy.
51. (c) The stomach stores food (and performs some
digestion too) before passing it on to the intestine.
The small intestine (midgut) finishes the digestion and
carries out most of the nutrient absorption, while the
large intestine (hindgut) reabsorbs water and ions.
52. (d) Lacteals is a lymphatic vessel in a villus of the small
intestine which conveys chyle from the intestine
through the mesenteric glands to the thoracic duct.
The main function of the lacteals in the villi of small
intestine is the absorption of fatty acids and glycerol.
53. (c) Insulin is secreted by the Islets of Langerhans in the
pancreas when the blood sugar level is high. This
increases the rate of glucose uptake from the blood
into the muscle cells.
54. (d) Jaundice is a yellowish pigmentation of the skin, the
conjunctival membranes over the sclerae (whites of
the eyes), and other mucous membranes caused by
high blood bilirubin levels. Jaundice is often seen in
liver disease such as hepatitis or liver cancer.
55. (b) Diarrhoea is a diseased condition in which a person
passes out watery stools frequently. It reduces the
absorption of food while constipation is infrequent
elimination of dry stool. It is due to decreased
peristalsis in colon.
56. (a) The nutrients are absorbed from the small intestine
into the blood and move through the circulatory
system to the body cells.
57. (d) Chylomicron is a small fat globule composed of
protein and lipid (fat/glycerol). They are found in
blood and lymphatic fluid where they serve to
transport fat from its point of entry in the intestine to
liver and to adipose (fat) tissue. After a fatty meal,
the blood is so full of chylomicrons that it looks
milky.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-89
58. (c) The enzyme Enterokinin (enteropeptidase) secreted
by the intestinal mucosa activates proteolytic
enzymes of succus entericus.
59. (d) Serosa, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa are the
walls of alimentary canal. Serosa is the outermost
layer and is made up of mesothelium. Mesothelium
or serosa lies in close proximity of muscularis layer.
60. (a) Pepsin is a protein- digesting enzyme. The activated
pepsin converts proteins into proteases and
peptides.
61. (a) Amylase, renin and trypsin are all proteins.
62. (d) Bile helps in emulsification of fats. If bile duct gets
choked, little digestion of fats will occur.
63. (c) About 30% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary
amylase into a disaccharide - maltose. Oxyntic or
parietal cells, present in the gastric glands of stomach,
secrete HCl and intrinsic factor (factor essential of
absorption of vitamin B12). Chylomicrons are small
protein coated fat globules, transported into the
lymph vessels (lacteals) in the villi.
64. (d) Milk protein can be digested by pepsin and
chymotrypsin.
65. (c) Saliva secreted from salivary glands provides the
chemical digestion, which helps to break down foods
in the mouth.
66. (c) Digestive system helps in breakdown of larger food
particles into smaller ones for easy digestion.
67. (c) Statement (i), (iv) and (v) are correct regarding the
human digestive system. In the mouth, salivary
glands are present and secrete salivary juices. Food
is digested completely in the small intestine.
68. (b) Statement (i) and (iii) are correct regarding jaundice.
Jaundice may be caused by the retarded function of
the liver. Jaundice is a yellowish pigmentation of the
skin, the conjunctival membranes over the sclerae
(whites of the eyes), and other mucous membranes
caused by high blood bilirubin levels. Jaundice is
often seen in liver disease such as hepatitis or liver
cancer
69. (b) Fatty acids are absorbed into lymph vessels at the
small intestine.
70. (c) Sucrase hydrolyses sucrose to glucose and fructose.
71. (b) HCl, secreted from oxyntic cells, dissolves the bits
of food and creates an acidic medium so that
inactivated pepsinogen gets converted into active
pepsin.
72. (a) Chewing or mastication is a type of mechanical
digestion. It is the most important process of
digestion in animals. It helps in enzyme action.
73. (a) 74. (a)
75. (c) Invertase is the enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis
of sucrose into glucose and fructose.
76. (a) Pepsin is a protein- digesting enzyme, secreted in its
inactive form (called pepsinogen) from gastric glands
of stomach. The activated pepsin converts proteins
into proteases and peptides.
77. (d) Small intestine is the major area of absorption of
nutrients. Approximately 80% of absorption take
place here. Glucose, fructose, fatty acids, amino acids
(glycine etc.) are absorbed through mucosa into
blood and lymph by active absorption.
78. (c) In small intestine, carbohydrate-digestion is resumed.
The food gets mixed with pancreatic juice. It contains
the pancreatic amylase (amylopsin) that hydrolyses
the polysaccharides into disaccharides.
79. (c) Saliva secreted by the salivary glands contains a
digestive enzyme called salivary amylase. This
enzyme breaks down starch into sugar at pH 6.8.
Starch ® maltose + Isomaltose + Limit dextrins
80. (b) Mouth releases saliva (secreted from salivary glands)
containing salivary amylase enzyme that break down
carbohydrates. Stomach is the most distensible and
widest organ of the alimentary canal. It is an acidic
environment where digestion of protein takes place
(by breaking proteins into larger polypeptides). Small
intestine carries out most of the digestion and
absorption of nutrients. Large intestine reclaims water
and salts.
81. (d) The correct substrate for lactase is lactose and for
lipase is fats.
82. (a) Amylase (secreted by salivary gland), trypsin and
lipase (secreted by exocrine part, acini of pancreas),
and nucleases (secreted by intestine) acts on starch,
protein, fats and nucleic acid respectively.
83. (b) The end products of fat digestion are fatty acids and
glycerol.
84. (c) Ingestion means intake of food. Mechanical
digestion comprises of mastication or chewing,
liquefaction of food by digestive juices, swallowing
and peristalsis. Chemical digestion includes the
enzymatic action on foods. Defecation is the
elimination of faecal matter which is formed by
undigested food along with water and excess of
digestive enzymes.
85. (d) Carbohydrate is mostly ingested in the form of starch
and its end product in the body is glucose which is
absorbed directly in the blood. Proteins are the main
building blocks of our body. It is made of long chain
of amino acids. Nucleic acids occur in all body cells
and transmit coded information of all morphological
and functional hereditary characteristics from one
generation to the next. The molecules of nucleic acids
are long chain polymers of nucleotide monomers. They
are of two types - DNA and RNA. Each molecule is
itself a complex molecule formed by linking of a
nitrogenous base, pentose and a phosphate group.
86. (d) Maltase is a brush border enzyme that acts on
disaccharides. Salivary amylase begins carbohydrate
digestion in the mouth. Trypsin digests proteins in
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-90 Biology
the small intestine and bile emulsifies fats for
digestion.
87. (d) In the given fate of carbohydrate digestion in the
alimentary canal, the stages marked by A, B, C and D
are the enzymes which act on their respective food
types to convert them into simple molecules for
digestion. A, B, C and D are respectively amylase,
lactase, maltase and invertase.
Starch Maltose
Lactose Glucose + Galactose
Maltose Glucose + Glucose
Sucrose Fructose + Glucose
88. (a) The label I represents liver. Liver releases bile which
is then stored in the gall bladder.
89. (c) The structure I represents lacteal. The function of
lacteal is to absorb and transport fatty acids and
glycerol in the blood streams through thoracic duct.
90. (c) The marked structure (X) is stomach. Stomach is the
most distensible and widest organ of the alimentary
canal which is differentiated into four parts - cardiac
fundus, body and pyloric part. It acts as a food
reservoir and helps in mechanical churning and
chemical digestion of food. Caecum is a small blind
sac which hosts some symbiotic microorganisms.
The undigested, unabsorbed substances enter into
the caecum of large intestine through ileo-ceacal
valve which prevents the back flow of the faecal
matter.
91. (d) The given figure shows the layers present in the
wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to rectum.
Part 4 is mucosa. Mucosa is the innermost layer lining
the lumen of alimentary canal. Mucosa forms gastric
glands in the stomach and crypts in between the
bases of villi in the intestine (crypts of Lieberkuhn).
This layer also forms irregular folds (rugae) in the
stomach and small finger like foldings called villi in
the small intestine.
92. (a) Structure 1 is serosa. Serosa is the outermost layer
in the wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to
rectum. It is made up of thin mesothelium (epithelium
of visceral organs) with some connective tissues.
93. (c) Hepato – pancreatic duct (marked as 3) is guarded
by sphincter of Oddi. The sphincter of Oddi (or
Hepatopancreatic sphincter) is a muscular valve that
controls the flow of digestive juices (bile and
pancreatic juice) through the ampulla of vater into
the second part of the duodenum.
94. (d) Ducts [marked as 1(duct from gall bladder) and 4 (
duct from liver)] are responsible for the formation of
common bile duct (marked as 2)].The common bile duct
is a small, tube-like structure formed where the common
hepatic duct (duct from liver) and the cystic duct (duct
from gall bladder) join. Its function is to carry bile from
the gallbladder and conduct it into the upper part of the
small intestine (the duodenum). The common bile duct is
part of the biliary system. Bile, a yellow-brown fluid which
helps break down fats in food, is produced by the liver. It
is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder until it is
needed to help digest food.
95. (d) The given structure marked as Y is oesophagus.
Oesophagus is a narrow, muscular thin tube that
pierces the diaphragm and enters the abdominal
cavity. It connects the mouth to the stomach and
has no function in chemical digestion.
96. (a) Pancreatic juice contains variety of inactive enzymes
like trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, and
carboxypeptidases.
97. (c) The level of glucose will not be affected because
glucose level can be maintained by the insulin
hormone secreted from pancreas and hormones do
not pass through duct.
98. (a) Alimentary canal is a long continuous tube having
muscular wall and glandular epithelium extending
from mouth to anus.Arranged sequentially, it includes
the following parts: buccopharyngeal cavity ®
oesophagus ® stomach ® small intestine ® large
intestine.
99. (b) Mixing of food with pancreatic juice and bile occurs
in duodenum. Pancreatic juice and bile are released
through the hepato-pancreatic duct. These mixing
of food occur due to the movements generated by
the muscula layer of the small intestine.
100. (b) The walls of the alimentary canal are made up of four
layers namely serosa muscularis, sub mucosa and
mucosa. Serosa is the outermost layer while mucosa
being the innermost lining of the lumen of alimentary
canal.
101. (d) Goblet cells, found in the intestinal mucosal
epithelium, secretes mucus. The mucus lubricates
the food for its easy passage. So, if for some reason,
goblet cells become non-functional, it will adversely
affect the smooth movement of food down the
intestine.
102. (b) Butter is a fat and digestion of fat begins with gastric
juice. Gastric juice contains a very small amount of
gastric lipase.
103. (a) Bile is stored temporarily in the gall bladder until it is
needed by the small intestine to emulsify fats.
Removal of gall bladder would lead to impairment of
digestion of fats.
104. (b) During prolonged fasting, first carbohydrate are used
up, followed by fat and proteins towards the end.
105. (a) Physiological value of carbohydrates is 4.0 kcal/g,
proteins 4.0 kcal/g and of fats is 9.0 kcal/g. Hence,
5 g raw sugar will yield
5 × 4.0 = 20.0 kcal
4 g albumin (protein) will yield
4 × 4.0 = 16.0 kcal
10 + 2 g of fat will yield
12 × 9.0 = 108.0 kcal
Total yield = 144 kcal.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-91
106. (b) For the activation of pepsinogen into pepsin, acidic
medium is required. So, if pH of stomach is made 7,
digestion of protein would be most affected.
Hydrochloric acid provides an acidic medium for
pepsinogen.
107. (b) The enzyme, salivary amylase breaks down starch
into sugar at pH 6.8.
108. (c) Saliva, secreted by the salivary glands contains a
digestive enzyme called salivary amylase. This
enzyme breaks down starch into sugar at pH 6.8.
About 30% of starch is digested by amylase.Salivary
amylase continues to act in the oesophagus, but its
action stops in the stomach as the contents become
acidic. Hence, carbohydrate-digestion stops in the
stomach.
109. (b) The dental formula expresses the arrangement of
teeth in each half of the upper jaw and the lower jaw.
110. (a) The correct chronological order for the enzyme
activity of some enzymes taking part in protein
digestion is pepsin trypsin peptidase.
Protein digestion takes place in two different phases:
in the stomach and in the small intestine. Two of the
substances secreted by the stomach, HCl
(hydrochloric acid) and pepsinogen, interact to create
pepsin, an enzyme that plays a very important role in
protein digestion. Pepsin is one of three principal
protein-degrading, or proteolytic, enzymes in the
digestive system, the other two being chymotrypsin
and trypsin. Pepsin is an enzyme whose zymogen
(pepsinogen) is released by the chief cells in the
stomach and that degrades food proteins into
peptides.
111. (d) Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid. HCl makes
the medium acidic, which is required for activation
of protein digesting enzyme called pepsin.
112. (d) Chemical process of digestion started in the oral
cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate
(potato contains starch) splitting enzyme, the
salivary amylase. Carbohydrates in the chyme are
hydrolysed by pancreatic amylase into disaccharides.
113. (c) Due to a long hunger strike and survival on water, a
person will have less urea in his urine because urea
comes to kidney as a waste product from liver which
is formed after the breakdown of protein, fat,
carbohydrate during hunger.
114. (d) Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl). HCl
makes the medium acidic, which is required for
activation of protein digesting enzyme called pepsin.
If parietal cells become partially non-functional,
proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin
into proteases and peptones.
115. (a) When food enters from oesophagus to stomach,
food mixes with juices and protein digestion starts.
The bolus of food is carried down the oesophagus
by peristalsis, and finally reaches the stomach. The
stomach stores food for 4 – 5 hours, then the food
mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juices of the
stomach by the churning movements of its muscular
wall and is called chyme.
116. (a) The gastric gland secretes hydrochloric acid, mucus
and pepsin. The hydrochloric acid activates enzyme
pepsin that helps in digestion of protein, while mucus
protects the lining of stomach from the action of
HCl.
117. (a) Digestion of food begins in mouth. Both chemical
and physical digestion takes place in mouth. The
teeth cut the food into small pieces, chew and grind
it. So, teeth help in physical digestion.
Salivary gland produces saliva that contains amylase
enzyme. The amylase enzyme digests the starch
present in food into sugar, thereby helping in
chemical digestion.
118. (b) The small intestine is the largest, narrow and tubular
part of alimentary canal. It is divided into three parts
- proximal duodenum, middle jejunum and distal ileum.
Large intestine is divided into caecum, colon and
rectum. The correct arrangement of the parts through
which food passes from the small intestine to the
anus is:
Duodenum ® Jejunum ® Ileum ® Caecum ® Colon
® Rectum
119. (b) The absorption of water in large intestine is affected
when a person is suffering from diahorrea. Diarrhoea
is a condition in which an individual losses excessive
amount of water and salts from the body.
120. (a) Deglutition (swallowing) is a succession of muscular
contractions from above downward or from the front
backward. It propels food into the pharynx and then
into the oesophagus. Peristalsis is the involuntary
constriction and relaxation of the muscles of the intestine
or another canal, creating wave-like movements which
pushes the contents of the canal forward. Vomiting is the
ejection of stomach contents through the mouth. A
feeling of nausea precedes vomiting.
121. (a) During swallowing the epiglottis covers the opening
to the airways to prevent the entry of food or liquid,
therefore if the epiglottis does not function property
then one might get congestion.
122. (d) The mucus produced by the stomach prevents
damage that might be caused by exposure to acids,
food and water dilute gastric juices, the stomach
lining is quick to repair itself, and the release of gastric
juices is controlled to avoid too high a concentration.
Therefore all the options serve to protect the stomach
from damaging itself with its acidic contents.
123. (b) The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and
increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is known
as diarrhoea. It reduces the absorption of food.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-92 Biology
Cjãòvgt 17 : Btgãvjkpé ãpæ Ezejãpég qh Iãõgõ
1. (b) Earthworms do not have a special respiratory organ.
Exchange of gases takes place through their skin. In
them
2 (d) Epiglottis is a stiff flap like structure covering the
glottis. It acts as a trapdoor to the trachea and
prevents the entry of food going down to lungs.
3. (d) Lungs are conical in shape that take up most of the
chest and thoracic cavity.
4. (a) Though larynx is a part of air passage connecting
the pharynx with trachea it does not contribute to
the breathing movements. A cartilaginous larynx
(sound box or voice box) helps in sound production.
5. (b) Intercostal muscle is a set of muscles attached to the
ribs within the chest cavity that control the movement
of the rib cage.
6. (d) Alveolar epithelium and endothelium of blood
capillaries are two membranes which separate air in
pulmonary alveoli from blood capillaries.
7. (a) The sticky mucus lining the nasal chamber moistens
the air and filters dust particles.
8. (d) Bronchiole is the smallest and thinnest tube in the
lungs. It is the tiny branch of air tubes within the
lungs that is a continuation of the bronchus. The
bronchioles, which connect to the alveoli (air sacs),
are divided into 3 types: lobular bronchioles, terminal
bronchioles, and respiratory bronchioles. The
terminal bronchioles are the final airways in the
conducting zone, with the respiratory bronchioles
beginning the respiratory zone. The primary function
of the bronchioles is to conduct air from the bronchi
to the alveoli, and to control the amount of air
distributed through the lung by constricting and
dilating.
9. (a) Trachea is the path that leads from the throat to the
lungs. The trachea, also called windpipe, is a tube
that connects the pharynx and larynx to the lungs,
allowing the passage of air. The trachea extends from
the larynx and branches into the two primary bronchi.
At the top of the trachea the cricoid cartilage attaches
it to the larynx. This is the only complete ring, the
others are incomplete rings of supporting cartilage.
10. (d) Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of
air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration
(ERV + RV). It is about 2300 ml.
11. (c) Expiratory capacity (EC) is the volume of air expired
after a normal inspiration (TV + ERV).
12. (b) Functional residual capacity is the volume of air
remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration (ERV
+ RV). It is about 2100-2300 ml.
13. (c) Total lung capacity (TLC) is the total volume of air in
the lungs after a maximum inspiration.
(RV + ERV + TV + IRV or VC + RV).
14. (c) Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air remaining
in lungs even after a forcible expiration. It is about
1100-1200 ml.
15. (d) Tidal volume (TV) is the volume of air inspired or
expired during a normal breathing.
16. (d) Anaerobic respiration uses electron acceptors other
than oxygen. Although oxygen is not used as the
final electron acceptor, the process still uses a
respiratory electron transport chain. It is a respiration
without oxygen and produces energy, carbon dioxide,
lactic acid or alcohol.
17. (a) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around
5 ml of O2
to the tissues under normal physiological
conditions.
18. (b) Pressure contributed by individual gas in a mixture
of gases is called partial pressure and is represented
as pO2
for oxygen and pCO2
for carbon dioxide.
On the basis of the table given below it can be
concluded that pO2
is higher and pCO2
is lesser in
the atmospheric air as compared to that of alveolar
air.
Table: partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide
at different parts involved in diffusion in comparison
to those in the atmosphere.
Respiratory
gas
Atmospheric
air
Alveoli Blood
(deoxygenated)
Blood
(Oxygenated)
T issues
O2
159 104 40 95 40
CO2
0.3 40 45 40 45
19. (c) Haemoglobin has 4 subunits, each of which binds to
1 molecule of O2 for a total of 4 molecules of O2
bound to 1 haemoglobin molecule.
20. (b) About 98% of O2
is transported by RBC. O2
binds
with haemoglobin (red coloured iron containing
pigment present in the RBCs) to form
oxyhaemoglobin. This process is known as
oxygenation.
21. (b) Partial pressure of oxygen in inspired and expired air
is 158 and 40 mm of Hg.
22. (b) p50 value is the oxygen tension at half saturation
(50%) of blood. It is calculated from the measured
oxygen tension and oxygen saturation by
extrapolation along the oxygen dissociation curve
to 50% saturation.
23. (a) Most oxygen is carried by haemoglobin and most
carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate ions.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-93
24. (b) CO makes the most stable combination with the
haemoglobin of RBCs. Haemoglobin has much more
affinity (about 250 times) for CO than the oxygen. In
the presence of CO, it readily combines to form a
stable compound called carbonmonoxyhaemoglobin
(COHb).
25. (d) CO2 is transported both by plasma and haemoglobin
of blood.
26. (b) An increase (i) in CO2
in blood, which causes a drop (ii)
in pH, would cause your breathing to speed up.
27. (c) Carbonic anhydrase is found in high concentration
in erythrocytes (RBCs). Carbonic anhydrase is a zinc
enzyme that speeds up the formation of carbonic
acid.
28. (b) The higher concentration of pCO2
stimulates
dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.
29. (b) Alveoli are the exchange surfaces in mammalian
lungs. All the other structures listed are dead space
used to transport air to and from the alveoli.
30. (a) Residual air is the amount of air that remains in the
lungs after a maximal expiration. This air mostly
occurs in alveoli (the main site of gas exchange).
31. (c) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately 4ml of CO2
to the alveoli.
32. (b) Asthma is a disease caused due to an allergic reaction
to foreign substances that affect the respiratory tract.
In this, the airways and lungs of a person can become
obstructed because they become narrow and cut off
air flow. Bronchioles can constrict (narrow) because
of muscle spasms.
33. (c) Emphysema is a chronic, irreversible disease of the
lungs. It is characterized by abnormal enlargement of
air spaces in the lungs accompanied by destruction
of the tissue which lines the walls of the air spaces. It
is one of several diseases known collectively as
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease (COPD).
Smoking is the leading cause of emphysema.
34. (a) Respiratory centers are the centers in the medulla
oblongata and pons varolii that collects sensory
information about the level of O2
and CO2
in the
blood and determines the signals to be sent to the
respiratory muscles.
35. (d) Respiratory centers that regulate respiration are
located in medulla oblongata. Respiratory centre
regulates normal breathing and also automatically
adjusts the breathing rate to varying requirements
of body during stress conditions.
36. (d) Pneumotaxic center controls medullary respiratory
centres, particularly inspiratory centre, so that duration
of inspiration is controlled. It is located in pons varolii
of brain.
37. (b) Inhaled air has not yet exchanged gases with lung
capillaries, therefore it contains the highest
concentration of oxygen.
38. (b) Spirometer is an apparatus for measuring the volume
of air inspired and expired by the lungs. It measures
ventilation, the movement of air into and out of the
lungs. There are various types of spirometers which
use a number of different methods for measurement
(pressure, transducers, ultrasonic, water gauge).
39. (a) Diaphragm receives electrical messages from the
brain for breathing in and out. Diaphragm is a domeshaped muscular partition which separates the thorax
from the abdomen in mammals. It plays a major role
in breathing, as its contraction increases the volume
of the thorax and so inflates the lungs.
40. (d) Trachea is a straight tube which extends up to the
mid-thoracic cavity. The trachea divides at the level
of 5th thoracic vertebra into right and left primary
bronchi. Each bronchus undergoes repeated divisions
to form secondary and tertiary bronchi and bronchioles.
They finally end up in very thin terminal bronchioles.
The tracheae, bronchi and the initial bronchioles are
supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings.
41. (a) Thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral
column, ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the
ribs and on the lower side by the dome shaped
diaphragm. Thoracic cavity, also called chest cavity, is
the second largest hollow space of the body. It is
enclosed by the ribs, the vertebral column, and the
sternum, or breastbone, and is separated from the
abdominal cavity (the body's largest hollow space) by
a muscular and membranous partition, the diaphragm.
42. (a) Trachea is a membranous tube supported by “C”
shaped hyaline cartilage ring. The cartilage ring
protects the trachea from collapse and injury.
43. (d) Oxyhaemoglobin is the bright red product which is
formed when oxygen from the lungs combines with
haemoglobin in the blood. It travels through the
bloodstream to cells, where it breaks down to form
haemoglobin and oxygen, and the oxygen then
passes into cells. Factors like high pO2
, low pCO2
,
lesser H+
concentration, and lower temperature
favours for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
44. (b) Alveolar ventilation is more than pulmonary
ventilation.
45. (b) Rise in p50 with decrease in pH is related to Bohr
effect. Bohr effect is a physiological phenomenon
first described in 1904 by the Danish physiologist
Christian Bohr. This effect states that haemoglobin's
oxygen binding affinity is inversely related both to
acidity and to the concentration of carbon dioxide.
46. (a) All animals require a medium for cellular respiration.
Cellular respiration is the process of oxidizing food
molecules, like glucose, to carbon dioxide and water.
The energy released is trapped in the form of ATP
for use by all the energy-consuming activities of the
cell.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-94 Biology
47. (b) About 97% of O2
is transported by RBC. O2
binds
with haemoglobin (red coloured iron containing
pigment present in the RBCs) to form
oxyhaemoglobin.
48. (b) Haemoglobin is an iron-containing protein in red
blood cells that is responsible for transporting
oxygen to the tissues and removing carbon dioxide
from them. Carbonic anhydrase helps in transport of
carbon dioxide.
49. (a) About 97% of oxygen is transported by RBCs in the
blood. About 20 – 25% of carbon dioxide is carried
by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin. Cigarette
smoking is the leading cause of emphysema. Neural
signals from the pneumotaxic centre in pons region of
brain can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby
alter the respiratory rate.
50. (d) All the given statements are correct.
51. (b) Inspiration is the active intake of air from atmosphere
into lungs while expiration (breathing out) is the
passive expelling of air from the lungs.
52. (a) Ventilation rate of lungs is the process that mixes
fresh inspired gas with alveolar gas. Increase of CO2
content in inhaled air is responsible for increase in
ventilation rate of lungs. If there is no ventilation at
all, there will be no replenishment of oxygen and no
removal of CO2
. PO2
will fall and PCO2
will rise towards
the venous O2
and CO2
tensions.
53. (b) When we breathe in, air goes through our nose and
mouth, down over windpipe and into our lungs. As a
result, size of our chest increases.
When we breathe out, carbon dioxide is removed
from our lungs.
54. (b) Air travels through nose and mouth. The respiratory
system moves air in and out of the body – using
oxygen and eliminating carbon dioxide, a gas
produced when cells use oxygen. The respiratory
system includes the nose, mouth, trachea, bronchi,
diaphragm and lungs. Air enters the body through
either the open mouth or the nose. It travels down
the trachea to the lungs, where the oxygen in it
passes into the bloodstream.
55. (a) About 20 – 25% of carbon dioxide is carried by
haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin. About 7%
of CO2
is transported dissolved in the plasma of
blood. The oxyhaemoglobin of the erythrocytes is
acidic.
56. (a) Carbonic anhydrase is a zinc containing enzyme
present in the red blood cells. In erythrocytes (red
blood cells) the carbon dioxide combines with water
and is transported. This enzyme assists rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water into carbonic
acid, protons and bicarbonate ions. This enzyme
catalyzes the decomposition of carbonic acid into
carbon dioxide and water, facilitating the transfer of
carbon dioxide from tissues to blood and from blood
to alveolar air.
57. (b) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily
related to partial pressure of O2
.
58. (b) Oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve
demonstrates a progressive increase in the
percentage of haemoglobin bound to oxygen as blood
pO2
increases which is called percent saturation of
haemoglobin. The total quantity of oxygen bound
to haemoglobin in normal systemic arterial blood,
which is 97 percent saturated, is about 19.4 milliliters
per 100 milliliters of blood. While passing through
the tissue capillaries, this amout is reduced, on
average, to 14.4 milliliters (pO2
of 40 mm Hg, 75
percent saturated 14.4 millititers (pO2
of 40 mm Hg,
75 percent saturated haemoglobin). Thus, under
normal condition,s about 5 milliliters of oxygen are
transported from the lungs to the tissues by each
100 milliliters of blood.
59. (c) Expiratory capacity is the total volume of air a person
can expire after a normal inspiration. This includes
tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume (TV +
ERV).
60. (a) A shift to the right of oxygen dissociation curve
indicates dissociation of oxygen from haemoglobin.
In the tissues, low pO2
, high pCO2
, high H+
concentration (low pH or acidity) and higher
temperature favour dissociation of oxygen from the
oxyhaemoglobin.
61. (d) The diaphragm and a specialised set of
musclesexternal and internal intercostals between the
ribs, help in generating pressure gradient. Besides
this we can increase the strength of inspiration and
expiration with the help of additional muscles in the
abdomen.
62. (b)
63. (c) Mode of respiration in earthworm, human, prawn and
insects are respectively cutaneous (skin), pulmonary
(lung), branchial (branchial gills) and tracheal
(trachea).
64. (d) Asthma is a chronic lung disease that aggravates
and narrows the airways. It causes recurring periods
of wheezing (a whistling sound when you breathe),
chest tightness, shortness of breath, and coughing.
Bronchitis is the inflammation of bronchi of the lungs
and characterised by coughing up mucus, wheezing,
shortness of breath, and chest discomfort. Rhinitis
is the irritation and inflammation of the mucous
membrane inside the nose and leads to a stuffy nose,
runny nose, and post-nasal drip. It is usually
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-95
triggered by airborne allergens such as pollen and
dander. Emphysema is a chronic, irreversible disease
of the lungs characterized by abnormal enlargement
of air spaces in the lungs accompanied by
destruction of the tissue lining the walls of the air
spaces.
65. (d) Residual Volume (RV), about 1,200 mL, is the volume
of air still remaining in the lungs after the expiratory
reserve volume is exhaled. The Vital Capacity (VC),
about 4,500 mL, is the total amount of air that can be
expired after fully inhaling (VC = TV + IRV + ERV =
approximately 80 percent TLC). The value varies
according to age and body size. The Inspiratory
Reserve Volume (IRV), about 2,500 mL, is the
additional air that can be forcibly inhaled after the
inspiration of a normal tidal volume. The Inspiratory
Capacity (IC), about 3,500 mL, is the maximum amount
of air that can be inspired (IC = TV + IRV).
66. (b) The small hair present in the cavity help to filter
particles of dust and other foreign matter. Epiglottis
is a leaf shaped cartilage which acts as a switch
between the larynx and the oesophagus to permit air
to enter the airway to the lungs and food to pass
into the gastrointestinal tract. The epiglottis also
protects the body from choking on food that would
normally obstruct the airway. Pharynx is a coneshaped passageway leading from the oral and nasal
cavities in the head to the oesophagus and larynx.
The pharynx chamber serves both respiratory and
digestive functions. Larynx (voice box) holds the
vocal cords. It is responsible for producing voice,
helping us swallow and breathe. Air passes in and
out of the larynx each time the body inhales or
exhales.
67. (c) Trachea (also called windpipe) is a tube that connects
the pharynx and larynx to the lungs, allowing the
passage of air, and so is present in all air-breathing
animals with lungs.
Alveoli – main site of gaseous exchanges.
68. (d) In the diagram, label IV represents alveoli. Alveoli
are sac like structure present in lungs. They are the
site for exchange of gases. The label I represent
trachea, label II represents bronchi and label III
represents bronchioles.
69. (a) The label X represents epiglottis. Epiglottis is a
structure (containing elastic cartilage) that prevents
food from entering into trachea.
70. (b) The label II represents pharynx. Pharynx is the
common passageway where the nasal and oral
cavities meet. The label I represents nasal cavity,
label III represents trachea and label IV represents
lungs.
71. (a) The label A is correctly matched with its function.
Alveolar cavity is the main site of exchange of
respiratory gases.
72. (a) The correct labelling of the structure marked in the
figure of respiratory system are:
I – Nose, II – Bronchus, III – Larynx, IV – Diaphragm,
V – Trachea, VI – Lung.
Nose (nasal cavity) is the first part of the respiratory
system whose small hair presents in the cavity help
to filter particles of dust and other foreign matter.
Bronchus is any of the major air passageways of the
lungs. Larynx (voice box) holds the vocal cords and
responsible for producing voice, helping us swallow
and breathe. Diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscular
partition separating the thorax from the abdomen and
plays a major role in breathing, as its contraction
increases the volume of the thorax and so inflates
the lungs. Trachea is a tube that connects the
pharynx and larynx to the lungs, allowing the passage
of air. Lungs are a pair of breathing organs located
with the chest which remove carbon dioxide from
and bring oxygen to the blood.
73. (d) The label A represents trachea while label B
represents bronchiole. Tracheal (wind pipe) carriers
air between larynx and bronchi and bronchioles are
the terminal part of bronchi.
74. (a) The given graph shows the oxygen – haemoglobin
dissociation curve. The relationship between the pO2
and the percent saturation of haemoglobin when
represented on a graph is termed as oxygen –
haemoglobin dissociation curve. It is S-shaped
because of the behaviour of the Hb in different pO2
.
75. (b) The correct labelling are: 1 - Lung, 2 - Diaphragm, 3 -
Pleural membrane, 4 - Alveoli. Diaphragm is a domeshaped muscular partition separating the thorax from
the abdomen in mammals. It plays a major role in
breathing, as its contraction increases the volume of
the thorax and so inflates the lungs.
76. (d) X – Inspiration, A – raised, B – increased, C –
contracted.
The given figure shows the inspiration stage of
breathing. Breathing is the process that moves air in
and out of the lungs. Inspiration is an active process
which is due to muscle contraction. During
inspiration, the external intercostal muscles contracts
and the internal intercostal muscle relax. This pulls the
ribcage up and down. At the same time the diaphragm
muscle contracts which flattens the diaphragm. Both
actions increase the volume of thorax.
77. (c) About 70% of carbon dioxide is transported as
sodium bicarbonate.
78. (a) Oxyhaemoglobin is the bright red haemoglobin which
is a formed by the combination of haemoglobin and
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-96 Biology
oxygen from the lungs. Oxyhaemoglobin transports
oxygen to the cells of the body. It dissociates into
oxygen and deoxyhaemoglobin at low O2
pressure
in tissue.
79. (d) Trachea is a membranous tube supported by “C”
shaped cartilage ring. The cartilage ring protects the
trachea from collapse and injury.
80. (b) When the relationship between the pO2
and the
percent saturation of haemoglobin is represented on
a graph, then it is termed as oxygen - haemoglobin
dissociation curve. A rise in pCO2
, H+
ions (fall in
pH), temperature and diphosphoglyceric acid raises
the p50 value and shifts the oxygen - dissociation
curve to right or vice versa.
81. (c) Inhalation is the active intake of air from atmosphere
into lungs. During this process, the diaphragm
contracts and flattens, causing an increase in vertical
volume i.e. antero-posterior axis.
82. (d) During oxygen transport, when O2
tension is low
and CO2
tension is high in the tissues, the
oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level liberates oxygen
to the cells.
83. (b) Combining of haemoglobin with O2
in lungs can be
promoted by decreasing O2
concentration in blood.
84. (b) When carbon dioxide concentration in blood
increases, breathing becomes faster and deeper due
to decreased concentration of oxygen in tissues.
85. (b) If human blood becomes acidic, oxygen carrying
capacity of haemoglobin decreases.
86. (c) The affinity of the haemoglobin pigment of
combining with O2
will fall, when the p50 value of
the haemoglobin rises.
87. (b) Yawning is caused due to low oxygen tension in the
blood.
88. (b) The correct order of the events during inspiration is:
III – IV – II – V – I
Thoracic volume increases – Pleural pressure
decreases – Alveolar volume increases – Alveolar
pressure decreases—Air flows into the lungs.
89. (b) The correct sequence of stages of respiration is:
breathing- gaseous transport- tissue respirationCellular respiration.
90. (a) Vital capacity (VC) is the volume of air that can
breathe in after a forced expiration or volume of air
that can breathe out after a forced inspiration (ERV +
TV + IRV).
91. (c) This includes RV and ERV (2500ml).
92. (b) Emphysema is one of several diseases known
collectively as chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) whose leading cause is smoking. If
a person is suffering from emphysema, his/her
alveolar walls are found to be damaged.
93. (c) Number of RBCs per unit volume of blood is likely to
be higher in a person living at high altitudes, because
air is less dense. At high altitude composition of air
remains the same as at sea level, but density of air
gradually deceases due to which arterial pO2
is also
decreased. While ascending up a mountain one
inspires thin air and get less oxygen.
94. (c) Presence of high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin
content through blood analysis shows that the
patient has inhaled polluted air contacting usually
high content of carbon monoxide. CO makes the most
stable combination with the haemoglobin of RBCs.
Haemoglobin has much more affinity (about 250
times) for CO than the oxygen. In the presence of
CO, it readily combines to form a stable compound
called carboxyhaemoglobin or
carbonmonoxyhaemoglobin (COHb).
95. (a) Both Alveoli of lungs and villi of intestine in mammals
provide a large surface area. The exchange of gases
between the air and blood takes place across the
walls of the alveoli. O2
from alveoli passes into
capillaries and CO2
from other capillaries diffuses
into alveoli for being removed. Alveoli are the organs
where the actual gaseous exchange occurs.
96. (d) Alveoli is a tiny air-filled sacs arranged in clusters in
the lungs. The alveoli are located in the respiratory
zone of the lungs, at the distal termination of the
alveolar ducts and atria. These air sacs are the forming
and termination point of the respiratory tract and
provide total surface area of about 100 m2
. It is the
place where exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
takes place. Therefore alveoli are an efficient system
of ventilation with residual air.
97. (a) Maximum amount of oxygen is exchange from the
blood in the capillaries – surrounding tissue cells.
98. (c) Deep breathing helps expand the lungs and forces
better distribution of the air into all sections of the
lung. When we breathe fully and deeply, the
diaphragm moves farther down into the abdomen
and our lungs are able to expand more completely
into the chest cavity. This means that more oxygen
is taken in and more carbon dioxide is released with
each breath. Therefore, after taking a long deep
breath, we do not respire for some seconds due to
less CO2
in blood.
99. (b) A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in human
blood even after its uptake by the body tissue, can
acts as reserve during muscular exercise because
our tissues are able to utilize only 25% of O2
carried
by arterial blood. Our venous blood is still 75%
saturated with O2
.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-97
100. (a)
101. (a) The urge to inhale in humans results from rising pCO2
.
It is the increase of blood levels of carbon dioxide
(PCO2
) that causes the urge to breathe in, not a lack of
dissolved oxygen (PO2
).
102. (c) Pharynx is the common passage at the back of the
mouth for air and food while larynx is passageway
for air only.
103. (b) Air travels through nose and mouth. The respiratory
system moves air in and out of the body by using
oxygen and eliminating carbon dioxide (a gas
produced when cells use oxygen). The respiratory
system includes the nose, mouth, trachea, bronchi,
diaphragm and lungs. The complete passage through
which air passes from outside into the lungs are:
nasal cavity – pharynx – larynx – trachea – bronchi –
bronchioles – alveoli.
104. (c) Most of the hydrogencarbonate ions formed in the
red blood cells diffuse out of the plasma along a
concentration gradient and combine with sodium in
the plasma to form sodium hydrogencarbonate. The
loss of negatively-charged hydrogencarbonate ions
leaves them with a more positive charge that is
balanced by chloride ions diffusing into the red blood
cells from the plasma.
105. (a) The external gill, tracheae, and lungs are all examples
of gas-exchange systems used by various animals
to exchange both CO2 and O2
. One of the special
properties of all respiratory systems is that they
increase surface area for diffusion.
106. (a) Equation given in option a shows the role of carbonic
anhydrase enzyme in the transport of carbon dioxide
by blood. In erythrocytes the carbon dioxide
combines with water and is transported. Carbonic
anhydrase, a zinc containing enzyme assists rapid
inter-conversion of carbon dioxide and water into
carbonic acid, protons and bicarbonate ions. This
enzyme catalyzes the decomposition of carbonic acid
into carbon dioxide and water, facilitating the transfer
of carbon dioxide from tissues to blood and from
blood to alveolar air.
–
2 2 23 3
carbon dioxide + carbonic acid bicarbonate +
water h y drogen ion
CO H O H CO HCO H ¾¾® ¾¾® +
+ + ¬¾¾ ¬¾¾
Cjãòvgt 18 : Bqæû Ènwkæõ ãpæ Cktewnãvkqp
1. (a)
2. (d) Lymph is a clear yellowish, slightly alkaline,
coagulable fluid containing white blood cells in a
liquid resembling blood plasma. It is composed of
fluid matrix, plasma, white blood corpuscles or
leucocytes.
3. (b)
4. (d) Neutrophils are a type of leucocyte (WBCs) that can
take all types of stain (acid-basic-Neutral). It is most
abundant (60 –70% of total WBCs) and most active
type of WBCs i.e., they are the most actively
phagocytic in nature.
5. (d) Leucocytes are colourless, nucleated amoeboid cells
found in blood which are devoid of haemoglobin
and are capable of coming out of blood capillaries
through the process of diapedesis. Fall of WBC count
is called leucopenia, and occurs due to folic acid
deficiency and AIDS, etc.
6. (d) White blood corpuscles are like soldiers because
they fight off the body's enemies -- harmful bacteria
and disease. White blood cells attack and kill germs
in the body, and they also carry away dead cells.
7. (d) ABO grouping is the classification of human blood
based on the inherited properties of red blood cells
(erythrocytes). It is determined by the presence or
absence of the antigens A and B, which are carried
on the surface of the red cells. Persons may thus
have type A, type B, type O, or type AB blood. The
A, B, and O blood groups were first identified by
Austrian immunologist Karl Landsteiner in 1901.
8. (a) Blood group ‘O’ is known as the universal donor
since, it does not contain antigens.
9. (a) Rh factor is named after the Rhesus monkey.
Experiments by Karl Landsteiner and Alexander S.
Wiener, showed that rabbits, when immunised with
rhesus monkey red cells, produce an antibody that
also agglutinates the red blood cells of many humans.
10. (c) Erythroblastosis foetalis is a type of haemolytic
disease of new-borns due to ABO blood type
incompatibility. This occurs when a mother's blood
type of A, B, or O is not compatible with a blood
group of foetus. It develops in a foetus, when the IgG
molecules produced by the mother pass through the
placenta. Among these antibodies are some which
attack the red blood cells in the foetal circulation; the
red blood cells are broken down and the foetus can
develop reticulocytosis and anaemia. This foetal
disease ranges from mild to very severe, and foetal
death from heart failure (hydrops fetalis) can occur.
11. (c) Blood clotting (coagulation) is the process by which
blood vessels repair ruptures after injury. Injury repair
actually begins even before clotting does, through
vascular spasm, or muscular contraction of the vessel
walls, which reduces blood loss. Clotting itself is a
complex cascade of reactions involving platelets,
enzyme, and structural proteins. Calcium plays an
important role by working together with vitamin K
and a protein called fibrinogen in the clotting
cascade.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-98 Biology
12. (d) Thrombokinase hydrolyses prothrombin to thrombin
in presence of Ca2+.Thrombin converts soluble
fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin.
13. (a) The clotting of blood is to seal up wounds and
prevent loss of blood. Platelets in blood releases
clotting chemicals at the site of injury which forms a
clot and prevent bleeding.
14. (c) Fish has closed and single circulatory system.
Amphibians and reptiles have closed and incomplete
double circulation. Birds and mammals have closed
and double circulation.
15. (c) Open type blood vascular system is a type of
circulatory system in which nutrients and waste are
moved through the body with the help of a fluid
which flows freely through the body cavity, rather
than being contained in veins. Many invertebrates
like insects (eg, cockroach) and shellfish have an
open circulatory system, with the exact composition
of the circulating fluid varying, depending on the
animal species involved.
16. (d) Incomplete double circulation is found in amphibians
and reptiles. The left atrium receives oxygenated
blood from the gills/lungs/skin and the right atrium
gets the deoxygenated blood from other body parts.
However, they get mixed up in the single ventricle
which pumps out mixed blood.
17. (c) Heart wall is formed of three layers: endocardium,
myocardium and pericardium.
18. (c) Nodal tissues are specialized cardiac musculature
present in heart wall. This tissue has two patchesone present in the right upper corner of right atrium
(SA node) & other is seen in the lower left corner of
right atrium close to the atrio-ventricular septum (AV
node). A set of specialized muscle strands which
originates in the AV node and pass downwards in
the interventricular septum is called Purkinje fibres.
19. (a) Pulmonary vein carries oxygen rich blood from the
lungs to the left atrium of heart.
20. (a) Sino-atrial node (SA node) initiates and maintains
contraction of heart by generating action potentials
(70-75/min). So it is called the pacemaker.
21. (a) Arteries are elastic vessels that transport blood away
from heart towards the other body tissue. They do
not have valves.
22. (d) The SA node has the inherent power of generating a
wave of contraction and controlling the heartbeat.
Hence, it is known as the pacemaker.
23. (a) Tricuspid valve is formed of three muscular flaps or
cusps, which guard the opening between the right
atrium and the right ventricle.
24. (c) Bicuspid valve (mitral valve) guards the opening
between the left atrium and the left ventricle, made
up of two flaps.
25. (c) Bicuspid term is applied to a valve in heart and tooth
surface.
26. (b) ‘Bundle of His’ is a typical cardiac muscle fibres,
connecting the atria with ventricle.
27. (b) Ventricle is one of two large chambers in the heart
that collect and expel blood received from an atrium
towards the peripheral beds within the body and
lungs. Ventricles are far more thick walled than atria
and left ventricle is at least three times thicker than
the right one.
28. (d) Crocodiles, birds and mammals have 4-chambered
heart.
29. (c) SA (sino - atrial) node is called the natural pacemaker
of the heart. It controls the heart rate by generating
electrical impulses and then sending them through
the heart muscle, causing the heart to contract and
pump blood throughout the body. It is made up of a
group of cells (called myocytes) and positioned on
the wall of the right atrium, at the centre of the heart
and near the entrance of the superior vena cava.
These cells contract at a rate of about 70-80 times
per minute, which make up the natural heartbeat.
30. (d) Neurogenic heart is found in most crustaceans, some
insects and annelids. The hearts of vertebrates and
molluscs are myogenic.
31. (d) Valves of heart maintain unidirectional flow of blood
(i.e from the atria to the ventricles and from the
ventricles to the pulmonary artery or aorta) and
opening and closing of valve depends upon the
pressure on opposite sides. It prevents its
regurgitation in the opposite direction. These valves
act like one way doors and allows blood to flow either
forward into the next chamber or out of the heart via
one of two main blood vessels that carry blood away
from the heart. The valves close to prevent the back
flow. The heart has 4 valves: mitral valve and
tricuspid valve (which control blood flow from the
atria to the ventricles); and aortic valve and
pulmonary valve (which control blood flow out of
the ventricles).
32. (c) A blockage in aortic valve would directly reduce
blood flow to the lungs.
33. (d) In mammals the blood from the right ventricles goes
to the pulmonary aorta.
34. (d) Lub is the first heart sound and dub is the second
heart sound. Dub is associated with the closure of
the semilunar valves at the beginning of diastole.
35. (c) Lub is the first heart sound, which is associated with
the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves at
the beginning of systole.
36. (c) Closure of AV valve makes the louder sound of heart
beat.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-99
37. (d) A cardiac cycle (atrial systole + ventricular systole +
diastole) is completed in 0.8 seconds.
38. (d) Cardiac cycle is defined as the complete cycle of
events in the heart from the beginning of one heart
beat to the beginning of the next. It comprises three
stages – atrial systole, ventricular systole, and
complete cardiac diastole.
39. (c) The P-wave indicates atrial depolarization, which
causes atrial systole. During this wave, the impulse
of contraction is generated by the SA node.
40. (a) QRS-complex represents depolarization of ventricles
(ventricular systole).
41. (a) The largest artery is called the aorta. It is about 1
inch in diameter and receives the push of blood from
the left ventricle.
42. (c) Pulmonary artery arises from right ventricle and is
the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood.
43. (d) Coronary circulation is a system of coronary vessels
that circulate blood to and from the cardiac
musculature.
44. (d) Pulmonary circulation involves circulation between
lungs and heart. The deoxygenated blood pumped
into the pulmonary artery is passed on to lungs from
where oxygenated blood is carried by pulmonary
veins into the left atrium.
45. (c) Systemic circulation involves circulation of blood
between heart and various body parts except lungs.
The oxygenated blood from the left ventricle of the
heart is passed through aorta, arteries, arterioles and
capillaries and reaches the tissues. The
deoxygenated blood collected from the tissues by
venules, veins and vena cava is carried to the right
atrium. The systemic circulation provides nutrients,
O2
and other essential substances to the tissues and
takes CO2
and other harmful substances away for
elimination.
46. (d) Pulmonary vein carries oxygen rich blood from the
lungs to the right atrium heart.
47. (a) Semilunar valves are pocket-like structures attached
at the point at which the pulmonary artery and the
aorta leave the ventricles. Aorta and pulmonary artery
possess semilunar valve. The pulmonary valve
guards the orifice between the right ventricle and
the pulmonary artery. The aortic valve protects the
orifice between the left ventricle and the aorta.
48. (b) In normal person, the normal blood pressure is 120/
80 mm Hg. The normal systolic (pumping) pressure
is 120 mm Hg and normal diastolic (resting) pressure
is 80 mm Hg.
49. (b) Pulse beat can be measured where an artery comes
close to the skin, such as your wrist, neck, temple
area, behind the knee or top of your foot.
50. (c) Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) or atherosclerosis
is a disorder in which the deposition of calcium, fat,
cholesterol and fibrous tissue occurs in coronary
arteries which makes the lumen of arteries narrower
and thereby affect the blood supply.
51. (b) Hardening of arteries due to deposition of cholesterol
is called atherosclerosis.
52. (d) Arteriosclerosis is the thickening, hardening and
loss of elasticity of the walls of arteries. This process
progressively restricts the blood flow to one's organs
and tissues and can leads to severe health risks. It is
caused by the deposition of fatty plaques, cholesterol
and some other substances in and on the artery walls.
53. (b) ECG is the recording of electrical changes that
accompany the cardiac cycle. Normal ECG is composed
of P-wave, QRS-wave and T-wave. The P-wave indicates
atrial depolarization, which causes atrial systole. QRSwave represents ventricular depolarization. The T-wave
represents repolarization of ventricles.
54. (a) Angina is an acute chest pain due to oxygen
deficiency to heart muscles. It occurs due to improper
blood flow. Persons with AB group are called
Universal recipients because they can accept blood
from all groups. Persons with O Group are called
Universal donors because they can donate blood to
persons with any other blood group.
55. (a) Blood transports oxygen from respiratory organs to
the tissue cells and also transports carbon dioxide
from the tissue cells to the respiratory membrane.
About 97% of oxygen is transported by RBCs in the
blood while the remaining three percent of oxygen is
carried in a dissolved state through plasma. Nearly
20-25% of carbon dioxide is transported by RBCs
whereas 70% is carried as bicarbonate. About 7% of
CO2
is carried in dissolved state through plasma.
56. (b) The wall of the capillary is very thin. They form
capillary plexus between arterioles on one end and
venules on others. Capillaries transports blood from
arteries to the veins.
57. (c) Blood pressure is the measure of the force of blood
pushing against blood vessel walls. The heart pumps
blood into the arteries which carry the blood
throughout the body. It is usually expressed in terms
of the systolic (maximum) pressure over diastolic
(minimum) pressure and is measured in millimetres
of mercury (mm Hg). The ranges of blood pressure
are:
• Normal: Less than 120 over 80 (120/80)
• Prehypertension: 120-139 over 80-89
• Stage 1 high blood pressure: 140-159 over 90-99
• Stage 2 high blood pressure: 160 and above
over 100 and above
• High blood pressure in people over age 60: 150
and above over 90 and above.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-100 Biology
58. (d) Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped out
by each ventricle per minute, i.e. stroke volume x
heart rate.
59. (c) Persons with blood group A have the A antigen on
the surface of their RBCs, and antibodies to antigen
B in their plasma.
60. (d) In joint diastole, all chambers of the heart are in relaxed
state. When the tricuspid and bicuspid valves open,
blood from pulmonary vein and vena cava flows into
left and right ventricles respectively through left and
right atria.
Note: Semilunar valves are closed at this stage.
61. (a) Pulmonary artery is the only artery that carries the
de-oxygenated blood from heart to lungs.
62. (a) Blood circulation involves the transport of
oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
by the pulmonary vein. From the left atrium, the
oxygenated blood is pumped into the left ventricle,
from where it is taken to all body tissues by aorta.
63. (c) Lymph is a clear-to-white fluid made of white blood
cells, especially lymphocytes. The lymph is formed
when the interstitial fluid (the fluid which lies in the
interstices of all body tissues) is collected through
lymph capillaries. It is then transported through
lymph vessels to lymph nodes before emptying
ultimately into the right or the left subclavian vein,
where it mixes back with blood.
64. (c) Artery transport blood away from heart towards the
other body tissue. Artery carries oxygen rich blood
except for pulmonary artery. Pulmonary artery is the
only artery that carries carbon dioxide rich blood
from heart to lungs.
65. (b) A healthy individual has 12 - 16 gms of haemoglobin
in every 100ml of blood. Neutrophils and monocytes
are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms
entering the body. A reduction in the number of
platelets leads to clotting disorders which will lead
to excessive loss of blood from the body.
66. (a) SAN is the natural pacemaker of the heart. It is one
of the major elements in the cardiac conduction
system, the system that controls the heart rate. The
SA node consists of a cluster of cells that are situated
in the upper part of the wall of the right atrium where
the electrical impulses are generated. The electrical
signal generated by the SA node moves from cell to
cell down through the heart until it reaches the
atrioventricular node (AV node). The AV node serves
as a gate that slows the electrical current before the
signal is permitted to pass down to the ventricles.
This delay ensures that the atria have a chance to
fully contract before the ventricles are stimulated.
After passing the AV node, the electrical current
travels to the ventricles along special fibers
embedded in the walls of the lower part of the heart.
67. (b) Lub and dub are two heart sounds which occur due
to the closure of cuspid valves and semilunar valves
respectively. Lub is the first heart sound which is
formed due to closure of atrioventricular valves
(tricuspid and bicuspid) at the beginning of
ventricular systole. It is a low pitched of long
duration (0.15 sec).
68. (c) Saline water increases the blood pressure due to the
presence of NaCl in it. Hence, the reason for the
assertion is false.
69. (b) Blood pressure is the arterial pressure of blood
exerted on the wall of arteries with each heart beat. It
is measured form the brachial artery in the elbow pit.
It is expressed as
systolic pressure (mm/Hg)
diastolic pressure (mm/Hg)
=
Arterial (superficial; arteries) blood pressure is
measured by sphygmomanometer.
70. (b) WBC’s are wandering cells capable of coming out of
blood capillaries by amoeboid movement called
diapedesis.
71. (d) When an injury is caused to a blood vessel, bleeding
starts which is stopped by blood clotting. At the site
of injury blood platelets release platelet factor - 3
and injured tissues release thromboplastin. The two
combine to form prothrombinase enzyme which
converts prothrombin to thrombin. The latter
stimulates formation of fibrin thread or clot. Blood
contains an anticoagulant heparin which prevents
blood clotting in uninjured vessels.
72. (b) Prothrombinase enzyme is necessary for blood
clotting. It act as antiheparin. Coagulation of blood
in vessels is prevented by heparin, a quick acting
anticoagulant. It inhibits conversion of prothrombin
to thrombin and is used in open-heart surgery.
73. (a) When the blood pressure of an individual decreases
due to loss of blood volume, then vasoconstriction
of veins occurs. This shifts the little amount of blood
from veins to arteries.
74. (c) Fishes have two-chambered hearts. Amphibians and
reptiles have three chambered hearts. Birds and
mammals have four chambered hearts.
75. (a) Lub is the first heart sound. It is associated with the
closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves at the
beginning of systole and opening of semilunar
valves.
76. (a) The P-wave indicates atrial depolarisation. For more
refer answer 49.
77. (a)
78. (a) Plasma is a straw coloured fluid that consists of
suspended blood cells. Heart is the pumping station
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-101
of the body. Capillary is the site where exchange of
nutrients and gases takes place while blood is a red
colour fluid that provides food to the cells.
79. (a) Blood circulation involves the transport of
oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
by the pulmonary vein. From the left atrium, the blood
is pumped into the left ventricle, from where it is
taken to all body tissues by aorta. From the body
tissues, the deoxygenated blood is transported back
to the heart, into the right atrium, by the vena cava.
From the right atrium, the blood is pumped into the
right ventricle, from where it is taken back to the
lungs by the pulmonary artery for oxygenation.
80. (b) A - (iii), B - (v), C - (ii), D - (iv), E - (i)
Cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its
generation to the beginning of the next beat. The
frequency of the cardiac cycle is described by the
heart rate, which is typically expressed as beats per
minute. The duration of cardiac cycle is 0.8 seconds.
Plasma is the pale yellow liquid component of blood
that normally holds the blood cells in whole blood in
suspension. It makes up about 55% of the body's
total blood volume. 120/80 mmHg is the normal value
of blood pressure. A blood pressure reading has a
top number (systolic) and bottom number (diastolic).
A healthy individual has 12 - 16 gms of haemoglobin
in every 100 ml of blood. Heart beat is a complete
cardiac cycle, during which the electrical impulse is
conducted and mechanical contraction occurs. Heart
beats 72 times per minute.
81. (c) ECG (Electrocardiogram) is a graphic sketching of
the variations in electrical potential caused by the
excitation of the heart muscle and detected at the
body surface. The normal ECG is a scalar
representation that shows deflections resulting from
cardiac activity. It comprises the P wave, QRS
complex, T wave and U wave.
QRS complex: It represents the depolarization of the
ventricles which initiates the ventricular contraction.
The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the
beginning of the systole. Hence QRS complex shows
one complete pulse.
82. (c) The label III in the given figure represents right
atrium. The right atrium receives carbon dioxide rich
blood from the body. The label I represents left atrium.
It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.
The label II represents left ventricle. It pumps
oxygenated blood to rest of the body.
The label IV represents right ventricle. It pumps
deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
83. (b) Bicuspid valve (mitral valve) made up of two flaps
guards the opening between the left atrium (B) and
the left ventricle (C).
84. (b) In the given diagram of human heart, the parts
marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively aorta, left
atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle and right atrium.
The correct sequence of the letters which represent
the process of blood flow described in the question
is B, C, A, E, D.
85. (d) The label 4 represents right atrium. Right atrium
receives most of the blood returning from the brain.
86. (c) The label 1, 2, 3 & 4 represent vein, artery, pulmonary
artery and pulmonary vein respectively.
87. (b) The contraction starts shortly after the Q wave and
marks the beginning of the systole.
88. (d) Leucocytes are colourless, nucleated amoeboid cells
found in blood which are devoid of haemoglobin
and are capable of coming out of blood capillaries
through the process of diapedesis. Fall of WBC
count is called leucopenia, and occurs due to folic
acid deficiency and AIDS etc.
89. (a) The auricular contraction initiated by the wave of
excitation from the sino-atrial node (SA node)
stimulates the atrio-ventricular node, thereby leading
to the contraction of ventricles through the bundle
of His and Purkinje fibres.
90. (a) If nerves of heart are cut, then heart will beat
rhythmically.
91. (c) Cardiac output is the amount of blood flowing from
the heart (i.e from the left ventricle into the aorta)
over a given period of time. It can be calculated by
stroke volume (the volume of blood pumped by heart/
heartbeat) and heart rate (ventricular systole/min).
Stroke volume × Heart rate
Stroke volume - 0.07 litres
Heart rate - 72 / minute
According to the formula: 0.07 × 72 = 5.04
92. (c) The blood returning to the heart through pulmonary
vein carries oxygen rich blood.
93. (a) Lub is the first heart sound. It is associated with the
closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves at the
beginning of systole. First heart sound coincided
with R wave of ECG.
94. (b) SAN (called pacemaker) initiates and maintains
contraction of heart by generating action potentials
(70-75/min). When pacemaker is non-functional, the
cardiac muscles do not contract in a coordinated
manner.
95. (a) Maximum amount of oxygen is lost from the blood in
the capillaries surrounding the tissue cells. Capillaries
are the smallest blood vessels that make up the
microcirculation. Their endothelial linings are only
one cell layer thick. These microvessels connect
arterioles and venules, and help to enable the
exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and many
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-102 Biology
other nutrients and waste substances between the
blood and the tissues surrounding them.
96. (c) Blood serum does not coagulate because it does not
contain any clotting factors. Blood serum is the
component that is neither a blood cell (serum does
not contain white or red blood cells) nor a clotting
factor. It is the blood plasma that includes all proteins
not used in blood clotting (coagulation) and all the
electrolytes, antibodies, antigens, hormones, and
any exogenous substances (e.g., drugs and
microorganisms).
97. (a) The chordae tendinae are strong, fibrous strings
which attach on one end to the edges of the tricuspid
and mitral valves of the heart and on the other end to
the papillary muscles (which is a small muscle within
the heart that serve to anchor the valves). When the
cusps close, the chordae tendinae prevent them from
fluctuating back into the atrium cavity (on the upper
chamber). If chordae tendinae of tricuspid valve is
partially non-functional due to some injury, then the
flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be
reduced.
98. (d) Auricular depolarization, ventricular diastole and
auricular systole are the events that occur in cardiac
cycle simultaneously. Cardiac cycle is the rhythmic
contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole) of the
heart chambers that corresponds to one heartbeat.
During the cardiac cycle, blood is pumped out of the
heart into the aorta and the pulmonary artery, and
blood re-enters the heart from the vena cava and the
pulmonary veins.
99. (d) If a person is losing blood continuously due to injury
then his pulse will rise and BP will fall.
100. (a) During systemic circulation, blood leaves the left
ventricle and goes directly to the aorta while during
pulmonary circulation, blood leaves the right
ventricle and moves to the lungs.
101. (c) The systolic pressure, the highest pressure in the
artery during each heartbeat of a healthy adult is
about 120 mm of Hg.
102. (a) A two-chambered heart with the vena cava entering
the auricle and the aorta leaving the ventricle would
totally by pass the pulmonary circuit. As a result,
the blood would never reach the lungs and would
never pick up a fresh supply of oxygen to take to the
cells.
103. (c) Sinus venosus is found only in fishes, amphibians
and reptiles.
104. (a) Blood circulation involves the transport of
oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
by the pulmonary vein. From the left atrium, the blood
is pumped into the left ventricle, from where it is
taken to all body tissues by aorta. From the body
tissues, the deoxygenated blood is transported back
to the heart, into the right atrium, by the vena cava.
From the right atrium, the blood is pumped into the
right ventricle, from where it is taken back to the
lungs by the pulmonary artery for oxygenation.
105. (d) Blood pressure is the arterial pressure of blood
exerted on the walls of arteries with each heartbeat.
It is measured from the brachial artery and expressed
as systolic pressure/diastolic pressure (i. e. 120/80
mmHg). Blood pressure is affected by atherosclerosis
(caused by deposits if calcium, fats, cholesterol, and
fibrous tissue which make lumen narrow). Diastolic
pressure is lower than systolic pressure. It refers to
as arterial pressure of the systemic circulation.
106. (c) In order for the foetus to be Rh positive, the father
must also be Rh positive. As a result, when the
mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive
(or his Rh type is unknown), doctors usually assume
that there will be a serious medical problem.
107. (b) The atrioventricular septum is a septum of the heart
between the right atrium (RA) and the left ventricle.
It is a small part of the membranous septum of the
heart just above the septal cusp of the tricuspid
valve.
108. (a) The atrioventricular node has junctional fibres which
will slightly delay the passage of the impulse,
allowing the ventricles sufficient filling time.
109. (a) The hypothalamus is involved with what could be
considered emotional responses such as a sudden
increase in heart rate or irregular beat in situations of
fear or anxiety.
110. (d) Heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to pump
sufficiently to maintain blood flow to meet the body's
needs. Common causes of heart failure include
coronary artery disease including a previous
myocardial infarction (heart attack), high blood
pressure, atrial fibrillation, valvular heart disease, and
cardiomyopathy.
Cjãòvgt 19 : Ezetgvqtû Rtqæwevõ ãpæ Vjgkt Enkïkpãvkqp
1. (a) An uricotelic organism produces uric acid as a result
of de-amination. Examples of such organism are birds
and insects.
2. (c) The animals which excrete ammonia are called
ammonotelic animals. The example includes aquatic
invertebrates, bony fishes, aquatic amphibians,
tadpoles, aquatic insects, etc.
3. (d) Mechanism of uric acid excretion in a nephron is
called secretion. Certain chemicals in the blood that
are not removed by filtration from the glomerular
capillaries is removed by a process of urine formation
are called tubular secretion. Ions removed from the
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-103
blood by tubular secretion include potassium,
hydrogen, and ammonium ions and foreign
substances like drugs, penicillin, creatinine and uric
acid etc.
4. (a) Bony fishes, aquatic amphibian and aquatic insects
are called ammonotelic animals because these animals
excrete ammonia as their nitrogenous waste products.
Being the most toxic form ammonia requires large
amount of water for its elimination. Aquatic animals,
like crustaceans, bony fishes and amphibian larvae,
generally are ammonotelic since ammonia diffuses
more easily through membranes and it is more watersoluble than the other nitrogen wastes.
5. (d) Excretion of nitrogenous waste product in semi-solid
form is found in uricotelic animals.
6. (b) Hilus leads to funnel shaped cavity called renal pelvis
with projections called calyces.
7. (a) The number of nephron in a kidney is equal to the
number of Bowman’s capsule.
8. (b) Malpighian corpuscle (renal corpuscle) comprises
glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule. The malpighian
corpuscle is named after Marcello Malpighi, an italian
physician and biologist.
9. (c) The collecting duct system contains of a series of
tubules and ducts that connect the nephrons to the
ureter. It takes part in the maintenance of electrolyte
and fluid balance through reabsorption and
excretion. These processes are regulated by
aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone. Therefore it
refers as the part of the excretory system which
contains fluids as urine.
10. (b) The renal column (or column of Bertini) is a medullary
extension of the renal cortex in between the renal
pyramids. It allows the cortex to be better anchored.
Each column consists of lines of blood vessels and
urinary tubes and a fibrous material.
11. (d) Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by afferent
arteriole(a fine branch of renal artery).
12. (c) Convoluted tubules is not a part of renal pyramid
but a portion of the nephron in the kidney that
functions in concentrating urine and in maintaining
salt, water, and sugar balance. Renal pyramids (also
called malpighian pyramids) consist mainly of tubules
that transport urine from the cortical (or outer) part of
the kidney, where urine is produced, to the calyces or
cup-shaped cavities in which urine collects before it
passes through the ureter to the bladder. The point of
each pyramid, called the papilla, projects into a calyx.
13. (d) The efferent arteriole emerging from the glomerulus
forms a fine capillary network around the renal tubule
called the peritubular capillaries.
14. (a) Juxta-glomerular apparatus is a microscopic
structure located between the vascular pole of the
renal corpuscle and the returning distal convoluted
tubule of the same nephron. It is formed by cellular
modification in the afferent arteriole and DCT.
15. (d) Sweat glands are highly vascular and tubular glands
that separate the waste products from the blood and
excrete them in the form of sweat. Sweat excretes
excess salt and water from the body.
16. (d) Plasma protein of blood does not enter into the
nephron.
17. (b) Glucose is 100% reabsorbed and thus a healthy
person will excrete no glucose in the urine. Sodium
and water are usually over 99% reabsorbed. Urea is
the main excretory product formed as a result of
protein breakdown.
18. (d) The proximal convoluted tubule is the site whereby
selective reabsorption occurs, restoring the level of
metabolities in the tubule and prevents excessive
loss of useful substances.
19. (c) The ascending limb of Henle’s loop is impermeable
to water but allows transport of electrolytes like
sodium. So, the filtrate gets diluted.
20. (b) Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a high
concentration to a low concentration. Diffusion helps
to reabsorb chloride ions from the glomerular filtrate
in kidney tubules.
21. (a) Colloidal osmotic pressure in blood plasma is mainly
due to albumin.
22. (c) The ascending limb is impermeable to water but
allows transport of electrolytes like sodium. So, the
filtrate gets diluted.
23. (c) Loop of Henle is a long, U-shaped portion of the
tubule takes part in the absorption of water and
conducts urine within each nephron of the kidney of
reptiles, birds, and mammals. The important function
of the loop of Henle appears to be the recovery of
water and sodium chloride from the urine which
allows production of urine that is far more
concentrated than blood, limiting the amount of water
needed as intake for survival. Many species that
live in arid environments such as deserts have highly
efficient loops of Henle.
24. (b) In comparison to blood plasma, percentage of
glucose in glomerular filtrate is equal.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-104 Biology
25. (b) The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per
minute is called glomerular filtration rate (GFR). GFR
in a healthy individual is approximately 125 ml/minute,
i.e., 180 litres per day.
26. (a) PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) is a small tubular
structure within the nephron and connects
Bowman's capsule with the proximal straight tubule.
It is essential for the reabsorption of water and
solutes from filtrate within the nephron. The lining
of the PCT contains many protein channels, which
use both active and passive transport to move
substances such as glucose and electrolytes across
the tubule's lining and into the interstitial fluid for
reabsorption. Nearly all of essential nutrients, and
70-80 percent of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed by this segment. The epithelium of the
PCT also prevents waste products from being
reabsorbed into the bloodstream.
27. (c) The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per
minute is called glomerular filtration rate (GFR). GFR
in a healthy individual is approximately 125 ml/minute,
i.e., 180 litres per day. A fall in GFR can activate the
JG cells to release renin which can stimulate the
glomerular blood flow and thereby the GFR back to
normal. Renin converts angiotensinogen in blood to
angiotensin I and further angiotensin II. Angiotensin
II being powerful vasoconstrictor increases the
glomerular blood pressure and thereby GFR.
28. (c) Loop of Henle is a U- shaped tube that consists of
an ascending and descending limb. Its primary role
is to concentrate the salts in the interstitium, the
tissue surrounding the loop. Descending limb are
thin walled and permeable to water but impermeable
to salt and thus only indirectly contributes to the
concentration of the interstitium. The ascending
limbs are thick walled and impermeable to water. It
actively reabsorbs the remaining 25% of the filtered
K+
and some amounts of Cl–
, some Na+
is also reabsorbed by diffusion due to electrostatic attraction of
reabsorbed Cl–
.
29. (c) Glomerulus and Bowmans capsule are involved in
ultrafiltration. In the proximal convoluted tubules the
mitochondria provide energy for active transport.
The cells here are adapted for reabsorption. The
amino acids diffuse into the cells and are actively
transported to the intercellular spaces, where they
diffuse into the surrounding capillaries.
30. (b) Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that
controls erythropoiesis, or the formation of red blood
cell. It acts as a cytokine (protein signaling molecule)
for erythrocyte (red blood cell) precursors in the bone
marrow. It is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in
the kidney in close association with peritubular
capillary and promixal convoluted tubule.
31. (c) Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that
increases the glomerular blood pressure and thereby
GFR.
32. (b) Vasopressin regulates the permeability of DCT and
collecting duct to water.
33. (a) Renin converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin
I and further to angiotensin II (a vasoconstrictor).
34. (b) Aldosterone and ADH maintains the volume of urine.
Aldosterone, produced by the adrenal cortex, causes
the retention of water in the body by increasing the
levels of sodium and potassium ions in the blood,
which causes the body to reabsorb more water.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) produced by the
hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary,
causes more water to be retained by the kidneys
when water levels in the body are low.
35. (b) Vasopressin promotes reabsorption of water from
the glomerular filtrate. Vasopressin, also known as
antidiuretic hormone (ADH), is a neurohypophysial
hormone. It helps to retain water in the body and
constrict blood vessels. Vasopressin regulates the
body's retention of water by acting to increase water
reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the nephron,
which is the functional component of the kidney.
36. (c) A fall in glomerular blood flow/glomerular blood
pressure/GFR activates the juxtaglomerular cellsto
release renin. For more refer answer 27.
37. (a) Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is an important
constituent of renin-angiotensinogen- aldosterone
system (RAAS). Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone
system is a hormone system that helps regulate longterm blood pressure and blood volume in the body.
It is a specialized region of a nephron where the
afferent arteriole and distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
comes in direct contact with each other.
38. (b) Micturition is the process by which the urine from
the urinary bladder is excreted.
39. (a) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in cortical
nephrons.
40. (c) Blood enters glomerulus through afferent arterioles.
41. (d) Henle’s loop is a U-shaped tube that consists of a
descending limb and ascending limb. Its primary role
is to concentrate the salt in the interstitium, the tissue
surrounding the loop. In the absence of Henle’s loop,
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-105
the urine will be more dilute.
42. (d) In ureotelic animals, ammonia is converted into less
toxic urea (for conservation of water).
43. (d) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle are thick walled
and impermeable to water. Descending limb of loop
of Henle is thin walled and permeable to water but
impermeable to salt and thus indirectly contributes
to the concentration of the interstitium. Distal
convoluted tubule is a portion between the loop of
Henle and the collecting duct system which is
capable of reabsorption of HCO3
–
and selective
secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3
to maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance
in the blood.
44. (b) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) helps regulate water
balance in the body by controlling the amount of
water by the kidneys reabsorb while they are filtering
wastes out of the blood. When someone drinks lots
of water, ADH release is suppressed. Therefore, if
there is too little ADH or the kidneys do not respond
to ADH, then too much water is lost through the
kidneys, the urine produced is more dilute than
normal, and the blood becomes more concentrated.
This can cause excessive thirst, frequent urination,
dehydration. If there is too much ADH, then water is
retained, blood volume increases, and the person
may experience nausea, headaches, disorientation,
lethargy, and low blood sodium (hyponatremia).
45. (a) Urine formation is the result of ultrafiltration or
glomerular filtration of the blood plasma by the
glomeruli, selective reabsorption by the tubules and
secretion by the tubules. Glomerular filtration is the
first of the three processes that forms urine. Tubular
reabsorption is the second process in the formation
of urine from filtrate and tubular secretion is the third
process in the urine formation.
46. (c) Vasa recta are a series of straight capillaries in the
medulla. They lie parallel to the loop of Henle.
47. (c) Haemodialyzer removes urea, uric acid, glucose and
proteins. In glomerulus, urea, uric acid, water, glucose
and plasma proteins are filtered out.
48. (d) Urine is hypotonic in distal convoluted tubule. When
the urine passes into the collecting tubule, it
becomes hypertonic. Urine becomes more and more
hypotonic as it passes through the DCT.
49. (a) Ureotelism is the process of excretion of urea. Aquatic
animals like whales and seals are said to be ureotelic
animals because their major nitrogenous waste
product is urea.
50. (a) Kidney plays an important role in maintaining the
concentration and osmotic pressure of blood. When
water intake of an animal is very high, the urine
excreted has to be hypotonic and lower in osmotic
pressure than their blood in order to remove the
excess water.
On the contrary, when there is a shortage of water,
the urine excreted needs to be hypertonic and higher
in osmotic pressure than their blood to reduce the
loss of water with urine.
51. (a) Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to
water but not to sodium. Consequently water moves
out into interstitium and concentration of sodium in
tubular filtrate rises making filtrate hypertonic.
Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to
water but permeable to sodium and makes the filtrate
hypotonic.
52. (d) Hypotonic urine means concentration of urine is less
than that of blood. Hypertonic urine is more
concentrated than blood and has high osmotic
pressure than the blood, therefore it helps in reducing
the loss of water with urine. The urine is filtered by
the Bowman’s capsule. The tubules of nephrons
reabsorb a large quantity of water making urine more
concentrated.
53. (a) Aldosterone is one of the important
mineralocorticoids in humans secreted by adrenal
cortex. Its main function is to regulate sodium content
of the body . It increases sodium ion concentration
in the blood by absorbing sodium ions from renal
tubules. Excessive production of aldosterone causes
a disease aldosteronism. It symptoms include high
blood pressure, high blood volume.
54. (d) Urea is the chief nitrogenous constituent of human
urine, though it possesses small amount of ammonia.
But when the urine is allowed to stand for sometime,
bacterial degradation occurs and it leads to the production
of ammonia from urine. And thus it smells strongly.
55. (a) Ultrafiltration is a filtration under high pressure which
occurs at the arterial end of the glomerulus. The
filtrate from the glomerulus passes into the renal
capsule and moves into the renal tubule.
Concentration of urine takes place in Henle's loop.
The primary role of the loop of Henle is to
concentrate the salt in the interstitium, the tissue
surrounding the loop. Transport of urine takes place
in ureter. Ureters are narrow tubes started as a pelvis
within kidney opening into a common urinary bladder
which opens outside through urethra. Urinary
bladder is a sac like structure which stores urine
temporarily.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-106 Biology
56. (a) Uremia refers to increased level of urea and other
nitrogenous waste compounds in the blood that are
normally eliminated by the kidneys. Hematuria is the
presence of blood in the urine. Ketonuria is the
excretion of abnormally large amounts of ketone
bodies in the urine. It is the characteristic of diabetes
mellitus, starvation, or other medical conditions.
Glycosuria is a condition characterized by an excess
of sugar in the urine. It is typically associated with
diabetes or kidney disease. Proteinuria is the
presence of abnormal quantities of protein in the
urine, which may indicate damage to the kidneys.
57. (d) Proximal convoluted tubule connects Bowman's
capsule with the proximal straight tubule and the
primary site of glucose and amino acid reabsorption.
Distal convoluted tubules are responsible for the
resorption of sodium, water and secretion of
hydrogen potassium. Descending limb of loop of
Henle is a place where reabsorption of major
substances takes place with the help of osmosis.
Ascending limb of loop of Henle is a place where
sodium is reabsorbed actively.
58. (a) Renin is an enzyme that catalyses the formation of
angiotensin I.
Aldosterone promotes reabsorption of sodium at
distal convoluted tubule. Anti-diuretic hormone
regulates water reabsorption at the distal convoluted
tubule. Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor
that stimulates the secretion of aldosterone.
59. (b) Afferent arterioles enters the glomerulus at the
vascular pole and divides into capillaries which
subsequently merge to form efferent arterioles.
Henle's loop has minimum reabsorption. It plays a
significant role in the maintenance of osmolarity of
the medullary interstitial fluid. i.e concentration of
urine. In Distal convoluted tubules reabsorption of
water and sodium takes place. It is also capable of
reabsorption of HCO3–
and selective secretion of
hydrogen and potassium ions.
60. (c) Salamander (amphibia; caudata) excretes urea with
the help of kidneys.
61. (b) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV.
62. (a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV, E - V.
The JGA plays a complex regulatory role. A fall in
glomerular blood flow/glomerular blood pressure/
GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin which
converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and
further to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, being a
powerful vasoconstrictor, increases the glomerular
blood pressure and thereby GFR. Angiotensin II also
activates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water
from the distal parts of the tubule. This also leads to
an increase in blood pressure and GFR.
Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by changes
in blood volume, body fluid volume and ionic
concentration. An excessive loss of fluid from the
body can activate these receptors which stimulate
the hypothalamus to release antidiuretic hormone
(ADH) or vasopressin from the neurohypophysis.
63. (b) The label X represents ureters, while label Y
represents urethra. Ureters are narrow tubes started
as a pelvis within kidney opening into a common
urinary bladder which opens outside through
urethra. Urinary bladder is a sac like structure which
stores urine temporarily.
64. (c) The nephron carries the urine into the collecting
tubule of the kidney from where it is carried to ureter.
From ureter, the urine passes into the urinary bladder.
The urinary bladder stores the urine until it is forced
out of the body, through an opening known as the
urethra.The label II represents ureter, label III
represents urinary bladder and label I represents
urethra.
65. (b) The label II represents renal vein while label I
represent renal artery, label III represents renal pelvis
and label IV represents renal column.
66. (a) The label X represents vasa recta that function in
the reabsorption of water, minerals and digestive end
products.
67. (b) In the given figure of nephron, red blood cells would
not usually pass through the membranes from the
region A (Glomerulus) to region B (Bowman's
capsule). Capillaries of the glomerulus are lined by
endothelial cells. These contain numerous pores
(called fenestrae) 70-100 nm in diameter. These pores
allow for the free filtration of fluid, plasma solutes
and protein. However they are not large enough that
red blood cells can be filtered.
68. (a) Label represents glomerulus. After the blood enters
the kidney, it travels to the glomerulus.
69. (b) 3 and 4 are respectively descending limb and
ascending limb of loop of Henle. They have minimum
reabsorption and play a significant role in the
maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary
interstitial fluid.
70. (c) Part marked as 6 is proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
PCT is the convoluted portion of the vertebrate
nephron that lies between Bowman's capsule and
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-107
the loop of Henle. Cells of PCT are lined by simple
cuboidal brush border epithelium that increases the
surface area for reabsorption. The cells lining the
PCT absorb organic nutrients, plasma proteins, &
ions from the tubular fluid & release them into the
interstitial fluid surrounding the renal tubule where
this reabsorbed fluid enters the peritubular capillaries.
71. (d) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT) is marked as 7. The
DCT is an important site for the active secretion of
ions, acids, drugs, & toxins and the selective
reabsorption of sodium ions from the tubular fluid.
In the final portions of the DCT, an osmotic flow of
water assists in concentrating the tubular fluid.
72. (b) 3, 4 and 5 are respectively descending limb, ascending
limb of loop of Henle and vasa recta. These three
structures have an ability to produce the
concentrated urine through the process of
countercurrent exchange system. Counter current
mechanism (the process due to which urine is made
hypertonic) is regular exchange of Na+
ions between
the ascending and descending limbs of kidney.
73. (d) Workers in deep mines usually suffer from
dehydration because water is lost along with salts in
the form of sweat.
74. (c) Frog, monkey and dog, all are ureotelic animals. They
excrete their wastes in the form of urea.
75. (b) The epithelial cells (podocytes) of the Bowman’s
capsule are arranged in an intricate manner so as to
leave some minute spaces called filtration slits (slit
pores).
76. (a) Podocytes are found in the inner wall of Bowman’s
capsule. Podocyles send foot processes over the
length of the glomerulus.
77. (d) Ultrafiltration is an entirely passive process. It occurs
in glomerulus when colloidal osmotic pressure plus
capsular pressure remain less than glomerular
hydrostatic pressure.
78. (a) Filtration fraction is the ratio of the glomerular
filtration rate (GFR) to the renal plasma flow (RPF) i.e
FF = GFR/RPF. The filtration fraction, therefore,
represents the proportion of the fluid reaching the
kidneys which passes into the renal tubules.
79. (a) In a mammalian kidney, Bowman' capsule occur in
cortex while loops of Henle are situated in medulla.
Bowman capsule is a cup-like sac at the beginning
of the tubular component of a nephron that performs
the first step in the filtration of blood to form urine. A
glomerulus is enclosed in the sac. Loop of Henle is
the part of a kidney tubule which forms a long loop
in the medulla of the kidney, from which water and
salts are reabsorbed into the blood.
80. (b) Urine is hypertonic in the middle of descending and
ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
81. (a) Diuresis is characterized by increased urine volume.
ADH prevents diuresis by facilitating water
reabsorption from DCT and collecting duct.
82. (a) PCT increases the surface area for reabsorption. PCT
reabsorbs most of the nutrients, and 70-80% of
electrolytes and water.
83. (a) Urine is a liquid produced by the kidneys to remove
waste products from the bloodstream. Human urine
is transparent, yellowish in colour and variable in
chemical composition. It consists primarily of water
(95%), with organic solutes including urea (2.6%),
creatinine, uric acid, and trace amounts of enzymes,
carbohydrates, hormones, fatty acids, pigments, and
mucins, and inorganic ions such as sodium (Na+
),
potassium (K+
), chloride (Cl–
), magnesium (Mg2+),
calcium (Ca2+), ammonium (NH4
+
), sulfates (SO4
2–),
and phosphates (PO4
3–).
84. (a) The molecules that leave the blood & enter the
glomerular capsule are called glomerular filtrate.
Glomerular filtrate contains blood without blood cells
and proteins.
85. (d) Renal artery and ureter carries the waste products.
Renal vein carries pure blood back to the heart.
86. (c) Under normal conditions, urine does not contain
glucose because glucose in glomerular filtrate is
reabsorbed in the uriniferous tubules.
87. (c) The kidneys control plasma volume by controlling
how much water a person excretes. The plasma
volume has a direct effect on the total blood volume,
which has a direct effect on one's blood pressure.
Salt (NaCl) will lead to osmosis; the diffusion of water
into the blood. When a person is suffering from poor
renal reabsorption, increased arterial pressure in
kidneys will not help to maintain the blood volume.
88. (a) ANF is secreted by heart under the influence of too
much blood in the circulatory system. ANF stimulates
the loss of sodium in urine while aldosterone absorbs
sodium from glomerular filtrate.
89. (a) The ascending limb of loop of Henle has a thin and a
thick segment. The thin ascending limb is found in
the medulla of the kidney, and the thick ascending
limb can be divided into a part that is in the renal
medulla and a part that is in the renal cortex. Through
the thick segment of ascending limb of loop of Henle,
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-108 Biology
the NaCl can pass by active transport from the filtrate
to the interstitial fluid. The medullary ascending limb
remains impermeable to water. Sodium, potassium
(K+
) and chloride (Cl–
) ions are reabsorbed by active
transport. K+
is passively transported along its
concentration gradient through a K+
leak channel in
the apical aspect of the cells, back into the lumen of
the ascending limb.
90. (b) One of the most important things the kidneys excrete
nitrogenous waste. As the liver breaks down amino
acids it also releases ammonia. The liver then quickly
combines that ammonia with carbon dioxide, creating
urea which is the primary nitrogenous end product of
metabolism in humans. The liver turns the ammonia
into urea because it is much less toxic. Therefore, urea
is likely to accumulate in dangerous proportion in the
blood of a person whose kidney is not working
properly.
91. (b) If the excess water passes out from the tissue without
being restored by kidneys, the cells would not be
affected at all. Individual cells have no role to play in
this process. Excess water in the blood affects the
osmoreceptors present in hypothalamus and volume
receptors present in left atrium, ventricles and
pulmonary veins. This causes ADH release so that
body hydration is regulated by removal of excess
water by kidney.
92. (a) The most important work of kidney is to extract waste
from blood, balance body fluids, form urine, and aid
in other important functions of the body. Usually
urine contains no sugar but the blood entering the
kidney has more sugar than leaving the kidney
because sugar is used by the kidney cells in
metabolism.
93. (a) In human beings, the capsular urine entering the
proximal convoluted tubule is isotonic to blood.
Because the plasma membranes in the proximal tubule
are freely permeable to water, so that water and salt
are removed in proportionate amounts.
94. (c) Ultrafiltration, a type of membrane filtration, refers
to the passage of protein-free fluid from the
glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space. Blood
flows into these capillaries through the afferent
arteriole and leaves through the efferent arteriole.
The blood pressure in the efferent arteriole is higher
than the blood pressure in the afferent arteriole. This
is because the efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter
than the afferent arteriole. If the diameter of the
afferent renal arterioles is decreased and that of
efferent renal arteriole increased, ultrafiltration will
not take place.
95. (d) Urinary bladder is a sac like structure which stores
urine temporarily. It is made up of smooth and
involuntary muscles. The lumen of urinary bladder
is lined by transition epithelium, which has great
power of stretching. If the stretch receptors of the
urinary bladder wall are totally removed, the urine
will continue to collect normally in the bladder.
96. (d) During dialysis, as the patient's blood is passed
through dialysing solution, most of the wastes like
urea present in it pass through selectively permeable
cellulose tubes into the dialysing solution. The clean
fluid is then pumped back into the vein of patient's
arm.
97. (c) Excretion is the process of removing waste products
produced in the cells of living organism.
98. (d) Deficiency of ADH causes diabetes insipidus which
is characterized by excessive dilute urine, without
glucose.
99. (a) Glomerular podocytes are highly specialized cells
with a complex cytoarchitecture and plays a major
role in establishing the selective permeability of
glomerular filtration barrier.
100. (d) During states of dehydration, the hormone ADH
(anti-diuretic hormone) is produced, which increases
the permeability of the collecting ducts and increases
water reabsorption.
101. (c) Changes in the afferent arteriole pressure affects
glomerular filtration rate. Increases in pressure will
increase filtration rate and decreases will decrease
filtration rate.
102. (c) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water
from the distal parts of the tubule. This also leads to
an increase in blood pressure and glomerular filtration
rate (GFR).
103. (c) The cells lining the proximal convoluted tubule are
well adapted for reabsorption of materials from the
filtrate. They have abundant mitochondria and bear
numerous microvilli on the free side thus giving
brush border appearance. The cells reabsorb entire
glucose, amino acids, most of the inorganic ions,
much of the water as well as some urea from the
filtrate.
104. (c) A uriniferous tubule/nephron is a long tubule
differentiated into four regions - Bowman's capsule,
proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle and distal
convoluted tubule. Collecting ducts are the larger
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-109
tubes, each receiving the collecting tubules of several
nephrons. It does not form a part of the uriniferous
tubule.
105. (c) Concentration of urine depends upon the length of
Henle's loop. Loop of Henle is the hairpin shaped
section of a kidney tubule situated between the
proximal and distal tubules in the nephron. It consists
of a thin descending limb which is permeable to water
and a thick ascending limb which is impermeable to
water complex movements of ions and water across
the walls of the loop enable it to function as a
countercurrent multiplier, resulting in the production
of concentrated urine in the collecting duct.
106. (d) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin),
aldosterone (the principal mineralocorticoid secreted
by the adrenal cortex) and atrial natriuretic factor
(ANF) are hormones that participate in the regulation
of the renal function.
Cjãòvgt 20 : Îqeqïqvkqp ãpæ Oqøgïgpv
1. (b) Movement of leucocyte, macrophages and
cytoskeletal elements in our body exhibits amoeboid
movement. It is a type of movement which occur
with the help of pseudopodia formed by cytoplasmic
streaming (as in Amoeba).
2. (d) Striated muscle tissue is also known as the skeletal
muscle or voluntary muscle, because it is attached
mainly to the bones and skin, and is responsible for
the mobility of the body and limbs. The muscles are
fibrous, dense tissues, whose primary function is to
allow the body to move by repeated contraction and
relaxation. Besides movement, the muscle is also
responsible for maintaining posture, stabilizing the
joints, and producing body heat through muscle
function. These muscles are found in legs.
3. (b) Smooth muscle or "involuntary muscle" is found
within the walls of organs and structures such as
the esophagus, stomach, intestines, bronchi, uterus,
urethra, bladder, blood vessels, and the arrector pili
in the skin (in which it controls erection of body
hair). Smooth muscle is responsible for the
contractility of hollow organs, except the heart.
4. (a) Cardiac muscle fibres are striated but involuntary in
action while skeletal muscle fibres are striated but
voluntary in action.
5. (c) Striated muscle fibres bear striations in the form of
alternate light and dark bands.
6. (a) Striated muscles are cylindrical, syncytial and
unbranched.
7. (a) Actin is a protein that functions in the contractile
system of skeletal muscle, where it is found in the
thin filaments. Actin protein occurs in two forms -
polymeric F actin and monomeric G actin. In muscles,
fibrous actin (F-actin) is a helical polymer of a
globular polypeptide chain, G-actin.
8. (a) A-band is thick and dark. The length of A-band is
about 1.5 m.
9. (c) A - band of myofibrils contains both thick and thin
filaments. A myofibril (also known as a muscle fibril)
is a basic rod-like unit of a muscle. Myofibrils are
composed of long proteins such as actin, myosin,
and titin, and other proteins that hold them together.
These proteins are organized into thin filaments and
thick filaments, which repeat along the length of the
myofibril in sections called sarcomeres. Muscles
contract by sliding the thin (actin) and thick (myosin)
filaments along each other.
10. (d) Troponin is a globular protein complex involved in
muscle contraction. It occurs with tropomyosin in the
thin filaments of muscle tissue. It covers the active site
of actin. Together with tropomyosin, troponin forms a
regulatory protein complex controlling the interaction
of actin and myosin and that when combined with
calcium ions permits muscular contraction.
11. (c) Increase in Ca++ level into the sarcoplasm leads to
the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on
actin filaments and there by remove the masking of
active sites for myosin. Utilizing the energy from ATP
hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the
exposed active sites on actin to form a cross bridge.
This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the
centre of ‘A’ band. The ‘Z’ line attached to these
actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing a
shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction. It is
clear from the above steps, that during shortening
of the muscle, i.e., contraction, the ‘I’ bands get
reduced, whereas the ‘A’ bands retain the length.
12. (d) A sarcomere is a structural unit within a myofibril
bounded by Z lines that contain actin and myosin.
13. (c) Myosin is a fibrous protein which forms (together
with actin) the contractile filaments of muscle cells and
is also involved in motion in other types of cell. Myosin
comprises a family of ATP-dependent motor proteins
and is best known for their role in muscle contraction
and their involvement in a wide range of other eukaryotic
motility processes. They are responsible for actin-based
motility. Therefore they acts as ATPase.
14. (a) Troponin (having 3 subunits) is seen at regular
intervals on tropomyosin. In the resting state a
subunit of troponin masks the binding sites for
myosin on the actin filaments.
15. (b) The sarcoplasmic reticulum tubules contain calcium
ions which are released from the tubules on
stimulation by the impulse passing along the T
tubular network.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-110 Biology
16. (b) A red muscles fibre is a muscle in which small dark
fibers predominate and myoglobin and mitochondria
are abundant. Red muscle fibres contract and fatigue
more slowly than white fibres and generate ATP by
aerobic catabolism of glucose and fats, utilizing
myoglobin-bound O2
.
17. (b) Fatigue (also called exhaustion, tiredness etc) is a
feeling of tiredness which is distinct from weakness,
and has a slow onset. They have physical or mental
causes. Physical fatigue is the temporary inability of
a muscle to maintain optimal physical performance,
and is made more severe by intense physical
exercise. Mental fatigue is a temporary decrease in
maximal cognitive performance resulting from
prolonged periods of cognitive activity.
18. (d) The neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is the site of
communication between motor nerve axons and
muscle fibres. It is composed of four specialized cell
types: motor neurons, Schwann cells, muscle fibres
and the recently discovered kranocytes.
19. (c) Mandible (also known as lower jaw) is the largest,
strongest and only movable bone of the face.
20. (b) Hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone seen below buccal
cavity. It lies at the base of the mandible
(approximately C3
), where it acts as a site of
attachment for the anterior neck muscles.
21. (a) Hyoid is a horseshoe-shaped (or U shaped) bone
situated in the anterior midline of the neck between
the chin and the thyroid cartilage. At rest, it lies at
the level of the base of the mandible in the front and
the third cervical vertebra (C3
) behind. The hyoid
bone provides attachment to the muscles of the floor
of the mouth and the tongue above, the larynx below,
and the epiglottis and pharynx behind. The hyoid
bone helps in tongue movement and swallowing.
22. (d) Humerus is not a part of axial skeletal. It is a part of
appendicular skeletal. Humerus is the bone of the
upper arm or forelimb, forming joints at the shoulder
and the elbow.
23. (c) The vertebral column, also known as the backbone
or spine, is a bony skeletal structure found in
vertebrates. It is formed from individual bones called
vertebrae which house the spinal canal, a cavity that
encloses and protects the spinal cord. Vertebral
formula indicates the number of vertebrae in each
segment of the spinal column; for humans it is C7
,
T12, L5
, S5
, Cd4
= 33. The letters C, T, L, S, and Cd
denotes cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and
coccygeal.
24. (a) Part of the body having a single pair of bones is
pelvic girdle. Pelvic girdle, also called bony pelvis, is
a ring-like structure, located in the lower part of the
trunk. It connects the axial skeleton to the lower limbs.
The bony pelvis consists of the two hip bones (also
known as innominate or pelvic bones), sacrum and
coccyx.
25. (b) The five sacral vertebrae are fused in the adult,
forming one structure called the sacrum. It lies
between the innominate bones of the pelvic girdle.
26. (c) Each pectoral girdle has a glenoid cavity into which
the head of humerus is articulated.
27. (a) Long bones, like humerus, radius and ulna of forearm,
femur, tibia and fibula of shank in adult mammals
provides support.
28. (a) The number of floating ribs in human body is two
pairs. They are not connected to either the sternum
of the cartilage of another rib. Their main function is
to protect the kidneys.
29. (a) At the point of fusion of ilium, ischium and pubis,
there is a cavity called acetabulum to which the thigh
bone articulates.
30. (a) Elbow joint is an example of hinge joint. The elbow is
a hinge joint; it can open and close like a door. Hinge
joint is a form of diarthrosis (freely movable joint)
that allows angular movement in one plane only,
increasing or decreasing the angle between the bones
e.g. elbow joint, knee joint etc.
31. (b) Four coccygeal vertebrae are fused to form one
coccyx.
32. (d) Gliding joint permit only back and forth and side to
side movements. e.g. zygapophysis of adjacent
vertebrae.
33. (c) Cartilaginous joints are connected entirely by
cartilage (fibrocartilage or hyaline). These joints allow
more movement between bones than a fibrous joint
but less than the highly mobile synovial joint.
Cartilaginous joint is found in between the sternum
and the ribs in human. They also form the growth
regions of immature long bones and the intervertebral
discs of the spinal column.
34. (a) Pivot joint is a type of joint where one bone rotates
around another. Example includes the joint in our
neck, which allows us to rotate our head left to right.
35. (b) Gout is a sex controlled (autosomal) trait. Gout is the
accumulation of uric acid crystals in the region of
joints which results in painfull movements.
36. (a) Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune disorder.
It affects neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles.
37. (a) All movements do not lead to locomotion.
Locomotion is the voluntary movements resulting
in a change in location.
38. (c) Red muscle fibres are one of the two main types of
skeletal muscle, which contains abundant
mitochondria and myoglobin. Red muscle fibres
contract and fatigue more slowly than white fibres
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-111
and generate ATP by aerobic catabolism of glucose
and fats, utilizing myoglobin-bound O2
.
Sarcoplasmic reticulum is a system of membranebound tubules that surrounds muscle fibrils,
releasing calcium ions during contraction and
absorbing them during relaxation.
39. (d) Hyoid is a part of skull bones. Hyoid is a horse shoe
shaped bone which supports tongue and provides
insertion to some tongue muscle.
40. (d) Smooth muscles are non-striated. Their activities are
not under control of the nervous system and are
therefore known as involuntary muscles. All striated
muscles are not voluntary. Visceral muscles are
located in hollow organs. They do not exhibit any
striation and are smooth in appearance. Cardiac
muscles are the muscles of heart. These muscles are
striated and involuntary in nature.
41. (a) (B) Thin filaments are firmly attached to 'Z' line. Z
band is a thin membrane in a myofibril and seen
on longitudinal section as a dark line in the
centre of the I band. The distance between Z
bands delimits the sarcomeres of striated
muscle.
(C) The central part of thick filament, not
overlapped by thin filaments is called H zone.
42. (d) During muscle contraction, chemical energy is
changed into mechanical energy.
43. (b) Sphincters is a ring of muscle surrounding and
serving to guard or close an opening or tube like the
anus or the openings of the stomach. These muscles
do not fatigue during the life of an animal.
44. (a) (b) First vertebra is atlas. It is without the centrum
and articulated to skull through occipital
condyles for nodding movements.
(c) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are called floating
ribs.
(d) Glenoid cavity is the concavity in the head of
the scapula that receives the head of the
humerus to form the shoulder joint.
45. (d) (a) Myasthenia gravis is either an autoimmune or
congenital neuromuscular disease that leads
to fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigue.
(b) Gout is usually characterized by recurrent
attacks of acute inflammatory arthritis-a red,
tender, hot, swollen joint. It is caused by
elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. The
uric acid crystallizes, and the crystals deposit
in joints, tendons, and surrounding tissues.
(c) Muscular dystrophy is a progressive
degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due
to genetic disorder.
46. (a) Vertebral column has 12 thoracic vertebrate. The
joints between adjacent vertebrae is cartilaginous
joint which permits limited movements. Progesterone
is secreted by corpus luteum which supports
pregnancy in females.
47. (b) (i). Isotropic bands are skeletal muscle cells that form
the light bands (I bands) that contribute to the
striated pattern of the cells. During muscle
contraction, isotropic band does not get elongated.
(iii). Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent
by the central nervous system via a motor neuron.
48. (c) The thick and thin filaments do not change length
during muscle contraction.
49. (d) Smooth muscles are not branched and cylindrical in
appearance. Involuntary muscles are striated.
50. (d) Knee joint is an example of hinge joint. The knee
joint joins the thigh with the leg and consists of two
articulations: one between the femur and tibia, and
one between the femur and patella. It is the largest
joint in the human body. Hinge joint allows the
movements only in a single plane. In this articular
end of one bone is deeper convex and that of other
is deeper concave.
51. (c) The phase of muscle contraction occurs when
myosin binds and releases actin. Muscle contraction
is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous
system via a motor neuron. A motor neuron along
with the muscle fibres connected to it constitutes a
motor unit.
52. (a) Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to the
accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic
breakdown of glycogen in them, causing fatigue.
53. (a) Painful inflammation of the synovial membrane of
the joints results in stiffening of joints and painful
movements Uric acid accumulation in the joints can
lead to painful movement of joint.
54. (b) Synovial fluid is a thick sticky fluid secreted by
synovial membranes into the synovial cavity.
Though the presence of synovial fluid is one of the
reasons behind the mobility of the joints, but the
most accurate reason is the arrangement of the bones
at the joint, the spheroidal ball-like end of one bone
articulates here with the cup-shaped depression in
another. This allows the bone with the ball head to
be moved freely in many planes. Shoulder joints and
hip joints are the ball-and-socket joints.
55. (c) Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes the joint
painful and may even immobilise the movements at
the joint. This may result from a lack of the synovial
fluid at the joint. The ossification of the articular
cartilage, deposition of uric acid crystals in the joint
cavity or other changes at the joint.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-112 Biology
56. (b) Clavicle and glenoid cavity is found in pectoral girdle.
57. (b) Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of
a fluid filled synovial cavity between the articulating
surfaces of the two bones. Such an arrangement
allows considerable movement. These joints help in
locomotion and many other movements. Ball and
socket joint (between humerus and pectoral girdle),
hinge joint (knee joint), pivot joint (between atlas
and axis), gliding joint (between the carpals) and
saddle joint (between carpal and metacarpal of
thumb) are some examples.
58. (b) Gliding joint is found between zygapophyses of the
successive vertebrae. In gliding joint articular ends
of two bones are either flat or slightly curved to allow
sliding or gliding movement. Examples bones of palms
and sole, between pre-zygapophyses and postzygapophyses of vertebrae.
59. (b) Clavicle and glenoid cavity belongs to pectoral girdle
rather than pelvic girdle. Hence, it is incorrectly
paired.
60. (b) All the four joints given in column I are types of
synovial joints. Ball and socket joint is a type of
joint in which the ball-shaped surface of one rounded
bone fits into the cup-like depression of another
bone. The distal bone is capable of motion around
an indefinite number of axes, which have one
common centre. It enables the bone to move in many
planes (almost all directions). Hinge joint allows the
movements only in a single plane. In this particular
end of one bone is deeper convex and that of other
is deeper concave. In pivot joints, the axis of a convex
articular surface is parallel with the longitudinal axis
of the bone. Saddle joints are similar to ball and
sockets joints but both ball and socket are poorly
developed and movements are comparatively less
free. It allows the bone with convex head to move in
many directions.
61. (a) Tarsals (ankle), metatarsals (sole) and phalanges
(toes) are bones of hind limbs and carpel (wrist) a
bone of forelimb.
62. (d) All the characteristics of muscles are correctly
matched with their appropriate terms.
63. (b) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - VI , E - VII
64. (a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
65. (a) 8
th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly
with the sternum but join the seventh rib with the
help of hyaline cartilage.
66. (c) In the given figure, fibula and phalanges are not
correctly labelled. The fibula is the long, thin and
lateral bone of the lower leg. It runs parallel to the
tibia and plays a significant role in stabilizing the
ankle and supporting the muscles of the lower leg.
Compared to the tibia, the fibula is about the same
length, but is considerably thinner. The difference in
thickness corresponds to the varying roles of the
two bones; the tibia bears the body's weight from
the knees to the ankles, while the fibula functions as
a support for the tibia. Phalanges are digital bones in
the hands and feet of most vertebrates. In primates,
the thumbs and big toes have two phalanges while
the other digits have three phalanges. The phalanges
are classed as long bones.
67. (b) 'I' represent temporal bone in the given figure. The
temporal lobe is one of the four major lobes of the
cerebral cortex in the brain and located beneath the
lateral fissure on both cerebral hemispheres of the
mammalian brain. The temporal lobes are involved in
processing sensory input into derived meanings for
the appropriate retention of visual memories,
language comprehension, and emotion association.
68. (d) The label I, II, III, IV and e respectively are pubis,
femur, tibia, ilium and sacrum.
69. (b) Shoulder joint (label II) and hip joint (label IV) are
examples of ball and socket joint (for more refer
answer 70).
70. (b) The label I, II, III and IV respectively are humerus,
radius, ulna and scapula.
71. (b) The elbow joint is a hinge joint. It is the joint between
the humerus and ulna.
72. (b) In the given figure of human skeletal system, the
marked bones (I, II, III and IV) are identified as radius,
ulna, tibia and fibula respectively.
Radius and ulna are two large bones of the forearm.
Radius extends from the lateral side of the elbow to
the thumb side of the wrist and runs parallel to the
ulna, which exceeds it in length and size. Radius is a
long bone, prism-shaped and slightly curved
longitudinally. It articulates with the capitulum of
the humerus, and with the ulna at two points: the
radial notch (lower) and the head (upper part) of the
ulna. Ulna runs parallel to the radius, which is shorter
and smaller.
The tibia and fibula are two bones of hind limbs.
Tibia, also known as the shin bone, is the larger and
stronger of the two lower leg bones. It forms the
knee joint with the femur and the ankle joint with the
fibula and tarsus. The support and movement of the
tibia is essential to many activities performed by the
legs, including standing, walking, running, jumping
and supporting the body's weight. Fibula or calf bone
is located on the lateral side of the tibia, with which
it is connected above and below. It is shorter, thinner
and slender.
73. (d) The label 'X' in the figure of actin filament is troponin.
Troponin is a complex of three regulatory proteins
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-113
(troponin C, troponin I, and troponin T) that is integral
to muscle contraction in skeletal muscle and cardiac
muscle, but not smooth muscle. Troponin is attached
to the protein tropomyosin and lies within the groove
between actin filaments in muscle tissue. In a relaxed
muscle, tropomyosin blocks the attachment site for
the myosin cross bridge, thus preventing contraction
74. (b) Step A: Attachment of myosin head to actin forming
cross bridge.
Step B: Release of phosphate. Myosin changes
shape to pull actin.
Step C: Attachment of new ATP to myosin head. The
cross bridge detaches.
Step D: Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin
cocks into its high energy conformation.
75. (a) Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones. Fusion of
bone 1(ilium), 2(pubis) and 3(ischium) are responsible
for the formation of coxal bones.
76. (a) The correct labeling of marked parts (1, 2, 3 and 4) in
the given figure of right pectoral girdle and upper
arm are respectively clavicle, scapula, humerus, and
radius.
77. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are respectively muscle fibre, sarcolemma,
blood capillary and fascicle. Each organized skeletal
muscle in human body is made of a number of muscle
bundles or fascicles held together by a collagenous
connective tissue layer called fascia.
78. (a) The structure marked as X is humerus. Humerus is
the longest bone of upper extremity and is
characterized by presence of deltoid tuberosity for
the attachment of muscles.
79. (d) Vertebral column is a sring like vertebrae which lies
in the middorsal line of the neck and trunk. The correct
order of vertebral region from superior to inferior are
Cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacrum-coccyx.
80. (a) The correct order that a motor nerve impulse travels
when triggering a muscle contraction is: motor nerve
® synaptic cleft ® sarcolemma ® sarcoplasmic
reticulum ® troponin.
81. (d) A - 2F, B - tropomyosin, C - troponin
The thin filaments of myofibril contain 2F actin and
two filaments of tropomyosin protein along with the
troponin protein for masking binding sites for
myosin.
82. (c) The number of bones of ankle and wrist are not the
same as ankle have 7 bones and wrists have 8 bone.
83. (d) Both of these characteristics are important for the
function of cardiac muscle.
84. (d) Ball and socket joints have one end like a ball and
other like a cup shaped socket. In ball and socket
joint, convexity of one bone articulate with concavity
of other bone. Example shoulder joint and hip joint.
85. (d) All or none law is associated with skeletal muscle
fibre, neuron and cardiac muscle fibres. The all-ornone law is the principle states that the strength by
which a nerve or muscle fiber responds to a stimulus
is independent of the strength of the stimulus. If
that stimulus exceeds the threshold potential, the
nerve or muscle fibre will give a complete response;
otherwise, there is no response. It was first
established by the American physiologist Henry
Pickering Bowditch in 1871 for the contraction of
heart muscle.
86. (b) Smooth muscles are long and uni-nucleated. They
are found in urogenital tracts, digestive tract, lungs,
iris, blood vessel etc.
87. (c) Muscle of urethra is not exclusively supplied with
involuntary muscles.
88. (c) Muscles of alimentary canal are smooth unstriated
and are innervated by fibres of ANS. These muscles
are neurogenic.
89. (c) Fine motor control is accomplished by the presence
of smaller, more numerous motor units. Each motor
unit requires an individual motor neuron.
90. (d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsal and tibia are directly
contributing the movement when a cricket player is
chasing a ball in the field.
91. (b) Central part of thick filament, not overlapped by thin
filaments is called the ‘H’ zone. ‘H’ zone is also called
Hensen’s Line.
92. (b) An eyelid is a thin fold of skin that covers and protects
the eye. Eyelid muscles have thick fibre without
myoglobin.
93. (a) The correct organization of the structures from large
to small is: muscle, muscle cells, myofibrils,
sarcomeres, filaments.
Muscle is a band or bundle of fibrous tissue that has
the ability to contract, producing movement in or
maintaining the position of parts of the body. Muscle
cell is an elongated contractile cell that forms the
muscles of the body. Myofibril is any of the elongated
contractile threads found in striated muscle cells.
Sarcomere is a structural unit of a myofibril in striated
muscle, consisting of a dark band and the nearer
half of each adjacent pale band. A filament is a slender
thread-like object or fibre, especially one found in
animal or plant structures.
94. (d) Muscle contraction is triggered by a nerve releasing
a neurotransmitter, which in turn triggers the
sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium ions into
the muscle interior where they bind to troponin, thus
causing tropomyosin to shift from the face of the
actin filament to which myosin heads need to bind
to produce contraction.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-114 Biology
95. (b) The joint between shoulder (scapula) and the upper
arm (humerus) forms the ball and socket joint.
96. (c) Events i, ii, iv and v only occurs during muscle
contraction. Concentration of myoglobin, red
coloured oxygen storing pigment, in muscle fibres
increases.
97. (c) The striations that give skeletal muscle its
characteristic striped appearance are produced by
arrangements of myofilaments.
98. (c) If the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibres is
damaged, the exposure of myosin binding sites on
the actin will be affected.
99. (c) Synovial fluid is a transparent viscid lubricating fluid
secreted by a membrane of an articulation, bursa, or
tendon sheath. Synovial fluid is necessary for normal
joint function.
100. (c) Skeleton is the body part that forms the supporting
structure of an organism. Connecting muscles to joint
is not a function of skeleton. It is a function of tendon
which is a flexible but inelastic cord of strong fibrous
collagen tissue which attaches muscle to a bone.
101. (d) Scapula (X) is a large triangular flat bone situated in
the dorsal part of the thorax between the second (Y)
and the seventh ribs.
102. (b) Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause of
osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition in which
the bones become brittle and fragile from loss of
tissue, typically as a result of hormonal changes or
deficiency of calcium or vitamin D. Osteoporosis is
characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of
bone tissue. This leads to increased bone fragility
and risk of fracture (broken bones), particularly of
the hip, spine, wrist and shoulder. Osteoporosis is
often known as "the silent thief" because bone loss
occurs without symptoms.
103. (d) Red muscle fibre (or Type I, slow twitch muscle fibre)
is dense with capillaries and is rich in mitochondria
and myoglobin, giving the muscle tissue its
characteristic red color. It can carry more oxygen and
sustain aerobic activity using fats or carbohydrates
as fuel. Slow twitch fibers contract for long periods
of time but with little force.
White muscle fibre (or Type II, fast twitch muscle
fibre) contract quickly and powerfully but fatigue
very rapidly, sustaining only short, anaerobic bursts
of activity before muscle contraction becomes
painful. They contribute most to muscle strength
and have greater potential for increase in mass. Type
II is anaerobic, glycolytic, "white" muscle that is least
dense in mitochondria and myoglobin.
Cjãòvgt 21 : Pgwtãn Cqpvtqn ãpæ Cqqtækpãvkqp
1. (c) Afferent neurons (also known as sensory, receptor
neurons and afferent axons) carry nerve impulses
from receptors or sense organs toward the central
nervous system. Afferent neurons communicate with
specialized interneurons.
2. (a) Hypothalamus is the controlling centre of autonomic
nervous system. Hypothalamus lies at the base of
the thalamus and contains a number of centres which
control body temperature, urge for eating & drinking.
3. (c) A bipolar neuron has one dendrite and one axon. It
is found in the retina of eye.
4. (b) The ionic concentration gradients across the resting
membrane are maintained by active transport of ions
by sodium-potassium pump which transports 3 Na+
outwards for 2 K+
into the cell.
5. (a) During conduction of nerve impulse, Na+
moves into
the axoplasm. Axoplasm is a jelly like substance that
contains both inorganic and organic matter in a axon.
For an inactive neuron, the axoplasm has an overall
negative charge. This is because proteins, amino
acids, phosphates, and other negatively-charged
entities inside the cell cannot cross the selectivelypermeable cell membrane. Two types of positivelycharged ions, potassium (K+
) and sodium (Na+
), can
cross the cell membrane through selective ion
channels. Normally there are more potassium ions
inside the cell than outside, whereas there are more
sodium ions outside the cell than inside.
6. (b) Axon is a long fibre which transmits impulses away
from the cell body.
7. (d)
8. (a) During recovery, a nerve fibre becomes positively
charged outside and negatively charged inside.
9. (a) Sodium, calcium and potassium ions are required for
nerve conduction.
10. (a) Resting membrane potential is the potential
difference existing in a resting neuron (unstimulated
neuron). During resting condition, the concentration
of K+
ions is more inside the axoplasm while the
concentration of Na+
ions is more outside the
axoplasm. As a result, the potassium ions move faster
from inside to outside as compared to sodium ions.
Therefore, the membrane becomes positively charged
outside and negatively charged inside. This is known
as polarization of membrane or polarized nerve.
11. (c) The resting membrane potential of a neuron is about
-70 mV. This means that the inside of the neuron is 70
mV less than the outside. At rest, there are relatively
more sodium ions outside the neuron and more
potassium ions inside that neuron.
12. (c) The transmission of impulse through neurons is a
electro-chemical phenomenon.
13. (c) The resting potential occurs because of the different
concentrations of ions across the cell. The electrical
potential difference across the resting plasma
membrane is called as the resting potential. In the
resting nerve fibres, the cytoplasm just beneath its
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-115
membrane is electronegative relative to the layer of
extracellular fluid just outside the membrane.
14. (c) Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into two regions
- the outer region and the inner region. The outer
region of cerebrum contains grey matter and is
known as cerebral cortex, which contains cell bodies
of the neuron. The inner region of cerebrum contains
white matter and is known as cerebral medulla, which
contains nerve fibres or axons of the neurons.
15. (d) Medulla oblongata helps in regulation of respiration,
heartbeat, blood pressure, circulation, peristaltic
movements etc.
16. (b) Olfactory lobes receive the sensation of smell but
relay the same to temporal lobe of cerebrum.
17. (c) Purkinje cells are large neurons with many branching
extensions that is found in the cortex of the
cerebellum. It plays an important role in controlling
motor movement. These cells were first discovered
in 1837 by Czech physiologist Jan Evangelista
Purkinje. They are characterized by cell bodies that
are flask - like in shape, by numerous branching
dendrites, and by a single long axon. Most Purkinje
cells release a neurotransmitter called GABA which
exerts inhibitory actions on certain neurons and
thereby reduces the transmission of nerve impulses.
18. (a) Nuclei are areas of grey matter within the white matter,
where nerve impulses are processed.
19. (d) Cerebellum (the second largest part of brain) helps
in co-ordination of muscular activities.
20. (c) Pons is a band of nerve fibres that lies between
medulla oblongata and midbrain. It connects the
lateral parts of cerebellar hemisphere together. It
carries impulses from one hemisphere of the
cerebellum to another.
21. (b)
22. (a) Corpus callosum is a thick band of nerve fibres that
divides the cerebrum into left and right hemispheres.
It connects the left and right sides of the brain
allowing for communication between both cerebral
hemispheres. The corpus callosum transfers motor,
sensory, and cognitive information between the brain
hemispheres and also involved in several functions
of the body including communication between brain
hemispheres, eye movement, maintaining the balance
of arousal and attention, and tactile localization.
23. (c) Oligodendrocytes in the CNS are analogous to
Schwann cells in the PNS and form the myelin sheaths
around axons in the CNS. Astrocytes are supporting
cells and may function in the transport of materials
from blood vessels to neurons. Microglia are believed
to play a phagocytic role in the CNS.
24. (c) Pons varolii is situated in front of the cerebellum
below the mid brain and above the medulla
oblongata. The pons is concerned with the
maintenance of normal rhythm of respiration.
25. (b) The meninges are three layers of protective tissue
called the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater
that surround the brain and spinal cord. The meninges
of the brain and spinal cord are continuous, being
linked through the magnum foramen. The arachnoid
or arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the
meninges. In some areas, it projects into the sinuses
formed by the dura mater and transfer cerebrospinal
fluid from the ventricles back into the bloodstream.
26. (b) Hindbrain is composed of the pons, cerebellum and
medulla oblongata. The hindbrain is one of the three
major developmental divisions of the brain; the other
two are the midbrain and forebrain. Gastric secretion,
cardiovascular reflexes, respiration was regulated by
the medulla oblongata. Located in the brainstem,
anterior to the cerebellum, the medulla oblongata is
a cone-shaped neuronal mass in the hindbrain,
controlling a number of autonomic functions.
27. (b) Reflex action is the rapid, involuntary and
unconscious actions of the body brought about by
any part of the CNS through sudden stimulation from
receptors. Shivering in cold is not a reflex action.
28. (a) The rods contain the rhodopsin pigment that is
highly sensitive to dim light. It is responsible for
scotopic (twilight) vision.
29. (d) Fovea is a small depression in the centre of macula
lutea. It has only cone cells. They are devoid of rod
cells. Hence, fovea is the place of most distinct vision.
30. (d) The spot at the back of the eye, from where optic
nerve fibres leave is free from rods & cones. This
spot is devoid of the ability for vision and is called
blind spot.
31. (c) The amount of light that falls on retina is regulated
by iris. Iris is the anterior part and lies behind the
cornea.
32. (c) For seeing the nearby objects, the lens becomes more
convex by contraction of ciliary muscles. The ciliary
muscle is a ring of smooth muscle in the eye's middle
layer (vascular layer) and controls accommodation
for viewing objects at varying distances and
regulates the flow of aqueous humour into
Schlemm's canal. It changes the shape of the lens
within the eye, not the size of the pupil which is
carried out by the sphincter pupillae muscle and
dilator pupillae.
33. (a) Space between cornea and lens is called aqueous
chamber. The anterior chamber is the fluid-filled
space between the iris and the cornea's innermost
surface, the endothelium. The anterior chamber is
filled with a watery fluid known as the aqueous
humor, or aqueous. It is produced by a structure
alongside the lens (called the ciliary body). The
aqueous passes first into the posterior chamber
(between the lens and iris) and then flows forward
through the pupil into the anterior chamber of the
eye.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-116 Biology
34. (d) Refer answer 30.
35. (c) Cornea is a transparent anterior portion of eye that
lacks blood vessels and is nourished by lymph from
the nearby area.
36. (a) Eye movement refers to the voluntary or involuntary
movement of the eyes. It helps in acquiring, fixating
and tracking visual stimuli. Eye ball is moved in the
orbit by four rectus and two oblique muscles.
37. (c) Refer answer 30.
38. (b) Ciliary body is a part of uvea. It is a circular structure
just behind the iris composed of the ciliary muscle
and ciliary processes which attach to the lens. The
ciliary processes secrete the aqueous fluid, and the
ciliary muscle modify focus by changing the shape
of the lens.
39. (b) The cones contain the iodopsin pigment (visual
violet) and are highly sensitive to high intensity light.
They are responsible for photopic (daylight) vision
and colour visions.
40. (c) Cochlea of (auditory region of internal ear) is a long
coiled tubular and blind outgrowth of sacculus. It
consists of perilymph and endolymph.
41. (c) Scala vestibuli is the lymph-filled spirally arranged
canal, present in the bony canal of the cochlea. It is
separated from the scala media below by the
vestibular membrane and connected with the oval
window and receives vibrations from the stapes.
42. (d) Organ of Corti consists of row of sensory hair cells.
The hairs of these cells project upwards and lie in
close contact with tectorial membrane, which projects
above them.
43. (d) Macula (receptors on the utriculus and sacculus)
are the organs of equilibrium and posture of body.
They are bathed in endolymph.
44. (b) Labyrinth is divided into bony labyrinth and a
membranous labyrinth. Bony labyrinth is filled with
perilymph while membranous labyrinth is filled with
endolymph.
45. (c) The sense of equilibrium is determined by sensory
cristae of ampulla. The crista ampullaris is the sensory
organ of rotation located in the semi-circular canal
of the inner ear. The function of the crista ampullaris
is to sense angular acceleration and deceleration.
46. (a) The receptor cells for balance in human ear are
located in utricle, saccule and semi-circular canal.
47. (c) Organ of Corti is found in scala media. It consists of
row of sensory hair cells. The hairs of these cells
project upwards and lie in close contact with tectorial
membrane, which projects above them.
48. (c) The cochlea is the hearing or auditory portion of the
inner ear. It is a spiral-shaped cavity in the bony
labyrinth. The cochlea receives sound in the form of
vibrations, which cause the stereocilia to move. The
stereocilia then convert these vibrations into nerve
impulses which are taken up to the brain to be
interpreted. Two of the three fluid sections are canals
and the third is a sensitive 'organ of Corti' which
detects pressure impulses which travel along the
auditory nerve to the brain. The two canals are called
the vestibular canal and the tympanic canal.
49. (b) Ear ossicles are three small bones - the incus (anvil),
malleus (hammer), and stapes (stirrup) that lie in the
mammalian middle ear, forming a bridge between the
tympanum (eardrum) and the oval window.
50. (d) Reissner's membrane (also called vestibular
membrane) is a thin membrane inside the cochlea of
the inner ear. It separates scala media from scala
vestibuli. Together with the basilar membrane it
creates a compartment in the cochlea filled with
endolymph, which is important for the function of
the organ of Corti.
51. (b) In static condition, the body balance is sensed by
macula. Macula provide information on head position
(static equilibrium), as well as linear acceleration and
deceleration, a type of dynamic equilibrium. The
macula consist of hair cells with hair bundles and
supporting cells.
52. (b) An electrical synapse is a mechanical and electrically
conductive link between two adjoining neurons that
is formed at a narrow gap between the pre- and
postsynaptic neurons known as a gap junction.
Electrical synapses are rare in our neural system.
Hypothalamus contains a number of centres which
control body temperature, urge for eating and
drinking. It also contains several groups of
neurosecretory cells which secretes hormone called
hypothalamic hormones. Thalamus is a major
coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling.
The tracts of nerve fibres that connect two cerebral
hemispheres are called corpus callosum.
53. (c) The space between the cornea and the lens is called
the aqueous chamber and contains a thin watery
fluid called the aqueous humor. When all the cones
are stimulated equally, a sensation of white light is
produced. The anterior transparent portion of sclera
is called cornea.
54. (b) The photopigments of the human eye are composed
of opsin (protein) and retinal. Upon light absorption,
opsins can change their conformation from a resting
state to a signalling state. Then it activates the G
protein, thereby resulting in a signalling cascade that
produces physiological responses. Retinal, also
called retinaldehyde or vitamin A aldehyde, is a
polyene chromophore which is bound to proteins
called scotopsins and photopsins, and is the chemical
basis of animal vision.
55. (a) The cerebellum (also called little brain) is a structure
located at the back of the brain, underlying the
occipital and temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex. It
contains over 50% of the total number of neurons in
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-117
the brain. The cerebellum is involved in the
maintenance of balance and posture, coordination
of voluntary movements, motor learning and
cognitive functions.
56. (b) Conditioned reflexes are not present at birth but
acquired as the result of experience. When an action
is performed repeatedly, the nervous system learns
to react automatically.
57. (c) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are the main functions of
cerebrum. Cerebrum is the largest and most highly
developed part of the human brain. The outer portion
of the cerebrum is covered by a thin layer of gray
tissue called the cerebral cortex. It is divided into
right and left hemispheres that are connected by the
corpus callosum.
(iv) Cerebrum controls the hearing and sense of smell
through the temporal lobe.
58. (a) Action potentials are formed when a stimulus causes
the cell membrane to depolarize past the threshold
of excitation, causing all sodium ion channels to
open. During the propagation of a nerve impulse,
the action potential results from the movement of
Na+
ions from the extracellular fluid to intracellular
fluid.
59. (d) The all-or-none law is the principle states that the
strength by which a nerve or muscle fibre responds
to a stimulus is independent of the strength of the
stimulus. If that stimulus exceeds the threshold
potential, the nerve or muscle fibre will give a
complete response, otherwise, there is no response.
60. (b) Stapes is one of the three ear essicles. It is attached
to the oval window of cochlea. It is homologus to
Columella auris.
61. (c) The statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct while the
statement (iv) is incorrect. The peripheral nervous
system consists of nerves carrying impulses to and
from brain and spinal cord.
62. (c) Conduction of impulses is very slow in unmyelinated
fibres.
63. (b) Ions only flow directly from cell to cell in an electrical
synapse.
64. (d) Rods and cones are light receptors present in retina.
Rods are absent in the fovea while cones are
numerous in the fovea.
65. (c) The external ear (pinna) collects sound waves and
directs them to the ear drum. The membranous canals
are suspended in the perilymph of the bony canals.
The malleus is attached to the tympanic membrane and
the stapes is attached to the oval window of the cochlea.
66. (a) The vestibular apparatus is composed of three semicircular canals and the otolith organ consisting of
the saccule and utricle. The Eustachian tube helps
in equalizing the pressures on either sides of the ear
drum. The membranes constituting cochlea, the
reissner's and basilar, divide the surrounding
perilymph filled bony labyrinth into an upper scala
vestibuli and a lower scala tympani.
67. (d) The axonal membrane of the neuron is more
permeable to potassium ions (K+
) and nearly
impermeable to sodium ions (Na+
). In a resting state
neuron does not conduct any impulse. In the resting
state the period during which a neuron is not
conducting the fluids outside the cell membrane carry
a relatively high positive charge. The fluids inside
the cell membrane carry a less positive, or relatively
negative, charge.
68. (b) Neurotransmitters are the chemicals which allow the
transmission of signals from one neuron to the next
across synapses. They are also found at the axon
endings of motor neurons, where they stimulate the
muscle fibres. These chemicals stored in the synaptic
vesicles (or neurotransmitter vesicles) are released
at the synaptic cleft. The release is regulated by a
voltage-dependent calcium channel. Vesicles are
essential for propagating nerve impulses between
neurons and are constantly recreated by the cell.
69. (c) The imbalance in concentration of Na+
, K+
and
proteins generates resting potential. The electrical
potential difference across the resting plasma
membrane is called as the resting potential. In the
resting nerve fibres, the cytoplasm just beneath its
membrane is electronegative relative to the layer of
extracellular fluid just outside the membrane. If the
two sides of the membrane are connected by
galvanometer, the inner side is seen to possess a
negative potential of about 70 mV relative to the
outside. This is called resting membrane potential.
To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+
and K+
,
the neurons use chemical energy in the form of ATP to
actively transport Na+
out of the cell and move K+
in.
70. (b) Astigmatism is a kind of defect of vision in which
the image of an object is distorted. It is because all
the light rays do not come to focus on retina. It is
due to abnormal curvature of the lens . It can be
corrected by wearing cylindrical lenses.
71. (b) Hind brain consists of cerebellum located dorsally
medulla oblongate and ponsvarolii. It contains
centres for maintenance of posture and equilibrium
of the body and for the muscle tone. All activities of
the cerebellum are involuntary but may involve
learning in their early stages.
72. (b) The brain stem consists of pons varoli, medulla
oblongata, mid brain and diencephalon. The brain
stem is the connection between brain and spinal cord.
It contains centres for controlling many vital activities
like respiration, body temperature, urge for eating and
drinking etc. It also carries nerve tracts between the
spinal cord and the higher brain structure.
73. (b) The axon terminal of the neuron contains many
membrane bound vesicles called synaptic vesicles, in
its cytoplasm. Within these vesicles, chemical
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-118 Biology
substances such as adrenaline and acetylcholine
remain stored. These chemicals are called
neurotransmitters, because they help to transmit nerve
impulses across the synapses. When a nerve impulse
passes the axon terminal, its synaptic vesicles release
their stored chemicals to the synaptic cleft. These
diffuse through the cleft to reach the membrane of the
next neuron, stimulating the latter. This causes the
nerve impulse to be transmitted along the next neuron.
74. (c) Hypothalamus is the part of the forebrain that
controls involuntary functions such as hunger, thirst,
sweating, sleep, fatigue, sexual desire, temperature
regulation, etc.
75. (b) The medulla oblongata is the part of the brainstem
that is situated between the pons and the spinal cord.
The medulla contains the cardiac, respiratory,
vomiting and vasomotor centres and therefore deals
with the autonomic (involuntary) functions of
breathing, heart rate and blood pressure.
Hypothalamus is responsible for temperature
regulation.
76. (a) Cerebrum controls vision and hearing. Cerebellum
maintains body posture. Hypothalamus controls the
pituitary gland. Medulla oblongata controls the rate
of heart beat.
77. (b) Cone cells are responsible for colour vision. They
function best in relatively bright light, as compared
to rod cells that work better in dim light. Cone cells are
densely packed in the fovea centralis, a rod-free area
with very thin, densely packed cones which quickly
reduce in number towards the periphery of the retina.
Accommodation of vision occurs by contraction and
relaxation of ciliary muscles. Pupil determines the
amount of light that enters the eye. Night blindness
occurs due to vitamin A deficiency. It is due to a
disorder of the cells in the retina that are responsible
for vision in dim light. Binocular vision is a vision
using two eyes with overlapping fields of view,
allowing good perception of depth. Iris is responsible
for controlling the diameter and size of the pupil and
thus the amount of light reaching the retina.
78. (d) Difference between rods and cones
Features Rods Cones
i Dis tribution M ore numerous
and uniformly
distributed
in the retina
Less numerous,
dispers ed and
tightly packed
together at
fovea
to give a sharp
image ii Visual acuity Low High
iii Visual pigment
contained
Rhodopsin or
visual purple
Iodopsin
iv Over all
function
Specialised
for light vision
Specialized for
colour vis ion
79. (a)
80. (a) Semi-circular canal is interconnected tubes located
inside each ear. They are lined with cilia and filled
with a fluid known as endolymph. With every
movement of head the endolymph moves the cilia.
This works as a type of motion sensor, as the
movements of the cilia are communicated to the brain.
The vestibule is the central part of the osseous
labyrinth and responds to gravity and movements
of head. Cochlea is the auditory portion of the inner
ear. It is a spiral-shaped cavity in the bony labyrinth.
Perilymph is an extracellular fluid located within the
cochlea (part of the inner ear) in two of its three
compartments: the scala tympani and scala vestibuli.
The major cation (positively charged ion) in perilymph
is sodium. Endolymph is the fluid contained in the
membranous labyrinth of the inner ear.
81. (c) Optic chiasma is not the feature of retina.
82. (b) Sclera the external layer composed of dense
connective tissue. It is the tough, opaque tissue that
serves as protective outer coat for eye’s Choroid
contains many blood vessels and looks bluish in
colour. Pupil is a hole located in the centre of the iris
of the eye that allows light to strike the retina. It
appears black because light rays entering the pupil
are either absorbed by the tissues inside the eye
directly, or absorbed after diffuse reflections within
the eye that mostly miss exiting the narrow pupil.
Fovea is a portion of retina where only the cones are
densely packed. Iris is the visible coloured portion
of the eye.
83. (d) Association areas are the regions of the cerebral
cortex of the brain connected by numerous nerve
fibres to all parts of both cerebral hemispheres and
coordinating such higher activities as learning and
reasoning. Association areas are responsible for
functions like intersensory associations, memory and
communication.
84 (c) Bipolar neurons is a type of neuron which has two
extensions - one axon and one dendrite. Bipolar cells
are specialized sensory neurons for the transmission
of special senses. As such, they are part of the
sensory pathways for smell, sight, taste, hearing and
vestibular functions. They are found in the retina of
eye.
85. (a) A reflex arc is a neural pathway that controls an action
reflex. It is a rapid, automatic response to a stimulus.
Some (but not all) reflexes are subconscious, and
some (but not all) can be consciously controlled or
inhibited. The parts marked as A to G in the given
figure are respectively sense organ, sensory nerve,
dorsal horn, interneuron, ventral horn, motor nerve
and effector.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-119
86. (b)
Features
Sympathetic
nervous
system
Parasympathetic
nervous system
(a) Salivary glands Inhibits
secretions
Stimulates
secretions
(b) Pupil of eye Dilates Constricts
(c) Heart rate Increases
strength and
rate of heart
beat
Decreases
strength
and rate of
heart beat
(d) Intestinal
peristalsis
Inhibits
secretions
Stimulates
secretions
87. (b) In the given figure, stage of resting potential is
observed. The electrical potential difference across
the resting plasma membrane is called as the resting
potential. In the resting nerve fibres, the cytoplasm
just beneath its membrane is electronegative relative
to the layer of extracellular fluid just outside the
membrane.
88. (a) In the given figure of cochlea, the correct labelling
of A, B, C and D are respectively perilymph, tectorial
membrane, endolymph and organ of corti.
The cochlea is the auditory portion of the inner ear.
It is a spiral-shaped cavity in the bony labyrinth and
receives sound in the form of vibrations, which cause
the stereocilia to move. The stereocilia then convert
these vibrations into nerve impulses which are taken
up to the brain to be interpreted. Two of the three
fluid sections are canals and the third is a sensitive
'organ of Corti' which detects pressure impulses
which travel along the auditory nerve to the brain.
The two canals are called the vestibular canal and
the tympanic canal.
89. (a) In the given figure of axon terminal and synapse, the
correct labelling of A, B, C and D are respectively
synaptic vesicles, axon terminal, synaptic cleft and
postsynaptic membrane.
90. (b) In the given figure of human eye, the part marked as
"X" is iris. The iris is a thin, circular structure in the
eye which is responsible for controlling the diameter
and size of the pupil and thus the amount of light
reaching the retina. The colour of the iris gives the
eye its colour.
91. (c) In the given diagram of neuron, the part marked as I,
II, III and IV are respectively dendrites, cell body,
myelin sheath and nodes of Ranvier. Neuron is a
specialized, impulse-conducting cell that is the
functional unit of the nervous system, consisting of
the cell body and its processes, the axon and
dendrites.
92. (a) The label X represents Node of Ranvier. It speeds
up the impulse transmission.
93. (b) The label II represents tympanic membrane.
Tympanic membrane converts sound waves into
mechanical vibrations.
The structure I, II, III and IV are external auditory
canal, tympanic membrane, cochlea and eustachian
tube respectively.
94. (a) Semi-circular canal (A) - Contains receptor for
balance
Ear ossicles (B) - Increases the magnitude of
vibrations
Pinna (C) - Collects sound waves
95. (b) The label X represents sclera. The white of the eye is
called sclera. Choroid is responsible for eye colour.
Ciliary muscles alters the shape of the lens during
accomodation.
96. (d) The label IV represents basilar membrane. The
movement of the basilar membrane is most important
to hearing. Once the hair cell microvilli bend, the hair
cells depolarize, thus inducing action potentials in
the cochlear nerve.
97. (a) The label X represents to semi-circular canals of the
inner ear. The three semi-circular canals are involved
in balance, primarily detecting movements of the
head. The arrangement of the three semi-circular
canals allows one to detect movements in all
directions.
98. (d) Nodes of Ranvier (4) are the gaps formed between
the myelin sheaths generated by different cells. A
myelin sheath is a multi-layered coating and largely
composed of a fatty substance called myelin that
wraps around the axon of a neuron and very
efficiently insulates it. At nodes of Ranvier, the axonal
membrane is uninsulated and, therefore, capable of
generating electrical activity.
99. (b) Part marked as 2 is axon. Axon (also known as nerve
fibre) is a long, slender projection of a nerve cell, or
neuron that typically conducts electrical impulses
away from the neuron's cell body. The function of
the axon is to transmit information to different
neurons, muscles and glands.
100. (c) The parts labelled as 4, 5 and 6 are respectively
pre-synaptic membrane, synaptic cleft and postsynaptic membrane. These parts constitute the
structure of synapse. A synapse is a structure that
permits a neuron (or nerve cell) to pass an electrical
or chemical signal to another cell (neural or
otherwise). Synapses are essential to neuronal
function. At a synapse, the plasma membrane of the
signal-passing neuron (the presynaptic neuron)
comes into close apposition with the membrane of
the target (postsynaptic) cell. Both the presynaptic
and postsynaptic sites contain extensive arrays of
molecular machinery that link the two membranes
together and carry out the signaling process. In many
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-120 Biology
synapses, the presynaptic part is located on an axon,
but some postsynaptic sites are located on a dendrite
or soma.
101. (b) The parts marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the given figure
of human eye are respectively cornea, iris, blind spot
and choroid.
Cornea (1), the anterior portion of sclera, is the
transparent, dome-shaped window covering the front
of the eye. It is a powerful refracting surface. Blind
spot (3) is the area on the retina without receptors
that respond to light. Therefore an image that falls
on this region will not be seen. It is in this region that
the optic nerve exits the eye on its way to the brain.
Choroid (4) is the layer of blood vessels and
connective tissue between the sclera (white of the
eye) and retina.
102. (a) The marked label 1, 2, 3 and 4 are respectively
Reissner's membrane, organ of corti, basilar
membrane and tectorial membrane.
Organ of corti (X) is a sensitive element in the inner
ear. It is a spiral shaped structure located on the
basilar membrane (3) which contains hair cells that
acts as auditory receptors. The hair cells are present
in rows on the internal side of the organ of corti.
103. (a) For sound reflex actions, we require intact spinal
cord. The spinal cord is the most important structure
between the body and the brain. It extends from the
foramen magnum where it is continuous with the
medulla to the level of the first or second lumbar
vertebrae. It functions primarily in the transmission
of neural signals between the brain and the rest of
the body but also contains neural circuits that can
independently control numerous reflexes and central
pattern generators.
104. (d) A primitive type of nervous system, without brain is
found in the form of intraepidermal nerve net.
However, there is no brain in Hydra to coordinate
the response.
105. (a) Closing of eyes, if an object suddenly approached
them, is an example of simple reflex.
106. (b) Paralysis involves the complete destruction of motor
nerves.
107. (c) Peristalsis of intestine is the example of autonomic
nervous system. The autonomic nervous system
(ANS) regulates the functions of internal organs (the
viscera) such as the heart, stomach and intestines. It
is part of the peripheral nervous system and controls
some of the muscles within the body.
Swallowing of food, pupillary reflex and knee jerk
response are the examples of reflex action.
108. (c) The ionic concentration gradients across the resting
membrane are maintained by active transport of ions
by sodium-potassium pump which transports 3 Na+
outwards for 2 K+
into the cell. Hence, if sodium
pump is blocked, sodium inside the nerve will
increase.
109. (d) If a person feels no sensation when he puts his hand
on a flame then the hypothalamus part of his brain is
damaged. Because hypothalamus contains a number
of centres which control body temperature, urge for
eating and drinking. It also contains several groups
of neurosecretory cells which secretes hormone
called hypothalamic hormones.
110. (b) An axon has four terminals ends connected with
dendrites of four different neurons. Its nerve impulse
will travel in all the four neurons with equal strength.
111. (d) Brain is well protected by cranial meninges that are
made up of an outer layer called dura mater, a thin
middle layer called arachnoid, and an inner layer
called pia mater.
112. (c) Conditioned reflexes are acquired as the result of
experience. When an action is performed repeatedly,
the nervous system learns to react automatically.
Walking, running, typing, riding a bicycle etc. are
examples of learned conditioned activities.
113. (d) The autonomic nervous system regulates the
functions of internal organs (the viscera) such as
the heart, stomach and intestines. It is divided into
three parts: the sympathetic nervous system, the
parasympathetic nervous system and the enteric
nervous system. The autonomic nervous system is
most important in two situations: in emergencies that
cause stress and require us to ‘fight’ or take ‘flight’
(run away) and in non-emergencies that allow us to
‘rest’ and ‘digest’.
114. (b)
115. (c) When a person who enters in empty room suddenly
finds a snake in front on opening the door, his
sympathetic nervous system is activated and
releases epinephrine and norepinephrine from the
adrenal medulla.
116. (b) The middle ear contains a flexible chain of three
middle bones called ear ossicles. The three ear
ossicles are malleus, incus, and stapes that are
attached to each other. The malleus is attached to
tympanic membrane on one side and to incus on the
other side. The incus is connected with stapes.
Stapes, in turn, are attached with an oval membrane,
fenestra ovalis, of internal ear. In ear, vibrations travel
through malleus, incus to stapes. The ear ossicles
increase the intensity of the sound waves.
117. (b) Iris is a thin, circular structure in the eye, responsible
for controlling the diameter and size of the pupil and
thus the amount of light reaching the retina. The
colour of the iris gives the eye its colour. In optical
terms, the pupil is the eye's aperture and the iris is
the diaphragm that serves as the aperture stop.
118. (b) Cornea transplant is successful as cornea is without
blood supply. The cornea is the transparent, domeshaped window covering the front of the eye. It is a
powerful refracting surface, providing 2/3 of the eye's
focusing power. Because there are no blood vessels
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-121
in the cornea, it is normally clear and has a shiny
surface.
119. (d) The described condition is case of myopia. In myopia
(or near-sightedness), the eyeball is anteroposteriorly elongated so that the image of distant
objects is formed in front of the retina. The defect
can be removed by using concave glasses.
120. (d) In a similarity with photographic camera the retina
acts as film. Retina is a light-sensitive layer of tissue,
lining the inner surface of the eye. The optics of the
eye create an image of the visual world on the retina
(through the cornea and lens), which serves much
the same function as the film in a camera.
121. (b) Adaptation is the ability of the eye to adjust to
various levels of darkness and light.
122. (a) Layers in wall of eye balls from inside to outwards
are retina, choroid and sclerotic. Retina is a lightsensitive layer of tissue, lining the inner surface of
the eye. The choroid is the layer of blood vessels
and connective tissue between the sclera (white of
the eye) and retina. It is part of the uvea and supplies
nutrients to the inner parts of the eye. Sclerotic is
related to sclera which is commonly known as "the
white of the eye." It is the tough, opaque tissue that
serves as the eye's protective outer coat. Six tiny
muscles connect to it around the eye and control the
eye's movements. The optic nerve is attached to the
sclera at the very back of the eye.
123. (b) The velocity of nerve impulse is approximately
100 m. per second and velocity of cardiac impulse is
about 0.6 m. per second.
124. (b) The highest and the lowest frequencies of sound
are recognized by the outermost and the innermost
coils of the cochlea, respectively.
125. (b) The pinna of the external ear collects the sound
waves and directs them to the tympanic membrane
(ear drum) via the external auditory canal. The ear
drum then vibrates the sound waves and conducts
them to the internal ear through the ear ossicles. The
ear ossicles increase the intensity of the sound
waves. These vibrating sound waves are conducted
through the oval window to the fluid in the cochlea.
Consequently, a movement is created in the lymph.
This movement produces vibrations in the basilar
membrane, which in turn stimulate the auditory hair
cells. These cells generate a nerve impulse,
conducting it to the auditory cortex of the brain via
afferent fibres. The auditory cortex region interprets
the nerve impulse and sound is recognized.
126. (a) The correct sequence for pathway of light through
the eye to the retina is:
conjunctiva - cornea - aqueous humor - pupil - lens -
vitreous humor - yellow spot.
127. (c) The given features are related to Eustachian tube.
The Eustachian tube (also known as the auditory
tube) is a tube that links the nasopharynx to the
middle ear. It is a part of the middle ear. It aerates the
middle ear system and clears mucus from the middle
ear into the nasopharynx.
128. (b) Hypothalamus is an important part of forebrain which
lies at the base of the structure which is a major
coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling.
It contains a number of centers which control body
temperature, urge for eating and drinking.
129. (a) Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is
always faster than that across a chemical synapse.
130. (a) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by an Schwann
cells that does not form a myelin sheath around the
axon, and is commonly found in autonomous and
the somatic neural systems.
131. (a) The afferent neuron receives signal from a sensory
organ and transmits the impulse via a dorsal nerve
root into the CNS. The efferent neuron then carries
signals from CNS to the effector.
Cjãòvgt 22 : Cjgïkeãn Cqqtækpãvkqp ãpæ
Ëpvgétãvkqp
1. (d) Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes follicle stimulating
hormones, growth hormone and luteinizing hormone.
2. (d) GH (growth hormone), secreted from anterior
pituitary gland, stimulates growth of body by
synthesis and deposition of protein in tissue,
increase glucose level in blood by decreased
secretion of insulin, increased cell division ad
increased growth of bones by increased absorption
of calcium from intestine. Hyper secretion of GH leads
to acromegaly in adults which is characterised by
gorilla like appearance with huge hand and legs.
3. (b) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) is secreted
by anterior pituitary.
4. (d) LH is a luteinizing hormone which stimulates the non
- empty follicle to develop into corpus luteum. Corpus
luteum secretes progesterone hormone during the
latter half of the menstrual cycle which maintain
pregnancy.
5. (a) Oxytocin hormone is produced by posterior lobe of
pituitary under the influence of nervous stimulation.
It causes contraction of the smooth muscles of the
uterus and myoepithelial cells lining the duct of the
mammary gland. Hence it is also called as birth
hormone and milk ejection hormone.
6. (d) Ovulation (release of graafian follicle from the ovary)
is controlled by FSH and LH.
7. (b) FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone), secreted by
anterior pituitary gland, is a gonadotrophic hormone.
It stimulates spermatogenesis and growth of
seminiferous tubules in testes in male and maturation
of Graafian follicle and secretion of estrogen and
progesterone from corpus luteum in female.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-122 Biology
8. (a) Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) is secreted
by pars intermedia. MSH acts on melanocytes to
regulate pigmentation of skin.
9. (b) Secretion of estrogen is stimulated by FSH of anterior
pituitary gland.
10. (a) Deficiency of ADH (vasopressin) causes diabetes
insipidus (increased volume of urine). It is caused
due to decreased reabsorption of water from
collecting tubules.
11. (b) Melatonin, secreted by pineal gland, is called as antiageing hormone.
12. (b) Melatonin regulates the diurnal i.e. 24-hour rhythm
of body. e.g. maintenance of sleep-wake cycle, body
temperature etc. It influences metabolism,
pigmentation and menstrual cycle.
13. (a) ADH, secreted by posterior pituitary gland, acts on
kidney. It concentrates the urine by promoting the
reabsorption of water and salts into the cortical
collecting ducts. Therefore, when the amount of ADH
decreases in blood, micturition will increase.
14. (a) ADH, secreted by posterior pituitary gland, acts on
kidney. It concentrates the urine by promoting the
reabsorption of water and salts into the cortical
collecting ducts.
15. (b) ADH, secreted by posterior pituitary gland, acts on
kidney. It concentrates the urine by promoting the
reabsorption of water and salts into the cortical
collecting ducts. Therefore, when the amount of ADH
decreases in blood, micturition will increase with
increased water in urine.
16. (c) ADH (or vasopressin) is secreted by posterior
pituitary gland. It acts on kidney tubule and blood
capillaries and concentrates the urine by promoting
the reabsorption of water and salts into the cortical
collecting ducts.
17. (c) In thyroid gland, thyroxine hormone is stored in
extracellular spaces before discharging it into the
blood. These hormones are stored in the follicular
cells in the form of colloidal suspension called
thyroglobulin.
18. (d) Thyrocalcitonin opposes parathormone. Calcitonin,
secreted from parafollicular cells in thyroid gland,
plays a role in calcium and phosphorus metabolism.
19. (c) Hypothyroidism of T3
and T4
during fetal life and
infancy leads to cretinism. It is a condition
characterized by the retarded mental development,
stunted growth, delayed puberty, decreased heart
rate, pulse rate, blood pressure etc, reduced urine
output, pigeon’s chest etc.
20. (b) Thyroxine does not act on testis. It is a hormone which
is secreted from thyroid gland and plays an important
role in the body's metabolisms and calcium balance.
21. (d) All the organs or tissues listed are influenced by
parathyroid hormone like, kidneys- reabsorption of
calcium; bones- release of calcium and small
intestine-absorption of calcium.
22. (a) Thymus is related to AIDS as it the first developing
lymphoid organ whose main function is to develop
immature T cells into immunocompetent T cells. AIDS
(acquired immune deficiency syndrome) is a disease
in which there is a severe loss of the body's cellular
immunity, greatly lowering the resistance to infection
and malignancy.
23. (d) Thymus secretes a peptide hormone called
“thymosins” that imparts resistance to diseases.It
helps in differentiation of T-lymphocytes, which
provide cell mediated immunity.It promotes
production of antibodies for humoral immunity.
24. (b) Deficiency of aldosterone and cortisol causes
Addison’s disease. It is characterized by bronze-like
skin colouration, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, low
blood sugar, nervous depression, nausea, vomiting,
weakness and diarrhoea.
25. (a) Cortisol is secreted by the middle region of adrenal
cortex. It increases the blood glucose level (which is
anti-insulin effect) by converting proteins & fats into
glucose.
26. (d) Adrenal gland (adrenaline hormone) is also called as
triple F gland for flight, fright and fight reaction which
occurs in condition of emergency. Hence it is also
called as emergency hormone.
27. (b) Insulin is a hypoglycemic factor, secreted by b- cells.
It stimulates glycogenesis (conversion of glucose
to glycogen).
28. (b) Deficiency of ADH causes diabetes insipidus. It is
caused due to decreased reabsorption of water from
collecting tubules.
29. (c) Glucagon and insulin regulates the level of blood in
man. Both the hormone is secreted from alpha and
beta cell of pancreas respectively. Glucagon is
secreted when the blood sugar level is low and it
stimulates glycogen breakdown and glucose
synthesis in the liver by increasing blood glucose
concentration. Whereas rising level of blood glucose
stimulates insulin secretion.
30. (a) Insulin, glucagon and somatostatin are secreted from
beta, alpha and delta cells of the pancreas
respectively.
31. (b) Leydig (interstitial) cells in the inter-tubular spaces
are stimulated to secrete male sex hormone called
androgens (mainly testosterone), under the influence
of ICSH of anterior pituitary.
32. (d) Corpus luteum secretes the hormone progesterone
that supports pregnancy and stimulates mammary
glands for formation of alveoli for storing milk.
33. (d) During pregnancy corpus luteum persists up-to the
middle of pregnancy. Corpus luteum is a hormonesecreting structure that develops in an ovary after
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-123
an ovum has been discharged in a process called
ovulation.
34. (d) Progesterone stimulates proliferation of endometrium
of uterus and prepares it for implantation of
blastocysts.
35. (c) Corpus luteum is a yellow, progesterone-secreting
mass of cells that forms from an ovarian follicle after
the release of a mature egg. It prepares the inner wall
of the uterus for implanting the zygote (blastocysts)
and maintains the pregnancy.
36. (c) Secretin is a hormone which is released into the
bloodstream by the duodenum under the influence
of stomach acid. It stimulates secretion of liver and
pancreas.
37. (b) Secretin is a hormone which is released into the
bloodstream by the wall of the upper part of the small
intestine (the duodenum) under the influence of
stomach acid. It stimulates secretion of liver and
pancreas.
38. (a) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) produces its
effect by binding to its specific receptors present on
the ovarian cell membrane.
39. (b) In heart cells AMP acts as secondary messenger
which is made in the response of adrenaline and it
stimulates Ca2+ ions to come out from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibres which causes
muscle contraction.
cGMP (Cyclic Guanosine Monophosphate) which
acts as secondary messenger works on the action of
acetylcholine, increase in flow of Ca2+ into muscle
fibres & hence causes muscle relaxation. There is no
role of sodium in hormonal action.
40. (d) Receptors for protein hormone are found on the cell
surface.
41. (b) Cortisol and testosterone are the steroidal hormones.
They can easily pass through both the plasma
membrane and nuclear membrane.
42. (d) The sex hormones, glucocorticoids, and mineralocorticoids are steroid hormones.
43. (b) Somatostatin also called growth inhibiting hormone
inhibits release of growth hormone from pituitary.
44. (d) Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) is secreted by parafollicular
cells of thyroid gland.
45. (d) All the statements are correct regarding PTH. PTH
(Parathyroid Hormone), also called Collip's hormone,
is secreted from the parathyroid gland. It is
responsible for the following:
(i) Release of calcium by ones into the blood
streams.
(ii) Absorption of food by the intestine.
(iii) Conservation of calcium by the kidneys.
46. (b) Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals which act as
intercellular messengers and are produced in trace
amounts.
Gastrointestinal tracts secretes four major peptide
hormones – gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK)
and gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) while
juxtaglomerular cells of kidney secretes
erythropoietin, a peptide hormone. Releasing and
inhibitory hormones are produced by hypothalamus.
Neurohypophysis or posterior pituitary is under
direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
47. (b) Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) is secreted by parafollicular
cells of thyroid gland. It is a protein hormone that
regulates (lowers) the blood calcium levels in blood
plasma.
48. (c) Both enzymes and hormones are used in minute
quantities.
49. (b) All the hormones secreted from pituitary gland are
proteins or peptides.
50. (b) Norepinephrine is released by sympathetic fibres i.e,
rapidly secreted in response to stress of any kind
and during emergency situations. It increases the
heart beat, the strength of heart contraction and the
rate of respiration.
51. (a) Neurohypophysis is a posterior part of pituitary
gland. It stores the hormones (ADH and oxytocin)
which is synthesised in the hypothalamus and
releases them on their requirement.
52. (a) Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of pancreas
when the blood sugar level is low. It stimulates
glycogen breakdown and glucose synthesis in the
liver by increasing blood glucose concentration. It
has opposite effect to that of insulin because insulin
is released when the level of blood sugar is high.
53. (a) The over secretion of androgenic corticoid, by
adrenal cortex, in female causes adrenal virilism in
which male type secondary sexual characters appear
in female. In male, it causes gynaecomastia (enlarged
breasts in male).
54. (a) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and
nervous system regulates endocrine glands.
55. (a)
56. (d) Hormones are chemical messengers of the body that
transfers information from one set of cells to another.
57. (a) Based on the mode of secretion, the glands are of
three types : mesocrine, apocrine and holocrine.
Mammary glands that are present in mammals to feed
the young ones with milk are the example of apocrine
glands. In apocrine glands, the secretion accumulates
as secretory granules in the distal part of the cell.
This part later breaks down and leaves as a secretion.
58. (a) Calcitonin or thyrocalcitonin is secreted by
parafollicular cells of thyroid stroma. It retards bone
dissolution and stimulates excretion of calcium in
urine. Thus, it lowers calcium level in extra cellular
fluid (ECF). Parathormone is secreted by chief cells
of parathyroid gland and is also known as Collip's
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-124 Biology
hormone. It maintains blood calcium level by
increasing its absorption from food in intestine and
its reabsorption from nephrons in the kidney.
Maintenance of proper calcium level is in fact, a
combined function of parathormone and calcitonin.
When calcium level falls below normal parathormone
maintains it by promoting its absorption,
reabsorption and also by demineralisation of bones.
When blood calcium level exceeds above normal,
then calcitonin hormone increases excretion of
calcium in urine.
59. (c) Vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone is secreted by
posterior pituitary gland. The deficiency of
vassopressin results in a disorder known as diabetes
insipidus. The main symptoms of diabetes insipidus
are increase in thirst and increase in urination.
60. (d) Vasopressin or anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) reduces
the volume of urine by increasing the reabsorption of
water from the urine in the distal convoluted tubules,
collecting tubules and collecting ducts in the kidney.
It does so by rendering the walls of these tubules
leads to diabetes insipidus (increased urination).
Although the volume of urine is increased. No glucose
appears in the urine of such patients.
Diabetes mellitus is a disease which is caused due to
the failure of insulin hormone secretion by the
pancreatic islets. The osmotic effect of glucose in the
urine considerably increases the volume of urine, due
to which thirst is also enhanced. In extreme cases,
the patient suffers from coma and may die.
61. (a) Histamine is a derivative of the amino acid histidine
produced by damaged cells of vertebrates. When
released, it has the effect of dilating capillaries and
lowering blood pressure. Histamine is involved in
allergic and inflammatory reactions also.
62. (b) Nor-epinephrine is secreted by adrenal medulla
region. It increases the heartbeat, rate of respiration
and alertness.
63. (b) Thymus starts functioning in the embryonic stage
itself, becomes active during childhood and
undergoes regression and gradually stops
functioning in old individuals. So, production of
thymosins decreases. As a result, immune responses
of old persons become weak.
64. (c) ADH, secreted by posterior pituitary gland, acts on
kidney. It concentrates the urine by promoting the
reabsorption of water and salts into the cortical
collecting ducts. Its deficiency will results in diabetes
insipidus. ACTH (adrenocorticotrophic hormone) is
secreted by anterior pituitary gland. It controls the
structure and function of adrenal cortex especially
secretion of glucocorticoids and sex corticoids.
Aldosterone is a type of mineralocorticoids. It is a
salt retaining hormone which is secreted in response
to increased potassium levels or decreased blood
flow and sodium to the kidney. Insulin is secreted
when the blood glucose level is high. Its deficiency
will result in diabetes mellitus. Adrenaline is secreted
from adrenal medulla and acts as vasodilator.
65. (a) Hypothalamus releases gonadotrophic releasing
hormones. FSH and LH are gonadotrophic hormones,
secreted from the anterior pituitary gland.
Testosterone is the most abundant androgen released
by the leydig cells. Estrogen is mainly secreted by
follicular epithelial cells of granulosa membrane of
Graafian follicle.
66. (a) FSH and LH are gonadotrophic hormones, secreted
from the anterior pituitary gland. Corpus luteum
secretes progesterone hormone. Estrogens are
released from the ovarian follicle.
67. (b) Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells.
68. (c) Thyroid secretes thyroxine hormone and plays an
important role in the body's metabolisms and calcium
balance. Oxytocin is secreted from the posterior
pituitary gland. It causes contraction of the smooth
muscles of the uterus and myoepithelial cells lining
the duct of the mammary gland. Hence it is also called
as birth hormone and milk ejection hormone. Corpus
luteum secretes progesterone hormone which
supports pregnancy.
69. (d) Over secretion of cortisol causes Cushing disease.
This disease mainly occurs in females and causes
obesity hypertension, glycosuria, etc.
70. (d) Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of pancreas
when the blood sugar level is low. It stimulates
glycogen breakdown and glucose synthesis in the
liver by increasing blood glucose concentration.
Whereas rising level of blood glucose stimulates
insulin secretion from the beta cells of pancreas.
Leydig cells secretes testosterone hormone and
sertoli cells secretes inhibin.
71. (a) Hormones and their appropriate categories are:
A. FSH and LH- Gonadotropins
B. Cortisol- Glucocorticoids
C. Androgens- Gonadocorticoids
D. Aldosterone- Mineralocorticoids
72. (b)
73. (b) Glands Their secretions (Hormones)
I. Pineal gland Melatonin
II. Thyroid gland Calcitonin and thyroxine
III. Thymus Thymosin
IV. Adrenal gland Aldosterone
V. Testis Testosterone
74. (b) The label X represents parathyroid gland. It helps to
restore lowered levels of calcium in blood.
Too much calcium in the blood is restored by
calcitonin, secreted by thyroid gland.
Decreased level of blood sugar is restored by insulin,
secreted by pancreas.
Excessive loss of sodium in extracellular fluid is
restored by aldosterone, secreted by adrenal gland.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-125
75. (b) The label X represents adrenal cortex and the
hormone secreted by it is aldosterone.
The label Y represent adrenal medulla and the
hormone secreted by it is epinephrine.
76. (d) The label X represents thyroid gland. The oversecretion of thyroid gland may lead to Grave’s
disease. Grave’s disease is categorized as an
autoimmune disorder.
77. (b) The hypophyseal portal system transports releasing
and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus into
the anterior pituitary, which is labelled as II in the
given diagram. The label I represents hypothalamus,
label III represents posterior pituitary and label IV
represents portal circulation.
78. (c) The given picture shows the disorders (gigantism
and dwarfism) which occurs due the abnormal
secretion of GH (growth hormones). GH is secreted
from the adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary gland).
79. (a) (i) and (ii) are respectively pituitary gland and adrenal
gland respectively.
80. (a) The hormone representing by lines 1 and 2 are
respectively ACTH and aldosterone. ACTH
(adrenocorticotrophic hormone) is secreted by
anterior pituitary gland. It controls the structure and
function of adrenal cortex especially secretion of
glucocorticoids and sex corticoids. Aldosterone is a
type of mineralocorticoids secreted from adrenal
cortex. It is a salt retaining hormone which is secreted
in response to increased potassium levels or
decreased blood flow and sodium to the kidney.
81. (b) Hormones produce their effects by binding to the
specific receptors located in the target tissues.
82. (c) The number of hormones secreted by anterior
pituitary are six- growth hormone, prolactin, TSH,
ACTH, LH and FSH.
83. (c) Aldosterone is a type of mineralocorticoids secreted
from adrenal cortex. It is a salt retaining hormone
which is secreted in response to increased potassium
levels or decreased blood flow and sodium to the
kidney.
84. (a) Pancreas being an endocrine gland, releases insulin
into the blood. Insulin maintains the normal blood
sugar level.
85. (c) Estrogen and progesterone hormones help to
maintain pregnancy. A decrease level of both the
hormones causes constriction of uterine blood
vessels leading sloughing of endometrium or uterine
epithelium in the menstrual period.
86. (a) Thymus starts functioning in the embryonic stage
itself, becomes active during childhood and
undergoes regression and gradually stops
functioning in old individuals. So, production of
thymosins decreases. As a result, immune responses
of old persons become weak.
87. (b) Ptyalin is a salivary enzyme in the saliva that converts
starch into dextrin and maltose.
88. (a) Gigantism and exophthalmic goitre are the disorders
which occurs due to hyper secretion of growth
hormone (secreted from anterior pituitary gland) and
thyroxine (secreted from the thyroid gland)
respectively.
89. (b) Hormones secreted from anterior pituitary glands
stimulates thyroid and other endocrine glands like
adrenal, parathyroid, ovary, testes, pancreas etc.
90. (a) Growth hormone of pituitary is more effective in
presence of thyroxine hormone.
91. (d) Adrenaline caused an increase in systolic blood
pressure, a decrease in diastolic blood pressure, and
an increase in heart rate. Therefore it is given to those
patients who suffer from a marked fall in their blood
pressure.
92. (b) Carbohydrate metabolism represents the various
biochemical processes which is responsible for the
formation, breakdown and inter-conversion of
carbohydrates in living organisms. Hormones
involved in this metabolism are insulin, glucagon,
epinephrine and glucocorticoids.
93. (d) Vasopressin and ADH are identical. Vasopressin or
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) stimulates the
reabsorption of water and electrolytes by DCT of
kidney and thereby reduces diuresis (loss of water
through urine).
94. (b) The prolonged hyperglycemia leads to diabetes
mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is defined as abnormal
high glucose level in blood, which results in release
of sugar in urine and formation of toxic ketone bodies.
The individual suffering from diabetes mellitus drinks
water frequently to remove sugar from blood.
95. (a) Somatotropin or Growth Hormone (GH) is involved
in growth and development of body. It targets the
bone, muscle and adipose tissue.
96. (d) Glucagon is a hyperglycemic factor secreted by
alpha-cells of pancreas. Its secretion is stimulated
by low blood sugar level.
97. (b) Hyperthyroidism is the over-activity of the thyroid
gland, resulting in a rapid heartbeat and an increased
rate of metabolism.
98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (a)
101. (c) In females, prolactin (PRL) regulates growth of
mammary glands and formation of milk after the birth
of baby.
102. (a) FSH RH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone - Releasing
Hormone) is secreted from hypothalamus when the
level of progesterone and estrogen hormone is low
in blood.
103. (c) ACTH stimulates the release of hormones from the
adrenal cortex.
104. (b)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-126 Biology
105. (c) In the homeostatic control of blood sugar level,
hypothalamus and islets of Langerhans of pancreas
functions as modulator and effector respectively.
106. (c) ADH is synthesized by hypothalamus.
107. (b) Oxytocin (OT) hormone is produced by
hypothalamus under the influence of nervous
stimulation. It causes contraction of the smooth
muscles of the uterus and myoepithelial cells lining
the duct of the mammary gland. Hence it is also called
as birth hormone and milk ejection hormone.
Prolactin (PRL), secreted from anterior pituitary
gland, acts to initiates and maintain milk secretion
by the mammary gland, hence it is known as hormone
of maternity and milk stimulating hormone. FSH
(follicle stimulating hormone), secreted by anterior
pituitary gland, is a gonadotrophic hormone. It
stimulates spermatogenesis and growth of
seminiferous tubules in testes in male and maturation
of Graafian follicle and secretion of estrogen and
progesterone from corpus luteum in female.
108. (c) Hypothyroidism in adults leads to myxoedema and
hyper-parathyroidism in children lead to osteitis
fibrosa cystica.
109. (c) Adrenaline hormone is also called as triple F gland
for flight, fright and fight reaction which occurs in
condition of emergency.
110. (b) PTH (parathyroid hormone), also called Collip's
hormone, is secreted from the parathyroid gland. It
is responsible for the following functions like: release
of calcium by ones into the blood streams, absorption
of food by the intestine and conservation of calcium
by the kidneys.
111. (d) Iodine is essential for the normal rate of hormone
synthesis in the thyroid. Deficiency of iodine in our
diet results in hypothyroidism and enlargement of
the thyroid gland, commonly called goitre.
Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective
development and maturation of the growing baby
leading to stunted growth (cretinism), mental
retardation, low intelligence quotient, abnormal skin,
deaf-mutism, etc.
112. (d) Severe hypothyroidism leads to myxoedema. It is
also called as Gulls disease which develops in adults
and characterized by puffy appearance due to
subcutaneous accumulation of fats, low BMR, low
heart rate and body temperature, retarded sexuality.
113. (b) HCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) is a placental
hormone which maintains the corpus luteum for
continuous secretion of progesterone and estrogen
so as to maintain pregnancy.
114. (b) Both help in protein synthesis, and are anabolic in
nature.
115. (c) Atrial- natriuretic factor (ANF) is a cardiac hormone
whose main function is to lower blood pressure and
to control electrolyte homeostasis. Its main targets
are the kidney and the cardiovascular system but
ANF interacts with many other hormones in order to
regulate their secretion.
116. (d) ANP stimulates the loss of sodium in the urine and
promotes diuresis.
117. (a) Except prostate, all the three glands (thyroid, adrenal
and pituitary) are endocrine glands which secretes
hormones. Cretinism, goitre and myxoedema are
hormonal disorders whereas as scurvy is disease
caused due to vitamin C deficiency. Insulin,
adrenaline and thyroxine are endocrine hormones
secreted from pancreas, adrenal medulla and thyroid
gland respectively. Testosterone is a male hormone
secreted from Leydig cells of testes whereas the other
three (estrogen, progesterone and prolactin) are
female hormones secreted from ovary, corpus luteum
and anterior pituitary gland respectively.
118. (d) Epinephrine stimulates the heart.
119. (b) All of these hormones are produced in the anterior
pituitary gland.
120. (b) Estrogen is secreted by ovary, alpha cells of islets of
langerhans secrete glucagon and anterior pituitary
secretes growth hormone. The over-secretion of
growth hormone leads to gigantism.
121. (d)
Cjãòvgt 23 : Ôgòtqæwevkqp kp Ñtéãpkõïõ
1. (c) Life span is the period from the birth to the natural
death of an organism.
2. (d)
3. (a) Asexual reproduction is a mode of reproduction by
which offsprings arise from a single organism, and
inherit the genes of that parent only. In all the
methods of asexual reproduction offsprings
produced are genetically identical to the parents.
4. (c) Asexual reproduction is a process in which the new
organisms are produced without the formation and
fusion of gametes. In this case, all the genes and
genetic contents are received by the offspring from
one parent through mitotic cell division.
5. (c) Clone is an organism or cell, or group of organisms
or cells, produced asexually from one ancestor or
stock, to which they are genetically identical.
6. (d) Asexual reproduction does not involve meiosis,
ploidy reduction or fertilization, and the offspring is
a clone of the parent organism because of no
exchange of genetic material. Asexual reproduction
is the primary form of reproduction for single-celled
organisms such as the archaebacteria, eubacteria,
and protists. Many plants and fungi reproduce
asexually as well.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-127
7. (b) In protists and monerans, asexual reproduction
occurs by binary fission. Binary fission is the
process which involves the division of the nucleus
followed by that of cytoplasm, breaking the parent
cell which splits into two daughter cells of
approximately equal size. It is seen in Amoeba and
Paramecium.
8. (a) In yeast, cell division results in a small cell called
bud. Bud is a small rounded outgrowth on an
asexually reproducing organism, such as a yeast or
Hydra, which is capable of developing into a new
individual.
9. (b)
10. (b) The excessive growth of a floating aquatic plant,
water hyacinth (Eichhornia crasipes) caused havoc
in India by blocking our water ways. In India, it is
also known as ‘Terror of Bengal’. Water hyacinth
grows abundantly in nutrient rich water bodies and
causes an imbalance in the aquatic ecosystem that
result in the death of fishes and other aquatic
organism.
11. (a) Leaves of a number of plants develop or possess
adventitious buds for vegetative propagation e.g.,
Bryophyllum, Kalanchoe, Adiantum caudatum, etc.
12. (b) Sexual reproduction is mostly biparental. It involves
meiosis, gamete formation and usually fertilization
also, and introduces genetic variation in the
offsprings and play a role in evolution of species.
13. (d) The females of placental mammals exhibit cyclical
changes in the activities of ovaries and accessory
ducts as well as hormones during the reproductive
phase. In non-primate mammals like cows, sheep,
rats, deers, dogs, tiger, etc. such cyclical changes
during reproduction are called oestrus cycle whereas
in primates (monkeys, apes and humans) it is called
menstrual cycle.
14. (a) The end of vegetative phase in plants which marks
the beginning of the reproductive phase can be
easily seen in the higher plants when they come to
flower.
15. (b) Events in sexual reproduction may be grouped into
3 distinct stages namely, the pre-fertilization,
fertilization and the post-fertilization events.
17. (c) In flowering plants, both male and female gametes
are non-motile. The method to bring them together for
fertilization is called pollination. Pollination is the process
by which pollen is transferred from the anther (male part)
to the stigma (female part) of the plant, thereby enabling
fertilization and reproduction. Pollination takes place in
the angiosperms, the flower bearing plants.
18. (a) Homothallic and monoecious are used to denote
bisexual condition. The example includes fungi and
plants. Heterothallic and dioecious are used to denote
unisexual condition.
18. (b)
19. (d) Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction in which
the ovum develops into a new individual without
fertilization. It is common among insects and certain
other arthropods.
20. (b) Embryo development is a post fertilization event in
flowering plants. The zygote develops into the
embryo and ovules develop into the seed. The ovary
develops into the fruit which develops a thick wall
called pericarp that is protective in function.
21. (a) Viviparous animals give birth to young ones. This
includes all placental mammals. The zygote develops
into a young one inside the body of the female. After
attaining a certain stage of growth, the young ones
are delivered out of the body of the female organism.
22. (a) Many animals reproduce both by aexual and sexual
means.
23. (a) Since external fertilization can only take place in an
aquatic habitat, there are no terrestrial animals that
use it.
24. (b) Fertilization is a process of the union of male and
female gametes, during sexual reproduction, to form
a zygote (or fertilized egg). Millions of sperms reach
the egg but only one enters it. The entry of sperm
activates the egg for completing the meiosis.
25. (a) The birds and reptiles are not the only oviparous
species. A group of mammals, the monotremes, are
also egg layers.
26. (b) In oomycetes female gamete is large and non-motile
while male gamete is small and motile.
27. (d) Sponges and coelenterates are bisexual animals.
28. (d) All the given statements are correct.
29. (c) Statement (ii) and (iv) are incorrect regarding internal
fertilization. Internal fertilization takes place inside
the female after insemination through copulation. In
organisms exhibiting internal fertilization, the male
gamete is motile and has to reach the egg in order to
fuse with it. In these even though the number of
sperms produced is very large, there is a significant
reduction in the number of eggs produced.
30. (c) Statement (iii) is not correct. The reproductive phase
is not of same duration in all organisms.
31. (a) Vegetative propagation occurs by buds or notches
in potato.
32. (b) All the given statements are related to water
hyacinth. Water hyacinth is a free-floating tropical
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-128 Biology
American water plant which has been introduced as
an ornamental and in some warmer regions has
become a serious weed of waterways.
33. (c) Statement (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct.
(iii) Ginger propagates vegetatively with the help of an
underground stems (rhizomes).
34. (b) Statement (iii) and (iv) are incorrect regarding sexual
reproduction.
(iii) Meiosis occurs during sexual reproduction. Meiosis
is a type of cell division that results in four daughter
cells each with half the number of chromosomes of
the parent cell, as in the production of gametes and
plant spores.
(iv) External fertilization is not a rule during sexual
reproduction.
35. (b) Runners, tubers and offsets are all the units of
vegetative propagules in plants. These are all capable
of giving rise to new offsprings. Since the formation
of these structures does not involve two parents,
the process involved is asexual.
36. (a) When offspring is produced by a single parent with
or without the involvement of gamete formation, the
reproduction is called asexual. As a result, the
offspring that are produced are not only similar to
one another but are also exact copies of their parent.
Only mitotic division occurs in asexual reproduction.
37. (a) Asexual mode of reproduction is the process in which
the genetic constituent remains the same. So due to
that offspring and parent are morphologically and
genetically same.
38. (a) Zygote is the product of two individual and if
succeeded then produce the gamete (male or female)
for next generation
39. (c) Two Haploid cell form one diploid cell by sexual
reproduction. In higher organism diploid is the most
common nature of cell.
40. (a) 41. (a)
42. (b) A-III; B-I; C-II; D- IV
Animals which give birth to young one are called
viviparous animals. Animals (like Hydra) which
produces bud as a small projection to form a complete
individual from that is a type of asexual reproduction
called budding. Planaria shows regeneration. where
formation of the whole body of an organism occurs
from a small fragment or the replacement of the lost
part. Regeneration was first discovered in Hydra by
Abraham Trembley in 1740. Placenta is a flattened
circular organ in the uterus of pregnant eutherian
mammals which nourish and maintain the foetus
through the umbilical cord.
43. (b) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III; E – V
Asexual reproduction takes place in many ways:
(i) Binary fission, e.g., Amoeba.
(ii) Spore formation - by motile zoospores, e.g.,
Ulothrix, Chlamydomonas or by non-motile
conidia, e.g., Penicillium.
(iii) Budding - by external budding, e.g., Hydra or
by gemmules (internal buds), e.g., sponges.
44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (d)
47. (c) A : Gemmule is a tough-coated dormant cluster of
embryonic cells produced by a freshwater sponge
for development in more favourable conditions.
B : Budding is a type of asexual reproduction in which
a daughter individual is formed from a small
projection, the bud, arising from the parent body,
e.g., yeast.
C : Tuber is an underground stem structure which can
take part in vegetative reproduction, e.g., Potato
D : Offset is a type of sub aerial or creeping stems.
These are one internode long runners that occur in
some aquatic plants. Breaking of offsets helps in
propagation, e.g., water hyacinth and water lettuce.
48. (a) A : Pollination is the process by which pollen is
transferred from the anther (male part) to the stigma
(female part) of the plant, thereby enabling
fertilization and reproduction.
B : Germination is the process by which a plant grows
from a seed, e.g., the sprouting of a seedling from a
seed of an angiosperm or gymnosperm. .
C : Uterus is the enlarged, muscular, expandable portion
of the oviduct in which the fertilized ovum implants
and develops during prenatal development.
D : Menstruation is the process in a woman of
discharging blood and other material from the lining
of the uterus at intervals of about one lunar month
from puberty until the menopause, except during
pregnancy.
49. (a) Onion - Bulb (Underground stem), Ginger - Rhizome,
Chlamydomonas - Zoospore, Yeast - Ascospores
50. (d) Banana is vegetatively propagated by modified stem
(rhizomes).
51. (b) A - III, B - V, C - II, D - IV, E - I
A : Gamete is a mature haploid male or female germ cell
which is able to unite with another of the opposite
sex in sexual reproduction to form a zygote.
B : Budding is a form of asexual reproduction in which
new individuals form from outgrowths (buds) on the
bodies of mature organisms. These outgrowths grow
by means of mitotic cell division.
C : Fission is a form of asexual reproduction and cell
division used by all prokaryotes (bacteria and
archaebacteria) and some organelles within
eukaryotic organisms (e.g., mitochondria). In this a
unicellular organism divides into two or more
independently maturing daughter cells.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-129
D : Fertilization involves the fusion of male and female
gametes to form a zygote.
E : Zygote is a diploid cell resulting from the fusion of
two haploid gametes; a fertilized ovum.
52. (b) In the given figure of Chlamydomonas (A),
Penicillium (B), Hydra (C) and sponge (D), the
asexual reproductive structure found in them are
respectively zoospore, conidia, bud and gemmules.
Zoospore is a motile asexual spore that uses a
flagellum for locomotion. They are produced inside
the zoosporangia and generally naked (without cell
wall). Conidia are non-motile spores produced singly
or in chains by constriction at the tip or lateral side
of special hyphal branches, called conidiophores.
They are produced exogenously, dispersed by wind
and germinate directly by giving out germ tubes.
Bud is a small rounded outgrowth on an asexually
reproducing organism, such as a yeast or Hydra,
which is capable of developing into a new individual.
Gemmule is a tough-coated dormant cluster of
embryonic cells produced by a freshwater sponge
for development in more favourable conditions.
53. (d) Vegetative propagation or reproduction is the
formation of new plants from vegetative units (=
vegetative parts of the plant) such as buds, tubers,
rhizomes, etc. These vegetative units are called
vegetative propagules. In the given figures of
members of angiosperms (A- Potato; B - Ginger; C -
Agave and D - Bryophyllum), the correct vegetative
propagules present are respectively tuber, rhizome,
bulbil and leaf buds.
Tubers: These have buds over their nodes or eyes
which produce new plantlets when a stem tuber or a
part of it having an eye is placed in the soil, e.g.,
Artichoke, Potato (also called eyes on tuber).
Rhizomes are main underground stems which store
food during unfavourable conditions. These have
buds for formation of new aerial shoots during
favourable conditions. Examples are banana, ginger,
turmeric, Aspidium, and Adiantum.
Bulbils are multicellular fleshy buds that take part in
vegetative propagation, e.g., Oxalis, Agave,
Pineapple (Ananas), Dioscorea (Yam), Lily,
Chlorophytum. In Agave, bulbils are modified floral
buds that develop on the flowering axis.
Leaf buds: These leaf buds (adventitious) arise from
the notches present at the margin of leaves in
Bryophyllum.
54. (b) The events marked as A, B, C and D in the given
figure of life of general reproduction is respectively
gametogenesis, gamete transfer, zygote formation
and embryogenesis. Gametogenesis is the
development and production of the male and female
germ cells required to form a new individual. The
gametes in human males are produced by the testes
and gametes in human females are produced by the
ovaries. After their formation, male and female
gametes must be physically brought together to
facilitate fusion (fertilization). Zygote formation is
universal in all sexually reproducing organisms which
depend on the type of life cycle of the organism and
the environment to which it is exposed.
Embryogenesis refers to the process of development
of embryo from the zygote.
55. (b) The type of reproduction shown in the given figure
of yeast is budding. In budding, a daughter
individual is formed from a small projection, the bud,
arising from the parent body. In yeast, the division
is unequal and a small bud is produced that remains
attached initially to the parent body. Later on the
bud gets separated and matures into a new yeast
organism.
56. (d) The type of gametes shown in the figure A
(Cladophora, an algae), B (Fucus, an algae) and C
(Homo sapiens) are respectively homo/isogametes,
heterogametes and heterogametes. Isogamete is a
gamete indistinguishable in form, size, or behaviour
from another gamete with which it can unite to form
a zygote. Heterogametes is either of a pair of gametes
that differ in form, size, or behaviour and occur
typically as large non-motile female gametes and
small motile sperms.
57. (c)
58. (c) Both X and Y are diploid in the given figure of
transverse section of pea plant.
59. (b) In both the figures, the structure marked as B (in
figure P) and C (in figure Q) are the male reproductive
organs. B and C is respectively antheridium and
testes sac. An antheridium (or antheridia) is a haploid
structure (or organ) producing and containing male
gametes (called antherozoids or sperms).
It is present in the gametophyte phase of cryptogams
like bryophytes and ferns, and also in the primitive
vascular psilotophytes. Testis sac is the pouch
containing the testes and their accessory organs.
60. (b) The marked structure in the given figure is offset.
Offsets are one internode long runners that occur in
some aquatic plants. Breaking of offsets helps in
propagation, e.g., Eichhornia (Water Hyacinth),
Pistia (Water Lettuce).Vegetative propagation is a
form of asexual reproduction in plants, in which
multicellular structures become detached from the
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-130 Biology
parent plant and develop into new individuals that
are genetically identical to the parent plant. For
example, liverworts and mosses form small clumps
of tissue (called gemmae) that are dispersed by
splashing raindrops to form new plants. Bulbs,
corms, offsets, rhizomes, runners, suckers, and
tubers are all important means of vegetative
reproduction and propagation in cultivated plants.
61. (b) Bud giving rise to new plant is present towards base
of the onion bulb. So, if basal half of the onion bulb
is removed then new plant will not emerge.
62. (d) Tubers are formed from underground branches of
stem and if rools only remain in the soil. Then the
potato tubes in plants will not formed.
63. (c)
64. (d) Fungi reproduce by vegetative, asexual and sexual
means. About 20% fungi propagate only by asexual
means. Asexual reproduction takes place during
favourable conditions by the formation of a variety
of conidia or spores. The spores may be unicellular
(e.g., Aspergillus) or multicellular (e.g., Alternaria).
Bacteria also reproduce mainly by asexual method
and therefore they have a dominant haploid phase
in their life-cycle. Asexual reproduction in bacteria
takes place by binary fission, budding, conidia, cysts
and endospores.
65. (a) Common feature of reproduction among Amoeba,
Spirogyra and yeast is that they all reproduce
asexually. Asexual reproduction is common among
single celled organisms and in plants and animals
with relatively simple organization.
66. (b) Sexual reproduction involves both meiosis and
fusion of male and female haploid gametes. It is the
production of new living organisms by combining
genetic information from two individuals of different
sexes. In higher organisms, one sex (male) produces
a small motile gamete which travels to fuse with a
larger stationary gamete produced by the other
(female) organisms.
67. (c) Some organisms are capable of asexual or sexual
reproduction. Under favourable conditions,
reproduction proceeds asexually. When conditions
become more stressful reproduction switches to a
sexual mode, because sexual reproduction produces
individuals with new combinations of recombined
chromosomes increasing diversity.
68. (c) Seed formation begins with the combination of a male
and female gamete, a process known as fertilization.
Fertilization or syngamy, can occur when both male
and female gametophyle are fully nature.
69. (b) Anther, a male reproductive organ, is diploid (2n) in
chromosome numbers. As a result of microsporogenesis, tetrads of microspores are formed from a
single spore mother cell. They are known as pollen
grains after their release from tetrads. Pollen grain is
the haploid (n) small, male gametophyte covered by
two membranes outer ‘exine’ and inner ‘intine’ and
divide mitotically to produce a bigger vegetative
cell(n) and a smaller generative cell(n). Therefore, if
we culture the whole anther then we will get both
haploid plantlets from pollen grains and diploid
plantlets from anther wall (vegetative cell).
70. (a) A zygote is a eukaryotic cell formed by a fertilization
event between two gametes. The zygote's genome
is a combination of the DNA in each gamete, and
contains all of the genetic information necessary to
form a new individual. In multicellular organisms, the
zygote is the earliest developmental stage. Zygote
is the vital link that ensures continuity of species
between organisms of one generation to the next.
Every sexually reproducing organism begins life as
a single cell called zygote.
71. (a) Meiosis occurs during sexual reproduction. It is a
type of cell division that results in four daughter
cells each with half the number of chromosomes of
the parent cell, as in the production of gametes and
plant spores. Therefore, meiosis has to occur if a
diploid body has to produce haploid gametes.
72. (c)
73. (b) In diploid organisms, specialised cells called
meiocytes undergo meiosis. Blue-green algae
(cyanobacteria) are unicellular where the most
common method of multiplication is binary fission.
74. (d) Parthenogenesis is a form of reproduction in which
an unfertilized egg develops into a new individual,
occurring commonly among insects and certain other
arthropods.
75. (d) The correct sequences are: (ii) and (iv)
In animals - Juvenile phase ® Reproductive phase
® Senescent phase
In plants - Vegetative phase ® Reproductive phase
® Senescent phase
Juvenile phase is a stage of growth and maturity in
the life of an individual before they can reproduce
sexually. Vegetative phase is characterized by
meristems producing leaves.
76. (a) Offspring's of oviparous animals are at greater risk
as compared to offspring's of viviparous animals
because proper embryonic care and protection is less
in oviparous animals. Oviparous animals are those
animals that lay eggs, with little or no other embryonic
development within the mother. These eggs mature
and hatch after being expelled from the body.
Examples, most fish, amphibians, reptiles, all birds etc.
Whereas viviparous animals give birth to young lives.
The fertilized eggs develop into a young one inside
the body of the female organisms. Therefore, chances
of the survival of the young ones in viviparous
animals is more because of proper embryonic care
and protection inside the mother body.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-131
Cjãòvgt 24 : Ugzwãn Ôgòtqæwevkqp kp Ènqygtkpé
Rnãpvõ
1. (b) Flowers are highly modified shoot bearing nodes
and modified floral leaves, which are meant
essentially for sexual reproduction in plants.
2. (c) A typical flower has four different kind of whorl.
These are calyx (green leafly sepals) corolla (bright
colored petals), and androecium (male reproduction
organ) and gynoecium (female reproduction organ).
3. (a) Typically, angiospermic anther is bilobed which is
connected by connective and dithecous i.e., each
lobe has two theca. The bilobed structure of the
anther is tetrasporangiate (four sporangia). In
transverse section, it appears as four sided tetragonal
structure consisting of two microsporangia in each
lobe.
4. (c) The tapetum is a layer of nutritive cells found within
the sporangium, particularly within the anther, of
flowering plants. Its main function is to provide
nutrition to the developing microspore mother cells
and pollen grains.
5. (c) Microsporogenesis is the process of formation of
microspores or pollen grains, from a pollen mother
cell through meiosis is micro sporogenesis Each cell
of sporogenous tissue serve as microspore mother
cell (MMC). These MMCs undergo meiosis and form
microspore tetrad and become haploid, microspores
or pollen grains. As anthers mature microspores of
the tetrad separate from each other and develops
into pollen grains. Each microsporangium contains
numerous pollen grains which are released after
dehiscence of anther wall.
6. (d) Exine is tough, cutinized layer often with spinous
outgrowth but sometimes smooth. Exine is composed
of sporopollenin which is resistant to physical and
biological decomposition. It protect the pollens from
environmental extremes.
7. (c) Sporopollenin is the tough resistant biopolymer that
coats the outer walls of pollen grains spores and
related micro-organisms. It is considered “the most
resistant organic material known” and accounts for
the morphology and microstructure and for
geological preservation of polymorphs (an organic
microfossils).
8. (d) Pollen grain is liberated at 2 or 3 celled stage. If pollen
grain is released at the 2-celled stage (i.e., vegetative
and generative cells) then generative cell divides
meiotically to produce two male gametes, but when
pollen grains are released at 3-celled stage then two
male gametes are already present.
9. (c) Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen (–196°C)
to retain their viability for longer duration of time.
Such stored pollen can be used as pollen banks similar
to seed banks, in crop breeding programmes.
10. (a) Ovule is the part of the ovary of seed plants that
contains the female germ cell and after fertilization
becomes the seed. An ovule consists of a
megasporangium surrounded by one or two layers
of tissue called integuments. The megasporangium
produces spores that develop into
megagametophytes. These megagametophytes
remain within the tissues of the ovule and produce
one or more egg cells.
11. (d) Placenta is the surface of the carpel to which the
ovules (potential seeds) are attached. The placenta
is usually located in a region corresponding
somewhat to the margins of a leaf but is actually
submarginal in position.
12. (b) The point at which funiculus touches the ovule is
called hilum. Thus, hilum represents the junction
between the ovule and funiculus.
13. (c) Egg apparatus consists of two synergids and one
egg cell lying at the micropylar end. Synergids bear
prominent structure called ‘ filiform’ apparatus which
are finger like projections. Synergids guide the path
of pollen tube towards the egg, help in obtaining
nourishment from the outer nucellar cells and also
function as shock absorbers during the penetration
of pollen tube into the embryo sac. Cytoplasm of
egg is inactive, rich in ribosomes, and contains
plastids.
14. (c) In Anatropous ovule, the body of the ovule is
completely turned at 180° angle, due to unilateral
growth of funiculus, so it is also called inverted
ovule. The chalaza and micropyle lie in straight line.
The hilum and micropyle lie side by side very close
to each other. This type of ovule is found in 80%
families of angiosperms but not in Capsella. In this
ovule, micropyle is facing downward condition. This
is the most common type of ovule so that it is
considered as a "typical ovule" of angiosperms.
15. (a) Synergids bear prominent structure called ‘filiform’
apparatus which are finger like projections. This
apparatus is present in upper part of each synergid. This
apparatus is useful for the absorption and transportation
of materials from the nucellus to the embryo sac.
16. (b) A typical mature embryo sac of angiosperm is 7-
celled, 8 nucleate structure i.e., 3 antipodal cells, 3-
egg apparatus cells and one central cell (2 polar
nuclei).
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-132 Biology
17. (a) Autogamy and geitonogamy are types of self -
pollination. Geitonogamy is the fertilization of a flower
by pollen from another flower on the same (or a
genetically identical) plant. It occurs between
bisexual flowers or unisexual flowers of the same
plant. While autogamy is a kind of pollination in
which the pollen from the anthers of a flower are
transferred to the stigma of the same flower.
18. (b) In some plants, bisexual flowers are formed which
never open throughout the life. Such flowers are
called cleistogamous flowers such as Commelina
viola. So only self-pollination takes place in these
plants. Self pollination is a rule in cleistogamous
flowers.
19. (b)
20. (a) Pollination by water (called hydrophily) occurs in
Vallisneria. In vallisneria (ribbon weed), female flower
reaches on the surface of water and assumes
horizontal position due to elongation of its stalk,
male flowers or pollen grains are released on to the
surace of water. They are carried passively by water
currents & some of which eventually reach to the
stigma.
21. (b) Bees are important to agriculture as they perform
pollination. Bees are responsible for over 80% of all
pollination done by insects. Plants pollinated by
insects are colorful with fragrance and abundant
nectar which attracts insects.
22. (d) The fusion of male and female gametes is called
fertilization. Fertilization in angiosperms involves two
nuclear fusions, one between one of the male gametes
and the egg and the other between the second male
gamete and the secondary nucleus of the polar nuclei.
The first of these fusions called generative
fertilization or syngamy which leads to the formation
of a zygote and the second known as vegetative
fertilization which leads to the formation of a triploid
primary endosperm nucleus.
23. (b) During double fertilization in plants one sperm fises
with the egg cell and the other sperm fuses with two
polar nucles of the central cell to produce triploid
primary endospersm cell (3n). Since the latter
involves fusion of three haploid nudeus therefore it
is called triple fuxion.
24. (b) Endosperms is produced inside the seeds of most
flowering plants around the time of fertilization. It is
formed when the two sperm nuclei inside a pollen
grain reach the interior of an embryo sac or female
gametophyte. One sperm nucleus fertilizes the egg,
forming a zygote, while the other sperm nucleus
usually fuses with the two polar nuclei at the centre
of the embryo sac, forming a primary endosperm cell
(its nucleus is often called the triple fusion nucleus).
About 70% of angiosperm species have endosperm
cells that are polyploid. These are typically triploid
(containing three sets of chromosomes) but can vary
widely from diploid (2n) to 15n.
25. (c) Coconut water is the clear liquid inside young green
coconuts. Milky water of green coconut is called
liquid endosperm.
26. (c) A nature embryo in monocotyledons has a single
cotyledon called ‘scutellum’, e.g. Triticum.
27. (d) In most of the angiosperm, entire part of the nucellus
is utilized by developing embryo sac but in some of
the angiosperm some part of the nucellus remain
inside the ovules. That part of the nucellus present
inside the seed in the form of a thin layer is known as
perisperm.
28. (d) False fruits are those in which addition to ovary other
floral parts also contribute for its development is
called false fruits, examples - apple, pear, strawberry
and cashewnut.
29. (d) Seeds can remain dormant for many years and
germinate on return of favourable conditions.
Reproductive process is not dependent on water.
Seeds have sufficient food reserves to initiate embryo
development and seedling development till the
photosynthesis process is initiated. Hard seed coat
also protects the embryo from environment extremes.
Since seeds are the product of sexual reproduction it
promotes diversity. Seeds have better adaptive
strategies for dispersal to new habitats & help the
species to colonise in other areas.
30. (d) Seeds which do not have an endosperm at maturity,
are called non-endospermic or Ex–albuminous seeds.
The endospermic tissues are absorbed during the
development of embryo. The absorbed food materials
from the endosperm is stored in cotyledons that is
why they become so large and fleshy, e.g., Capsella
and all dicotyledons. But Castor seed is
endospermic.
31. (b) Apomixis is the production of seeds without
fertilization. The term apomixis was given by winker
(1908). There are several ways of development of
apomictic seeds. In some species the diploid egg
cell is formed without reduction division & develops
into the embryo without fertilization. In some species
the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start
dividing, protrude into the embryo sac & develop
into embryos. Some apomictic plants are citrus,
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-133
cactaceae, grasses, parthenium, etc.
32. (d) Polyembryony is the state of occurrence of more
than one embryo in a seed. It was observed by
Leeuwenhoek in citrus (orange) seeds.
Polyembryony is commonly found in gymnosperms
but it is also found in some of angiospermic plants
such as orange, lemon and Nicotiana, etc.
33. (a) The movement of pollen tube towards embryosac
though style is chemotactic as it secretes pectinase
and other hydrolytic enzymes to create a passage
for its entry into style.
34. (a) Emasculation is removal of anthers from the flower
bud before the anther dehisces in bisexual flowers.
35. (a) In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are
shed at cell 2-celled stage. In the remaining species
the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to
the two male gametes before pollen grains are shed
(3-celled stage.)
36. (c) Exine has apertures which are called germ pores (if
rounded) or germinal furrows (if elongated). These
are the areas where sporopollenin is absent.
37. (d) Double fertilization forms a diploid zygote nucleus
and a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
After that, the two products of double fertilization
i.e., zygote and PEN, develop into embryo and
endosperm respectively.
38. (c) Sporogenous tissue is always diploid, endothecium
is second layer of anther wall and perform the
function of protection and help in dehiscence of
anther to release the pollen. Hard outer layer of pollen
is called exine but tapetum always nourishes the
developing pollen.
Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and
generally have more than one nucleus (polypoid).
39. (b) Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their
reproductive parts. Anthers and stigma lie close to
each other. Pure autogamy occurs since there is no
chance of cross-pollination. Cleistogamy is the most
efficient floral adaptation for promoting selfpollination. E.g., Viola mirabilis and Oxalis
autosella.
40. (c) All the statements are correct about self -
incompatibility. Self-incompatibility is a general name
for several genetic mechanisms in angiosperms,
which prevent self-fertilization and thus encourage
outcrossing and allogamy. In plants with self -
incompatibility, when a pollen grain produced in a
plant reaches a stigma of the same plant or another
plant with a similar genotype, the process of pollen
germination, pollen tube growth, ovule fertilization,
and embryo development is halted at one of its
stages, and consequently no seeds are produced.
41. (c) The coconut water from tender coconut is nothing
but free nuclear endosperm (made up of thousands
of nuclei) and the surrounding white kernel is the
cellular endosperm. Female gametophyte is embryo
sac.
42. (c) Statement (i) and (ii) are correct about typical female
gametophyte. Female gametophyte contains the egg
cell and central cell that become fertilized and give
rise to the embryo and endosperm of the seed,
respectively. Female gametophyte development
begins early in ovule development with the formation
of a diploid megaspore mother cell that undergoes
meiosis.
43. (b) In a majority of water plants like water hyacinth and
water lily, flowers emerge above the water level and
are pollinated by insects.
44. (d)
45. (b) During the development of a dicot embryo, the zygote
gives rise to the proembryo and subsequently to the
globular heart-shaped and mature-embryo.
46. (a) Pollen mother cells undergo meiosis and produce
pollen grains. The pollen grains have haploid number
of chromosomes.
47. (a) Male gamete (n) + secondary nucleus (2n) = primary
endosperm nucleus which develops into endosperm (3n)
Endosperem is the reserve food used by developing
embryo.
48. (a) Active form of PFR is responsible for inducing
flowering. Phytochrome, protein pigment, exists in
two inter convertible forms.
Pr Pfr
Red
Far red
Dark
49. (d) Honey bee visit flowers to gather nectar and turn it
into honey. Visiting of insects for nectar helps in
pollination.
50. (b) The majority of angiosperms bear chasmogamous
flowers, which means the flowers expose their mature
anthers and stigma to the pollinating agents. There
is another group of plants which set seeds without
exposing their sex organs. Such flowers are called
cleistogamous and the phenomenon is cleistogamy.
51. (c) A : Zoophily is a form of pollination whereby pollen
is transferred by vertebrates, particularly by
humming-birds and other birds, and bats, but
also by monkeys, marsupials, lemurs, bears,
rabbits, deer, rodents, lizards and other animals.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-134 Biology
B : Ornithophily is the pollination of flowering
plants by birds.
C : Entomophily is the pollination whereby pollen
or spores are distributed by insects. Several
insects are reported to be responsible for the
pollination (potential or effective) of many plant
species, particularly bees, Lepidoptera
(butterflies and moths), wasps, flies, ants and
beetles.
D : Chiropterophily is pollination of plants by bats.
Bat pollination is most common in tropical and
desert areas that have many night-blooming
plants.
52. (b) Funicle is a filamentous stalk attaching a seed or
ovule to the placenta. Hilum is the point at which
funiculus touches the ovule. Thus, hilum represents
the junction between the ovule and funiculus.
Integuments are the protective covering or layers
present in the ovule. It encircles the ovule except at
the tip where a small opening called micropyle is
organised. Chalaza is the basal swollen part of the
nucellus (opposite the micropylar end) from where
the mteguments originate. Nucellus is the central part
of an ovule, containing the embryo sac.
53. (a) Fruit is mature or ripened ovary, developed after
fertilization. The ovules after fertilization, develop
into seeds. The wall of the ovary develops into the
wall of fruit called pericarp. In fleshy fruits pericarp
is generally distinguished into three layers epicarp,
mesocarp and endocarp. Mesocarp is fleshy or
fibrous. These fruits are indehiscent. e.g., guava,
orange, mango etc. In dry fruits pericarp is not
distinguished into three layers. They may be
dehiscent, indehiscent and splitting e.g., groundnut,
mustard, etc.
54. (b) Parthenocarpy is the development of fruit without
the formation of seeds due to lack of pollination,
fertilization and embryo development. Polyembryony
is the formation of more than one embryo from a
single fertilized ovum or in a single seed. Apomixis is
the development of an embryo without the
occurrence of fertilization. Parthenogenesis is one
form of apomixis. Dormancy is a state of temporary
metabolic inactivity or minimal activity therefore
helps an organism to conserve energy.
55. (a) Tapetum is a layer of nutritive cells found within the
sporangium, particularly within the anther, of
flowering plants. Exine is the decay-resistant outer
coating of a pollen grain or spore. It is made up of
sporopollenin (most resistant organic material
known). Pollenkit is a sticky covering found on the
surface of pollen grains. It is especially common in
plants that are pollinated by insects. Vegetative cells
are involved in the formation of microspores. The
vegetative cells are bigger, has abundant food
reserves and a large irregular shaped nucleus.
Sporogenous tissue is a group of compactly
arranged homogenous cells. It is irregular in shape
with abundant food reserves.
56. (d) Coleorhiza is the sheath that envelops the radicle in
certain plants (grass or cereal grain) and that is
penetrated by the root in germination. Food storing
tissue is endosperm. Endosperm is the part of a seed
which acts as a food store for the developing plant
embryo. Parthenocarpic fruit produced without the
formation of seeds due to lack of pollination,
fertilization and embryo development. Examplebanana, pineapple, orange and grapefruit. Single
seeded fruit developing from monocarpellary is
mango. Membranous seed coat is present in maize.
57. (d) Male reproductive organ is called androecium and
their unit is called stamen. Stamen is also known as
microsporophyll. A typical stamen differentiates into
three parts- filament, anther and connective tissue.
The anther is bilobed and the lobe encloses 4 pollen
sacs or microsporangia. The integumented nucellus
or megasporangium is called ovule.
58. (d) When the pollination takes place in between the two
different flowers of two different plants of the same
species then it is called xenogamy. This is real or true
cross-pollination. Genetically, as well as ecologically,
it is cross-pollination.
59. (d) In the given figure of typical stamen (a) and three
dimensional cut section of anther (b), the structure
marked as a, b, c and d are respectively anther, petiole,
pollen sac and megaspore. Anther is the part of a
stamen that contains the pollen. Petiole is the slender
stalk by which a leaf is attached to the stem. Pollen
sac is one of the chambers of an anther or a male
cone in which pollen is produced; the
microsporangium of a seed plant. Whereas
megaspore is a spore that gives rise to a female
gametophyte and is larger than a microspore.
60. (a) In the given figure of TS of anther, the structure
marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively
sporogenous tissue, tapetum, epidermis, middle layer
and endothecium. Sporogenous tissue is a group of
compactly arranged homogenous cells. It is irregular
in shape with abundant food reserves. Tapetum is a
layer of nutritive cells found within the sporangium,
particularly within the anther, of flowering plants. It
is important for the development of pollen grains.
Epidermis is the common anther covering. Cells of
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-135
middle layers degenerate to provide nourishment to
the growing microspore mother cells. Endothecium
is the inner lining of a mature anther of a flower.
61. (b) In the given figure of mature embryo sac, the
structure marked as A, B, C, D, and E are respectively
antipodal cells, central cells, polar nuclei, synergids
and filiform apparatus.
Embryo sac is the female gametophyte of a seed plant,
containing the egg, synergids, and polar and
antipodal nuclei. In this, fusion of the antipodal and
a pollen generative nucleus forms the endosperm.
The embryo sac develops in the central portion of
the ovule (nucellus), where the maternal
macrosporocyte, as a result of meiotic division, forms
four haploid cells (a tetrad of macrospores), of which
one develops (the rest atrophy). During the
development of the embryo sac there are three
successive synchronous mitotic divisions of its
nuclei, so that their number increases in the
progression 1: 2: 4: 8 and they are distributed evenly
along the ends of the growing embryo sac.
62. (b) Fig (b) is a wind pollinated plant showing compact
inflorescence and well expored stamens. Pollination
by wind is more common amongst abiotic
pollinations. Wind pollination also requires that the
pollen grains are light, small, dry and non-sticky so
that they can be transported in wind currents. Both
the stigmas and anthers are exserted. Anthers are
versatile, stigma is hairy, feathery or branched to
catch the wind borne pollen grains.
63. (a) The given figure shows the stages in embryogenesis
in a typical dicot (Capsella). The structure marked
as A, B, C and D is respectively suspensor, radicle,
plumule and cotyledon. Suspensor is a suspending
part or structure as a group or chain of cells that is
produced from the zygote of a seed plant and serves
to push the developing embryo into the endosperm.
Radicle is the part of a plant embryo that develops
into the primary root. Plumule is the young shoot of
a plant embryo above the cotyledons, consisting of
the epicotyl and often of immature leaves. Cotyledon
is an embryonic leaf in seed-bearing plants, one or
more of which are the first leaves to appear from a
germinating seed.
64. (a) In the given figure of LS of flower, the structure
marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively antipodal
cells, polar nuclei, stigma, style and chalaza.
Antipodal cells are the three haploid cells in the
mature embryo sac of flowering plants that are
situated at the opposite end to the micropyle. Polar
nuclei are either of the two nuclei of a seed plant
embryo sac that are destined to form endosperm.
The stigma is the receptive tip of a carpel, or of several
fused carpels, in the gynoecium of a flower. Style is
a long, slender stalk that connects the stigma and
the ovary. Chalaza is two spiral bands of tissue that
suspend the yolk in the centre of the white (the
albumen).
65. (d) Pollen grains represent the male gametophyte. The
outer part of the pollen is exine, which is composed
of a complex polysaccharide, sporopollenin. Inner
part is intine. The cell contains vegetative cell which
develop into the pollen tube and germ pore and
generative cell (degenerative) are also present.
66. (c) False fruit are those fruits in which addition to ovary
other floral parts (like thalamus) also contribute for
its development is called false fruits. Examples–
apple, pear, strawberry and cashewnut. In the given
figure of false fruit (apple), the structure marked as
A, B, C and D are respectively thalamus, seed,
endocarp and mesocarp.
Thalamus is a receptacle of a flower in which the
embryo fruits and later the seeds are held. Seed is a
fertilized and ripened ovule and the characteristics
of gymnosperms and angiosperms. Endocarp is the
innermost layer of the pericarp which surrounds a
seed in a fruit. It may be membranous (as in apples)
or woody (as in the stone of a peach or cherry).
Mesocarp is the middle layer of the pericarp of a
fruit, between the endocarp and the exocarp.
67. (b)
68. (c) P1
-Autogamy; P2
-Geitnogamy; P3
-Xenogamy. If the
pollen grains are transferred from an anther to the
stigma of the same flower, or different flowers of the
same plant is called self-pollination or autogamy.
When the pollen grains are transferred to the stigma
of other flower of the same species is called crosspollination or allogamy. It takes place in between
two different flowers.
Cross-pollination is of two types – Geitonogamy and
Xenogamy.
Geitonogamy : When pollination takes place in
between the two flowers of the same plant then it is
called geitonogamy.
When the pollination takes place in between the two
different flowers of two different plants of the same
species then it is called xenogamy.
69. (d) Anatropous ovule is a completely inverted ovule
turned back 180 degrees on its stalk. It is inverted at
an early stage of growth, so that the micropyle is
turned toward the funicle and the embryonic root is
at the opposite end. In the given figure of anatropous
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-136 Biology
ovule, the structure marked as A, B, C and D are
respectively micropyle, nucellus, embryo sac and
chalazal pole.
Micropyle is the opening through which pollen
nuclei enter the ovule. Nucellus is the central part of
an ovule, containing the embryo sac. Embryo sac is
the female gametophyte of a seed plant, containing
the egg, synergids, and polar and antipodal nuclei.
Chalazal end is the basal part of a plant ovule opposite
the micropyle; where integument and nucellus are
joined.
70. (d) In the given figure of monocot embryo, the structure
marked as A, B, C and D are respectively scutellum,
coleoptile, epiblast and coleorhiza.
Scutellum is the large shield like cotyledon of the
embryo of certain monocots. It is specialized for the
absorption of food from the endosperm. Coleoptile
is the first leaf above the ground, forming a protective
sheath around the stem tip. It surrounds the plumule.
Epiblast is the outermost layer of an embryo before
it differentiates into ectoderm and mesoderm.
Coleorhiza is the sheath that envelops the radicle in
certain plants (grass or cereal grain) and that is
penetrated by the root in germination.
71. (b) Central cell is the cell in the venter of the archegonium
whose division produces the egg and usually also
the ventral canal cell (as in cycads). It is the largest
cell the in an embryo sac.
72. (d) Antheridium is a male structure and the other three
archegonium, oogonium & ovule are female parts.
An antheridium is a haploid male reproductive
structure producing gametes, occurring in ferns,
mosses, fungi and algae. Archegonium is the female,
egg-producing reproductive structure on the
gametophytes of non-flowering land plants. The
archegonium is comprised of an oogonium
surrounded by protective layers of thick-walled
pigmented cells. In seed plants, ovule is the structure
that gives rise to female reproductive cells.
73. (b) In a fertilized ovule n, 2n and 3n conditions occur
respectively in egg, nucellus and endosperm.
74. (a) The seed coat develops from integuments originally
surrounding the ovule. It is thick and hard in coconut
which protects the embryo from mechanical injury
and from drying out.
75. (c) Ovary wall forms pericarp after fertilization. Pericarp
is the tissue that develops from the ovary wall of the
flower and surrounds the seeds. The pericarp is
typically made up of three distinct layers: the epicarp
(outermost layer); the mesocarp (middle layer); and
the endocarp (inner layer surrounding the ovary or
the seeds). In a citrus fruit, the epicarp and mesocarp
make up the peel.
76. (b) Sexual reproduction leads to formation of new
combination and appearance of variations. Genetic
recombination, interaction etc. during sexual
reproduction provides vigour and vitality to the
offsprings. They better adapt themselves to
changing environmental conditions and also plays
an important role in evolution.
77. (d) Sequence of development during the formation of
embryo sac is:
Archesporium ® Megaspore mother cell ®
Megaspore ® Embryo sac
78. (a) Development of male gametophyte is called micro -
gametogenesis. One meiotic division and two mitotic
divisions are necessary for the complete
development of male gametophyte. Male
gametophyte when fully developed is a 3 nucleate
structure.
79. (a) Single megaspore mother cell (MMC) with dense
cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus gets
differentiated from nucellus near the micropylar
region. This megaspore mother cell (MMC)
undergoes meiosis to form ‘4’ haploid cells (called
megaspores) and the process of formation is known
as megasporogenesis.
80. (a) Megaspore mother cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis
to form four haploid cells (called megaspores) and
the process of formation is known as
megasporogenesis. The MMC undergoes meiotic
division results in the production of four megaspores
100 functional megaspores are produced by 100
MMC, since three out of four megaspores degenerate
in each case.
81. (d) In the cytoplasm of the synergid pollen tube releases
the two male gametes. After reaching ovary the poller
tube enters the ovule. One of these male gametes
fuses with egg to form diploid zygote (2n) while the
other uses with two polar nucles of the central cell to
produce triploid primary endosperm cell (PEC) (3n).
So, in some angiosperms these two types of fusion
occur in the same embryo sac. This phenomenon is
called double fertilization.
82. (c) Unisexuallity of flowers prevents autogamy but not
geitonogamy because autogamy is the transfer of
pollen grains from anther to stigma of same flower
and geitonogamy is the fertilization of a flower by
pollen from another flower on the same (or a
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-137
genetically identical) plant. Therefore, geitonogamy
occurs between bisexual flowers or unisexual flowers
of the same plant.
83. (b) Endosperm is the nutritive tissue which provides
nourishment to the embryo in seed plant. Albuminous
seeds retain a part of endosperm as it is not
completely used up during embryo development (e.g.,
wheat, maize, barley, castor, sunflower).
84. (c) The transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma
is called pollination. This process of pollination
occurs only in gymnosperms and angiosperms.
85. (d) Cleistogamy is a self-fertilization that occurs within
a permanently closed flower. In cleistogamous flower,
the anther and stigma lies close to each other. When
anther dehisces in the flower buds, pollen grains
come in contact with the stigma to effect pollination.
Thus, cleistogamous flowers are invariably
autogamous as there is no chance of cross - pollen
landing on the stigma. Cleistogamous flowers
produce assured seed set even in the absence of
pollinators.
86. (d) Nucellus, embryo sac & micropyle are all found in
ovule while pollen grain is a male gametophyte.
87. (c) Artificial hybridization is one of the major approaches
of crop improvement programme. While planning for
artificial hybridization programmes, if the female
parent has unisexual flowers, then process of
emasculation (removal of the anthers of a flower in
order to prevent self-pollination or the undesirable
pollination of neighbouring plants) does not relevant.
The female flower buds are bagged before the flowers
open. When the stigma becomes receptive,
pollination is carried out using the desired pollen
and the flower rebagged.
88. (c) Cotyledons and scutellum are two homologous
structures in the embryo of a typical dicot and a
grass. Cotyledon is an embryonic leaf in seed-bearing
plants, one or more of which are the first leaves to
appear from a germinating seed. Scutellum is the large
shield like cotyledon of the embryo of certain
monocots. It is specialized for the absorption of food
from the endosperm.
89. (c) 100 zygotes require 100 pollen grains and 100 embryo
sacs. 100 pollen grains are formed from 25 microspore
mother cells while 100 embryo sacs are formed from
100 functional megaspores which in turn are
produced by 100 megaspore mother cells since three
out of four megaspores degenerate in each case.
90. (b) In angiospermic seed, the endosperm is formed after
fertilization. Angiosperms undergo two fertilization
events where a zygote and endosperm are both
formed. Endosperm is a tissue in which the nutrient
substances necessary for the development of the
embryo are deposited. In angiosperms the endosperm
is formed after fertilization as a result of the merging
of the spermatozoid with the secondary (diploid)
nucleus of the embryo sac. In this case the cells of
the endosperm are triploid. By uniting sets of
chromosomes from both parent plants the
endosperm becomes a physiologically active, viable
nutrient tissue. It is not only feeds the embryo but
fosters embryonic growth and differentiation.
In gymnosperms the endosperm is formed in the
ovule during germination of the megaspore; it
consequently becomes the female prothallus
(gametophyte), with a haploid set of chromosomes.
91. (b) Artificial hybridization is one of the major approaches
of crop improvement programme. The correct
sequence in artificial hybridization experiment in
bisexual flower is:
Emasculation ® Bagging ® Cross-pollination ®
Rebagging
Emasculation is the removal of the anthers of a flower
in order to prevent self-pollination or the undesirable
pollination
of neighbouring plants. After that emasculated male
and female plants are kept in isolation by enclosing
them in a bag in a process called bagging. When the
stigma of bagged flowers attains receptivity, mature
pollen grains collected from anthers of the male
parent are dusted on the stigma, and the flowers are
rebagged and the fruits allowed develop.
92. (a) Diploid female plant will have 2 polar nuclei (each
haploid) with which one male gamete form tetraploid
male plant (male gamete of tetraploid plant will be
diploid) fuses, making endosperm. So endosperm will
be tetraploid.
Male gamete + 2 polar nuclei Endosperm
(2 ) n ( ) n ( ) n (4 ) n
93. (c) In a seed of maize, the scutellum is considered as
cotyledon because it absorbs food materials and
supplies them to the embryo.
94. (c) Each microspore mother cell gives rise to 4
microspores which develop into pollen grains.
95. (d) Depending upon the mode of its formation,
angiospermic endosperm is of three types nuclear,
cellular and helobial. Multinucleate condition is
present in liquid endosperm of coconut.
Multinucleate condition is also known as nuclear
type of endosperm. Coconut has multicellular
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-138 Biology
endosperm (called coconut meal) in the outer part
and free nuclear as well as vacuolated endosperm
(called coconut milk) in the centre. Nuclear
endosperm is the most common type of endosperm.
It is named so because it contains free nuclei in the
beginning.
96. (c) After entering the ovule, the pollen tube is attracted
towards the micropylar end of the embryo sac. The
attractants are secreted by synergids or help cells.
The pollen tube pierces one of the two synergids
and bursts open into it. The synergid is
simultaneously destroyed.
97. (d) Filiform apparatus in the form of finger-like projection
from cell wall is present in the upper part of each
synergids. This apparatus is useful for the absorption
and transportation of materials from the nucellus to
the embryo sac.
Cjãòvgt 25 : Jwïãp Ôgòtqæwevkqp
1. (b) The epididymis leads to vas deferens that ascends
to the abdomen and loops over the urinary bladder.
2. (b) Foreskin is a double-layered fold of smooth muscle
tissue, blood vessels, neurons, skin, and mucous
membrane that covers and protects the glans penis
and the urinary meatus when the penis is not erect.
The foreskin is mobile, fairly stretchable, and acts as
a natural lubricant.
3. (d) The urethra originates from the urinary bladder and
extends through the penis to its external opening
called urethral meatus.
4. (c) The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into
epididymis located along the posterior surface of
each testis. The epididymis leads to vas deferens.
Or we can say that the vasa efferentia or efferent
ducts connect the rete testis with the initial section
of the epididymis.
5. (b) The uterus is a female reproductive organ located
between the bladder and the rectum, in the pelvic
area. The main purpose of the uterus is to nourish a
foetus prior to birth. In menstruating females, the
ovaries release eggs which travel via the fallopian
tubes to the uterus.
6. (a) Clitoris is a small, sensitive, erectile part of the female
genitals at the anterior end of the vulva. It is
homologous with the penis.
7. (d) Immature male germ cells (also called as
spermatogonia) produce sperms in the process of
spermatogenesis. Spermatogonia proliferate
continuously by mitotic divisions around the outer
edge of the seminiferous tubules, next to the basal
lamina. Some of these cells stop proliferation and
differentiate into primary spermatocytes. After they
proceed through the first meiotic division, two
secondary spermatocytes are produced. The two
secondary spermatocytes undergo the second meiotic
division to form four haploid spermatids. These
spermatids differentiate morphologically into sperm
by nuclear condensation, ejection of the cytoplasm
and formation of the acrosome and flagellum.
8. (b) The immature male germ cells or primary
spermatocyte duplicates its DNA and subsequently
undergoes meiosis I which is a reductional division
to produce two haploid secondary spermatocytes.
9. (d) Spermiogenesis is the final stage of spermatogenesis,
which involves the maturation of spermatids and, its
transformation into mature, motile spermatozoa.
10. (c) Each primary spermatocyte duplicates its DNA and
subsequently undergoes meiosis I to produce two
equal, haploid secondary spermatocytes. Each of the
two secondary spermatocytes further undergoes
meiosis II to produce two haploid spermatids.
Therefore, total four equal, haploid spermatids are
producted after second meiotic division.
11. (d) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is released
from the anterior pituitary. GnRH activity is very low
during childhood, and is activated at puberty or
adolescence. At the puberty increased secretion of
GnRH start the process of sperm formation.
12. (c)
13. (b) Androgen is a male sex hormone which is responsible
for proper functioning of male sex accessory glands
and ducts.
14. (b) Semen, or seminal fluid, is an alkaline fluid that
contains spermatozoa embedded in seminal plasma.
Semen is ejaculated by male reproductive system
during orgasm.
15. (c) Ejaculation of human male contains about 200 – 300
million sperms, of which for normal fertility 60 %
sperms must have normal shape and size and at
least 40 % must show energetic motility.
16. (d) The zona pellucida is a glycoprotein thick noncellular membrane surrounding the plasma membrane
of an oocyte or secondary oocytes.
17. (a) The mature spermatozoa are released from the
protective sertoli cells into the lumen of the
seminiferous tubule and a process called spermiation
then takes place, which removes the remaining
unnecessary cytoplasm and organelles.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-139
18. (c) In biology, antrum is a general term for a cavity or
chamber, which may have specific meaning in
reference to certain organs or sites in the
body.Tertiary follicle of ovary contains a fluid filled
cavity called antrum and a secondary oocyte ready
for ovulation.
19. (c) The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
progesterone which is essential for maintenance of
the endometrium and the pregnancy but its decrease
in secretion triggers the menstrual cycle.
20. (b) The ovulation (ovulatory phase) is followed by the
luteal phase (latter phase of the menstrual cycle)
during which the remaining parts of the Graafian
follicle transform as the corpus luteum, which
produces progesterone. So progesterone is highest
at luteal phase.
21. (c) The menstrual phase is followed by the follicular
phase. During this phase, the primary follicles in the
ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle
and simultaneously the endometrium of uterus
regenerates through proliferation.
22. (a) Luteal phase is also called as the secretory phase of
menstruation cycle. The luteal phase begins with
the formation of the corpus luteum and ends in either
pregnancy or luteolysis. The main hormone
associated with this stage is progesterone, which is
significantly higher during the luteal phase than other
phases of the cycle.
23. (a) During pregnancy all events of the menstrual cycle
stop and there is no menstruation.
24. (b) The process of insemination is the release of semen
containing male gametes, the sperms, into the female
reproductive tract during coitus.
25. (b) During human embryogenesis, the blastocyst arises
from the morula in the uterus, after 5 days of
fertilization. The early embryo undergoes cell
differentiation and structural changes to become the
blastocyst. It is then prepared for implantation into
the uterine wall 6 days after fertilization. Implantation
marks the end of the germinal stage and the
beginning of the embryonic stage of development.
26. (a) In sexual reproduction in organisms, when the two
nuclei of male and female gametes fuse together the
immediate cell which is formed is called the zygote.
The zygote goes on to become an embryo and later
stages of development.
27. (d) In the blastocyst, the blastomeres are arranged into
an outer layer called trophoblast and an inner group
of cells attached to trophoblast called the inner cell
mass. The trophoblast layer then gets attached to
the endometrium and the inner cell mass gets
differentiated as the embryo.
28. (d) The blastocyst is a thin-walled hollow structure in
early embryonic development. It possesses an inner
cell mass (ICM) which subsequently forms the
embryo. The outer layer of the blastocyst consists
of cells collectively called the trophoblast. This layer
surrounds the inner cell mass and a fluid-filled cavity
known as the blastocoel. The trophoblast gives rise
to the placenta.
29. (b) Morula is an early stage embryo consisting of cells
(called blastomeres) in a solid ball contained within
the zona pellucida. The morula is produced by a
series of cleavage (mitotic) divisions of the early
embryo, starting with the single-celled zygote. Once
the embryo has divided into 16 cells, it begins to
resemble a mulberry, hence the name.
30. (d) Ovum contains the haploid set of chromosomes with
one of the X chromosomes. The haploid set of
chromosomes in the male gamete, sperm has either
the X or Y chromosome. Thus, the sex of the foetus
depends on the male gamete fertilizing the ovum.
31. (a) The outer wall of the blastocyst i.e., the trophoblast
gets attached to the endometrium of the uterus during
implantation.
32. (b) After implantation, the trophoblast develops fingerlike projections on its outside known called as
chorionic villi, which are surrounded by the uterine
tissue and maternal blood.
33. (a)
34. (b) The chorionic villi and the endometrium become
interdigitated with each other and together form a
structural and functional unit between developing
embryo (foetus) and maternal body called placenta.
35. (d) Apart from being a nourishing medium for the
developing foetus, the placenta also acts as an
endocrine tissue, producing hormones like human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental
lactogen (hPL), estrogens, progestogens, etc.
36. (d) Primary germ layers are ectoderm, endoderm &
mesoderm. Many animals are primarily triploblastic,
as endoderm (inner) and ectoderm (outer) interact to
produce a third germ layer, called mesoderm (middle).
Together, the three germ layers will give rise to every organ
in the body, from skin and hair to the digestive tract.
37. (c) Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and causes its
strong contractions, which inturn further stimulates
the secretion of oxytocin making a kind of feedback
loop. Thus, the resultant stimulatory reflex between
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-140 Biology
the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion
continues resulting in stronger and stronger
contractions.
38. (d) Whatever milk is produced during the initial few days
of lactation is called colostrum. This contains several
antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance
for the new-born babies.
39. (a) The mammary glands of the female undergo
differentiation during pregnancy and starts
producing milk towards the end of pregnancy by the
process called lactation.
40. (b) Male germ cells and sertoli cells are two types of
cells present in the lining of seminiferous tubules.
Male germ cells give rise to male gamete of an
organism that reproduces sexually. A sertoli cell (a
kind of sustentacular cell) is a nurse cell of the
testicles whose main function is to nourish the
developing sperm cells through the stages of
spermatogenesis. Sertoli cells also act as phagocytes,
consuming the residual cytoplasm during
spermatogenesis.
41. (a) The womb (or uterus) opens into vagina through
cervix. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus. In a
non-pregnant woman, the cervix is usually between
2 and
3 cm long and roughly cylindrical in shape. The
narrow, central cervical canal runs along its entire
length, connecting the uterine cavity and the lumen
of the vagina. The opening into the uterus is called
the internal os and the opening into the vagina is called
the external os.
42. (b) First polar body is formed during the formation of
secondary oocytes and completion of Ist meiotic
division. In humans, the secondary oocytes are produced
when the primary oocytes complete meiosis I.
43. (d) Second meiotic division in secondary oocyte results
in the formation of a second polar body & a haploid
ovum (ootid).
44. (d) In human beings, menstrual cycles ceases around
50 years of age; that is termed as menopause.
45. (c) Fertilization (the fusion of male and female gametes)
induces the completion of the meiotic division of
secondary oocyte. The secondary oocytes will be
arrested at the stage of metaphase II of meiosis II
until fertilization takes place. Thus, when a sperm
cell fertilizes the ovum, the secondary oocyte rapidly
completes the remaining stages of meiosis II, giving
rise to an ootid and an ovum, which the sperm cell
unites with.
46. (b) The milk produced during the initial few days of
lactation is called colostrum which is somewhat
sticky and yellowish or greyish white in colour.
47. (d) Bulbourethral gland, also called as Cowper's gland,
is one of two small exocrine glands in the male
reproductive system. This gland releases a small
amount of fluid just prior to ejaculation to decrease
the acidity in the urethra. Bulbourethral gland are
homologous to Bartholin's glands present in females.
48. (c) By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of the
major organ systems are formed, for example, the
limbs and external genital organs are well-developed.
49. (b) Fully developed foetus and the placenta induce foetal
ejection reflex. Foetal ejection reflex is also called
mild uterine contraction.
50. (b) Scrotum is a part of the external male genitalia located
behind and underneath the penis. It is the small
muscular sac that contains and protects the testicles,
blood vessels, and part of the spermatic cord. The
scrotum protects the testicles (or testes, the primary
male sex organ) from temperature changes. In order
to insure normal sperm production, the scrotum
keeps the testes at a temperature slightly cooler than
the rest of the body by contracting or expanding.
51. (a) Urethra is not a paired structure in male. The urethra
is a tube that connects the urinary bladder to the
urinary meatus for the removal of fluids from the
body. In male, the urethra travels through the penis,
and carries semen as well as urine and in female, the
urethra is shorter and emerges at the female external
urethral orifice above the vaginal opening.
52. (a) Blastomeres are a type of cell produced by cleavage
(cell division) of the zygote after fertilization and are
an essential part of blastula formation.
54. (b)
55. (c) Each testes has about 250 compartments called
testicular lobules.Each lobule contains one to three
highly coiled seminiferous tubules. Bulbourethral
glands are paired male accessory glands.
56. (d) Sperm are haploid male gametes. Oviducts are a part
of female reproductive system. Scrotum maintains
testes at lower (2–2.5 degrees) than normal body
temperature. Sertoli cells certainly nourish the
developing male germ cells.
57. (c) The process of fertilization takes place in the
ampullary part of fallopian tube. Uterus does not
secrete any steroid hormones. It's the ovary which
secretes the steroid hormones.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-141
58. (b) The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of cells
called alveoli.
59. (b) Graafian follicle releases secondary oocyte from the
ovary by the process of ovulation. Primary oocyte
within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes
its first meiotic division.
60. (d) Menstrual cycle is the cycle of natural changes that
occurs in the uterus and ovary as an essential part
of making sexual reproduction possible. Menstrual
fluid cannot easily clot. The end of the cycle of
menstruation is called menopause. During the
follicular phase, gonadotropins (LH and FSH)
increase gradually and stimulate follicular
development as well as secretion of estrogen by
growing follicles.
61. (c) During pregnancy, the increased production of the
levels of hormones like estrogen, progestogens,
cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine in the maternal blood
are essential for supporting the foetal growth,
metabolic changes in the mother and maintenance
of pregnancy.
62. (a) Statement (i) and (iv) are correct. Ovary is the primary
female sex organ which produces female gamete
(ovum) and steroid hormones. Ovarian stroma is
divided into peripheral cortex and inner medulla.
Mammary gland is a paired structure that contains
glandular tissue and variable amount of tissue. It is
the characteristic of all female mammals.
63. (b)
64. (a) Parturition, also called birth or childbirth, is a process
of bringing forth a child from the uterus, or womb.
Oxytocin induces uterine contraction.
65. (c) Fertilization is the fusion of male and female gamets
to form zygote. During fertilization only head of the
sperm enters egg. After that polyspermy is avoided
by fertilization membrane.
66. (a) Morula involves cleavage of cells till 32 cell stage is
formed. It is still surrounded by Zona pellucida.
67. (a) Death is the ultimate goal of every organism. This is
caused by the wear and tear of organs which
constitute the body of a living being.
68. (b) In female, Graafian follicle forms corpus luteum after
ovulation. The cells of corpus luteum are called luteal
cells. The cytoplasm of luteal cells have yellow
granules called lutein which secrete the hormone
progesterone to maintain pregnancy if fertilization
takes place. In the absence of fertilization, corpus
luteum degenerates and forms corpus albicans and
there is decrease in progesterone level also.
69. (c) Clitoris is a female reproductive organ. It is
homologous to penis of males. It is not remnant of
penis. It is devoid of erectile tissue and high blood
supply as present in penis. Penis is the copulatory
organ of males.
70. (d) Hyaluronidase, a hydrolytic enzyme is an acrosomal
content in mammalian sperm. It helps at the time of
fertilization during the penetration of sperm into
ovum. Based on the amount of yolk mammalian eggs
are alecithal means egg without yolk. Microlecithal
eggs are with very little yolk e.g., sea urchin, starfish.
On the basis of distribution of yolk telolecithal eggs
are those eggs in which the yolk is concentrated
towards the vegetal pole and cytoplasm and nucleus
lie near the animal pole, e.g., birds and reptiles.
71. (c) Leydig cells, also known as interstitial cells, are found
adjacent to the seminiferous tubules in the testicle.
They produce testosterone in the presence of
luteinizing hormone (LH).
72. (d) Testicular lobules are the compartments present in
the testes, but the lobules as whole are not involved
in the process of fertilization. Fusion of male and
female gametes are called fertilization.
73. (c) Head of a sperm has acrosome but the spiral row of
mitochondria are present in the mid (connecting)
piece of the sperm.
74. (b) Seminiferous tubules are located in the testes, which
are the specific location of meiosis, and the
subsequent formation of sperms. Rete testis is a
network of small tubules found in the part of the
testicle that carries sperm. Leydig cells or interstitial
cells of Leydig produce the hormone called
testosterone which contributes to male secondary
sexual characters. Prepuce is the foreskin, skin
surrounding and protecting the head of the penis as
well as clitoris.
75. (d) A spermatogonium divides into two primary
spermatocytes. Each primary spermatocyte
duplicates its DNA and subsequently undergoes
meiosis I to produce two haploid secondary
spermatocytes. Each of the two secondary
spermatocytes further undergoes meiosis II to
produce two haploid spermatids.
76. (d) The menstrual cycle is the series of changes a
woman's body goes through to prepare for a
pregnancy. About once a month, the uterus grows a
new lining (endometrium) to get ready for a fertilized
egg. When there is no fertilized egg to start a
pregnancy, the uterus sheds its lining. This is the
monthly menstrual bleeding (also called menstrual
period).
77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (d) Fertilization is the fusion of male and female gametes
which takes place in the ampullary isthmic junction
of fallopian tube. Implantation is the attachment of
the blastocysts in the endometrium. Cleavage is the
mitotic cell division which takes place on fertilized
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-142 Biology
egg. Morula is the solid mass of 32 cells formed from
the zygote after successive mitotic division.
Blastocysts is the developmental stage which
embedded in the uterine endometrium by a process
called implantation and leads to pregnancy. The
blastocyst is a structure formed in the early
development of mammals.
82. (c) Parturition is the delivery of foetus or child birth.
Ovulation is the release of egg from Graafian follicle
on 14th day during menstrual cycle. Gestation is the
duration of pregnancy and birth. Implantation is the
attachment of the blastocysts to the endometrium
layer of the uterus. Conception is the formation of
zygote by fusion of the egg and sperm.
83. (d) The marked structure A, B, C and D are respectively
called as seminal vesicles, urinary bladder, ejaculatory
duct and bulbourethral gland. Bulbourethral gland,
also called Cowper's gland is a pea sized gland that
lies beneath the prostate gland and whose secretion
neutralizes the acidity of the urine in the urethra.
84. (c) A-Vas deferens B- Seminal vesicle, C- Prostate,
D- Bulbourethral gland.
85. (b) The given figure shows the sectional view of
seminiferous tubule. The seminiferous tubules are
the site of the germination, maturation, and
transportation of the sperm cells within the male
testes. Seminiferous tubules are made up of columnar
sertoli cells surrounded by spermatogenic cells on
the epithelial interior and stem cells exteriorly.
86. (b) Spermatogonia are undifferentiated germ cells which
originate in seminiferous tubules and divide into two
primary spermatocytes (a kind of germ cell) in the
production of spermatozoa.
87. (c) In the given figure of female reproductive system,
the marked structures (A to F) are the parts of uterus
and fallopian tube. A to F are respectively
endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium, isthmus,
ampulla and infundibulum.
88. (a) The structures marked in the figure of mammary gland
are A–mammary lobe, B–mammary duct, C–ampulla,
and D–lactiferous duct. The mammary gland is a
gland located in the breasts of females that is
responsible for lactation. Mammary glands only
produce milk after childbirth. Mammary lobe (A)
contains clusters of cells called alveoli which secrete
milk which is stored in the cavities of alveoli.
89. (b) 'B' are the secondary spermatocytes which further
undergoes meiosis II to produce two haploid
spermatids.
90. (a) The mammalian sperm cell consists of a head, neck,
middle piece and a tail. The head contains the
elongated haploid nucleus with densely coiled
chromatin fibres, surrounded anteriorly by an
acrosome. Acrosome contains enzymes or
penetrating the female egg. Neck contains centrioles
(proximal centriole and distal centriole). Distal
centriole gives rise to axial filament of the sperm
which runs up to the end of the tail. The middle piece
has a central filamentous core with many spirally
arranged mitochondria which is used for ATP
production. The tail or flagellum performs the beating
movements that propel the spermatocyte.
91. (c) Oogonia are called as gamete mother cell. Corpus
luteum is formed as a temporary endocrine structure
after the ovulation. It is involved in the production
of relatively high levels of progesterone and
moderate levels of estradiol and inhibin A to maintain
pregnancy. A large number of primary follicles
degenerates during the phase from birth to puberty.
92. (d) A - Primary; B - I; C - Ovulation; D - Secondary
oocyte
93. (a) A–LH, B–Ovulation, C–Menstruation,
D–Proliferative, E–Luteal
LH is luteinizing hormone secreted from the anterior
pituitary gland. In females, an acute rise of LH (called
LH surge) triggers ovulation and development of
the corpus luteum. Ovulation is the process when a
mature egg is released from the ovary, pushed down
the fallopian tube, and is available for fertilization.
Menstruation is a woman's monthly bleeding.
Menstrual blood flows from the uterus through the
small opening in the cervix and passes out of the
body through the vagina. Proliferative and luteal are
phases of the menstrual cycle.
94. (a) In the given figure of ovum surrounded by many
sperms, the parts labeled as A, B, C and D are
respectively zona pellucida, ovum, cells of corona
radiata and perivitelline space. The zona pellucida is
a glycoprotein layer which surrounds the plasma
membrane of oocytes. It is essential for oocyte death
and fertilization. Ovum, released from the ovaries, is
capable of developing into a new organism when
fertilized (united) with a sperm cell. Corona radiata is
the outermost, protective coat of an unfertilized egg
of a female. It is quite thick and many of the sperms
release hyaluronidase to break and penetrate it in
order to reach the zona pellucida, which is the layer
next to it. It keeps adhering to the zona pellucida
even after the ovulation (release of the egg from the
follicle) so that no more than one sperm can reach
the ovum. The perivitelline space is the space
between the zona pellucida and the cell membrane of
an oocyte or fertilized ovum.
95. (c) Figure (c) refers to blastocysts stage. Blastocyst is
embedded in the uterine endometrium by a process
called implantation and leads to pregnancy. It
possesses an inner cell mass (ICM) which
subsequently forms the embryo. The outer layer of
the blastocyst consists of cells collectively called
the trophoblast. This layer surrounds the inner cell
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-143
mass and a fluid-filled cavity known as the blastocoel.
The trophoblast gives rise to the placenta.
96. (c) A–Umbilical cord with its vessels, B–Placental villi,
C–Yolk sac, D–Plug of mucus in cervix
97. (c) The given figure shows that ovum is surrounded by
many sperms. These two gametes (ovum and sperms)
were going to take part in fertilization. During
fertilization, a sperm comes in contact with the zona
pellucida layer of ovum and induces the changes in
membrane that blocks the entry of additional sperm.
98. (a) The structure marked as X is rete testis. The rete
testis is an anastomosing network of delicate tubules
located in the hilum of the testicle (mediastinum
testis) that carries sperm from the seminiferous
tubules to the efferent ducts.
99. (b) The structure marked as A, B, C and D in the given
figure of female reproductive system are respectively
isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum and fimbriae. Isthmus
is the narrower part of the tube that links to the uterus
and the interstitial part that transverses the uterine
musculature. Ampulla is the part behind the
infundibulum, where fertilization of ovum takes place.
Infundibulum is a funnel shaped structure whose
edges possess finger like projection called fimbriae.
Fimbriae help in the collection of ovum after
ovulation.
100. (d) X-Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) acts on the
D-Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some
factors which help in the process of spermiogenesis.
101. (c) The given figure shows the role of ovarian hormones
and growth of ovarian follicles in the various phases
of menstrual cycle.
102. (a) A-Umbilical cord with its vessels, is the cord through
which placenta is connected to the developing fetus.
103. (c) The given figure shows the morula stage of
embryonic development. Morula is produced by a
series of cleavage (mitotic) divisions of the early
embryo, starting with the single-celled. Once the
embryo has divided into 16 cells, it begins to
resemble a mulbery, hence the name.
104. (a) A-Interstitial cells, B-Spermatogonia, C-Spermatozoa,
D-Sertoli cells. In the lining of seminiferous tubules,
interstitial cells and sertoli cells are present.
105. (a) The proper movement of tail facilitates the sperm
motility ensuring its reach to the ovum for fertilisation.
106. (d) A-Endometrium, B-Fallopian tubule, C-Cervix,
D-Vagina. Vagina is located posterior to urethra and
anterior to rectum, it receives sperms during sexual
intercourse, serves as exit for blood during menstrual
flow & serves as birth canal during child birth.
107. (d) The given flowchart shows the process of
spermatogenesis. The marked steps A to D are
respectively mitosis differentiation, Ist meiotic division,
2
nd meiotic division and 23.
108. (c) The primary sex organ of male reproductive system
is the pair of testis, which is surrounded by scrotum
to maintain the former at a lower temperature than
the normal body temperature to ensure proper
spermatogenesis.
109. (a) The urethra originates from a structure [called urinary
bladder (X)] and extends through the male external
genitalia [called penis (Y) which helps in introducing
semen into the vagina) to its external opening called
urethral meatus.
110. (c) Male and female gametes are fused in ampullaryisthmic junction of fallopian tube. Fusion of gametes
is not the function of uterine wall.
111. (a)
112. (a) In males, Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates Leydig
cell to produce androgen testosterone hormone.
113. (c) Secretion of epididymis, seminal vesicles, vas
deferens, and prostate are essential for maturation
and motility of sperm.
114. (d) A spermatogonium divides into two primary
spermatocytes. Each primary spermatocyte
duplicates its DNA and subsequently undergoes
meiosis - I to produce two haploid secondary
spermatocytes. Each of the two secondary
spermatocytes further undergoes meiosis II to
produce two haploid spermatids.
115. (a) Only one ovum is released in the middle of each
menstrual cycle.
116. (b) During luteal (P) phase of the menstrual cycle, if
pregnancy doesn't happen, the corpus luteum (Q)
withers and dies, usually around day 22 in a 28-day
cycle. The drop in progesterone (R) levels causes
the lining of the uterus to fall away. This is known as
menstruation (S).
117. (c) Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of
menstrual cycle (about 14th day) resulting in
ovulation.
118. (b) The cycle starts with the menstrual phase. When
menstrual flow occurs, it lasts for 3-5 days. The
menstrual phase is followed by the follicular phase
or proliferative phase. The luteal or secretory phase
just follows the former and completes the cycle. Then,
all new cycle begins thereafter.
119. (d) Menstrual cycle is the cycle of natural changes that
occurs in the lining of the uterus and ovary as an
essential part of making sexual reproduction possible.
LH, FSH, estrogen and progesterone hormones
controlled the menstrual cycle.
120. (a) The zygote divides mitotically to form 8, 16 daughter
cells called blastomeres. This stage is called morula
which continues to divide and transforms into
blastocyst.
121. (d) The ampullary- isthmus junction is the particular
place where actually fertilization occurs. This is the
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-144 Biology
crucial place for the fertilization because the ovum
released by the ovary is transported to the ampullaryisthmic junction.
122. (c) Implantation is not the immediate process. It takes 5
days to occur after fertilization.
123. (c) The acrosome (head of the sperm) contains the
necessary enzymes(hyaluronidase and acrosin) to
penetrate the membrane of the ovum.
124. (c) Fertilization through the process of the fusion of
haploid male and female gametes, ensures the
restoration of the diploidy of the human foetus.
125. (b) Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of
pregnancy causes expulsion/delivery of the foetus
(parturition). Parturition originates from the fully
developed foetus and the placenta which induces
mild uterine contractions called foetal-ejection reflex.
126. (b) Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of the
pregnancy causes expulsion of the foetus.
127. (c) Each human somatic cell is diploid with a set of pair
of 23 chromosomes, so the total number of
chromosomes is 46. Spermatogonia are also diploid
in nature having 46 chromosomes.
128. (d) Secondary spermatocytes are the result of meiotic
division, so they are the haploid ones.
129. (c) After the transformation of spermatids into sperm,
their heads become embedded in a cell called sertoli
cells (X) and are finally released from the seminiferous
tubule (Y) by the process called spermiation (Z).
130. (c) Sperm is the male reproductive cell and consists of a
head, neck, middle piece and a tail. The head of the
sperm comprises the nucleus (DNA) and tip contains
acrosome which enables the sperm to penetrate the
egg. Neck contains centrioles which are proximal
centriole and distal centriole. Distal centriole gives
rise to axial filament of the sperm which runs up to
the end of the tail. The middle piece contains the
mitochondria which supplies the energy in the form
of ATP the tail needs to move. The tail moves with
whip-like movements back and forth to propel the
sperm towards the egg.
131. (c) Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic
development stage when some million oogonia (A)
are formed within each foetal ovary. No more oogonia
are formed and added after birth. These cells start
division and enter into prophase-I (B) of the meiotic
division and get temporarily arrested (C) at that stage,
called primary oocytes (D).
132. (c) During fertilization in humans, when many sperms
reach close to the ovum, the secretion of acrosome
helps the sperm to enter into the cytoplasm of the
ovum through the zona pellucida and the plasma
membrane. This induces the completion of the meiotic
division of the secondary oocyte.
133. (d) The given statement explains the process of
cleavage. In the process of cleavage, mitotic division
starts as the zygote moves through the isthmus of
the oviduct (fallopian tube) towards the uterus.
134. (a) The pregnancy would be terminated if placenta is
failed to develop.
Cjãòvgt 26 : Ôgòtqæwevkøg Jgãnvj
1. (c) The World Health Organization (WHO) is a
specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) that
is concerned with international public health. It was
established on 7 April 1948, headquartered in Geneva,
Switzerland.
2. (b) India is the first country to initiate action plans and
programmes at a national level to aware people of
the issues of reproductive health and made it one of
the social issues to be tackled with good efforts.
3. (a) The programmes called ‘family planning’ for
reproductive health awareness were initiated in 1951.
4. (d) Reproduction-related areas are currently in operation
in India come under the popular name ‘Reproductive
and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes.
5. (b) Amniocentesis or amniotic fluid test or AFT is a
medical procedure which is used in prenatal
diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and foetal
infections. This is the same procedure used for sex
determination.
6. (b) ‘Saheli’–an oral contraceptive for the females was
developed at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI)
in Lucknow, India.
7. (d) Marriageable age is the age at which a person is
allowed by law to marry. In India this age has been
set as 18 for woman and 21 for man (without parents’
consent).
8. (b) Lactational amenorrhoea is the absence of
menstruation. It is the breast sucking of mother by
her child for a long time which is considered to
contribute a gap for pregnancy. It is based on the
fact that ovulation and the menses do not occur
during the period of intense lactation following
parturition.
9. (c) The use of condoms during coitus is some of the
simple precautions to avoid contacting STDs like
AIDS and syphilis.
10. (b) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are reusable
barrier contraceptives made of rubber that are inserted
into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix
during coitus. They prevent conception by blocking
the entry of sperms through the cervix.
11. (c) Condom, diaphragm, cervical caps, and vaults are
included under barrier methods of contraception.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-145
Barrier methods of birth control are physical or
chemical barriers that prevent sperm from passing
through the woman's cervix into the uterus and
fallopian tubes to fertilize an egg. Some methods also
protect against sexually transmitted disease (STDs).
12. (a) IUDs stand for Intra Uterine Devices. These are
plastic or metal devices placed in the uterus. They
contain either copper or a common synthetic
hormone used in oral contraceptives. These include
loop, copper-T, spiral etc. They prevent fertilization
of the ess or implantation of egg.
13. (c) Copper ions play an important and effective role in
the activity of IUDs. Copper IUDs primarily work by
disrupting sperm mobility and damaging sperm so
that they are prevented to take part in the process of
fertilization. The increased copper ions in the cervical
mucus inhibit the sperm's motility and viability,
preventing sperm from traveling through the cervical
mucus or destroying it as it passes through.
14. (b) Intra uterine device, the most widely accepted method
of contraception in India, is a method of birth control.
It is designed for insertion into a woman's uterus so
that changes occur in the uterus that makes it difficult
for fertilization of an egg and implantation of a
pregnancy. IUDs also have been referred to as "intra
uterine contraception (IUC).
15. (d) The hormone releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs)
such as Progestasert and LNG-20 increase
phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and makes
the uterus unsuitable for implantation & the cervix
hostile to the sperms.
16. (a) Oral administration of small doses of either
progestogens or progestogen–estrogen
combinations (in the form of pills) is one of the
contraceptive methods used by the females.
17. (d) Female steriliztion (called tubectomy) prevents
fertilization by interrupting te passage troug fallopian
tube. Eggs continues to be produced but they fail to
pass into the uterus. In tubectomy, a small part of
the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a
small incision in the abdomen or through vagina.
18. (a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) was
legalised in 1971 by Government of India with some
strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
19. (a) MTP is the intentional or voluntary termination of
pregnancy before term. MTPs are considered
relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12
weeks of pregnancy.
20. (c) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are caused by
infections that are passed from one person to another
during sexual contact. Most STDs initially do not
cause symptoms. Symptoms and signs of disease
may include: vaginal discharge, penile discharge,
ulcers on or around the genitals, and pelvic pain.
21. (d) 22. (b)
23. (c) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is an in-vitro
fertilization procedure in which a single sperm is
injected directly into an egg. This procedure is most
commonly used to overcome male infertility
problems, although it may also be used where eggs
cannot easily be penetrated by sperm, and
occasionally in addition to sperm donation.
24. (b) ZIFT (Zygote intra fallopian transfer) is the process
in which the zygote or early embryos (with upto 8
blastomeres) is transferred into the fallopian tube.
25. (d) Test tube baby programme employs zygote intra
fallopian transfer (ZIFT) technique. In this technique
fusion of ovum and sperm is done outside the body
of woman to form zygote which is allowed to divide
forming 8 blastomeres, then it is transferred into the
fallopian tube of the woman.
26. (b) In artificial insemination (AI) technique, the semen
collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is
artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the
uterus (IUI – intrauterine insemination) of the female.
27. (a) Gamete Intra fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is
recommended for those females who cannot produce
an ovum. In this process, the eggs of the donor
woman are removed and in a form of mixture with
sperm transferred into fallopian tube of another
woman who cannot produce ovum, but can provide
suitable environment for fertilization. Thus in GIFT,
site of fertilization is fallopian tube, not laboratory.
28. (d) Infertility problems cannot be generalised. It is a false
statement to say that in India the infertility problems
lie in females more often.
29. (c) Natural method of contraception works on the
principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperm
meeting. include periodic abstinence, coitus
interrupts and lactational ammenorrhea.
30. (a) STDs are those infections or diseases which are
transmitted through sexual intercourse. STDs are
more common in15-24 years age group. Gonorrhoea,
syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital warts,
trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and AIDS are some of
the common STDs. Haemophilia is a sex-linked
recessive disease, which shows its transmission from
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-146 Biology
unaffected carrier female to some of male progeny.
Sickle cell anaemia is an autoimmune linked recessive
trait in which both the partners are carrier for the
gene.
31. (a) Surgical methods of contraception are generally
advised for male/female partner to prevent any more
pregnancies. It blocks gametes transport and thereby
prevent conception. MTPs are relatively upto first
trimester i.e. first three months of the pregnancy.
32. (d) Contraceptive pills have to be taken daily for a period
of 21 days starting preferably within the first five
days of menstrual cycle. It helps in the prevention of
conception. As long as the mother feeds breast the
child fully, chances of conception are almost nil only
up to a maximum period of six months following
parturition.
33. (c) An ideal contraceptive should be user-friendly, easily
available, effective and reversible with no or least
side-effects.
34. (b) Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent the gamete transport.
Genital warts are a sexually transmitted disease, caused
by some types of human papilloma virus.
35. (c) Reproductive health is a crucial part of general health
and a central feature of human development. It is a
reflection of health during childhood, and crucial
during adolescence and adulthood, Reproductive
healthy societies have normal sex related emotional
and behavioural interactions.
36. (c) Reproductive health is defined as a state of physical,
mental, and social well-being in all matters relating
to the reproductive system, at all stages of life.
Reproductive health in society can be improved by
introducing sex education in schools, increasing
medical assistance, ban on amniocentesis, spreading
awareness on contraception and STDs and providing
equal opportunities to male and female.
37. (c)
38. (a) Increased health facilities and rapid decrease in
maternal mortality rate are among the various reasons
of population explosion.
39. (b) Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) are infections
that are commonly passed from one person to another
during sexual contact. Except for having unprotected
sex, all the other reasons are helpful to avoid
transmission of STDs.
40. (c) Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT) is an infertility
treatment. It is used when a blockage in the fallopian
tubes prevents the normal binding of sperm to the
egg. Egg cells are removed from a woman's ovaries,
and in vitro fertilized. The resulting zygote is placed
into the fallopian tube.
41. (d) The Intra Uterine Device (IUD) is a small ‘T’ shaped
device with a monofilament tail that is inserted into
the uterus by a health care practitioner. It increases
phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus and the
copper ion released suppresses sperm motility and
fertilizing capacity of sperms.
42. (a) The diaphragm is one of a barrier method of
contraception. It is a shallow, dome-shaped cup with
a flexible rim and made of silicon. It is inserted into
the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix. To
be effective in preventing pregnancy, diaphragms
need to be used in combination with spermicide,
which is a chemical that kills sperm.
43. (b) Birth control pills (oral contraceptive) check
ovulation by inhibiting the secretion of follicle
stimulating (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) that
are necessary for ovulation such contraceptives are
small oral doses of either progestogens or
progestogen-estrogen combinbation and are used
by the females they are used in the form of tablets
and hence are popularly called the pills.
44. (c) MTP is medical termination of pregnancy. It is not
used as a contraceptive method. It is generally
performed to get rid of unwanted pregnancies due
to rapes, casual relationships etc.
45. (d) Mother is homogametic (produce X, X) and father is
heterogametic (X and Y). So, father is responsible
for the sex of the child not mother.
46. (a)
47. (b) AIDS can be prevented by using condoms. Condoms
are the barrier contraceptive method. Contraceptive
planted under the skin have synthetic streroid
preparation. It works similar to the contraceptive pills.
48. (c) Cu-7 and Cu-T are intrauterine contraceptive devices
for females. They do not suppress sperm motility.
Their mode of action is different. Cu-T and Cu-7
discharge 50-75 micrograms of ionic copper into the
uterus daily. These copper ions interfere with lifesustaining functions that regulate implantation in
the uterus. No any hormone is released by them.
49. (c) Intrauterine device (IUD) Copper- T is plastic or metal
object placed in the uterus by a doctor. Copper- T
prevents the fertilization of the egg or implantation
of the embryo. Their presence perhaps acts as a minor
irritant and this makes the egg to move down the
fallopian tubes and uterus rather quickly before
fertilization or implantation.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-147
50. (b) A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation, condom
prevents sperms to reach the cervix, vasectomy
allows the semen to flow but the latter contains no
sperms. Copper-T prevents implantation in females.
51. (b) Intra Uterine Devices are available as the nonmedicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop), copper releasing
IUDs (CuT, Cu7, and Multiload 375). Progestasert,
LNG-20 are hormone releasing IUDs.
52. (a)
53. (d) ICSI (Intracytoplasmic sperm injection) - Formation
of embryo by directly injecting sperm into the ovum
IUI (intrauterine insemination) - Artificially
introduction of semen into the vagina or uterus
IUT (Intra uterine transfer) - Transfer of embryo with
more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus
GIFT (Gamete intra fallopian transfer) - Transfer of
ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube
where fertilization occur
ZIFT (Zygote intra fallopian transfer) - Transfer of
the zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomeres)
into a fallopian tube.
54. (b) Saheli is a non- hormonal birth control pill. It is
different from other birth control pills because it
doesn't contain any hormones. Instead of using the
hormone estrogen to prevent pregnancy, it contains
a drug that blocks estrogen.
Non Medicated IUDs - Lippes loop
Lactational amenorrhea - Absence of menstruation
Diaphragms, cervical caps, vaults - Cover the cervix
during the coitus.
55. (a) The figure shows the process of tubectomy. This is
a surgical method to prevent pregnancy in women.
In tubectomy small part of the fallopian tube is
removed or tied through a small cut in the abdomen
or through vagina.
56. (c) In R, the fallopian tubes have been blocked, and in
S, they are cut out. Both the procedures completely
make it impossible for fertilization to occur.
57. (a) The given figure is of male condom. A male condom
is a thin sheath that covers the penis during
intercourse and protects against sexually transmitted
infection (STI) and preventing direct contact between
the penis and vagina, as well as collecting the semen
and preventing it from entering the vagina.
58. (d) The given figure is a contraceptive implant. It is a
small flexible tube which is inserted under the skin
(typically the upper arm) and prevents pregnancy
by releasing hormones that prevent ovaries from
releasing eggs and by thickening cervical mucus.
59. (a) The given figure showing the procedure of
vasectomy, in which a small part of the vas deferens
is removed or tied up through a small incision on the
scrotum.
60. (b) Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/ latex
sheath that are used to cover the penis in the male or
vagina and cervix in the female.
61. (a) The given figure is that of copper CuT. CuT is a
simple copper releasing IUD made of a flexible, "T"
shaped piece of plastic wrapped with a thin copper
containing wire. It makes the uterus and fallopian
tubes produce fluid that kills sperm. This fluid
contains white blood cells, copper ions, enzymes,
and prostaglandins. Copper ions prevent pregnancy
by inhibiting the movement of sperm, because the
copper-ion-containing fluids are directly toxic to
sperm. Even if an aggressive little spermatozoon
fertilizes an egg, the copper ion laden environment
prevents implantation of the fertilized egg, and thus
pregnancy.
62. (c)
63. (c) Inability of an individual to inseminate the female or
due to very low sperm counts in ejaculates leads to
infertility. It could be corrected by artificial technique.
In artificial technique the semen is collected and
artificially introduced either into the vagina or into
the uterus (IUI - intra-uterine insemination) of the
female.
64. (a) Syphilis is a chronic bacterial disease that is
contracted chiefly by infection during sexual
intercourse, but also congenitally by infection of a
developing foetus. Syphilis is completely curable if
detected early and treated properly.
65. (b) Rapid declines in death rate, maternal mortality rate
(MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR) as well as an
increase in number of people in reproducible age are
probable reasons for the present increase in india’s
population.
66. (a) The Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and
the fertilizing capacity of sperms.
67. (a) Birth control pills (oral contraceptives) check
ovulation in female by inhibiting the secretion of
follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
that are important for ovulation.
68. (d) Sterilization techniques can be considered as the
safest birth control measures. It provides a permanent
and sure birth control. It is called vasectomy in male
and tubectomy in female.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-148 Biology
69. (d)
70. (c) Assisted reproductive technologies (ART) include
a number of special techniques which assist infertile
couples to have children. In-vitro fertilization is one
such technique.
71. (d) AIDS, genital herpes and hepatitis B are sexually
transmitted diseases which are not completely
curable.
72. (a)
73. (d) Family planning allows individuals and couples to
anticipate and attain their desired number of children
and the spacing and timing of their births. It is
achieved through use of contraceptive methods and
the treatment of involuntary infertility (like
tubectomy, vasectomy). A woman's ability to space
and limit her pregnancies has a direct impact on her
health and well-being as well as on the outcome of
each pregnancy.
74. (d) Overpopulation is an undesirable condition where
the number of existing human population exceeds
the carrying capacity of Earth. It is caused by number
of factors like, reduced mortality rate, better medical
facilities, depletion of precious resources etc.
Consequences of overpopulations are depletion of
natural resources, degradation of environment,
shortage of food supply, rise in unemployment, high
cost of living, and increase of poverty.
75. (d) The described sterilization process is called
vasectomy in which a small incision was done on
the scrotum and a part of vas deferens is removed or
tied up. Due to this gamete transport is blocked and
thereby prevents conception.
76. (b)
77. (a) Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
72 hours of coitus.
78. (b) Condom is a barrier device that may be used during
sexual intercourse to reduce the probability of
pregnancy and spreading sexually transmitted
infections (STIs/STDs) such as HIV/AIDS. It is put
on an erect penis and physically blocks ejaculated
semen from entering the body of a sexual partner.
Condoms are also used for collection of semen for
use in infertility treatment.
79. (a) To get rid of unwanted pregnancies and to prevent
the fatality or harmfulness to the mother or to foetus
or both due to the continuation of pregnancy are the
reasons on the basis of which pregnancy can be
terminated
80. (c) Syphilis, gonorrhea and genital warts are sexually
transmitted disease which specifically affects the sex
organs. Syphilis is caused by the spirochete
bacterium Treponema pallidum. Gonorrhea is caused
by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a bacterium that can
grow and multiply easily in mucus membranes of the
body. Genital warts, which are also called
condylomata acuminata or venereal warts, are
growths in the genital area caused by a sexually
transmitted papilloma virus.
The AIDS (Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)
is a severe immunological disorder caused by the
retrovirus HIV. The illness alters the immune system,
making people much more vulnerable to infections
and diseases.
81. (c) Sexually transmitted infections (STI), also referred
to as sexually transmitted diseases (STD) and
venereal diseases (VD), are infections that are
commonly spread by sex, especially vaginal
intercourse, anal sex and oral sex. Most STIs initially
do not cause symptoms. Symptoms and signs of
disease may include: vaginal discharge, penile
discharge, ulcers on or around the genitals, and pelvic
pain. Principle i, ii, and iv will not help people to
become free from the infection of sexually transmitted
diseases.
82. (a) Hepatitis B is an infectious disease caused by the
hepatitis B virus (HBV) which affects the liver. HIV
(human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that
attacks the immune system, the body's natural
defense system. Without a strong immune system,
the body has trouble fighting off disease. Both the
diseases can also be transmitted by sharing of
injection needles, surgical instruments, etc., with
infected persons, transfusion of blood, or from an
infected mother to the foetus too.
83. (a) Infertility is defined as not being able to get pregnant
despite having frequent, unprotected sex for at least
a year for most people and six months in certain
circumstances. Reasons for infertility include drugs,
diseases, and congenital problems, immunological
or psychological problems.
Contraception is the deliberate use of artificial
methods or other techniques to prevent pregnancy
as a consequence of sexual intercourse. Assisted
reproductive technology (ART) is the technology
used to achieve pregnancy in procedures such as
fertility medication, artificial insemination, in vitro
fertilization and surrogacy. It is reproductive
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-149
technology used primarily for infertility treatments,
and is also known as fertility treatment.
84. (b) Artificial insemination is the assisted reproductive
technology that has been used for the longest time
period. It can help treat certain kinds of infertility in
both men and women. In this procedure, sperms are
inserted directly into a woman's cervix, fallopian tubes,
or uterus. This makes the trip shorter for the sperm
and bypasses any possible obstructions. Intra
uterine insemination (IUI), in which the sperm is
placed in the uterus, is the most common form of
artificial insemination.
85. (c)
Cjãòvgt 27 : Rtkpekòngõ qh Ëpjgtkvãpeg &
Xãtkãvkqp
1. (c) Mendel’s second or last law was “law of independent
Assortment”. It states that genes of different
characters located in different pairs of chromosomes
are independent of one another in this segregation
during gamete formation.
2. (b) Allele or allelomorph is a pair of contrasting
characters in Mendelian crosses. Alleles are slightly
different forms of the same gene.
3. (a) Monohybrid cross is the ratio which is obtained in
F2
generation when monohybrid cross is made &
the offsprings of F1
generation are self bred.
Mendel crossed pure tall and dwarf plants. The plants
belonged to F1
generation, all tall hybrid, were selfpollinated. The plants of F2
generation were both
tall and dwarf, in approximate 3 : 1 ratio phenotypically
and 1 : 2 : 1 genotypically.
4. (b)
5. (a) According to law of dominance, only one character
or factor expresses itself in F1
generation and this
character is called dominant. Therefore in this cross,
character of tallness, which is observed in all the
plants of F1
generation, is the dominant character.
6. (c) Incomplete dominance is the phenomenon where
dominant allele does not completely express itself.
This phenomenon was first studied in flower colour
of Mirabilis jalapa or four O’ clock plant. The
phenotypic as well as genotypic monohybrid ratio
in F2
generation in incomplete dominance is 1 : 2 : 1
i.e., pure dominant : hybrid : pure recessive. F1
generation expresses a phenotype which is
intermediate between those of the parent, e.g., pink
flowers are obtained when red and white flowered
plants are crossed.
7. (a) Law of segregation (originated by Gregor Mendel)
states that during the production of gametes the two
copies of each hereditary factor do not blend or mix
up with each other but remains together and
segregate (or separate) so that offspring obtains one
factor from each parent.
8. (d) Mendel selected Garden pea as material for his
hybridization experiments because of the following
reasons:
(i) Hybridization or crossing in pea is easy.
(ii) It has bisexual flowers.
(iii) It has a number of well defined contrasting
characters.
(iv) It shows predominantly self - fertilization.
(v) It has a short life span.
9. (c) Selfing Ab × Ab
F2
generation:
A
b
AA
Ab bb
Ab
A b
Phenotyppic ratio: 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio:AA : Ab : bb
1 :2: 1
Ab × Ab would produce a genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 in
F2
generation.
10. (b) Punnett square is a checker-board used to show the
result of a cross between two organisms. It was
devised by geneticist, R.C. Punnett (1927). It depicts
both genotype and phenotype of the progeny.
11. (b) The crossing of F1
to homozygous recessive parent
is called test cross. Test cross is a cross between
two individuals in which one individual shows the
dominant phenotype of a characteristic and the other
individual who is homozygous recessive for that trait
in order to determine the genotype of the dominant
individual.
12. (a) The test cross is used to determine the genotype of
the offsprings, to know whether the offspring is
homozygous or heterozygous.
13. (c) The mode of inheritance in case of multiple alleles is
called multiple allelism. A well known and simplest
example of multiple allelism is the inheritance of ABO
blood groups in human beings. In human population,
3 different alleles for this characters are found – IA,
I
B and IO. A person is having only two of these three
alleles and blood type can be determined.
14. (c) Codominance is the phenomenon of two alleles
lacking dominant recessive relationship and both
express themselves in the organisms. The
codominant alleles are able to express themselves
independently when present together. ABO blood
groups are controlled by the gene I. Gene I has three
alleles IA, IB and i.
15. (b)
16. (a) Linkage is the tendency for alleles of different genes
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-150 Biology
to be passed together from one generation to the
next. It reduces the frequency of hybrids.
17. (a)
18. (c) Codominance is the phenomenon of two alleles
lacking dominant recessive relationship and both
express themselves in the organisms. HbA and HbS
alleles of normal and sickle celled RBC show
codominance. In codominance, the effect of both
the alleles is equally conspicious and there is no
mixing of the effect of the two alleles. Both the alleles
produce their effect independently, e.g., IA and IB,
HbS
and HbA.
19. (b) A pair of X chromosomes is present in the female
whereas X and Y chromosomes are present in the
male. There is an equal possibility of fertilization of
the ovum (female gamete containing pair of X
chromosomes) with the sperm (male gamete) carrying
either X or Y chromosomes. If ovum fertilizes with a
sperm carrying X chromosome the zygote develops
into the female offspring and the fertilization of ovum
with sperm (carrying Y chromosome) results into the
male offspring. On this basis, it is evident that only
sperm plays an important role to determine the sex of
a child.
20. (c) The X body of Henking was observed in half of the
sperms during spermatogenesis. During his
experiments on insects, Henking found the traces of
a nuclear structure all through the process of
spermatogenesis which he named it as X body. He
also observed that, after spermatogenesis, exact half
of the sperms received this X body, while the
remaining half did not. Later, scientists found out
that this X body of Henking was actually a
chromosome and hence, named it X-chromosome.
21. (b) In a dihybrid cross, F2
phenotypic ratio (13 : 3) is a
case of epistatic genes. Epistate gene is a gene or
locus which suppresses the action of a gene at
another locus. In dominant epistasis out of two pairs
of genes the dominant allele, (i.e., gene A) of one
gene masks the activity of other allelic pair (Bb). Since
the dominant epistatis gene A exerts its epistatic
influence by suppressing the expression of gene B
or b, it is known as dominant epistasis. Example –
Dominant epistasis in dog. Similar phenomena have
been seen in fruit colour in Cucurbita as summer
squash and coat colour in chickens.
22. (b)
23. (b) Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive
trait that can be transmitted from parents to the
offsprings when both the partners are carrier for gene
(or heterozygous). It is caused by a change in a single
base pair of DNA. Sickle-cell anaemia is the name of
a specific form of sickle-cell disease in which there is
homozygosity for the mutation that causes HbS.
Sickle-cell disease, or sickle-cell anaemia, is a lifelong blood disorder characterized by red blood cells
that assume an abnormal, rigid, sickle shape. Sickling
decreases the cells flexibility and results in a risk of
various complications.
24. (c) Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a point mutation in
the beta globin chain of haemoglobin pigment of the
blood. The disease is controlled by a pair of allele
HbA and HbS Homozygous dominant (HbA HbA )
is normal, heterozygous (HbA HbS) is carrier and
homozygous recessive (HbS HbS ) is diseased.
25. (d) Since haemophilia is an X linked disease it can be
predicted that haemophilia would have occurred in
more of her male than her female descendants due to
criss cross inheritance. Haemophilia (also known as
bleeder disorder) is a sex linked recessive disease
which occurs due to deficiency of plasma
thromboplastin or antihaemophilia globulin during
which the exposed blood does not clot. It transfers
from unaffected carrier female to some of the male
progeny. The possibility of female becoming a
haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such
female has to be atleast carrier and the father should
be haemophilic.
26. (b) The three alleles I
A, I
B and i of gene I in ABO blood
group system can produce six different genotypes
and four different phenotypes as shown below :
Genotype Phenotype
I
AI
A – Blood group A
I
Ai
I
BI
B – Blood group B
I
Bi
I
AI
B – Blood group AB
i i – Blood group O
27. (b) Klinefelter's syndrome is a genetic disorder that
affects males. This syndrome occurs when a boy is
born with one or more extra X chromosomes due to
union of nondisjunct XX egg and a normal sperm, or
nondisjunct XY sperm with a normal egg. Having an
extra X chromosome can cause a male to have some
physical traits unusual for males.
28. (d) Turner’s syndrome is caused by the absence of
X-chromosomes in females. Persons suffering from
turner ’s syndrome are monosomic for sex
chromosomes i.e., possess only one X and no Ychromosome (XO). In other words they have
chromosome number 2n – 1 = 45. They are phenotypic
females but are sterile because they have under
developed reproductive organs. They are dwarf
about 4 feet 10 inches and are flat chested with wide
spread nipples of mammary glands which never
enlarge like those in normal woman. They develop
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-151
as normal female in childhood but at adolescence
their ovaries remain underdeveloped. They lack
female hormone estrogen. About one out of every
5,000 female births results in Turner’s syndrome.
29. (d)
30. (a) Parents having genotype IAi and IBi have children
of the following blood group type – O, AB, and B.
31. (a) A character which is expressed in a hybrid is called
dominant character. It is an inherited character
expressed by a dominant gene in the F1
generation.
32. (d) Mutation is the process by which genetic variations
are created through changes in the base sequence
within genes. It is possible to induce mutations
artificially through use of chemicals or radiations (like
gamma radiations).
33. (c) In co-dominance, F1
generation resemble both the
parents. e.g., Blood group inheritance.
34. (b) In ‘XO’ type of sex determination, males produce
two different types of gametes, e.g., grasshopper
where half of the sperms contain X-chromosomes
while the other half lacking ‘X’ chromosomes or
possessing ‘O’.
35. (c) According to Mendel’s law of Dominance, out of
two contrasting allelomorphic factors only one
expresses itself in an individual. The factor that
expresses itself is called dominant while the other
which has not shown its effect in the heterozygous
individual is termed as recessive. The option (c ) in
the given question cannot be explained on the basis
of law of dominance. It can only be explained on the
basis of Mendel’s Law of independent assortment,
according to which in a dihybrid cross, the two
alleles of each character assort independently of the
alleles of other character and separate at the time of
gamete formation.
36. (d) When two allelic pair are used for crossing, it is called
dihybrid cross. Linkage is the inheritance of genes
of same chromosome together and capacity of these
genes to retain their parental combination in
subsequent generation. The strength of linkage
between two genes is inversely proportional to the
distance between the two. This means, two linked
genes show higher frequency of recombination if
the distance between them is higher and lower
frequency if the distance is smaller.
37. (b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in
grasshoppers. This type of sex-determination comes
under XX-XO type. Its common examples are
cockroaches, grasshoppers and bugs. The female
has two homomorphic sex chromosomes XX and is
homogametic. It produces similar eggs, each with
one X-chromosome. The male has one chromosome
only and is heterogametic. It produces 2 types of
sperms : gynosperms with X and androsperms
without X. In grasshopper, the males lack Y-sex
chromosome and have only an X-chromosome
besides autosomes whereas females have a pair of
X-chromosomes. Male produce sperm cells that
contain either an X-chromosome or no sex
chromosome, which is designated as O.
38. (d) Change in single base pair of DNA is also a type of
mutations called point mutations. It is a type of
mutation that causes the replacement of a single base
nucleotide with another nucleotide of the genetic
material, DNA or RNA. For example, a point mutation
is the cause of sickle cell disease.
39. (a) Tightly linked genes show more linkage than
crossing over.
40. (b) 41. (b)
42. (d) In many birds, female has a pair of dissimilar
chromosomes ZW and male has two similar ZZ
chromosomes unlike mammals, the sex in birds is
decided by the Ova/eggs of the female and not by
the sperms of the male.
43. (d) Haemophilia is a sex-linked disease, which is marked
in heterozygous condition. It is a recessive character.
Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy which arises
because of non-disjunction of two chromosomes of
homologous pair. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
recessive disorder in which the homozygous
recessive individuals lacks the enzyme phenylalanine
hydroxylase needed to change phenylalanine to
tyrosine. Sickle cell anaemi a is an autosome linked
recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents
to the offsprings when both the partners are carrier
for the gene (or heterozygous).
44. (b) Statements (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct. Gregor Mendel,
conducted hybridization experiments on garden peas
for seven years and proposed the laws of inheritance
in living organisms. His experiments had a large
sampling size, which have greater credibility to the
data. A recessive parental trait is expressed only in
its homozygous condition.
45. (a) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct. Mendelian
disorders are mainly determined by alternation or
mutation in a single gene whereas chromosomal
disorders are caused due to absence or excess or
abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes.
Sickle cell anaemia is an autosome linked recessive
trait that can be transmitted from parents to the
offspring when both the partners are carrier for the
gene. Haemophilia is sex-linked recessive disease
which shows its transmission from unaffected carrier
female to some of the male progeny.
46. (b) Statement (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(i) Incomplete or mosaic inheritance is not an example
of pre - Mendelian concept of blending inheritance
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-152 Biology
because the parental types reappear in the F2
generation. However, it is considered to be an
example of quantitative inheritance where only a
single gene pair is involved and F2
phenotypic ratio
is 1: 2: 1, similar to genotypic ratio.
47. (a) Genotype of the organism include all dominant and
recessive characters.
48. (c) Haemophilia also known as bleeder disease is an
example of recessive sex linked inheritance in human
beings. It is masked in heterozygous condition. The
person suffering from this disease lack factors VIII
and IX responsible for blood clotting. A small cut
may lead to bleeding till death. Men are affected by
this disease while women are the carriers.
Mutation of a structural gene on chromosome
number 15 causes Marfan syndrome. This disease
results in formation of abnormal form of connective
tissues and characteristic extreme loosseness of
joints.
49. (c) Haemophilia bleeding disorder is a group of
hereditary genetic disorders that impair the body’s
ability to control blood clotting or coagulation. In its
most common form, Hemophilia A, clotting factor
VIII is absent. In Haemophilia B, factor IX is deficient.
Factor VIII participates in blood coagulation; it is a
cofactor for factor IXa which, in the presence of Ca+2
and phospholipids forms a complex that converts
factor X to the activated form Xa. Defects in this
gene results in hemophilia A, a common recessive
X-linked coagulation disorder. Prothrombin
producing platelets in such persons are not found in
very low concentration.
50. (c) In human, the gamete contributed by the male
determines whehter the child produced will be male
and female. Sex in humans is a polygenic trait
depending upon cumulative effect of some genes
present on Y-chromosome. Only sex in human is
monogenic trait.
51. (b) 52. (c)
53. (c) ABO blood group is an example of multiple allelisms
because of presence of more than two alleles (IA, IB
and i) of a gene. They are produced due to repeated
mutation of the same gene but in different directions.
Law of segregation can be explained with the help of
monohybrid cross.. Law of independent assortment
can be explained with the help of dihybrid cross.
Law of independent assortment states that allele
pairs, which are independent of one another, separate
independently during the formation of gametes. Gene
mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA
sequence. Mutations range in size; they can affect
anywhere from a single DNA building block (base
pair) to a large segment of a chromosome that
includes multiple genes.
54. (d) Turner's syndrome is a genetic defect in which
affected women have only one X chromosome (XO),
and causes developmental abnormalities and
infertility. Linkage is the tendency of alleles that are
located close together on a chromosome to be
inherited together during meiosis. Morgan coined
the term linkage to describe the physical association
of genes on chromosomes. Y chromosomes are
referred to as the testis determining factor (also known
as sex determining factor). Down’s syndrome arises
due to trisomy of chromosome 21. It is usually caused
by an error in cell division called "nondisjunction"
which results in an embryo with three copies of
chromosome 21 instead of the usual two.
55. (a) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II, E-III
Monoploidy – n
Monosomy – 2n – 1
Nullisomy – 2n – 2
Trisomy – 2n + 1
Tetrasomy – 2n + 2
56. (d) Incomplete dominance (discovered by Correns) is
the phenomenon where dominant allele does not
completely express itself. The inheritance of flower
colour in Antirrhinum sp. is a good example of
incomplete dominance. Haemophilia is a sex linked
recessive disease. It is a type of Mendelian disorder
since its inheritance follows the principles of
Mendelian genetics and can be traced in a family by
pedigree analysis. Transforming principle was given
by Griffith. Dihybrid cross is a cross when two allelic
pair are used for crossing. Several dihybrid crosses
were carried out in Drosophila to study genes that
were sex linked.
57. (b) 58. (d)
59. (c) Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive trait.
Haemophilia is a Sex linked recessive trait. Metabolic
error linked to autosomal recessive: Phenylketonuria.
Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease due to faulty
metabolism of phenylalanine. The affected individual
lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acids
phenylalanine into tyrosine. It is characterized by
the presence of phenyl ketones in the urine and
usually first noted by signs of mental retardation in
infancy. Down’s syndrome occurs due to presence
of an Additional 21st chromosomes.
60. (a)
61. (a) The pedigree chart shows the inheritance of a
condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-153
recessive trait. Parents need to be heterozygous as
two of their children are known to be sufferer of the
disease. It cannot be recessive sex linked inheritance
because then the male parent would also be a sufferer.
62. (a) Pedigree analysis is a record of the occurrence of a
trait in several generations of a human family. In this
male members are shown by squares and female by
circles. Sibs are represented horizontally on a line in
order of birth. It helps us in giving information about
genotype of an individual for trait under
investigation.
63. (b) The inheritance pattern of a particular trait shown in
the given picture results in haemophilia. Haemophilia
is a group of inherited blood disorders in which the
blood does not clot properly. It is caused by a fault
in one of the genes that determine how the body
makes blood clotting factor VIII or IX. These genes
are located on the X-chromosome. Haemophilia
appears only in human male which can be transferred
to their grandson through their carrier daughter
(Criss-cross inheritance).
64. (c) In the given figure of sex chromosomes, gene a and
b present on X chromosomes represent disordershaemophilia and red green colour blindness. Both
these disorders occur due to recessive sex linked
genes present on sex chromosomes. Red green
colour blindness is more common in males than
females due to presence of only one X chromosomes.
The sufferers are not able to distinguish red and
green colour.
65. (b) The percentage of recombinants produced in cross I
and cross II are respectively 1.3% and 37.2%.
66. (a) On the basis of the given pedigree chart of a certain
family, it can be concluded that the female parent
(shown by blank circle) is heterozygous where one
gene is dominant and other gene is recessive.
67. (a) The type of inheritance shown in the given diagram
is dominant X linked
68. (c) Parents are heterozygous normal otherwise II-2 could
not be albino. Now cross between 2-heterozygous
(Aa) produces AA (1) : Aa (2) : aa (1). Since II-1 is
normal, the chances of a heterozygous (normal) child
will be 2 out of three, i.e., 2/3.
69. (d)
70. (d) Mutation is the sudden inheritable discontinuous
variation which appears in an organism due to
permanent changes in their genotypes. The term
mutation was coined by Hugo de Vries (1901).
71. (b) Recessive mutation is carried by heterozygous
carrier individuals. This is why they do not get
eliminated from the gene pool.
72. (c)
73. (c) Haemophilia is a sex linked disease in which the
patient continues to bleed even from a minor cut
since he or she does not possess the natural
phenomenon of blood cloting. Haemophilia is
genetically due to the presence of recessive gene h,
carried by X-chromosome. A female becomes
haemophiliac only when both its X-chromosomes
carry the gene (XhXh
). However, such females
generally die before birth because the combination
of these two recessive alleles is lethal. A female having
only one allele for haemophilia (XXh
) appears normal
because the allele for normal blood clotting present
on the other X-chromosome is dominant. Such
females are known as carriers. In case of males, a
single gene for the defect is able to express itself as
the Y-chromosome is devoid of any corresponding
allele (XhY) in which an organism has three times
(3n) the haploid number (n) of chromosomes.
74. (b) 75. (c)
76. (b) In co-dominance, both the genes are expressed for a
particular character in F1
hybrid progeny. There is
no blending of characters, whereas both the
characters are expressed equally. Examples : Codominance is seen in animals for coat colour.
When a black parent is crossed with white parent, a
roan colour in F1
progeny is produced.
77. (b) In the given cross, disease is passed from carrier
female to male progeny, this is known as criss-cross
inheritance. The trait which shows criss-cross
inheritance is located on the sex chromosome. In
XXC, single recessive gene XC is present, that does
not cause the disease.
78. (b) Blood group ‘O’ contains both antibodies but no
antigens. The alleles IA and IB are codominant and
are dominant over the allele IO(IA = IB > IO).
If one parent is homozygous (IOI
O) and other is
heterozygous (IAI
O/IBI
O), their progeny could be
Patents
A O
O A O O O
O A O O O
I I
I I I I I
I I I I I
Genotype ratio = 1 : 1
Therefore, there is 50% chances that the child will
having ‘O’ blood group and 50% chances to have
blood group either ‘A’ or ‘B’.
79. (b) ABO system is one of the most important human
“blood group systems”. The system is based on the
presence or absence of antigens A and B on the
surface of red blood cells and antibodies against
these in blood serum. A person whose blood contains
either or both of these antibodies cannot receive a
transfussion of blood containing the corresponding
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-154 Biology
antigens as this would cause the red blood cells to
clump.
Type of Antigen Antibody % in society blood group
A A Anti-B or 'b' 23.5
B B Anti-A or 'a' 24.5
AB A, B Absent 7.5
O None 'a' and 'b' 34.5
80. (a) Down’s syndrome is also known as Mongolian
idiocy or mongolism. In Langdon Down of England
(1866) studied the Mongolian idiocy and described
the trisomic condition of their chromosomes. Down’s
syndrome, a very common congenital abnormality
arises due to the failure of separation of 21st pair of
autosomes during meiosis. Thus, an egg is produced
with 24 chromosomes instead of 23. A Down’s
syndrome has 3 autosomes in 21st pair instead of 2.
Total number of chromosome in this case is 2n + 1
(21st) = 47.
81. (a) In Drosophila, XXY represents a female but in
human it is an abnormal male, because Y
chromosomes are essential for determining the sex
of the individual. Normally male individual possess
X and Y chromosomes and female have XX
chromosomes. Therefore individual having XXY
genotype is an abnormal male.
82. (b)
83. (c) More than two alternative forms (alleles) of a gene in
a population occupying the same locus on a
chromosome or its homologue are known as multiple
alleles.
84. (a) Down’s syndrome is the example of autosomal
aneuploidy. Here, an extra copy of chromosome 21
occurs. During gametogenesis, 50% gametes of the
affected parent will have extra chromosome. Thus,
the percentage of affected offsprings produced from
affected mother and normal father should be 50%.
85. (b) A monohybrid cross is the one in which a single pair
of contrasting characters is considered at a given
time for the genetic results.
86. (b) The law of segregation of characters postulated by
Mendel can be related to a gamete receiving only
one of the two homologous chromosomes during
meiosis.
87. (a) A test cross is a cross involving the mating of F1
individual with the homozygous recessive parent. It
is done to find out homozygous and heterozygous
individuals. The offsprings will be 100% dominant if
the individual was homozygous dominant and the
ratio will be 50% dominant and 50% recessive in case
of hybrid or heterozygous individual. Here, AaBb,
should be crossed with aabb. As aabb will produce
only one type of gamete thus difference in traits if
observed in their progenies will be due to the different
gametes produced by hybrid dominant parent. This
will indicate the genotype of the dominant parent.
88. (a)
89. (c) Purity and hybrid nature of the pea plant can be
tested by crossing the pea plant with a homozygous
dwarf pea plant. This is known as test cross.
90. (a) The law of segregation states that when a pair of
contrasting factors or genes or allelomorphs are
brought together in a heterozygote (hybrid), the two
members of the allelic pair remain together without being
contaminated and when gametes are formed from the
hybrid, the two separate out from each other and only
one enters each gamete as seen in monohybrid and
dihybrid cross. That is why the law of segregation is
also described as law of purity of gametes.
91. (a) Mendel was successful in formulating the laws of
inheritance whereas his predecessors were not
because he studied one clear cut character at one
time for his breeding experiment and took those traits
which do not show linkage, interaction or incomplete
dominance.
92. (a) According to Bridges, in Drosophila Y-chromosome
is heterochromatic so it is not active in sex
determination. In Drosophila sex determination takes
place by sex index ratio.
Sex index ratio =
No. of X-chromosomes X
No. of set of autosomes A
=
Gene of femaleness (Sxl- gene) (Sxl = Sex lethal gene)
is located on X-chromosome and gene of maleness
is located on autosome. Gene of male fertility is
located on Y-chromosome and in Drosophila, Ychromosome plays additional role in
spermatogenesis and development of male
reproductive organ, so Y-chromosome is essential
for the production of fertile male.
93. (d) The F2
generation offsprings in a plant showing
incomplete dominance exhibit similar phenotypic and
genotypic ratios of 1 : 2 : 1 i.e. pure dominant: hybrid:
pure recessive. In incomplete dominance, neither of the
two alleles are completely dominant over the other and
the dominant alleles do not completely express itself.
94. (d) Since round seed shape is dominant over wrinkled
seed shape and yellow cotyledon is dominant over
green cotyledon so RRYY individuals is round yellow
and rryy is wrinkled green.
Round yellow seeds X Wrinkled green seeds
RRYY rryy
¯
F1
generation RrYy
F2
generation is obtained by selfing F1
.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-155
RY Ry rY ry
RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYY
Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy
Expected phenotypes in F2
generation are round
yellow seed 9, wrinkled yellow seed 3, round green
seed 3, wrinkled green seed 1.
95. (d) Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs due to trisomy of sex
chromosomes which results in (XXY) sex
chromosomes. Total chromosomes in such persons
are 2n + 1 = 47 in place of 46. Klinefelter (1942) found
that testes in such male remain underdeveloped in
adulthood. They develop secondary sex characters
of female like large breasts and loss of facial hair.
Characters of male develop due to Y-chromosome
and those like female due to XX chromosomes.
About one male child out of every 5,000 born,
develops Klinefelter’s syndrome. Such children are
born as a result of fertilization of abnormal eggs (XX)
with normal sperm with Y-chromosome or by
fertilization of normal eggs with (X) chromosomes
by abnormal sperms with (XY) chromosome. They
are sterile males, mentally retarded and are eunuchs.
96. (c) A gene is said to be dominant if expresses its effect
both in homozygous and heterozygous condition. A
dominant gene would lead to the expression of its
phenotype irrespective of the fact whether its allelic
gene is dominant or recessive.
97. (d) Given that both parents are true-breeding, the cross
must be either AA ´ AA, AA ´ aa, or aa ´ aa. If you
work out these crosses, you will see that all of the
possible answers are true for each possible situation.
98. (b) Allele for wrinkled shape of seed in garden pea plant
is considered to be recessive because the trait
(character) associated with the allele is not expressed
in heterozygotes.
99. (b) Sex determination in grasshoppers, humans, and
Drosophila is similar because males have one Xchromosome & females have two X-chromosomes.
In these three species, females have two Xchromosomes and males have one X-chromosome.
The ratio of X-chromosomes to autosomes is
important (and different in each organism) in
Drosophila and grasshoppers, but not in humans. In
all three species, males have one Y-chromosome, but
the Y-chromosome is required for male fertility, not for
Drosophila to be male (in Drosophila, male flies can
be XO).
100. (d) Mendel's rules do not correctly predict patterns of
inheritance for tightly linked genes or the inheritance
of alleles that show incomplete dominance or epistasis.
This shows that these hypothesis are correct and limited
to certain condition.
101. (d) Haemophilia is an X-linked trait, and can only be
inherited by the son from his mother’s X-chromosome.
The father contributes the Y-chromosome to his son
(not his X-chromosome) and thus cannot pass any of
his X-linked alleles to his son.
Cjãòvgt 28 : Oqngewnãt Bãõkõ qh Ëpjgtkvãpeg
1. (c) In DNA, the two chains are held together by
hydrogen bonds between pairs of bases which help
to stabilize the interaction.
2. (a) X-ray crystallography is the study of molecular
structure by examining diffraction patterns made by
x-rays beamed through a crystalline form of the
molecules. It is widely used in biochemistry to
examine the molecular structure of molecules such
as proteins and DNA.
3. (d) Chargaff's rule are applicable to double stranded
DNA because according to the Chargaff's rule,
percentage of adenine is equal to the percentage of
thymine and percentage of guanine is equal to the
percentage of cytosine.
4. (d) There are about 10 base pairs in each turn of DNA
double helix.
5. (a) According to Watson and Crick model of DNA, it is
a double helical molecule with 10 base pairs and 3.4
Å distance for every turn.
6. (d) Central dogma term was proposed by Crick (1958). It
proposes unidirectional or one way flow of
information from DNA to RNA and then to protein
(polypeptide).
DNA
Transcription
Reverse
Transcription
RNA
Translation
Protein
Replication
7. (c) Nucleosome is the structural unit of a eukaryotic
chromosome, and thought to be present only during
interphase of cell cycle. It consists of DNA wrapped
around histone octamer.
8. (c) Nucleotide is an organic molecule consisting of a
nucleoside (nitrogenous base and pentose sugar)
connected to a phosphate group. It forms the basic
structural unit of nucleic acids (such as DNA or RNA)
which carry the genetic information.
9. (b) Histones are positively charged, basic proteins,
enriched in the amino acids arginine and lysine. Thus,
being basic, histones bind tightly to DNA which is
an acid H4
.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-156 Biology
10. (d) In Meselson and Stahl's experiments, heavy DNA
was distinguished from normal DNA by
centrifugation in CsCl gradient. When DNA is mixed
with caesium chloride it will settle down at a particular
height in centrifugation and heavier one higher up.
11. (a) Griffith (1928) described the phenonmenon of
bacterial transformation. He experimented with the
smooth and rough strains of Streptococcus
pneumoniae. Smooth strains of bacteria were virulent
or pathogenic & cause pneumonia.
12. (c) The scientists involved in the discovery of DNA as
chemical basis of heredity were Avery, Mac Leod
and McCarty. They expanded the work of Griffith on
the process of transformation.
13. (d) The experiment conducted by Hershey and Chase
proved that DNA is the genetic material and that
during infection of E. coli cells by bacteriophage
T2, only nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) enter the cell.
Nucleic acids from the head pass through the hollow
tail and enter the bacterial cell. The remainder of the
phage remains on the outside of the bacterium as
"ghost".
14. (c) The purines and pyrimidines are always in equal
amounts as per chargaff’s rule. So, if cytosine is 20%,
the thymine will be 30% and thymine is equal to
adenine. Then the percentage of adenine will be 30%.
15. (d) RNA and DNA both are genetic material and carry
genetic information from one generation to other. A
virus is a small parasite that cannot reproduce by
itself. Most viruses have either RNA or DNA as their
genetic material. Once a virus infects a susceptible
cell, it can direct the cell machinery to produce more
viruses.
16. (b) Few bacteriophages were grown in bacteria
containing 35S which was incorporated into the
cysteine and methionine amino acids of proteins and
thus these amino acids with 35S formed the proteins
of phage.
17. (a) Leading strand during DNA replication is formed
continuously in 5' - 3' direction by continuous
polymerization at the 3' growing tip.
18. (c) DNA replication is the process in which a doublestranded DNA molecule is copied to produce two
identical DNA molecules. In DNA replication each
new strand is half the original parent strand (hence
called semiconservative) and one strand is
synthesized continuously and other discontinuous
(hence called discontinuous).
19. (c) In capping, unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine
triphosphate) is added to 5' end of hn-RNA and forms
cap. CCA segment is also added to t-RNA as terminal
addition for specific function.
20. (c) Genetic code is the depiction of codon by which the
information in RNA is decoded in a polypeptide
chain. The information is transferred in the form of
triplet of bases coding for one amino acid. It is triplet,
universal, non-ambiguous and degenerate in nature.
21. (a) In RNA splicing, intron sequences are removed by
process (known as splicing) and ligates the ends of
exon sequences together.
22. (a) Frame shift mutation are those mutation in which the
reading of the frame of the base sequence shifts
laterally either in forward direction due to addition
of one or more nucleotides or in backward direction
due to deletion of one or more nucleotides.
23. (d) AUG is the initiation codon of protein synthesis in
eukaryotes. AUG always codes for methionine in
eukaryotes.
24. (b) In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase are of 3 types:
(i) RNA polymerase I : Transcribes rRNA (285S,
18S, 5.8S). It is found in nucleolus.
(ii) RNA polymerase II : Transcribes mRNA
(hnRNA-heterogenous RNA). It is found in
nucleoplasm.
(iii) RNA polymerase III : Transcribes tRNA, 5S
rRNA and SnRNA (small nuclear RNAs). It is
found in nucleoplasm.
25. (b) Lactose operon (model proposed by Jacob and
Monad) produces three enzymes - b- galactosidase
(z), permease (y), transacetylase (a). b- Galactosidase
(z) is responsible for the splitting of lactose into
glucose and galactose. Permease (y) is required in
entry of the lactose/galactose. Transacetylase (a)
transfers an acetyl CoA to
b- Galactosides.
26. (a) The inducer for Lac operon of Escherichia coli is
lactose (actually allolactose or metabolite of
Lactose). This lac operon normally remains inactive.
When lac operon contacts with lactose, the lactose
acts as an inducer and combines with the repressor,
and the repressor is detached from operator gene.
Thus RNA polymerase enzyme gets its passage and
reaches to the structural genes and starts the
transcription.
27. (d) Hershey & Chase (1962) discovered that DNA is the
genetic material of bacteriophage. They experimented
with T2
phage which attacks the bacterium E. coli.
Some virus made to grow on culture containing
radioactive sulphur and some on radioactive
phosphorus. Findings indicated that protein did not
enter the bacteria from the viruses but DNA from the
virus particle enters bacteria as genetic material.
28. (c) Lac operon is an inducible operon. Inducible operon
system regulates genetic material which remains
switched off normally but becomes operational in
the presence of inducer.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-157
29. (d) Satellite DNA is a portion of DNA consisting of
short, repeating sequences of nucleotide pairs near
the region of the centromere. Normally it does not
code for any protein but shows polymorphisms. It is
classified in many categories like micro- or
minisatellites based on the composition, length of
segments and number of repetitive units.
30. (a) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a process used
for the amplification (copy - small segments) of DNA.
It is a technique for enzymatically replicating DNA
without using living organisms, such as E. coli or
yeast. It is commonly used in the medical and
biological research labs for a variety of tasks, like
detection of hereditary diseases, the identification
of genetic fingerprints, diagnosis of infectious
diseases, cloning of genes, paternity testing etc.
31. (d) Polymorphism in DNA sequence is a variation at
genetic level. It arises due to mutation and is the
basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well
as of DNA fingerprinting.
32. (a) In human genome, there are about 200,000 satellite
loci. These simple tandem repeats of short sequences
are called ‘Variable Number Tandem Repeats’
(VNTRs). These repeats are inherited from the
parents, and are used as genetic markers in a personal
identity test.
33. (c) Single nucleotide polymorphism(SNP) is the most
common type of genetic variation among people.
Each SNP represents a difference in a single DNA
building block, called a nucleotide. For example, a
SNP may replace the nucleotide cytosine (C) with
the nucleotide thymine (T) in a certain stretch of
DNA.
34. (b) Human Genome Project (HGP) is closely associated
with the rapid development of a new area in biology
called bioinformatics which is used for storage and
analysis of enormous amount of data.
35. (b) DNA polymerase is an enzyme which is involved in
the replication and repair of DNA. It synthesizes new
DNA strands using a DNA template in the 5' - 3'
direction.
36. (b) DNA fingerprinting is a test to identify and evaluate
the genetic information called DNA
(deoxyribonucleic acid) in a person’s cells. DNA
fingerprinting is a form of identification based on
sequencing specific non-coding portions of DNA
that are known to have a high degree of variability
from person to person. These sections are known as
tandem repeats. The test is used to determine whether
a family relationship exists between two people, to
identify organisms causing a disease, and to solve
criminal cases.
37. (a) Peptidase catalyses the breaking of peptide bond.
The UTRs are present at both 5¢-end (before start
codon) and 3'-end (after stop codon). At the end of
translation release factor binds to the stop codon,
terminating translation and releasing the complete
polypeptide from the ribosome.
38. (d) DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
in repetitive DNA. Since the DNA from every tissue
of an individual show the same degree of
polymorphism, they become very useful identification
tool in forensic application.
39. (d) RNA used to act as a genetic material as well as a
catalyst (in some important biochemical reactions).
But, RNA being a catalyst is reactive and unstable.
40. (d) Introns or intervening sequences do not appear in
mature or processed RNA.
41. (a) Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA
sequences that are repeated many times sometimes
hundred to thousand times. They are thought to have
no direct coding functions, but they shed light on
chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution.
42. (d) The process involved in the RNA formation on the
DNA template is called transcription.
43. (c) Jacob and Monod proposed the lac operon of E.
coli. The lac operon contains a promoter, an operator,
and three structural genes called Z, Y, and A, coding for
the enzyme, b galactosidase, permease and
transacetylase respectively. The lac regulator gene,
designated as i gene, codes for repressor. In the absence
of the inducer, the repressor binds to the lac operator,
preventing RNA polymerase from binding to the
promoter and thus transcribing the structural gene.
44. (a) Statement (i) and (iv) are correct.
Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to
as negative regulation. In negative regulation, a
repressor molecule binds to the operator of an operon
and terminates transcription. In positive regulation,
an activator interacts with the RNA polymerase in
the promoter region to initiate transcription.
Human genome contains some 20,000 - 25,000 genes
billion bases.
45. (d) mRNA provides the template for synthesis of
proteins. A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide
is called exon.
46. (d) RNA pol I transcribes rRNAs, whereas the RNA pol
III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA
and snRNAs. RNA pol II transcribes hnRNA.
47. (a) 3 codons do not code for any amino acid. Such
codons are called non-sense codons or terminator
codon. Eg UAG, UAA & UGA.
48. (c) Two nucleotides are linked through 3' – 5'
phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide. The
chromatin that is more densely packed and stains
dark is called heterochromatin.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-158 Biology
49. (a) Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with
guanine due to the perfect match of hydrogen donor
and acceptor sites.
50. (a) A single mRNA strand is capable of forming different
polypetide chains because it has different reading
frame (the way through which reading of mRNA by
tRNA)
51. (a) Phenomenon in which more than one codon encodes
a single amino-acid is called degeneracy of genetic
code.
52. (a) In eukaryotes the replication and transcription takes
place in the nucleus. mRNA came out from the
nucleus through the nuclear pore. In cytoplasm
translation occurs. In prokaryote there is no nuclear
membrane, so replication, transcription and
translation all occur in the cytoplasm.
53. (b)
54. (d) Helicase is an enzyme which unwinds the DNA
strand by breaking the H - Bonding present between
the nucleotide pairs. Gyrase catalyzes the breaking
and rejoining of bonds linking adjacent nucleotides
in circular DNA to generate supercoiled DNA helices.
The synthesis of RNA primer is done by primase
enzyme. DNA polymerase III is involved in the
synthesis of DNA from its deoxyribonucleoside
triphosphate precursors.
55. (a) Splicing is a process in which introns and intervening
sequences of non - essential nature are removed by
nuclease. Okazaki fragments are newly synthesized
DNA fragments that is associated with the lagging
or discontinuous strand. Jacob and Monad were the
first to elucidate a transcriptionally regulated system.
They proposed lac (lactose) operon. The lac operon
is an operon which is required for the transport and
metabolism of lactose in Escherichia coli bacteria
and some other enteric bacteria. It has three adjacent
structural genes, lacZ, lacY, and lacA. Inducer is a
molecule that regulates gene expression. It attaches
to repressor and changes the shape of operator
binding site so that repressor no more remains
attached to the operator. In the lac operon, allolactose
is the actual inducer while lactose is the apparent
inducer.
56. (a) Operator site gives passages to RNA polymerase
moving from the promoter to structural gene.
Promoter site is the initiation point for transcription
and the site for binding of RNA polymerase.
Structural gene determines the amino acid sequence
on the segment of DNA molecule. Regulator gene
controls the activity of operator gene by producing
repressor molecules.
57. (b) GTP dependent release factor is involved in the
termination. Termination requires the activities of
three release factors R1, R2, R3. A release factor
allows for the termination of translation by
recognizing the termination codon or stop codon in
an mRNA sequence. Amino acyl tRNA synthetase is
an enzyme which plays an important role in
translation during protein synthesis. This enzyme is
responsible for the specific amino acylation of tRNA.
Transcription is the process of transferring the
information stored in DNA into a new molecule of
mRNA through the synthesis of RNA over the DNA
template. Transcription is carried out with the help
of an RNA polymerase enzyme and a number of
accessory proteins (called transcription factors).
RNA polymerase enzyme is responsible for copying
a DNA sequence into an RNA sequence. DNA
replication is the process in which a double-stranded
DNA molecule is copied to produce two identical
DNA molecules. Okazaki fragments are short, newly
synthesized DNA fragments that are formed on the
lagging (or discontinuous) template strand during
DNA replication.
58. (c) Griffith described the phenomenon of bacterial
transformation. Hershey and Chase discovered that
RNA is the genetic material of bacteriophage.
Prokaryotic DNA is also called nucleoid. Nucleoid
is an irregularly-shaped region within the cell of a
prokaryote (unicellular organisms) that contains all
or most of the genetic material. Euchromatin is a
chromosome material and comprises the most active
portion of the genome within the cell nucleus. It does
not stain strongly except during cell division and
represents the major genes and is involved in
transcription.
59. (a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-V, E-II
UUU – Phenylalanine
GGG – Glycine
UCU – Serine
CCC – Proline
AUG – Methionine
60. (b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b-galactosidase – Hydrolysis of lactose
Permease – Increases permeability to
b-galactosidase
Ligase – Joining of DNA fragments
Ribozyme – Peptide bond formation
61. (a) F. Meischer discovered nuclein as an acidic
substance present in nucleus. Griffith experimented
with the smooth(S) and rough (R) strains of S.
pneumoniae. Smooth strains of bacteria were virulent
or pathogenic and cause pneumonia. Rough strains
were non-pathogenic or avirulent. Hershey and
Chase discovered that RNA is the genetic material
of bacteriophage (virus which infects bacteria).
Watson and Crick proposed the three dimensional
structure of DNA based on X ray diffraction
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-159
photographs of DNA taken by Rosalind Franklin and
M H F Wilkins.
62. (b) Sigma factor is associated with the initiation of
transcription. Sigma factor conferrs the specificity
of RNA synthesis at the promoter region. Capping
involves the addition of unusual nucleotide at the 5'
end of hn RNA. Tailing involves the addition of
adenylate residues at 3' end in a template
independently. Coding strand (also called leading
strand) is a strand synthesized by an enzyme in
continuous piece in 5' - 3' direction.
63. (b) Alec Jeffreys developed techniques for DNA
fingerprinting and DNA profiling. These techniques
are now used worldwide in forensic science. F.
Sanger worked on protein sequencing and DNA
sequencing and got Noble prize for the same. Jacob
and Monad proposed the lac (lactose) operon. Avery,
McLeod and McCarty expanded the work of Griffith
on the process of transformation.
64. (a) Nucleosome is a structural unit of a eukaryotic
chromosome which consists of a length of DNA coiled
around a core of histones and are thought to be
present only during interphase of cell cycle. In the
given figure of nucleosome structure, the parts
marked as A, B and C are respectively DNA, H1
histones and histone octamer.
65. (a) Replication fork is a site on a DNA molecule at which
both unwinding of the helices and synthesis of
daughter molecules occurs. In the given figure of
replication fork of DNA, the A and B synthesis are
respectively called continuous (the template with
polarity 3' - 5') and discontinuous (the template with
polarity 5' - 3') synthesis.
66. (d)
67. (b) DNA mRNA Protein A B
The given figure shows the concept of central dogma
of molecular biology. In this question A is
transcription, B - translation C - Francis Crick. It is
unidirectional flow of information DNA to mRNA
(transcription) and then decoding the information
present in mRNA in the formation of polypeptide
chain or protein (translation).
68. (d) The given figure represents the figure of replication
fork of DNA. The new strands of DNA are formed in
the 5' 3' ® direction from the 3' 5' ® template DNA
by the addition of deoxyribonucleotides to the 3' end
of primer RNA.
69. (a) A, B and C represent the pitch (a complete turn) of
helix, distance between a base pair in a helix and
distance between two strand of DNA molecule
respectively.
70. (c)
71. (a) In the given figure of lac operon model (proposed
by Jacob and Monad), the labels A, B, X, Y and Z are
respectively repressor, inducer, b- galactosidase (z),
permease (y), transacetylase (a). z, y and a are three
structural genes which produces three enzymes for
the degradation of lactose to glucose and galactose.
Label X (b- galactosidase) is primarily responsible
for the hydrolysis of disaccharide lactose into
galactose and glucose.
72. (b) In the given figure, the step shown is termination of
transcription in bacteria. The label A, B and C are
respectively RNA, RNA polymerase and rho factor.
RNA polymerase is an enzyme that synthesizes the
formation of RNA from a DNA template during
transcription. Rho factor is a termination factor which
releases RNA from the DNA template.
73. (b) tRNA or transfer RNA is a single stranded molecule
and takes the shape of a clover leaf. In the process
of transcription tRNA brings amino acid and reads
the genetic code and acts as an adapter molecule. In
the given structure of tRNA, the labels A, B, C and D
are respectively AA binding site (amino acid binding
site), TyC loop, anticodon loop (codon recognition
site) and DHU loop (amino acid recognition site).
74. (a) A histone octamer is a complex of eight positively
charged histone proteins (two of each H2A, H2B,
H3
and H4
) that aid in the packaging of DNA.
Negatively charged DNA wraps around these
histone octamers to form the nucleosome. The DNA
is held there by ionic bonds. Linker histone H1 binds
to each nucleosome where the DNA enters and exits
and this draws a string of nucleosomes closer
together to form the 10 nm fibre. The nucleosomes in
chromatin are seen as beads-on string structure when
viewed under electron microscope.
75. (b)
76. (a) Ribosomal RNA or rRNA is the most abundant types
of RNA (about 80%) in the cell. It is found to be a
catalytic element for protein synthesis.
77. (c) A nucleoside is made up of a sugar molecules and a
heterocyclic base while a nucleotide is made up of a
sugar molecule, phosphate group and a heterocyclic
base.
78. (b) Double stranded DNA is much more stable than
single stranded RNA and this helps to protect our
genetic code. Having a second copy of our genetic
code means that there is a reference for repair in the
event of a mutation or damage.
79. (a) Messelson and Stahl (1958) cultured (Escherichia
coli) bacteria in a culture medium containing 15N.
After these had been replicated for a few generations
in the medium both the strands of their DNA
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-160 Biology
contained 15N as constituents of purines and
pyrimidines. When these bacteria with 15N were
transferred in cultural medium containing 14N, it was
found that DNA separated from fresh generation of
bacteria possesses one strand heavier than the other.
The heavier strand represents the parental strand
and lighter one is the new one synthesized from the
culture indicating semi conservative mode of DNA
replication.
80. (b)
81. (a) The function of sigma factor is to confer the
specificity of RNA synthesis at the promoter site.
But during elongation of polypeptide chain, sigma
factor is functionless.
82. (a) Degeneracy of codons is the redundancy of the
genetic code. A single amino acid may be specified
by many codon i.e., called degeneracy. Degeneracy
is due to the last base in codon (which is known as
wobble base). Thus, first two codon are more
important to determine the amino acid and third one
differ without affecting the coding i.e., known
wobble hypothesis, proposed by Crick which
establishes an economy of tRNA molecule.
83. (b) Operons are segments of genetic material (DNA) which
functions as regulated unit or units that can be switched
on or switched off. It is a sequence of closely placed
genes regulating a metabolic pathway in prokaryotes.
84. (b) Clover leaf secondary structure of tRNA has a loop
for three unpaired bases (triplet of base) whose
sequence is complementary with a codon in mRNA.
85. (c) Replication is the formation of exact carbon copy or
replica. According to semi -conservative method of
DNA replication, the two strands of DNA molecule
separate and the complementary strand is
synthesized from the medium. After the completion
of replication, each DNA molecule would have one
parental and one newly synthesized strand.
86. (c) In frame shift mutation the reading of the frame of
the base sequence shifts laterally either in forward
direction due to addition of one or more nucleotides
or in backward direction due to deletion of one or
more nucleotides. Whereas in base pair substitution
a base pair is replaced by another base which results
in change of nucleotide sequence.
87. (c) DNA (deoxyribose nucleic acid) consists of 3
different molecules-phosphate, 5-carbon
deoxyribose sugar and nitrogenous base. The
nitrogenous base may be a
9-membered, double purine, i.e., adenine (A) or
guanine (G), or a 6-membered, single -ringed
pyrimidine, i.e., thymine (T) or cytosine (C).
88. (a) Degenerate codons (also called as non - sense codons
or terminator codons) do not code for any amino
acids. Three types of degenerate codons are UAG
(amber), UAA (ochre) and UGA (opal).
89. (d) The two strands of a double helix model of DNA are
held together by hydrogen bonds between
nitrogenous bases which help to stabilize the
interaction. Adenine - thymine pair has two hydrogen
bonds while guanine - cytosine pair has three
hydrogen bonds.
90. (c) Formation of mRNA from DNA is called as
transcription. The segment of DNA involved in
transcriptions is cistron, which have a promoter
region where initiation is started and terminator
region where transcription ends. Enzyme involved
in transcription is RNA polymerase-II.
91. (c)
92. (b) Nucleotides have three components - a nitrogenous
base, pentose sugar and a phosphate group. The
phosphate group of one nucleotide is linked by
phosphodiester bonds with the pentose sugar of
the other nucleotide.
93. (c) The mRNA formed after transcription of a gene is
shorter than the DNA because the intervening
sequences called introns are removed through
splicing.
94. (b) When a DNA strand with the sequence
AACGTAACG is transcribed, the resultant sequence
of the mRNA molecule synthesized is UUGCAUUGC.
This is based on the paring of nitrogenous bases -
adenine pairs with thymine (in DNA) and uracil (in
RNA) and guanine with cytosine.
95. (c) Translation is the process of decoding of the
messages from mRNA to protein with the help of
tRNA, ribosome and enzyme.
96. (c) The process of protein synthesis is catalyzed by
ribosomal RNA. Messenger RNA provides the
genetic blueprint for the protein. Transfer RNA is
responsible for translating the triplet code into a
specific amino acid. Messenger RNA molecules are
modified prior to protein synthesis by small nuclear
RNA.
97. (c) tRNA (or transfer RNA) is a single stranded RNA
molecule which brings amino acid and reads the
genetic code in the process of transcription. It helps
decode a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence into a
protein. It functions at specific sites in the ribosome
during translation, which is a process that
synthesizes a protein from a mRNA molecule.
98. (b) mRNA carries the coded information for synthesis
of one (monocistronic) or more polypeptides
(polycistronic). Its codons are recognized by tRNAs.
99. (a) The first mRNA codon to specify an amino acid is
always AUG. A DNA strand with the sequence TAC
will corresponds to the first amino acid i.e., AUG. On
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-161
DNA strand A always pairs with T while on RNA
strand A always pairs with U.
100. (a) Inducible system includes a repressor protein which
is bound to DNA in the absence of any other factor.
101. (c) A low level of Lac Z expression is required for
conversion of lactose to the inducer, allolactose.
102. (b) Human genome project was launched in the year
1990. It is an international scientific research project
having the goal to determine the sequence of base
pairs which make up human DNA, and to identify
and map all of the genes of the human genome.
103. (d) Many non-human model organisms such as bacteria,
Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast), Caenorhabditis
elegans (a free living non-pathogenic nematode)
Drosophila (the fruit fly), plants (Oryza sativa and
Ararbidopsis thalliana), etc. have also been
sequences.
104. (d) Minisatellites are inherently unstable and
susceptible to mutation at a higher rate than other
sequences of DNA. Thus, due to difference in
number, location and size of minisatellites on
chromosomes, each individual has a unique DNA
fingerprint.
105. (d) The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially
developed by Alec Jeffrey's. He used a satellite DNA
as probe that shows high degree of polymorphisms.
DNA fingerprinting using variable number tandem
repeats is based on the observation that VNTR loci
are highly polymorphic.
106. (d) On template strand which has 5' ® 3' orientation,
DNA polymerase synthesizes short pairs on new
DNA (about 1000 nucleotide long) in 5' ® 3' direction
and then joins these piece together. These small
framments are called okazaki fragments and new
DNA strand made in this discontinuous manner is
called lagging strand. Okazaki fragments are joined
by means of DNA ligase.
Okazaki fragment
mRNA
3
5
5 3 5
3 Leading strand
Cjãòvgt 29 : Eøqnwvkqp
1. (a) A British scientist, J.B.S. Haldane, suggested that
life originated from simple inorganic molecules. Two
scientists, Stanley Miller and Harold Urey were the
first to put to test, the Oparin - Haldane theory, in the
year 1953. They created a condition similar to that of
primitive earth (i.e. high temperature, volcanic storms,
reducing atmosphere) containing ammonia (NH3
),
water vapour (H2O), hydrogen (H2
), methane (CH4
).
They made electric discharge in a closed flask
containing CH4
, NH3
, H2
and water vapour at 800o
C. As a result, some amino acids are formed.
2. (a) Oparin and Haldane of England proposed that the
first form of life come from pre-existing non- living
molecules (eg, RNA, protein etc. and that formation
of life was preceded by chemical evolution i.e.
formation of diverse organic molecule from inorganic
molecules.
3. (b) Extinction is represented by a branch which ends in
a family tree.
4. (c) The primitive atmosphere was reducing due to lack
of free molecular oxygen. The early atmosphere
contained ammonia (NH3
), water vapour (H2O),
hydrogen (H2
), methane (CH4
).
5. (a) The analogous organs are different in origin or basic
plan, but have similar functions or adaptations.
Wings of butterfly and wings of bird and fins of
fishes and flippers of whale are some of the examples
of analogous organs.
6. (a) The homologous organs are similar in origin or
fundamental structure or basic plan, but may or may
not be similar in function, i.e. can differ in functions.
Examples are wings of bat and arms of monkey and
gills of fishes and lungs of rabbit. In these animals,
the same structure developed along different
directions due to adaptations to different needs,
therefore the homologous organs show divergent
evolution.
7. (d) The analogous organs show convergent evolution
due to similar adaptation. They do not support
organic evolution. Whale, seal and shark shows
convergent evolution due to similar habitats.
8. (c) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
are the examples of homologous organ. Homologous
organs are those organs which are similar in their
morphology, anatomy and embryology but dissimilar
in their functions
9. (c) Industrial melanism (In England) is an example of
natural selection. Natural selection is the process by
which the organisms that are best suited for their
environment survive and reproduce.
Before industrialization (1850s), it was observed that
there were more white winged moths (Biston
betularia) on trees than dark winged or melanised
moths (Biston carbonaria). Because there were more
white coloured lichens that covered the trees. Hence,
white winged moths were able to camouflage themselves and survived. But the dark coloured moths
were picked out by predators.
After industrialization (1920), there were more dark
winged moths and less white winged moths. Because, the tree trunks became dark due to industrial
smoke and soot. Under this condition the white
winged moth did not survive as the predators could
identify them easily. However, dark winged moth
survived because of suitable dark background.
10. (d) Darwin finches are a good example of adaptive
radiation. Adaptive radiation is a process of evolution
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-162 Biology
of different species in a given geographical area
starting from a point and radiating to other areas of
geography.
11. (c) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution of different
species from a common ancestor. The mammals are
adapted for different mode of life i.e. they show
adaptive radiation. They can be aerial (bat), aquatic
(whale and dolphins), burrowing or fossorial (rat),
cursorial ( horse), scantorial (squarrel) or arboreal
(monkey). The adaptive radiation, the term by
Osborn, is also known as divergent evolution.
12. (a) The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an example
of biogeographical evolution. Biogeography is the
study of the distribution of life forms over
geographical areas. It not only provides significant
inferential evidence for evolution and common
descent, but also provides what creationists like to
deny is possible in evolution.
13. (b) The term survival of the fittest was used by Herbert
Spencer. "Survival of the fittest" is a phrase that
originated in evolutionary theory as a method to
describe the mechanism of natural selection. Herbert
Spencer first used the phrase - after reading Charles
Darwin's On the Origin of Species - in his Principles
of Biology (1864), in which he drew parallels between
his own economic theories and Darwin's biological
ones, writing.
14. (a) Marsuvpials in Australia and placental mammals in
North America show convergent evolution. These
two subclasses of mammal have adapted in similar
ways to a particular food supply, locomotor skill or
climate.
15. (d) When Charles Darwin returned from the voyage in
1836, he got a chance to read the books ‘The
principles of Geology’ by Charles Lyell and ‘Essays
on principles of (human) population’ by T.H.
Malthus. Malthus in his book described that human
population increases in geometric ratio while food
increases in arithmetic ratio. This book of Malthus
influenced the work of Charles Darwin most.
16. (b) Hugo de Vries proposed mutation theory of
evolution. He conducted some experiments on
Oenothera lamarckiana (evening primrose) and
believed that evolution takes place through mutation
and not by minor variation and hence called it
saltation (single step large mutation).
17. (b) For a gene with two alleles, A (dominant) and a
(recessive), if the frequency of A is p and the
frequency of a is q, then the the frequencies of the
three possible genotypes (AA, Aa, and aa) can be
expressed by the Hardy-Weinberg equation :
2 2
p pq q + += 2 1
where, p
2
= frequency of AA (homozygous dominant)
individuals, 2pq = frequency of Aa (heterozygous)
individuals and q
2
= frequency of aa (homozygous
recessive) individuals. The equation can be used to
calculate allele frequencies if the numbers of
homozygous recessive individuals in the population
is known.
Here, p = 0.7 and q = 0.3 (given)
\ 2pq (frequency of heterozygote)
= 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42
18. (a) Frequency of dominant allele (p) = 60% = 0.6
The frequency of recessive allele, according to (p +
q) = 1, will be 0.4
The value of pq = 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.24
The frequency of heterozygous individuals,
therefore, will be
2pq = 2 × 0.24 = 0.48 or 48%.
19. (a) Random genetic drift in a population probably
results from highly genetically variable individuals.
Random genetic drift refers to random fluctuations
in the numbers of gene variants in a population. It
takes place when the occurrence of variant forms
of a gene, called alleles, increases and decreases
by chance over time. These variations in the
presence of alleles are measured as changes in
allele frequencies.
20. (d) There are three types of natural selection i.e.
stabilizing, directional and disruptive.
Stabilizing selection - In this type of selection, the
frequency of average sized individuals increases
further but the frequency of smaller and larger sized
individuals is reduced and finally becomes negligible.
Directional selection - In such selection, the longest
or the shortest individuals are selected by nature
and increases in frequency in the forth-coming
generations. In directional selection it is always the
‘extreme’ (end one) which is favoured.
Disruptive selection - In this case, the individuals of
both the extremes (ends), the smallest and the largest
ones, are favoured, and thus increase in the
frequency or percentage.
21. (c) Mammals evolved during the Triassic period, about
the same time that the first dinosaurs appeared. The
first placental mammals appeared at the beginning
of the cretaceous period. The earliest mammals were
tiny, shrew-like mammals. The shrew is a small,
mouse-sized mammal with an elongated snout, a
dense fur of uniform colour, small eyes, and five
clawed toes on each foot. Shrews are among the
world's smallest mammal.
22. (b) Australopithecus evolved 2 mya and had a cranial
capacity of 450 cm3
. They had full erect posture with
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-163
height 1.5 m. They were herbivorous, hunted with
stone weapons, lived at trees, canines and incisors
teeth were small.
23. (b) Australopithecus is one of the longest-lived and
best-known early human species whose remains were
found between 3.85 and 2.95 million years ago in
Eastern Africa (Ethiopia, Kenya, and Tanzania).
Evidences shows that they hunted with stone
weapons but essentially ate fruits.
24. (c) All the given statements are correct.
25. (b) Lichens can be used as industrial pollution
indicators.
26. (d) Homo erectus is an extinct species of hominid that
lived throughout most of the Pleistocene, with the
earliest first fossil evidence dating to around 1.5
million years ago and the most recent to around 70,000
years ago. They had a large brain capacity around
900cc and probably ate meat.
27. (c) Neanderthal was the first specimen to be recognized
as an early human fossil. They had a brain size of
1400cc and lived in near east and central Asia
between 100000 - 40000 years back. Neanderthals
made and used a diverse set of cultured tools,
controlled fire and lived in shelters, made and wore
clothing, were skilled hunters of large animals and
also ate plant foods, and occasionally made symbolic
or ornamental objects. There is evidence that
Neanderthals deliberately buried their dead and
occasionally even marked their graves with offerings,
such as flowers.
28. (d) All the given statements are correct.
29. (a) The potato (stem modification) and sweet potato
(root modification) are the examples of analogy.
Analogy is the similarity of function and superficial
resemblance of structures that have different origins.
30. (c) The evolution of the peppered moth is an
evolutionary instance of colour variation in the moth
population as a consequence of Industrial
Revolution. It is a concept of increase in number of
dark-coloured moths due to industrial pollution, and
reciprocal decrease of the population under clean
environment. Hence, the phenomenon is called
industrial melanism. Therefore, after industrialization
(i.e in 1920), the white winged moths did not survive
due to predation.
31. (c) Neanderthal man lived in east and central Asia and
used hides to protect their bodies. Agriculture came
around 10000 years back and human settlement
started.
32. (d) Life originated in the ocean (water) presumably about
3.7 million years ago in Precambrian era. Earth was
formed about 4.5 million years ago. First living
organisms in Primitive ocean were protocell or
eobiont or protobiont.
33. (c) When more individuals of a population acquire mean
character value, the type of natural selection is called
stabilizing selection. It favours the average or normal
phenotypes and eliminates the extreme variants.
Disruptive selection is just the opposite of stabilizing
selection, i.e., the extremes have more adaptable
phenotypes than the average ones. Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium is defined as the relative frequencies of
various kinds of genes in a large and randomly mating
sexual population which tend to remain constant from
generation to generation in the absence of mutation,
selection and gene flow.
34. (d) Genetic recombination leads to variation results in
changed frequency of genes and alleles in future
generation.
35. (a) i. Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the
results of convergent (A) evolution.
ii. Miller showed that CH4
, H2
, NH3
and water vapour
(A) when exposed to electric discharge in a flask
resulted in the formation of amino acids (B).
iii. Vermiform appendix is a vestigial (A) organ and
an anatomical or morphological (B) evidence of
evolution.
iv. According to Darwin, evolution took place due to
small variation (A) and survival (B) of the fittest.
36. (c) The given statements are the evidences for Darwin's
theory of common descent. A group of organisms
share common descent, if they have a common
ancestor. There is strong quantitative support for
the theory that all living organisms on Earth are
descended from a common ancestor. Charles Darwin
proposed the theory of universal common descent
through an evolutionary process in the Origin of
Species,
37. (c) The theory of natural selection states that those
individuals that are better adapted to their
environment will have greater reproductive success.
38. (b) Organic compounds first evolved in earth required
for origin of life were protein and nucleic acid. All life
forms were in water environment only.
39. (a) The banding pattern seen on stained chromosomes
from humans and chimpanzee show striking
similarities which indicates that they have
evolutionary relationships (cytogenetic evidence).
40. (a) Natural selection acts on the variations found in a
population. The individuals with favourable
variations are selected and adaptive forms of a given
trait tend to become less common or disappear.
The Darwin Wallace theory of Natural Selection can
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-164 Biology
be generalised as the change in species by the
survival of an organismal type exhibiting a natural
variation that gives it an adaptive advantage in an
environment. That leads to a new environmental
equilibrium. The idea of the survival of the fittest
explain the above evolution by natural selection.
According to survival of fittest, some of the
variations exhibited by living things make it easier
for them to survive and reproduce thus more
adaptive forms increase. Those which are not fit (or
less adaptive) become eliminated.
41. (b) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth
were heterotrophic (taking number from outside)
because of reducing atmosphere and the first
autotrophs were chemoautotrophs.
An anaerobic organism does not require oxygen for
growth and may even die in its presence.
Chemotrophs are the first organisms that appeared
on earth & that obtain energy by the oxidation of
electron donating molecules in their environments.
These molecules can be organic (organotrophs) or
inorganic (lithotrophs). The chemotroph utilize solar
energy and can be either autotrophic or heterotrophic.
42. (b) Darwing finches found on Galapagos islands differ
primarily in body size, feather colour, bill shape as
adaptation to type of food available. It is a type of
divergent evolution.
43. (d) The lightest atoms of nitrogen, carbon etc. formed
the primitive atmosphere, Hydrogen atoms were most
numerous and most reactive in primitive atmosphere.
Hydrogen atoms combined with all oxygen stoms to
form water leaving no free oxygen. Thus primitive
atmosphere was reducing atmosphere (without free
oxygen) unlike the present oxidizing atmosphere
(with free oxygen).
Fromation of ozone layer is the consequence of
modern oxidizing atmosphere leaving plenty of free
oxygen. As more oxygen accumulated in the
atmosphere (due to photosynthesis) ozone began
to appear in the top layers.
44. (b) The fossil of Java Ape-man was discovered from
pleistocene rocks in central Java. The fossil of Peking
man was discovered from the lime stone caves of
Choukoution near Peking while that of Heidelberg
man was discovered in mid pleistocene. All these
three fossils come under the category of
Homoerectus. Homo erectus appeared about 1.7
million years ago in middle pleistocene. H. erectus
evolved from Homo habilis. He was about 1.5-1.8
metres tall. He had erect posture. His skull was flatter
than that of modern man. He had protruding brow
ridges, small canines and large molar teeth. He made
more elaborate tools of stones and bones, hunted
big game and perhaps knew use of fire.
45. (d)
46. (c) Human embryo have gills shows ontogeny repeats
phylogeny. Ontogeny is the life history of an
organism while phylogeny is the evolutionary history
of the race of that organism. Modern theory of origin
of life was propounded by Oparin and Haldane which
is based on chemical evolution. Chemical evolution,
also called chemogeny, involves the synthesis of
simple organic molecules. Millers and Urey
experimentally supported Oparin and Haldane theory
with the help of stimulation experiment. Analogous
organ are those organs which are similar in shape
and function but their origin, basic plan and
development are dissimilar. Example - wings of
butterfly, bird and bat. Such similarities are because
of convergent evolution for adaptation to a common
condition.
47. (a) 48. (b)
49. (a) Saltation theory was given by de Vries who was a
Dutch botanist working with primroses. He believed
that a new species had suddenly sprung into
existence as a mutation. He theorized that new species
"saltated" (leaped), that is continually sprung into
existence. Oparin and Haldane give origin of life.
According to their theory, life evolved in the oceans
during a period when the atmosphere was reducing
- containing H2
, H2O, NH3
, CH4
, and CO2
, but no
free O2
. Reproductive fitness was given by Darwin.
Louis Pasteur was a French chemist and
microbiologist renowned for his discoveries of the
principles of vaccination, microbial fermentation and
pasteurization. According to him, life comes from
pre-existing life.
50. (d) Alfred Russel Wallace is best known for
independently conceiving the theory of evolution
through natural selection. His paper on the subject
was jointly published with some of Charles Darwin's
writings in 1858. Malthus wrote an Essay on the
Principle of Population, which describes how
unchecked population growth is exponential while
the growth of the food supply was expected to be
arithmetical. The Hardy-Weinberg principle states
that allele and genotype frequencies in a population
will remain constant from generation to generation
in the absence of other evolutionary influences. The
equation for genotype frequencies is:
p
2+ 2pq + q2
= 1. Industrial melanism is an effect of
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-165
urban pollution prominent in Biston betularia. It is
the phenomenon of an organism evolving dark
pigmentation when exposed to an environment
polluted by dark soot deposit and sulphuric buildup from industrial pollution. In this type of industrial
melanism, the darker pigmented individuals develop
a higher fitness and are favoured by natural selection.
51. (a) The theory of the continuity of the germplasm
published byAugust Weismann (1834-1914) in 1886.
It proposes that the contents of the reproductive
cells (sperms and ova) are passed on unchanged
from one generation to the next, unaffected by any
changes undergone by the rest of the body. It thus
rules out any possibility of the inheritance of
acquired characteristics, and has become
fundamental to Neo-Darwinian theory. Inheritance
of acquired characters was proposed by Lamarck.
Natural selection and theory of pangenesis was
proposed by Darwin.
52. (d) Homo sapiens - Arose in Africa and moved across
continents and developed into distinct races.
53. (d) Adaptive radiations - Darwin finches and marsupials.
Vertebrate's hearts and brains are the examples of
homologous organ.
54. (a) In 1953, scientist Stanley Miller performed an
experiment to explain what occurred on primitive Earth
billions of years ago. He sent an electrical charge
through a flask of a chemical solution of methane,
ammonia, hydrogen and water. This created organic
compounds including amino acids. In the given
diagram of Millers experiment, the correct
combination of the labels marked as A, B, C and D
are respectively electrodes, NH3
+ H2
+ H2O + CH4
,
liquid water in trap, vacuum pump.
55. (d) The given diagram explains the process of natural
selection and adaptive radiation in the wild bird species
diversity. Adaptive radiation s a process in which
organisms diversify rapidly into a multitude of new
forms, particularly when a change in the environment
makes new resources available, creates new challenges
and opens environmental niches. Darwin finches
represent one of the best examples of this phenomenon.
56. (d) The given diagram of marsupials of Australia
provides an example of divergent evolution.
Divergent evolution is the accumulation of
differences between groups which can lead to the
formation of new species. It is usually due to
diffusion of the same species to different and
isolated environments which blocks the gene flow
among the distinct populations allowing
differentiated fixation of characteristics through
genetic drift and natural selection.
57. (b) The graph A, B and C shows stabilizing, directional
and disruptive traits of natural selection. In stabilizing
selection, the median phenotype is selected during
natural selection and which does not tilt the bell curve
in any way. Instead, it makes the peak of the bell
curve even higher than what would be considered
normal. Directional selection of natural selection
derives its name from the shape of the approximate
bell curve that is produced when all individuals' traits
are plotted. Instead of the bell curve falling directly
in the middle of the axes on which they are plotted, it
tilts either to the left or the right by varying degrees.
Hence, it has moved in one direction or the other. In
disruptive selection instead of the bell curve having
one peak in the middle, it has two peaks with a valley
in the middle of them.
58. (a) In the given diagrammatic representation of the
evolutionary history of vertebrates through
geological periods, the geological periods marked
as A, B, C and D are respectively carboniferous,
triassic, cretaceous and quaternary. A geologic
period is a sub-division of geologic time enabling
cross-referencing of rocks and geologic events from
place to place.
59. (d) The given figure of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita
sows an example of homologous organ or divergent
evolution. Homologous organ are those organs which
are dissimilar in shape, size and function but their
origin, basic plan and development are similar. Other
examples in animals are fore limbs of frog, reptile,
birds and mammals. Such differences are due to
divergent evolution or adaptation for varied
conditions.
60. (d) The diagrams of two skulls of two different mammals
show that skull A is of an ape and skull B is of human.
61. (d)
62. (b) The given figures show the forelimbs of three
mammals which indicate the homology among
themselves. Homologous organs are those organs
which are dissimilar in shape, size and function but
their origin, basic plan and development are similar.
Such differences are due to divergent evolution or
adaptation for varied conditions.
63. (b) Birds having variety of beaks were found in the
Galapagos Islands and show the process of adaptive
radiation. Over time, an abundance of seeds for food
led to increased differences between the species.
Adaptive radiation is a process in which organisms
diversify rapidly into a mass of new forms, especially
when a change in the environment makes new
resources available, creates new challenges and
opens environmental niches.
64. (c) Homologous organs are those organs which are
anatomical similar but dissimilar in shape, size and
function.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-166 Biology
65. (b) The term evolution was given by Herbert Spencer
that is “descent with modifications”. Evolution helps
us to understand the history of life.
Evolution is a process in which something changes
into a different and usually more complete or better
form over time and in response to environment. This
results in descendents becoming different from
ancestors.
66. (c) The correct geological time scale of earth is
Precambrian (Era/Age of early life)
Palaeozoic (Age of fishes)
Mesozoic (Age of reptiles dinosaurs and cycads)
Coenozoic (Age of mammals)
Ø
Ø
Ø
A geological time scale is a diagram that details the
history of earths geology, noting major events like
the formation of the earth, the first life forms and
mass extinctions. The first geological time scale was
proposed in 1913 by the British geologist Arthur
Holmes (1890-1965).
The history of the earth has been subdivided into
eras, eras into periods and periods into major
divisions.
67. (b) Chemoheterotrophs were the first organisms. They
were prokaryotic like bacteria, anaerobes, as
molecular oxygen was absent. They obtained energy
by fermentation of some of the organic molecules
present in the broth. Thus, they absorbed organic
molecules from outside for body building and energy.
• Chemoautotrophs are those organisms that are
capable to synthesize organic molecules from
inorganic molecules. e.g., Nitrifying bacteria,
sulphur reducing bacteria etc.
• Autotrophs are photosynthesizing plants /
organisms.
68. (d) Nature selects those set of characters that are best
adapted to the environment. This has resulted in the
great diversity seen in the population of finches.
69. (b) The first scientific explanation of origin of life was
put forward by A.I. Oparin in 1923. J.B.S. Haldane
(1928), also made similar observation regarding the
origin of life. According to them primitive atmosphere
was reducing atmosphere because hydrogen atoms
(most numerous and most reactive) combined with
all available oxygen atoms to form water and leaving
no free oxygen. Therefore oxygen was not present
in the primitive atmosphere of the earth.
70. (a) Process of evolution of different species in a given
area starting from a point and radiating to other area
of geographical areas is called adaptive radiations.
Example : Darwin’s finches, Australian marsupials.
71. (b) The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different
patterns of structure, yet they perform similar
functions. This is an example of analogous organs.
Analogous organs have evolved due to convergent
evolution. Analogous organs have developed in the
evolutionary process through adaptation of quite
different organisms to similar mode of life.
72. (d) Archaeopteryx (meaning "ancient wing") is a very
early prehistoric bird, dating from about 150 million
years ago during the Jurassic period, when many
dinosaurs lived. It is one of the oldest-known birds.
Therefore fossils remains of Archaeopteryx indicate
that reptiles gave rise to birds during Jurassic.
73. (b) Archaeopteryx as a transition between dinosaurs
and modern birds. It is known as a missing
connecting link because it is a fossil and shows the
characters of birds and reptiles.
74. (a) Convergent evolution is the process whereby
organisms which are not closely related
independently evolve similar traits as a result of
capability to adapt to similar environments or
ecological niches. It is the independent evolution of
similar features in species of different lineages.
Convergent evolution creates analogous structures
that have similar form or function, but that were not
present in the last common ancestor of those groups.
75. (a) The concept of chemical evolution is based on
possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
under suitable environmental conditions. Chemical
evolution describes chemical changes on the
primitive Earth that gave rise to the first forms of life.
The first living things on Earth were prokaryotes
with a type of cell similar to present day bacteria.
Prokaryote fossils have been found in 3.4-millionyear old rock in the southern part of Africa, and in
even older rocks in Australia, including some that
appear to be photosynthetic.
76. (b) Natural selection is the Darwin's most famous theory
of evolution. Natural selection is the gradual process
by which transmissible biological traits become either
more or less common in a population as a function of
the effect of inherited traits on the differential
reproductive success of organisms interacting with
their environment. It is a key mechanism of evolution.
The shape of heal of Darwin finches, industrial
melanism or the changes in horse teeth are all
examples of natural selection.
77. (b) Stabilizing selection or balancing selection acts in
the absence of large scale environmental change or
directional change for long period. It favours an
intermediate form and eliminates the extreme variants.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-167
78. (d) Living fossils is a living species of organism that
appears to be similar to a species otherwise known
only from fossils without having any close living
relatives.
79. (b) Founder's effect is the loss of genetic variation that
occurs when a new population is established by a
very small number of individuals from a larger
population. As a result of the loss of genetic
variation, the new population may be distinctively
different, both genotypically and phenotypically,
from the parent population from which it is derived.
In extreme cases, the founder effect is thought to
lead to the speciation and subsequent evolution of
new species.
80. (c) According to Lamarckism (or Lamarckian
inheritance) an organism can pass on the
characteristics that it acquired during its lifetime.
According to Lamarck, a giraffe has a long neck
because its ancestors stretched their necks to get
the food.
81. (c) Biogeographical evolution is a process in which gene
pool of a population gradually changes in response
to environmental pressures, natural selection and
genetic mutations
82. (c) Hugo de Vries, a Dutch botanist, one of the
independent rediscoverers of Mendelism, put forward
his views regarding the formation of new species in
1901. According to him, new species are not formed
by continuous variations but by sudden appearance
of variations, which he named as mutations. Hugo de
Vriesstated that mutations are heritable and persist in
successive generations. He conducted his
experiments on Oenothera lamarckiana (evening
primrose).
83. (c) Binocular vision, smaller jaw and upright posture
are the main adaptations that led to evolution of man
from its ancestors. But during human evolution major
and most significant changes occurred in the cranial
capacity of man. In living modern man it is about
1450 cc compared to 500 cc in Australopithecus.
Increased cranial capacity accommodates larger brain
and forms the basis of social, cultural and
educational evolution of modern man.
84. (c) According to Darwin, two different areas within a
continent have different species because they have
different environments.
85. (d) The tendency of population to remain in genetic
equilibrium may be disturbed by lack of random
mating. Random mating is a mating between
individuals where the choice of partner is not
influenced by the genotypes. The mating of
individuals in a population such that the union of
individuals with the trait under study occurs
according to the product rule of probability.
86. (d) Speciation through reproductive isolation is one of
the important consequences of geographical isolation.
Geographical isolation is a group of plants, animals or
other living individuals being separated from mixing
genes within their same species. Geographical
isolation may ultimately lead to the populations
becoming separate species by adaptive radiation.
87. (a) Darwin fitness is the ability to survive and reproduce.
It is a type of natural selection that considers the
role relatives play when evaluating the genetic fitness
of a given individual. It is based on the concept of
inclusive fitness, which is made up of individual
survival and reproduction (direct fitness) and any
impact that an individual has on the survival and
reproduction of relatives (indirect fitness).
88. (b) In ancient period, hands were used to collect food
and to save themselves. Gradually men learnt to cook
food, make tools for their own purpose, this change in
habit brings perfection in their hand. Similarly, there is
an increase in the ability to comunicate with other and
develop community behaviour. Loss of tail took a great
role in course of evolution. But as in ancient period
men still eat hard nuts and hard roots (though they
often used to take soft food also). This change in diet
is the most irrelevant change in the evolution of man.
89. (a) Occurrence of natural selection and small size of
population do not met for a population to reach
Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. For Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium to be reached natural selection cannot
be occurring. If populations are undergoing natural
selection at the locus under consideration allele
frequencies will be changing in a specific direction
and changing continuously, Hardy-Weinberg
Equilibrium predicts that allele frequencies will stay
constant. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium assumes that
population size is very large.
90. (d) p
2
+ 2pq +q2
= 1is the equation associated with
Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium. In this equation p2
represents the frequency of individuals who are
homozygous for one allele, 2pq is the frequency of
heterozygous individuals, and q2
is the frequency of
individuals who are homozygous for the other allele.
p q
p p
2
pq
q q = pq q
2
Adding the cells of the table together will provides
with, p2
+ pq + pq + q2
= p2
+ 2pq + q2
.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-168 Biology
Cjãòvgt 30 : Jwïãp Jgãnvj ãpæ Dkõgãõg
1. (b) Widal test is used for the confirmation of typhoid
disease.
2. (b) Malaria is a protozoan disease, caused by
Plasmodium species. In case of malaria, there is
release of a toxic substance (called haemozoin) from
the ruptured RBCs which is responsible for the chill
and high fever.
3. (d) Malaria is a serious infectious disease caused by
four different species of a parasite belonging to genus
Plasmodium: Plasmodium falciparum (the most
deadly), Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae, and
Plasmodium ovale. It is characterized by recurrent
symptoms of chills, fever, and an enlarged spleen.
Malignant malaria is caused by P. falciparum.
4. (c) Pathogens for fungal disease called ring worm are
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton.
They are seen in groin, between toes, etc.
5. (a) Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), also called
filarial worms chronic inflammation of the organs in
which they live for many years, usually the lymphatic
vessels of the lower limbs. The disease caused by
them is known as elephantiasis or filariasis. The
genital organs are mainly affected, resulting in gross
deformities. The pathogens are transmitted to a
healthy person through the bite by the female
mosquito vectors.
6. (c) Food poisoning is an illness caused by bacteria or
other toxins in food. Symptoms which generally begin
within 2 to 6 hours include abdominal cramping,
diarrhoea, fever, headache, nausea, vomiting, and
weakness. Food poisoning is caused by Clostridium
botulinum.
7. (d) Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) is caused by
intestinal endoparasitic protozoan, Entamoeba
histolytica. Infection is transmitted by contamination
8. (a) Kala azar is a chronic and potentially fatal parasitic
disease of the viscera (the internal organs, particularly
the liver, spleen, bone marrow and lymph nodes) due
to infection caused by Leishmania donovani.
Leishmania donovani is transmitted by sand-fly
bites. Kala-azar is associated with fever, loss of
appetite (anorexia), fatigue, enlargement of the liver,
spleen and nodes and suppression of the bone
marrow.
9. (a) Tetanus, typhoid and tuberculosis are bacterial
diseases. Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani,
typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi and
tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
10. (a) Communicable diseases spread from one person to
another or from an animal to a person. The spread
often happens via airborne viruses or bacteria, but
also through blood or other bodily fluid. The terms
infectious and contagious are also used to describe
communicable disease. Communicable diseases
includes malaria, typhoid etc.
11. (a) Black water fever disease is caused by Plasmodium
falciparum which is also known as deadly tertian
malaria.
12. (a) Mumps is a viral disease caused by RNA containing
Paramyxo mumps virus. It involves painful swelling
of parotid glands due to which patient has difficulty
in swallowing and opening of mouth.
13. (b) Diphtheria is not transmitted through contaminated
water. Diphtheria, caused by Corynebacterium
diphtheriae is spread through droplet infection and
direct contact.
14. (a) AIDS is a disease in which there is a severe loss of
the body's cellular immunity, greatly lowering the
resistance to infection and malignancy. There is
always a time lag between the infection and
appearance of AIDS symptoms. This period may vary
from a few months to many years (usually 5 – 10
years).
15. (c) Infection is the invasion and multiplication of
microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and
parasites that are not normally present within the
body. An infection may remain localized, or it may
spread through the blood or lymphatic vessels to
become systemic. Microorganisms that live naturally
in the body are not considered infections. For
example, bacteria that normally live within the mouth
and intestine are not infections.
16. (d) Ascaris, an intestinal parasite causes ascariasis.
Symptoms of these disease include internal bleeding,
muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the
intestinal passage. The eggs of the parasite are
excreted along with the faeces of infected persons
which contaminate soil, water, plants, etc. A healthy
person acquires this infection through contaminated
water vegetables, fruits, etc.
17. (d) Leukemia is a group of cancers that usually begins
in the bone marrow and results in high numbers of
abnormal white blood cells. These white blood cells
are not fully developed and are called blasts or
leukemia cells. Symptoms may include bleeding and
bruising problems, tiredness, fever and an increased
risk of infections. These symptoms occur due to a
lack of normal blood cells.
18. (d) The examples of physiological barriers are
hydrochloric acid in stomach, saliva in mouth,
lysozyme in tears, saliva, etc.
19. (c) The examples of physiological barriers are
hydrochloric acid in stomach, saliva in mouth,
lysozyme in tears, saliva, etc.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-169
20. (b) Immunoglobulins (Ig), also known as antibodies, is
a large Y-shape protein. It is produced by plasma
cells and used by the immune system to identify and
neutralize foreign objects such as bacteria and
viruses. The antibody recognizes a unique part of
the foreign target, called an antigen.
21. (b) Antigen is a toxin or other foreign substance which
induces an immune response in the body, especially
in the production of antibodies. Antigens include
toxins, bacteria, foreign blood cells, and the cells of
transplanted organs. Antigens are present on the
cell surface.
22. (a) Interferon is a protein releases usually in response
to the entry of a virus. It has the property of inhibiting
virus replication. Interferon prevents the virus from
reproducing within the infected cells and can also
induce resistance to the virus in other cells.
23. (a) Cytotoxic cells a subset of T lymphocytes that bind
to other cells through MHCs and are involved in
their destruction. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kills
cancer cells, cells that are infected (particularly with
viruses), or cells that are damaged in other ways.
24. (a) The letter T in T lymphocytes refers to thymus.
25. (d) Allergy is the exaggerated response of the immune
system to certain antigens present in the
environment. The substances to which such as
immune is produced are called allergens.
26. (c) Passive immunity is a type of acquired immunity in
which readymade antibodies are transferred from one
individual to another. It is acquired through first
exposure to the disease.
27. (c) Autoimmunity is the memory based acquired
immunity, which is not able to distinguish foreign
molecules or cells (pathogen) from self-cells.
28. (b) Passive immunity is the short-term immunity which
results from the introduction of antibodies from
another person or animal, from the transfer of
antibodies through the placenta or from colostrum.
29. (c) Immunosuppressive drugs are those drugs that
inhibit or prevent activity of the immune system. They
are used in immunosuppressive therapy to: prevent
the rejection of transplanted organs and tissues
(e.g., bone marrow, heart, kidney and liver etc).
30. (c) Antigen binding site is a region on an antibody that
binds to antigens. It is composed of one constant
and one variable domain of each of the heavy and
the light chain. Antigen binding site in an antibody
is found in between one heavy and one light chain.
31. (a) Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like
histamine and serotonin from the mast cells.
32. (c) Resistance in body against diseases is given by
antibodies or immunoglobulins.
33. (a) The principle of vaccination is based upon the
memory of immune system. When a pathogen for
the first time infects a person; it produces primary
immune response which is of low intensity. When
the same pathogen attacks again, highly intensified
secondary (anamnestic) response is generated,
thereby preventing the occurrence of disease.
34. (a) Pyrogen is released in body during disease.
35. (c) Transfer of antibodies present in the mother’s milk
to the infant is an example of passive immunity.
36. (c) Preformed antibodies are derived from the blood
serum of previously infected people or animals. They
are often administered in an antiserum to another
person in order to provide immediate, passive
immunization against fast-acting toxins or microbes,
such as those in snakebites or tetanus infections.
37. (b) Vaccine for human hepatitis B virus was prepared
using antigen produced by recombinant technology
in yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae). Yeast-derived
vaccine was safe and was equally immunogenic and
protective against hepatitis B as plasma-derived
vaccine.
38. (a) Immune response by the B-cells by production of
antibody is called antibody mediated immune
response or humoral immune response. Here,
antibodies are found in blood plasma. So, it is called
as humoral immune response.
39. (c) The spleen is the site of interaction of lymphocytes
with the antigen. It is the organ that is responsible
for purifying the blood as well as storing blood cells.
It is the largest lymphatic organ in the body and
serves a valuable role in immune function because it
purifies the blood and helps the immune system with
recognize and attack foreign antibodies and disease.
40. (a) Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes are responsible
for the activation of lymphocytes present there and
cause the immune response. Antigen is a toxin or
other foreign substance which induces an immune
response in the body, especially the production of
antibodies.
41. (b) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease.
Autoimmune disease results when the immune
system attacks and destroys self cells and molecules.
Other examples are multiple sclerosis, insulin
dependent diabetes etc.
42. (d) Hepatitis B and AIDS are transmitted through
infected blood. Hepatitis B, poputarly called serum
hepatitis or transfusion hepatitis is caused by
hepatitis B virus. It is also called Dane parlicle.
Transmission of hepatites B includes blood (blood
transfusion), tattoos etc. AIDS is caused by HIV
which belongs to retrovirus. It is transmitted through
body fluids by sexual contact, infected blood shared
needles etc.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-170 Biology
43. (b) The human immunodeficiency virus is a lentivirus
that causes the acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome, a condition in humans in which
progressive failure of the immune system allows lifethreatening opportunistic infections and cancers to
thrive. HIV has a protein coat and a genetic material
which is single stranded RNA.
44. (d) HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that
attacks the immune system, the body's natural defense
system. White blood cells are an important part of the
immune system. HIV infects vital cells in the human
immune system such as helper T cells (specifically CD4+
T cells), macrophages, and dendritic cells.
45. (c) Cancer is not an immunity related disease. Cancer is
a disease caused by an uncontrolled division of
abnormal cells in the body. It may spread through
the lymphatic system or blood stream to other parts
of the body. It is a progressive disease, and goes
through several stages. Each stage may produce a
number of symptoms. Some symptoms are produced
early and may occur due to a tumor that is growing
within an organ or a gland. As the tumor grows, it
may press on the nearby nerves, organs, and blood
vessels. This causes pain and some pressure which
may be the earliest warning signs of cancer.
46. (c) Thymus gland is related with AIDS (the final stage
of HIV infection), because HIV decreases natural
immunity of the body by attacking T - lymphocytes.
T lymphocyte is a type of lymphocyte which is
produced or processed by the thymus gland and
actively participating in the immune response.
47. (a) ‘Helper T’ lymphocytes play a great role in regulating
the immune system. Damages to or destruction of
‘helper-T’ lymphocytes lead to the development of a
cellular immune deficiency which makes the patient
susceptible to wide variety of infections.
48. (c) Cancer is an abnormal, uncontrolled and unwanted
growth of cells. e.g. Breast cancer, leukemia. Cancer
is not a contagious disease. It is the major cause of
death in human beings.
49. (d) Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation
than normal cells because they are undergoing rapid
division. Radiation is energy that's carried by waves
or a stream of particles. Radiation works by damaging
the genes (DNA) in cells which control how cells
grow and divide. When radiation damages the genes
of cancer cells, they can't grow and divide any more.
Over time, the cells die. This means radiation can be
used to kill cancer cells and shrink tumors. Radiation
therapy is always a balance between destroying the
cancer cells and minimizing damage to the normal
cells.
50. (d) Metastasis is the pathological process of spreading
cancerous cells to the different part of the body. It is
exhibited by malignant tumors. These cells divide
uncontrollably, forming a mass of cells called tumor.
51. (d) Cancer is a disease caused by an uncontrolled
division of abnormal cells in the body. Techniques
like radiography (use of X-rays), CT scanning and
MRI are very useful to detect cancers of internal
organs. Computed tomography uses X–rays to
generate a three dimensional image of the internal
objects. MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non -
ionizing radiations to accurately detect pathological
and physiological changes in the living tissue.
52. (c) Drugs like anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids
quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.
53. (c) Rifampin is antibacterial prescribed in the treatment
of tuberculosis.
54. (c) Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), discovered in 1938,
is a hallucinogen. It is manufactured from lysergic
acid, which is found in ergot, a fungus (Claviceps
purpurea) that grows on rye and other grains. It is
odourless, colorless, and has a slightly bitter taste.
55. (b) Belladonna is a drug prepared from the dried leaves
and root of deadly nightshade poisonous plant,
Atropa belladonna, containing atropine and related
alkaloids. It is used in medicine to check secretions
and spasms, to relieve pain or dizziness, and as a
cardiac and respiratory stimulant.
56. (d) Bhang, ganja, charas (hashish), marijuana etc. are
hallucinogens.
57. (d) Narcotic drug are psychoactive compound with sleepinducing properties. They include mainly plant-based
products such as opium and its derivatives morphine,
codeine and heroin, but also synthetic narcotics such
as methadone and pethidine, as well as cannabis,
coca and cocaine.
58. (b) Cyclosporin is used as immunosuppresant.
It (Cyclosporin A) is a biologically active metabolite
obtained from Tolypocladium infatum and certain
other fungi. It has shown to prolong graft survival in
kidney, liver, heart and lung transplants.
59. (a) Opium is obtained from dried latex of unripe capsules
of Poppy plant (Papaver somniferum).
60. (d) Belladonna is a drug prepared from the dried leaves
and root of deadly nightshade poisonous plant,
Atropa belladonna, containing atropine and related
alkaloids.
61. (a) Natural cannabinoids are obtained from Cannabis
sativa (Hemp plant). Its flower tops, leaves and resin
are used to produce bhang, ganja, charas (hashish),
marijuana etc.
62. (b) Hashish and charas are obtained from Cannabis
satia. Cannabis sativa (bhang) is an annual
herbaceous plant in the Cannabis genus, a species
of the cannabaceae family.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-171
63. (c) Opium is a highly addictive narcotic drug acquired
in the dried latex form from the seed pod of opium
poppy (Papaver somniferum). Traditionally the
unripened pod is slit open and the sap seeps out
and dries on the outer surface of the pod. The
resulting yellow-brown latex, which is scraped off of
the pod, is bitter in taste and contains varying
amounts of alkaloids such as morphine, codeine, the
baine and papaverine.
64. (c) Ergot is a disease of rye and other cereal grasses,
caused by a fungus of the genus Claviceps,
especially C. purpurea, which replaces the affected
grain with a long, hard, blackish sclerotial body.
Therefore its drug is derived from the Claviceps.
65. (c) Cirrhosis is a complication of liver diseases which is
characterized by abnormal structure and function of
the liver. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by alcohol. There
are many causes of cirrhosis including chemicals
(such as alcohol, fat, and certain medications),
viruses, toxic metals (such as iron and copper that
accumulate in the liver as a result of genetic diseases),
and autoimmune liver disease in which the body's
immune system attacks the liver.
66. (b)
67. (d) LSD is obtained from Ergot fungus (Claviceps
purpurea). It is one of the most dangerous
hallucenogens of modern times.
68. (b) Injecting microbes during immunization induces
active immunity. Colostrum secreted from the mother
during the initial days of lactation has abundant
antibodies (IgA) to protect the foetus. This
protection provides passive immunity.
69. (b) (i) Heroine, commonly called as smack, is a white
colourless, bitter crystalline compound. This is
obtained by acetylation of morphine which is
extracted from the latex of the poppy plant,
Papaver somniferum.
(ii) Cocaine is obtained from the coca plant,
Erthyroxylum coca. Cocaine is commonly
called as coke or crack which is usually snored.
It has a potent stimulating action of euphoria
and increased energy. Its increased dosages
cause hallucinations.
(iii) Marijuana interferes with the transmission of
endogenous cannabinoids (anandamide).
(iv) Morphine is a very effective sedative and
painkiller. It is very useful in the patients who
undergone surgery.
70. (d) T lymphocyte is produced or processed by the
thymus gland and actively participating in the
immune response including the identification of
specific foreign antigens in the body and the
activation and deactivation of other immune cells.
There are three main types of T lymphocytes: helper
T cell which affects the production of antibodies by
B cells; suppressor T cell which suppresses B cell
activity; and cytotoxic T cells which kills cancer cells,
cells that are infected (particularly with viruses), or
cells that are damaged in other ways.
71. (b) Barbiturates are used to cope with mental illnesses
like depression and insomnia. Opium is the dried latex
obtained from the opium poppy (Papaver
somniferum). It is a highly narcotic drug. Morphine
is a very effective sedative and painkiller. It is very
useful in the patients who undergone surgery.
72. (a) Metastasis is the pathological process of spreading
cancerous cells to the different part of the body. It is
exhibited by malignant tumors.
73. (a) (iii) The B lymphocyte is responsible for producing
antibodies in response to pathogens into our
blood to fight with them.
(iv) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney
transplant does not depend on the specific
interferon, but on immune system. Interferon
is a protein released in response to the entry of
a virus, which has the property of inhibiting
virus replication. Interferon prevents the virus
from reproducing within the infected cells and
can also induce resistance to the virus in other
cells.
74. (a) (i) The HIV can be transmitted by sexual contact
with infected person, transfusion of
contaminated blood and blood products,
sharing infected needles as in case of
intravenous drug abusers and infected mother
to her child through placenta.
(ii) Drugs addicts are highly susceptible to HIV
infection.
(iii) AIDS patients can- not be fully cured after
taking proper care and nutrition.
75. (c) Morphine is a strong analgesic and sedative
extracted from the latex of poppy plant. They are
useful during surgery.
76. (b) Life cycle of Plasmodium starts with inoculation of
sporozoites (infective stage) through the bite of
infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Sporozoites
are found in saliva of infected female Anopheles
mosquitoes.
77. (d) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T lymphocytes
and damages large number of these, then one can
shows the symptoms of AIDS.
78. (c) Yeast has been used to produce hepatitis B vaccine
via recombinant DNA technology. Injection of snake
antivenom (containing preformed antibodies)
against snake bite is an example of passive
immunization. Injection of dead/inactivated
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-172 Biology
pathogens causes active immunity.
79. (b) Pneumonia and common cold both are communicable
diseases. Pneumonia is an infection that inflames
the alveolar air sacs in one or both lungs. The air
sacs may fill with fluid or pus (purulent material),
causing cough with phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and
difficulty breathing. A variety of organisms, including
bacteria, viruses and fungi, can cause pneumonia.
The most common cause of bacterial pneumonia is
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Common cold, caused by rhino virus, is a viral
infection of upper respiratory tract (nose and throat).
A common cold is usually harmless, although it may
not feel that way at the time. If it's not a runny nose,
sore throat and cough, it's the watery eyes, sneezing
and congestion, or maybe all of the above. There's
no cure for the common cold. Antibiotics are of no
use against cold viruses
80. (b) Cancerous cells appear to have lost the property of
contact inhibition.
81. (c) In general, as the concentration of HIV increases the
number of helper T cells destroyed increases causing
the cell count to fall.
82. (b) The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenaline, and
steroids quickly reduces the symptoms of allergy.
Allergy is a damaging immune response by the body
to a substance, especially a particular food, pollen,
fur, or dust, to which it has become hypersensitive.
83. (c) Cocaine is obtained from the coca plant,
Erthyroxylum coca. Cocaine is commonly called as
coke or crack which is usually snored. It has a potent
stimulating action of euphoria and increased energy.
It interferes with the transport of the neurotransmitter
dopamine. Its increased dosages cause hallucinations.
84. (b) Active immunity is the immunity which results from
the production of antibodies by the immune system
in response to the presence of an antigen. Active
immunity is slow and takes time to give its full
effective response. Injecting the microbes
intentionally during immunization or infectious
organisms gaining access into body during natural
infection induces active immunity.
85. (a) Humans are exposed to large number of infectious
agents. However, only a few of these exposures
result in disease due to the fact that the body is able
to defend itself from most of these foreign agents.
This overall ability of the host to fight the diseasecausing organisms conferred by the immune system
is called immunity.
86. (c) Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons
which protect non-infected cells from further viral
infection. Interferons are a group of related low
molecular weight regulatory cytokines produced by
certain eukaryotic cells in response to a viral
infection. Besides defending against viruses, they
also help to regulate the immune response.
87. (b) Artificially acquired passive immunity results when
antibodies or lymphocytes that have been produced
outside the host are introduced into a host. This
type of immunity is immediate short lived, lasting
only a few weeks to a few months. An example is
bone marrow transplant given to a patient with
genetic immunodeficiency.
88. (d): Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is only
partially effective. They can only prolong the life of
the patient but cannot prevent death. AIDS virus is
a retro virus with ssRNA as a genetic material.
89. (d) IgA is the most abundant class, constituting about
10 to 15 per cent of antibodies of serum. It is mainly
found in sweat, tears, saliva, mucus, colostrum (first
milk secreted by a mother) and gastrointestinal
secretions. IgG is the second most abundant class
of Ig in the body constituting approximately 8% of
the total Igs. It is found in the blood, lymph and
intestine.
90. (c) Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium
tuberculosis.
91. (c) Malaria is a vector borne disease that spreads by
biting of the female Anopheles mosquito.
92. (d) (a) Bhang – It is a preparation from the leaves and
flowers (buds) of the female cannabis plant,
consumed as a beverage.
(b) Cocaine – Cannabinoids, it is obtained from
the coca plant, Erthyroxylum coca. It interferes
with the transport of the neurotransmitter
dopamine. Cocaine is commonly called as coke
or crack.
(c) Morphine – It is an opioid analgesic drug. It is
the main psychoactive chemical in opium and
used as sedative and painkiller.
93. (b) AIDS - HIV (human deficiency virus - retrovirus)
Malaria - Plasmodium (protozoan)
Gonorrhoea - Neisseria gonorrhoeae (bacteria)
94. (c) A : Active natural immunity occurs when the person
is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease,
and becomes immune as a result of the primary
immune response.
B : First line of defense includes physical and
chemical barriers that are always ready and prepared
to defend the body from infection. These include
skin, tears, mucus, cilia, stomach acid, urine flow,
'friendly' bacteria and white blood cells called
neutrophils.
C : Passive natural immunity refers to antibodymediated immunity conveyed to a foetus by its
mother during pregnancy. This type of immunity is
short-lived, lasting the first six months of the
newborn's life.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-173
D : Second line of defense is carried on by WBC,
macrophages, inflammatory reactions, fever,
interferons and complement system. All these devices
operate together to check damage to the body by
pathogens.
95. (a) A : Amoebiasis refers to infection caused by
Entamoeba histolytica. It may cause dysentery and
invasive extra-intestinal disease.
B : Diphtheria is a bacterial (Corynebacterium
diphtheria) infection and spreads through
respiratory droplets (such as from a cough or sneeze)
of an infected person or someone who carries the
bacteria but has no symptoms.
C : Cholera is an infectious disease that causes severe
watery diarrhea, which can lead to dehydration and
even death if untreated. It is caused by eating food
or drinking water contaminated with a bacterium called
Vibrio cholerae.
D : Rabies is a viral illness spread via the saliva of an
infected animal. It is caused by the rabies (lassa)
virus which infects the brain and ultimately leads to
death.
96. (d) (a) Elephantiasis is caused by Wuchereria
bancrofti which is transmitted from human to
human via the female mosquito when it takes a
blood meal. The parasite grows into an adult
worm that lives in the lymphatic system of
humans.
(b) Malaria is caused by protozoan species called
Plasomodium that is passed from one human
to another by the bite of infected female
Anopheles mosquitoes.
(c) Typhoid fever (also known as enteric fever) is
an infectious disease caused by the bacteria
Salmonella typhi. It easily spreads through
contaminated food and water supplies and close
contact with others who are infected. It is
characterized by very high fever, sweating,
gastroenteritis, and diarrhoea.
97. (c) Physical barriers : E.g. skin and mucous coating of
the respiratory, gastro-intestinal and urinogenital
tracts prevent the entry of microbes into the body.
Physiological barriers : E.g. hydrochloric acid in
stomach, saliva in mouth, lysozyme in tears and saliva
etc.
Cellular barriers : E.g. polymorphonuclear
leucocytes (PMNL-neutrophils), macrophages, and
natural killer cells in the blood and tissues kill
pathogen by phagocytosis.
Cytokine barriers : Virus infected cells secrete
proteins called interferon which protect non-infected
cells from spread of viral infection.
98. (d) Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani while plague
is caused by Pasteurella pestis.
99. (d) A : Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts
of the body such as skin nails and scalp is the
symptoms of ringworm disease caused by
Microsporum. Ringworm is a fungal disorder.
B : Chronic inflammation of the lymphatic vessel of
lower limbs is the symptoms of elephantiasis disorder
which is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
C : Fever, chills, cough, headache and in severe cases
the lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in
colour are the symptoms of pneumonia. Pneumonia
is caused by Haemophilus influenzae and
Streptococcus pneumonia.
D : Constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stool
with excess mucous and blood clots are the
symptoms of amoebiasis. Amoebiasis is caused by
Entamoeba histolytica.
E : Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia
and blockage of intestinal passage are the symptoms
of ascariasis which is caused by common roundworm,
Ascaris lumbricoides.
100. (d) Molecule (i) represents structure of morphine.
Morphine is the most abundant alkaloid found in opium,
the dried sap (latex) derived from shallowly slicing the
unripe seedpods of the opium, or common and/or edible,
poppy Papaversomniferum. Morphine is a potent opiate
analgesic drug that is used to relieve severe pain.
101. (c) In the given figure showing the mode of action of
AIDS virus, the labeled sequence marked as A, B, C
and D are respectively, viral RNA introduced into
cell, viral DNA, viral DNA incorporates into the host
DNA and new viral RNA produced.
102. (c) Lymphatic system is the network of vessels through
which lymph drains from the tissues into the blood. In
the given figure of human lymphatic system, the parts
marked as A, B, C and D are respectively lymph nodes
(secondary lymphoid organ), thymus (primary
lymphoid organ), spleen (secondary lymphoid organ),
and bone marrow (primary lymphoid organ).
103. (a) In the given diagram of an antibody molecule the part
marked as A, B, C, D, E and F are respectively antigen
binding site, variable regions (of L chain), constant
region ( of L chain), light polypeptide chain (L chain),
heavy polypeptide chain (H chain) and disulfide bond.
104. (c) Rabies and mumps are caused by virus. Mumps is
caused by mumps virus while rabies is caused by
rabies virus.
105. (b) ELISA test (Enzyme-linked immune-sorbent Assay) is
done to diagnose AIDS. ELISA is a technique which
can detect and even quantitate extremely small. amount
of proteins antibodies or antigens with the help of
enzymes (peroxidases and alkaline phosphatase).
106. (c) Life cycle of Plasmodium starts with inoculation of
sporozoites (infective stage) through the bite of
infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.The parasite
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-174 Biology
initially multiplies within the liver cells and then
attacks the red blood cells (RBCs), resulting in their
rupture.There is release of a toxic substance called
haemozoin from the ruptured RBCs which is
responsible for the chill and high fever.
107. (c) Hormone produced during allergic reaction is
glucocorticoids. Allergic reactions typically have an
adrenal component. Cortisol, one of the primary
hormones produced by the adrenal glands, is a strong
anti-inflammatory agent. For this reason proper
adrenal function plays an important role in mediating
the histamine release and inflammatory reactions that
produce the symptoms experienced with allergies.
Glucocorticoids are part of the feedback mechanism
in the immune system that turns immune activity
(inflammation) down. They are therefore used in
medicine to treat diseases caused by an overactive
immune system, such as allergies, asthma,
autoimmune diseases, and sepsis.
108. (c) Vaccines produced through genetic engineering are
considered safe because they contain antibodies for
coat proteins only.
109. (a) Cholera is transmitted by food and water
contaminated with faeces. Hence, if you keep the
sanitary system around you clean, then it would not
probably break out.
110. (b) Poliomyelitis (polio) is a highly infectious viral
disease, which mainly affects young children. The
virus is transmitted by person-to-person and spread
mainly through the faecal-oral route or, less
frequently, by a common vehicle (e.g. contaminated
water or food) and multiplies in the intestine, from
where it can invade the nervous system and can
cause paralysis. In polio, the legs get paralyzed and
atrophied due to death of some muscles. Initial
symptoms of polio include fever, fatigue, headache,
vomiting, stiffness in the neck, and pain in the limbs.
111. (d) Alcohol consumption dilates blood vessels and
increases loss of body heat from the skin and may
cause a life-threatening decrease in core temperature
of the body called hypothermia.
112. (a) The antibodies could not solve all the problems of
bacteria mediated diseases because of the
development of mutant strains resistant to
antibodies.
113. (d) Pons varolii is not affected by alcohol. Alcohol not
broken down by the liver goes to the rest of the
body, including the brain. Alcohol can affect parts
of the brain (like cerebral cortex, cerebellum,
hypothalamus, pituitary and medulla) that control
movement, speech, judgment, and memory. These
effects lead to the familiar signs of drunkenness:
difficulty walking, slurred speech, memory lapses,
and impulsive behavior. Alcohol affects brain
chemistry by altering levels of neurotransmitters
(chemical messengers) that transmit the signals
throughout the body that control thought processes,
behaviour and emotion.
114. (d) Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons which cause
cancer.
115. (c) In alcoholism liver gets damaged as it accumulates
excess of fats.
116. (c) Diphtheria is a bacterial (Corynebacterium
diphtheria) infection and spreads through respiratory
droplets (such as from a cough or sneeze) of an infected
person or someone who carries the bacteria but has no
symptoms. It is a serious infection usually affecting the
mucous membranes of nose and throat.
117. (d) Mumps, cholera and TB, all are communicable
diseases. Mumps is caused by mumps virus, Cholera
is caused by a bacterium called, Vibrio cholerae,
and TB is caused by bacterium called
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
118. (b) Cholera is an infectious disease, caused by eating
food or drinking water contaminated with a bacterium
called Vibrio cholerae. It causes severe watery
diarrhoea, which can lead to dehydration and even
death if untreated. Therefore saline is given to
cholera patients because giving saline to a cholera
patient is a rehydration treatment.
119. (c) A person is injected with globulin against hepatitis.
This is an example of artificially acquired active
immunity. Artificially acquired active immunity can be
induced by a vaccine, a substance that contains antigen.
A vaccine stimulates a primary response against the
antigen without causing symptoms of the disease.
120. (d) Damage to thymus in a child may lead to loss of cellmediated immunity.
121. (c) The best HLA match for transplants in order of
preference is:
Twin > siblings > parent > unrelated donor
The human leukocyte antigen (HLA) system is the
locus of genes that encode for proteins on the surface
of cells that are responsible for regulation of the
immune system in humans. This group of genes
resides on chromosome 6, and encodes cell-surface
antigen-presenting proteins and has many other
functions. It is used to match the patient with a donor
for bone marrow or cord transplantation.
122. (d) Yellow fever and dengue are viral diseases, as well
as they are transmitted by mosquitoes.
123. (a) Ringworm is a skin infection caused by a fungus.
The Microsporum, pathogen responsible for
ringworm disease in human beings belongs to the
same kingdom as that of Rhizopus, a mould.
Rhizopus is a genus of common saprophytic fungi
on plants and specialized parasites on animals. They
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-175
are found on a wide variety of organic substrates,
including "mature fruits and vegetables", jellies,
syrups, leather, bread, peanuts and tobacco.
124. (d) Health is the state of being free from illness or injury.
Mind and mental state can affect the health. Health
is also affected by genetic disorders (deficiencies
with which a child is born and deficiencies or defects
which the child inherits from their parents);
infections; and life style including food and water
we take, rest and exercise we give to our bodies,
habits that we have or lack.
125. (a) Along the symptoms, facts (i) and (iii) confirmed that
the person is suffering from typhoid fever. Typhoid
fever (also known as enteric fever) is an infectious
disease caused by the bacteria Salmonella typhi. It
easily spreads through contaminated food and water
supplies and close contact with others who are
infected. It is characterized by very high fever,
sweating, weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
headache and loss of appetite.
Cjãòvgt 31 : Uvtãvgékgõ hqt Epjãpegïgpv kp
Èqqæ Rtqæwevkqp
1. (b) It is estimated that more than 70 percent of the world
livestock population is in India and China. However,
the contribution to the world farm produce is only 25
percent i.e the productivity per unit is very low.
2. (b) When breeding is between animals of the same breed it
is called inbreeding which is for 4 - 6 generation, while
crosses between different breeds are called outbreeding.
3. (c) Inbreeding depression is the reduced biological
fitness in a given population as a result of inbreeding
i.e., breeding of related individuals. However,
continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding
usually reduce fertility and even productivity.
4. (a) Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in
Punjab by the method of cross-breeding. In this
method, superior males of one breed are mated with
superior females of another breed.
5. (d) The mule is a hybrid between male donkey and
female horse. It is the result of interspecific
hybridization in which crossing is done between the
members of different species. Mules show hybrid
vigour. They are sturdier than the horse and larger
than donkeys. Both male and female mules are
infertile.
6. (a) To improve the chances of successful mating for the
production of better breeds, a new technology, called
Multiple Ovulation and Embryo Transfer technology
(MOET) is being used for cattle and other animals.
7. (c) Stage of 8 to 32 celled embryos are transferred to
surrogate mothers in livestock breeding experiments.
It is a stage under MOET (multiple ovulation embryo
transfer technology). MOET is a programme for herd
improvement.
8. (c) Apiculture or bee-keeping is rearing of honey bees
for the production of honey and wax at commercial
level. Apis indica is the most commonly domesticated
honey bee in India.
9. (a) The raising and care of bees for commercial or
agricultural purposes is called apiculture. Apis indica
is reared in artificial hives or beehive because of its
docile nature and friendly temperature.
10. (d) Labeo rohita (Rohu), Catla catla (Catla), Mystus
cinghala (Singhara), Clarias batracus (Magur),
Wallago attu (Malli), Heteropneustes (Singhi) and
common carps (fam. Cyprinidae) are all fresh water
fishes.
11. (d) Harpodon (Bombay duck), Hilsa, salmon, mackerel,
sardine, Stromateus (Pomphret) are marine fishes.
Marine fishes deals with fishery aspects of the sea
water or oceans.
12. (b) India is mainly an agricultural country. Agriculture
accounts for approximately 33 percent of India's GDP
and employs nearly 62 percent of the population.
After India's independence, one of the main
challenges facing the country was that of producing
enough food for the increasing population.
13. (a) Plant breeding refers to the modification and
improvement of genetic material of plants resulting
in the development of crops which are more beneficial
to human beings.
Crossing between the two genetically diverse parents
to obtain a progeny with the desired traits is called
hybridization.
14. (c) Pusa swarnim is a variety of Brassica which is
resistant to white rust disease. Himgiri is a variety
of wheat and resistant to leaf and stripe rust. Pusa
komal is a variety of cowpea, resistant to bacterial blight.
Pusa sadabahar is a variety of chilli, resistant to chilli
mosaic virus, tobacco mosaic virus and leaf curl.
15 (d) Pusa Snowball K–1 and Pusa Shubhra are varieties
of cauliflower and resistant to black rot and curl blight
black rot diseases.
16. (c) Mutation is a sudden stable and heritable change
which alters the genotype of an organism. In mung
bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery
mildew were induced by mutations.
17. (c) Cobalt 60 is the synthetic radioactive isotope of
cobalt. Gamma rays are produced when an unstable
atomic nucleus like cobalt-60 releases energy to gain
stability. Sharbati Sonora and Pusa Lerma are the
two important varieties of wheat that are produced
by gamma ray treatment of Sonora-64 and Lerma
Rojo-64 which are Mexican dwarf wheat varieties.
18. (d) Plant breeding refers to the modification and
improvement of genetic material of plants resulting
in the development of crops which are more beneficial
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-176 Biology
to human beings. Out-crossing, out-breeding and
cross-breeding comes under animal breeding.
19. (c) Germplasm collection is the entire collection of
plants/ seeds having all the diverse alleles for all
genes in a given crop. Germplasm is a term used to
describe living genetic resources such as seeds or
tissue, maintained for the purpose of breeding,
preservation, and other research uses.
20. (d) A. esculentus (called prabhani kranti) is a yellow vein
mosaic resistant new variety which is obtained when
resistance gene are transferred from a wild species
against yellow mosaic virus in Abelmoschus
esculentus. It is derived from the back cross of
Abelmoschus manihot x A. esculentus. Two back
crosses were made using Pusa sawani (A. esculentus)
as a recurrent parent followed by selection in the
subsequent generations. It is a yellow vein mosaic
virus (YVMy) resistant variety isolated in F8
generation.
21. (d) Maize stem borer is the most notorious pest of maize
crop which damages the crop considerably and
reduces the yield by 10-20% but sometimes the losses
may be up to 80%. High aspartic acid, low nitrogen
content and low sugar content are some factors which
are responsible for resistance to maize stem borer.
22. (b) Atlas 66 has been used as a donor for improving
cultivated wheat. It is a cultivar i.e a plant variety
that has been produced in cultivation by selective
breeding so it contains desired characters such as
more than one Al tolerance gene. So plant breeders
can use seeds of Atlas 66 and then cross breed it
with another plant having another desired character.
In this way there would be improvement in cultivated
wheat.
23. (b) Totipotency is the ability of a cell, such as an egg, to
give rise to unlike cells and to develop into or
generate a new organism or part. Plant cells are also
totipotent, which helps to explain why a graft of a
plant can generate a whole new individual out of
just a small branch cutting.
24. (c) The part of the plant which is used in tissue culture is
called explant. It may be excised root tips, shoot bud, leaf
petiole, inflorescence, anther, ovule, ovary or embryo.
25. (a) Micropropagation is the practice of rapidly
multiplying stock plant material to produce a large
number of progeny plants, using modern plant tissue
culture methods under controlled aseptic physical
conditions. Types or processes of micropropagation
are: micropropagation by axillary and apical buds;
by axillary shoots (buds, bulbs and protocorms);
through callus culture; artificial seeds and
somaclonal variations.
26. (b) Culture of fused protoplasts produce somatic hybrid
cells and the process of producing somatic hybrids
is called somatic hybridization.
27. (a) Inbreeding is mating of individuals closely related
by ancestry. Inbreeding is used in developing pure
lines or homozygous lines.
28. (d) All the given statements are correct.
Haploid culture, developed by Guha and
Maheshwari is highly useful for immediate expression
of mutations and fast formation of pure lines. A line
consists of a group of individuals which are related
to descent and have similar genotypes. Mutation is
the changing of the structure of a gene, resulting in
a variant form due to alteration of single base units
in DNA or the deletion, insertion, or rearrangement
of larger sections of genes or chromosomes. Such
variants may be transmitted to subsequent
generations.
29. (d) All the given statements are correct.
30. (d) In 2000, maize hybrids that had twice the amount of
the amino acids, lysine and tryptophan, compared
to existing maize hybrids were developed. Some of
the diseases caused by fungi are brown rust of wheat,
red rot of sugarcane, late blight of potato, etc. Black
rot of crucifers is caused by bacteria and tobacco
mosaic and turnip mosaic are caused by viruses.
31. (d) Spirulina is a single cell protein rich in protein,
vitamins and minerals. 250 gram biomass of
Methylophilus methylotrophus produces 25 tonn
protein/day while a cow of 250 kg. produces only
200 gm. protein/day. Common button mushrooms are
a very rich source of vitamin D. A rice variety has
been developed which is very rich in iron content.
32. (c) Pusa Sawani variety of Okra is resistant to shoot
and fruit borer.
33. (c) Animal husbandary is the agricultural practice of
breeding and raising livestock by applying scientific
principles.
34. (d) Inbreeding increases homozygosity to develop a pure
line animal.
35. (c) All the given statements are related to outcrossing.
Outcrossing refers to mating of unrelated individuals.
Inbreeding is the production of offspring from the
mating or breeding of individuals or organisms that
are closely related genetically. Outbreeding is the
practice of introducing unrelated genetic material into
a breeding line. Cross breeding is the process of
mating of animals with another species, or of causing
plants to reproduce with another species.
36. (a) Pisciculture refers to the breeding, hatching and
rearing of fishes under controlled conditions whereas
aquaculture is the cultivation of aquatic organisms
such as algae, fishes, prawns, shrimps, crabs and
pearl-oysters etc. at commercial level by proper
utilization of small and large water bodies. The
development and flourishing of the fishery industry
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-177
is called blue revolution.
37. (a)
38. (c) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona were high yielding and
disease resistant crops. Saccharum barberi had poor
sugar content and yield, but was originally grown in
north India.
39. (b) Pisciculture is the controlled breeding and rearing of
fish. Apiculture is the raising and caring of bees for
commercial or agricultural purposes. Tissue culture
is the process or technique of making body tissue
which grow in a culture medium outside the organism.
Green revolution is a large increase in crop
production in developing countries achieved by the
use of artificial fertilizers, pesticides, and highyielding crop varieties. Blue revolution is the rapid
increase of fish production in small ponds and water
bodies.
40. (c) Hidden hunger is a nutritional deficiency which is
caused by lack of balance in a full diet. Biofortification is the method of breeding staple crops
to obtain higher levels of essential nutrients, either
through selective breeding or genetic modification.
Single cell protein refers to those proteins which are
extracted from pure culture or mixed cultures of
microorganisms such as algae, yeast, fungi or
bacteria. These extracted proteins are used as a
substitute. Totipotency is the ability of a cell that is
capable of developing into a complete organism or
differentiating into any of its cells or tissues.
Micropropagation is the propagation of plants by
growing plantlets in tissue culture and then planting
them out. Somaclones are genetically induced plants
which are produced by a genetic engineering
technique. In this process single cells or protoplasts
are cultured to produce individuals which are
genetically variable from their genetically stable
parent.
41. (d) Semi dwarf wheat was developed by Nobel laureate
Norman E. Borlaug. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are
the varieties of semi dwarf wheat which are high
yielding and disease resistance. Semi dwarf rice was
derived from IR - 8. Examples are IR 8, Jaya, Taichung
Native - 1 and Ratna.
42. (b) Selection and hybridization are the conventional
method of breeding for disease resistance. Some
crops were bred by the above mentioned technique
for disease resistance to fungi, bacterial and viral
diseases. For examples: wheat (leaf and stripe rust,
hill bunt), Brassica (white rust), cowpea (bacterial
blight), cauliflower (black rot and curl blight black
rot), chilli (tobacco mosaic virus and leaf curl).
43. (c) Pusa komal is a variety of cowpea which is resistant
to bacterial blight disease. Pusa shubhra and Pusa
Snowball K-1 are varieties of cauliflower resistant
to black rot and curl blight black rot diseases.
44. (b) Pusa sadabahar is a variety of chilli while Pusa komal
is a variety of cowpea.
45. (c) Cytokinins is a plant hormone. It is a derivative of
purine adenine. Made in the roots (also seeds and
fruits), cytokinins travel up the xylem and promote
lateral growth. Cytokinins have been found in all
complex plants, as well as mosses, fungi, and
bacteria. Cytokinins promote cell division in plant
roots and shoots, and they promote the growth of
buds.
46. (d) The raising and care of bees for commercial or agricultural purposes is called apiculture.
Sericulture is the breeding and management of silkworm and the raw silk they produce.
Pisciculture is the controlled breeding and rearing of
fish. Aquaculture (also known as fish or shellfish
farming) refers to the breeding, rearing, and
harvesting of plants and animals in all types of water
environments including ponds, rivers, lakes, and the
ocean.
47. (a) Somatic embryos are non- zygotic embryo like
structures that develop into from any type of tissue
in plant tissue culture.
48. (b) Fish meal obtained from the non-edible parts is a
good source of protein for poultry and cattle.
49. (d) Protoplast culture results in the production of somatic
hybrid plants, an important technique of tissue
culture.
50. (c) Meristem tissue culture involves removal of meristem
and growth in vitro. This is how virus free plants can
be obtained.
51. (b) An important technique of tissue culture, somatic
hybridization results in the production of somatic
hybrid plants. Two different plant varieties each with
a desirable character can be made to undergo
protoplast fusion, which further can be grown into a
new plant.
52. (b) The above figures of maize, wheat and garden pea
are some Indian hybrid crops. The term "hybrid"
refers to a plant variety which is developed through
the interbreeding of two or more varieties, genera or
species. Though hybrids contain the best properties of the parent plants, they usually do not breed
true and often revert to one of the parent plants.
Hybrids are favoured for greater disease resistance,
more vigorous growth, earlier maturity, higher quality of vegetables, better uniformity and improved
flavour.
53. (c) Callus culture is a type of in vitro plant tissue culture.
The process is carried out under controlled
conditions. The selected cell, tissue or organ is called
explant. The number of cells increases through cell
division. However, these cells are unorganized and
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-178 Biology
collectively constitute a callus. They are maintained
on agar-agar gel. Growth promoters like auxin and
cytokinins are added to the culture. Under these
conditions, the cells become meristematic and begin
to divide. Callus is obtained within 2 to 3 weeks.
54. (a) For sugarcane crop, farmer looks for its thick stem, long
internodes, high sugar content and disease resistance.
55. (c) The biggest compulsion of plant breeding is transfer
of genes from unrelated sources. Plant breeding is
the purposeful manipulation of plant species to create
desired genotypes and phenotypes for specific
purposes. This manipulation involves either
controlled pollination, genetic engineering, or both,
followed by artificial selection of progeny.
56. (d) High milk yielding varieties of cows are obtained by
super ovulation, artificial insemination and use of
surrogate mothers. In artificial insemination, semen
of a selected male is artifically deposited into the
vagina of a selected female. Multiple Ovulation
Embryo Transfer (MOET) is a program which
improves the chances of successful production of
hybrids. It involves the stimulation of healthy and
high-milk yielding breed of female animals by
injecting gonadotrophic hormones to release more
eggs from the ovaries. Embryo at 8-32 celled stage
can be recovered non-surgically from the female and
then transferred into the surrogate females for
implantation and further development.
57. (a) Improvement of crop varieties is a permanent measure
which creates genetic potentiality in crop plants for
higher & better yield. Steps of crop improvement are
as follow :
Plants with superior traits are indentified
¯
Cross-hybridization between the selected plants
¯
Plants with superior traits among the progeny are
selected
¯
Again cross hybridization between the superior
hybrids is carried out while eliminating the plants
with less beneficial traits.
58. (a) Explants that contain pre-existing shoot meristems
and produce shoots from them are used in meristem
culture. The virus free clones can be obtained from a
virus infected plant by tissue culture since virus is
trans-located through sieve tubes. The apical
meristem of virus infected plant remains free of virus.
The shoot apex of such plant can be cultured.
59. (c) Selective breeding (also called artificial selection) is
the process by which humans can breed animals and
plants for particular traits. Typically, strains that are
selectively bred are domesticated, and the breeding
is normally done by a professional breeder.
60. (d) Any alteration from the healthy structure and normal
physiological activities of the plant body is called
plant disease. The consequences of the plant
diseases are reduced yield, lower quality of produce,
increased cost of production and poisonous
produce.
61. (c) Sharbati Sonora is mutant yielding variety of wheat
developed from Sonora 64 by irradiation with gamma
rays.
62. (c) Plants derived sexually from the same plant are
different while those derived from somatic tissue
from the same plant are identical.
63. (a) Callus is an unorganised mass of parenchyma cells.
Callus cells are those cells that cover a plant wound
and whose formation is induced from plant tissues
after surface sterilization and plating onto in vitro
tissue culture medium. Plant growth regulators, such
as auxins, cytokinins, and gibberellins are
supplemented into the medium to initiate callus
formation or somatic embryogenesis.
64. (d) In crop improvement programme, haploids are very
important because they form perfect homozygotes
which are helpful to get a pure line.
65. (c) Animal biotechnology is the use of science and engineering to modify living organisms. This technique
makes products to improve animals and to develop
microorganisms for specific agricultural uses. In vitro
fertilization and embryo transfer are the techniques
which are used in animal biotechnology to require
the rapid multiplication and production of animals
with a desirable trait.
In vitro fertilization is the joining of a woman's egg
and a man's sperm in a laboratory dish. Embryo transfer refers to a step in the process of assisted reproduction in which embryos are placed into the uterus
of a female with the intent to establish pregnancy.
66. (d) Sustainable agriculture is the preparation, management and successful use of bio - resources in agriculture to meet the present demand without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their
own needs. The way in which biotechnology has
contributed to sustainable agriculture is biofertilizers,
bio - pesticides, single cell protein and disease and
insect resistant varieties.
67. (b) An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice gives
high yield and is rich in vitamin A.
68. (a) Cellular totipotency is the ability, shown by many
living cells to form all types of tissue that constitute
the mature organism.
69. (a) Plant can be made disease resistant by breeding with
their wild relatives.
70. (c) Genetic diversity refers to the variety of genes within
a species. Each species is made up of individuals
having their own particular genetic composition.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-179
Within a species there may also be discrete populations with distinctive genes. Introduction of high
yielding varieties is the greatest threat to genetic
diversity in agricultural crops.
71. (a) Crop improvement proposes to obtain crops with
higher yield, better quality, resistance to disease and
shorter duration which are suitable to particular
environmental conditions. Introduction, hybridization
and mutations are methods of plant breeding.
72. (d) Somaclonal variation is a genetic variation present
among plant cells of a culture. It has been used to
develop several useful varieties. It usually appears
in tissue culture raised plants.
73. (b) Totipotency is the capability of a cell to develop into
a complete organism or differentiating into any of its
cells or tissues. Totipotent cells serve the same role
in plants that stem cells do in animals. They are found
in shoot and root growing tips as meristems, and in
the cambium layer (the layer of cells between the
bark and the wood) of woody plants and trees. All of
the structures found in a mature or growing plant are
the result of cellular material produced by meristematic tissue.
74. (d) Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in
Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
Cross breeding is a method in which superior male
of one breed is mated with superior females of another breed. It allows the desirable qualities of two
different breeds to be combined.
75. (a) The process by which protoplasts of two different
plant species fuse together to form hybrids is known
as somatic hybridization and the hybrids so produced
are known as somatic hybrids. Somatic hybrids are
used in gene transfer, transfer of cytoplasm and
production of useful alloploids.
Cjãòvgt 32 : Oketqdgõ kp Jwïãp Ygnhãtg
1. (b) Curd contains numerous lactic acid bacteria (LAB)
or Lactobacillus. These bacteria produce acids that
coagulate and digest milk proteins.
2. (a) Role of lactic acid bacteria (LAB) in stomach is
beneficial. These microorganisms have the specific
property of transforming sugars almost completely
into lactic acid and acetic acid that decrease the pH
of the intestines and produce substances that
suppress harmful bacteria. They are abundant in
nature and are essential for human and animal
survival.
3. (b) Curd contains numerous lactic acid bacteria (LAB)
or Lactobacillus. These bacteria produce acids that
coagulate and digest milk proteins. It improves its
nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12.
4. (c) Escherichia coli is a gram-negative, facultatively
anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium of the genus
Escherichia. It is commonly found in the lower
intestine of warm-blooded organisms (also called
endotherms).
5. (a) The dough, which is used for making bread, is
fermented by using baker’s yeast (Saccharomyces
cerevisiae). The puffed up appearance of dough is
due to the production of CO2
gas.
6. (c) Cheese is prepared by the coagulation of casein and
other minor milk proteins by an enzyme rennin.
Rennin is extracted from the calf gastric mucosa.
Streptococcus and Lactobacillus species are
involved in the manufacture of most cheese. In
cheese manufacture, these microorganisms are
important in both souring and ripening processes.
7. (a) Louis Pasteur was a French chemist and
microbiologist renowned for his discoveries of the
principles of vaccination, microbial fermentation and
pasteurization.
8. (d) Saccharomyces is a genus in the fungi kingdom that
includes many species of yeast. Many members of
this genus are considered very important in food
production. It is known as the brewer's yeast or
baker's yeast. This type of yeast is unicellular and
saprophytic fungi, example Saccharomyces
cerevisiae, which is used in making wine, bread, idli
and beer.
9. (a) Large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production
of CO2
by Propionibacterium sharmanii (a
bacterium).
10. (c) Yeast is used in the making of alcohol. For many
years, the only source of ethanol for industrial use
was from the fermentation of sugars by yeast. The
basic reaction of this conversion involves the
breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and ethanol.
The glucose is converted to pyruvic acid and the
pyruvic acid may be converted into many different
end products such as ethanol, lactic acid, etc.
11. (c) Zymase is an enzyme complex that catalyzes the
fermentation of sugar into ethanol and carbon
dioxide. It occurs naturally in yeasts. Its activity
varies among yeast strains.
12. (a) Fermentation is defined as an energy yielding
process whereby organic molecules serve as both
electron donors and electron accepters. The molecule
being metabolized does not have all its potential
energy extracted from it. Beer and wine are produced
by fermenting glucose with yeast. Yeast contains
enzymes that catalyse the breakdown of glucose to
ethanol and carbon dioxide.
13. (a) Streptokinase are produced by Streptococcus and
are used as a ‘clot buster’ to remove clots from the
blood vessels of patients who have myocardial
infarction.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-180 Biology
14. (c) Cyclosporin A, a powerful immunosuppressive
agent, is used in the treatment of organ transplant
patients.
15. (d) Cyclosporin A, a powerful immunosuppressive
agent, is used in the treatment of organ transplant
patients. It has been used with initial success in
recipients of kidney, liver, bone marrow and pancreas
transplants, and it may also have clinical application
in the treatment of autoimmune disorders.
16. (c) Statin is a lipid-lowering drug that reduces serum
cholesterol levels by inhibiting a key enzyme
involved in the biosynthesis of cholesterol. Statins
are obtained from Monascus purpureus.
17. (d) Statins are produced by Monascus purpureus, yeast
and used as blood-cholesterol lowering agents. It
inhibits the enzymes responsible for synthesis of
cholesterol.
18. (d) Monascus purpureus is a yeast used in the
production of statins. Statins are used in lowering
blood cholestrol.
19. (d) Fermentor is an apparatus that maintains optimal
conditions for the growth of microorganisms, used
in large-scale fermentation and in the commercial
production of antibiotics and hormones.
20. (a) Sewage is a waste material (like human urine and
faeces) that is carried away from homes and other
buildings in a system of pipes. Sewage treatment is
the process of removing contaminants from
wastewater which is done by heterotrophic microbes
naturally present in sewage.
21. (c) Antibiotics are medicines that are produced by
certain microorganisms to kill other disease causing
microorganisms. These medicines are commonly
obtained from bacteria and fungi.
22. (a) Primary treatment of sewage is a physical process
and concerned mainly with the removal of coarse
solid materials through filtration and sedimentation.
23. (d) Primary sludge is used for the preparation of compost,
manure and biogas production. Primary sludge is a
result of the capture of suspended solids and
organics in the primary treatment process through
gravitational sedimentation. The secondary
treatment process uses microorganisms to consume
the organic matter in the wastewater. The
microorganisms feed on the biodegradable material
in the wastewater in the aeration tank then flow into
a secondary clarifier where the biomass settles out
and removed as secondary sludge.
24. (b) The primary effluent is passed into large aeration
tanks and constantly agitated to allow vigorous
growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs.
25. (b) BOD is the method of determining the amount of
oxygen required by microorganisms to decompose
the waste present in the water supply. It is a measure
of organic matter present in the water.
26. (b) BOD refers to biological oxygen demand. It is the
method of determining the amount of oxygen
required by microorganisms to decompose the waste
present in the water supply.
27. (d) Activated sludge is a mass of microorganisms
cultivated in the treatment process to break down
organic matter into carbon dioxide, water, and other
inorganic compounds. The activated sludge process
has three basic components: i) a reactor in which the
microorganisms are kept in suspension, aerated, and
in contact with the waste they are treating; ii. liquidsolid separation and iii. a sludge recycling system
for returning activated sludge back to the beginning
of the process.
28. (d) The major component of biogas is methane (about
50-68%) which is highly inflammable . The other
gases are carbon dioxide (25 - 35%), hydrogen (1 -
5%), nitrogen (2 - 7%), oxygen (0 - 0.1%) and rarely
hydrogen sulfide. Biogas is a “mixture of gases”
produced from degradable organic matter by the
activity of various anaerobic bacteria that offers a
low cost alternative for energy requirements.
29. (a) The Ministry of Environment and Forests has
initiated Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan
to save major rivers of India from water pollution.
30. (c) Methanobacterium, a common bacteria of
methanogens, is found in the anaerobic sludge during
sewage treatment and rumen of cattle (for cellulose
digestion).
31. (a) The technology of biogas production was developed
in India mainly due to the efforts of Indian Agricultural
Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi and Village
Industries Commission (KVIC).
32. (c) Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been
produced by inserting a piece of DNA from
bacterium. Pest resistant genetically modified crops
(primarily cotton and maize) have been genetically
modified so they are toxic to certain insects. They
are often called Bt crops because the introduced
genes were originally identified in a bacterial species,
Bacillus thuringiensis. These bacteria produce a
group of toxins called Cry toxins.
33. (c) Microbial biocontrol agent that can be introduced in
order to control butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt). They are sprayed onto
vulnerable plants, where they are eaten by the insect
larvae. In the gut of the larvae, the toxin is released
and the larvae get killed. The bacterial disease will kill
the caterpillars, but leave other insects unharmed.
34. (b) Trichoderma is a free-living saprophytic fungi that
most commonly lives on dead organic matter in the
soil and rhizosphere (root ecosystem). It inhibits
pathogens through release of gliotoxin, viridin,
gliovirin and trichodermin like substances.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-181
35. (c) Baculoviruses are a family of rod-shaped viruses that
belong to genera-Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
Baculoviruses attacks insects and other arthropods
and the majority of them are used as biological
control. They are extremely small and composed of
circular, double stranded DNA that codes for genes
needed for virus establishment and reproduction.
36. (c) Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) is one of the major
components of the nitrogen fixing biomass in the
paddy (rice) field. The agricultural importance of
cyanobacteria in rice cultivation is directly related
with their ability to fix nitrogen and other positive
effects for plants and soil.
37. (a) Anabaena is the free-living nitrogen fixing
cyanobacteria that forms symbiotic association with
Azolla.
38. (a) Biofertilizers are living organisms, which help
increase the fertility of soil. It involves the selection
of beneficial microorganisms like bacteria, fungi,
cyanobacteria, etc.
39. (d) Symbiotic association is exhibited by mycorrhiza and
Rhizobium.
40. (b) Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungi (e.g.
the genus of Glomus) with plants. The fungus gets
food from the plant while the fungal symbionts
absorb phosphorous from soil and passes it to the
plant. Also, they give resistance to root-borne
pathogens and tolerance to salinity and drought.
Hence, they give an overall increase in plant growth
and development.
41. (c) Baculoviruses are suitable for species-specific,
narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.
42. (a) BOD is the method of determining the amount of
oxygen required by microorganisms to decompose
the waste present in the water supply. It is a measure
of organic matter present in the water. If the quantity
of organic wastes in the water supply is high then
the number of decomposing bacteria present in the
water will also be high. As a result, BOD value will
increase.
43. (d) Antibiotic is a chemical substance, produced by some
microbes and kills the growth of other disease
causing microbes. Each antibiotic is effective against
all kinds of germs.
44. (b) Animal excreta and organic waste from kitchen lead
to pollution which can be most profitably minimised
by using them or producing biogas. Biogas is a
mixture of gases produced by microbial activity and
which may be used as fuel.
45. (d) Mycorrhiza is an association between fungus with
the roots of a plant in a symbiotic or mildly
pathogenic relationship in which the hyphae form a
closely woven mass around the rootlets or penetrate
the cells of the root.
46. (d) Organic farming is a method of agriculture. It
comprises the production of crop and livestock that
involves much more than selecting not to use
pesticides, fertilizers, genetically modified organisms,
antibiotics and growth hormones. It supports the
use of crop rotations and cover crops, and
encourages balanced host/predator relationships.
Organic residues and nutrients produced on the farm
are recycled back to the soil. Cover crops and
composted manure are used to maintain soil organic
matter and fertility.
47. (c) Controlled dissolved oxygen is not involved in stirred
tank fermentation.
48. (c) Activated sludge sediment in settlement tanks of sewage
treatment plants is rich source of aerobic bacteria.
Anaerobic bacteria digest the bacteria and fungi in the
sludge by producing gases like methane, hydrogen
sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases form biogas.
49. (c) Biological controls of plant diseases are the most
important role of microorganisms for the well - being
of humans.
50. (c) Statement (ii) and (iii) are the correct statements
regarding the organic farming. Organic farming
comprises the production of crop and livestock that
involves much more than selecting not to use
pesticides, fertilizers, genetically modified organisms,
antibiotics and growth hormones. It supports the
use of crop rotations and cover crops, and
encourages balanced host/predator relationships.
51. (d) Gobar gas (or biogas) is a mixture of methane and
carbon dioxide produced by bacterial degradation
of organic matter and used as a fuel. Gobar gas is an
efficient source of energy and used as good
fertilizers. It also reduces the chances of spreading
of pathogens.
52. (b) Besides cereals, green vegetables, brewer's yeast,
egg white, vitamin B12 is also produced by intestinal
bacteria. The vitamin was first obtained in 1938 using
wild strain of mould Ashbhya gossypii. Vitamin B12
is essential for normal growth and reproduction in a
number of laboratory animals.
53. (b) Irrigation relates to the supply of water to the crops.
Fertilizers which are mainly NPK are required to
increase the harvest of crops.
54. (c) Leguminous plants like beans, peas, groundnut are
sown in between the seasons of cereal crops during
crop rotation. These plants help in restoring the
fertility of the soil by fixing the atmospheric nitrogen
through the bacteria Rhizobium present in their root
nodules. These plants thus help in overcoming the
nitrogen deficiency of the soil.
55. (b) Biopesticides pose less threat than conventional
pesticides. Only targeted pest and closely related
organisms are affected by biopesticides in contrast
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-182 Biology
to synthetic pesticides that affect a large spectrums
of animals.
56. (b) Biogas is used for various purposes, as fuel for
heating, cooking, lighting, power for irrigation and
as an alternative to kerosene, firewood dung cakes.
57. (c) Curd contains numerous lactic acid bacteria (LAB)
or Lactobacillus. These bacteria produce acids (lactic
acid) that coagulate and digest milk proteins. Amylase
is used for the production of beer.
58. (c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – V; E – II
59. (b) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I
60. (a) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II
61. (b) A : Cyanobacteria are used as fertilizers.
B : Mycorrhiza is an association between fungi with
the roots of a plant.
D : Single cell protein is a protein derived from a
culture of single-celled organisms and used
especially as a food supplement.
62. (a) The bacterium involved in lactic acid production is
Lactobacillus. The fungus involved in Cyclosporin
A production is Trichoderma polysporum. Penicillin
is obtained from Penicillium notatum, a fungus.
63. (a) The correct name of A, B, C and D are respectively
Streptococcus, fungus, Cyclosporin A and
Clostridium butylicum.
Streptokinase enzyme, produced by Streptococcus
bacterium, is used as a clot buster for removing clots
from blood vessels of the patients who had gone
under myocardial infarction. Aspergillus niger is a
fungus which produces citric acid. Cyclosporin A is
produced from Trichoderma polysporum, and used
as a immuno-suppressive agent. Butyric acid is
produced from bacterium, Clostridium butylicum.
64. (a) The blank spaces marked as A, B, C and D are
respectively Trichoderma polyspora, organ
transplant patients, yeast and lowering of blood
cholesterol. (For more refer answer 34 and 68).
65. (a)
66. (b) The label A represents sludge, label B represents
methane and carbon dioxide, and the label C
represents dung and water.
67. (b) The primary effluent is passed into large aeration
tanks and mechanically agitated to allow vigorous
growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs.These
microbes consume the major part of the organic
matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the
BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of the effluent.
Once the BOD of sewage water is reduced
significantly, the effluent is then passed into a settling
tank where the bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to
sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge.A
small part of the activated sludge is pumped back
into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculum.The
remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into
large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters. Here,
some anaerobic bacteria digest the bacteria and fungi
in the sludge by producing gases like methane,
hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases
form biogas.
68. (a) Biofertilizers are living organisms, which help in
increasing the fertility of soil. Example includes Azolla
and blue green algae.
69. (a) Microbes are a very important component of life on
earth. Microbes are diverse group which include
bacteria, algae, fungi, and protozoa.
70. (b) Microbes are single-cell organisms and so tiny that
millions can fit into the eye of a needle. Microbes
include bacteria and archaebacteria, protists, some
fungi and even some very tiny animals that are too
small to be seen without the aid of a microscope.
Microbes are present everywhere in soil, water, air,
inside our bodies and that of the animals and plants.
71. (d) Rhizobium is a symbiotic bacteria found in the root
nodules of leguminous plants that has the ability to
fix atmospheric nitrogen. Azospirillum and
Azotobacter are free-living bacteria found in the soil.
They also enrich the nitrogen content of the soil.
Lactobacillus or Lactic acid bacteria grow in milk to
convert it into curd.
72. (c) A biofertilizer is a substance which contains living
microorganisms which, when applied to seed, plant
surfaces, or soil, colonizes the rhizosphere or the
interior of the plant and promotes growth by
increasing the supply or availability of primary
nutrients to the host plant. Cyanobacteria (blue
green algae), symbiotic bacteria (Rhizobium,
Anabaena) and free living bacteria (Azotobacter,
Clostridium) are used as biofertilizer. Yeast is a
microscopic fungus which consists of single oval
cells that reproduce by budding, and capable of
converting sugar into alcohol and carbon dioxide.
73. (b) All the given industrial products are synthesized from
microbes. A microbe is a microscopic organism, such as
a bacterium, virus or parasite (excluding the large ones).
74. (a) Methanogens grow anaerobically on cellulosic
material and produce methane, carbon dioxide and
hydrogen.
75. (b) Cheese and yogurt are products are fermentation.
Fermentation is a metabolic process that converts
sugar to acids, gases, and/or alcohol. It occurs in
yeast and bacteria, but also in oxygen-starved
muscle cells, as in the case of lactic acid fermentation.
French microbiologist Louis Pasteur is often
remembered for his visions into fermentation and its
microbial causes.
76. (d) Antibiotics are drugs used to treat bacterial
infections. Antibiotics have no effect on viral
infections. An antibiotic is a substance produced by
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-183
one microorganism that selectively inhibits the
growth of another. In 1926, Alexander Fleming
discovered penicillin, a substance produced by fungi
that appeared able to inhibit bacterial growth.
77. (c) Azospirillum, Azotobacter, Anabaena, Nostoc, and
Oscillatoria are all nitrogen fixing biofertilizers. They
are all prokaryotes.
78. (b) Lactobacillus produce acids that coagulate and
digest milk proteins.
79. (a) Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do
not kill the bacteria themselves because bacteria are
resistant to the toxin. Bt crystals, sometimes referred
to as insecticidal crystal proteins (ICP), are protein
crystals formed during sporulation in some Bt strains.
Bt produces proteins that aggregate to form a crystal.
These crystal proteins are toxic to very specific
species of insects yet harmless to humans and are
the natural enemies of many crop pests.
80. (d) Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by microbial
activity and which may be used as fuel. The correct
sequence of microbes involved in biogas production
is decomposers, fermentative microbes and
methanogens.
81. (b) Trichoderma is a species of filamentous fungi.
Cyclosporin A is immunosuppressive drug obtained
from Trichoderma and used in organ transplantation.
82. (c) Aspergillus niger is used for the production of citric
acid in industries. Citric acid is the most important
organic acid and is extensively used in food and
pharmaceutical industries. It is produced mainly by
submerged fermentation using Aspergillus niger or
Candida sp. from different sources of carbohydrates,
such as molasses and starch based media.
83. (a) Biogas is a fuel gas, a mixture consisting of 60%
methane (CH4
) and of 40% CO2
. It is a renewable
energy resulting from biomass. Biogas typically refers
to a mixture of different gases produced by the
breakdown of organic matter in the absence of
oxygen. It can be a good substitute for fuel wood.
84. (a) Pseudomonas is a genus of gram-negative, aerobic
bacteria. Some members of the genus are able to
metabolise chemical pollutants in the environment,
and as a result, can be used for bioremediation.
Species suitable for use as bioremediation agents
include: P. alcaligenes (which can degrade
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons) and P. mendocina
(which is able to degrade toluene etc).
85. (d) Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is an insecticide with
unusual properties that make it useful for pest control
in certain situations. Bt is a naturally occurring bacterium
common in soils throughout the world. Several strains
can infect and kill insects. Because of this property, Bt
has been developed for insect control.
86. (c) Microbes are used in secondary treatment of sewage,
anaerobic sludge digesters and production of
bioreactive molecules.
87. (b) In the secondary treatment of sewage, if oxygen
availability to activated sludge flocs (masses of
bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form
mesh like structure) is reduced; the centre of flocs
will becomes anoxic, which would cause death of
bacteria and eventually breakage of flocs.
88. (c) A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich
inorganic waste may result in death of fish due to
lack of oxygen.
Cjãòvgt 33 : Bkqvgejpqnqéû : Rtkpekòngõ ãpæ
Rtqegõõgõ
1. (c) Plasmids is a genetic structure in a cell that can
replicate independently of the chromosomes. It is
typically a small circular DNA strand in the cytoplasm
of a bacterium or protozoan. Plasmids are much used
in the laboratory manipulation of genes.
2. (a) pBR 322 is an artificially constructed vector plasmid.
It is widely used in gene cloning experiments.
3. (c) Restriction endonuclease are called “molecular
scissors or biological scissors”. They recognize and
cut double stranded DNA at specific points and are
called palindromic sequences. Palindromic sequence
are the ones which read same on both the strand in
5¢ ® 3¢ direction. Same is true about 3¢ ® 5¢
direction.
5¢ —— G¯AATTC —— 3¢
3¢ —— CTTAAG —— 5¢
4. (a) The first restriction endonuclease reported was Hind
II. Hind II is the first type II restriction endonuclease
identified, by Hamilton Smith in 1970. It is isolated
from Haemophilus influenzae. It cleaves the
sequence GTPyPuAC between the unspecified
pyrimidine and purine generating blunt ends.
5. (c) Restriction enzyme belongs to nucleases (group of
enzymes that split nucleic acids into nucleotides and
other products). A restriction enzyme acts as a
biochemical scissor and is an essential tool in
recombinant DNA technology and genetic
engineering. Each restriction enzyme recognizes a
short, specific sequence of nucleotide bases.
Restriction enzymes were originally discovered and
characterized by the molecular biologists Werner
Arber, Hamilton O. Smith, and Daniel Nathans who
shared the 1978 Nobel Prize in medicine.
6. (d) EcoRI is an endonuclease enzyme isolated from
strains of E.coli and a part of restriction modified
system. So, .co. part stands for coli.
7. (a) Restriction endonuclease-Hind II, always cuts DNA
molecules at a particular point by recognizing a
specific sequence of six base pairs. This specific base
sequence is known as the recognition sequence for
Hind II.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-184 Biology
8. (a) DNA ligase is the enzyme which helps in joining two
fragments of DNA. The enzyme is used in DNA
replication as it joints the Okazaki segments. It also
finds its use in genetic engineering as it can join two
or more desired nucleotide sequences of DNA.
9. (c) Palindromic sequences in DNA molecule are group of
bases that forms the same sequence when read in both
forward and backward direction. In the given question,
only option (c) represents a palindromic sequence.
10. (b) DNA fragments generated by restriction
endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
separated by gel electrophoresis. Since DNA
fragments are negatively charged molecules they can
be separated by forcing them to move towards the
anode under an electric field through a medium/
matrix. The DNA fragments separate according to
their size through sieving effect provided by matrix.
11. (d) In gel electrophoresis, agarose extracted from sea
weed is used as gel agarose which is made up of
0.7% gel which shows good resolution of large DNA
and 2% gel will show good resolution of small
fragments.
12. (a) Selectable markers help in identifying and eliminating
non transformants and selectively permitting the
growth of the transformants. Antibiotics are powerful
medicines that fight bacterial infections. They either
kill bacteria or keep them from reproducing. In genetic
engineering, the antibiotics are used as selectable
markers.
13. (d) During heat shock to the bacterium, the temperature
used for giving thermal shock is 42º C. This enables
the bacteria to take up the recombinant DNA.
14. (c) Chitinase is an enzyme that cleaves the glycosidic
bonds in chitin, thereby breaking down the structural
polysaccharide component of the hard outer
covering of many animals and of the cell wall of fungi.
15. (a) During isolation of DNA, addition of chilled ethanol
causes precipitation of purified DNA. This can be
seen as collection of fine threads in the suspension.
16. (b) A. tumefaciens (a pathogen of several dicot plants)
has natural ability to transfer T-DNA of their Ti (tumor
inducing) plasmids into plant genome upon infection
of cells at the wound site and cause an unorganised
growth of a cell mass known as crown gall. The
transformed host genome produces galls. Because
of this. A tumefaciens functions as natural genetic
engineer of plants.
17. (b)
18. (d) Retrovirus has the ability to transform normal cells
into cancerous cells. Hence, it can used as a vector
for cloning desirable genes into animal cells.
19. (d) Cloning vector is a DNA molecule that carries foreign
DNA into a host cell, replicates inside a bacterial (or
yeast) cell and produces many copies of itself and
the foreign DNA. Origin of replication, selectable
marker and cloning sites are required to facilitate
cloning of vector.
20. (d) Agarose gel electrophoresis plays a critical role in
analysing DNA in laboratory experiments. It is a
method of separating biological molecules by using
an electrical current. Agarose gel electrophoresis
provides a means of analysing DNA by separating
molecules based on size. However, agarose gel
electrophoresis does not provide a means of
visualizing the DNA but that role is played by two
dyes: ethidium bromide and loading buffer. Ethidium
bromide, known as an intercalating agent. It allows
to intercalate, or insert, between nitrogenous bases
of a DNA molecule. When it is exposed to ultraviolet
light, ethidium bromide fluoresces. Thus, this
chemical provides both a means of tagging DNA
molecules and a means of visualizing them.
21. (c) For transformation with recombinant DNA, the
bacterial cells must first be made competent which
means increasing the efficiency with which the DNA
enters the bacterium.
22. (d) For gene transfer into the host cell without using
vector microparticles made of tungsten and gold
coated with foregin DNA are bombarded into target
cells at a very high velocity. This method is called
biolistics or gene gun which is suitable for plants.
23. (b) The enzyme used in PCR is Taq polymerase. Taq
polymerase (isolated from bacterium thermus
aquaticus) which remains active during the high
temperature, usually amplifies DNA segments of upto
2 kb.
24. (a) PCR is a technique used to amplify a small amount of
DNA without using a living organism, such as E.coli
or yeast. It is followed in a sequence where denaturation,
primer annealing and primer extension occurs.
25. (d) Agarose gel electrophoresis is employed to check
the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion, to
quickly determine the yield and purity of a DNA
isolation, and to fractionate DNA molecules
according to size which then could be purified from
the agarose gel if necessary.
26. (d) A stirred-tank bioreactors is usually cylindrical or
with a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the
reaction contents. The stirrer facilitates even mixing
and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.
Alternatively air can be bubbled through the reactor.
27. (c) Bioreactor is an apparatus in which a biological
reaction or process is carried out, especially on an
industrial scale. Conversion of organic waste such
as compost or solid waste is a common application
for bioreactors.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-185
28. (b) Downstream processing refers to the recovery and
purification of biosynthetic products, particularly
pharmaceuticals. It is an essential step in the
manufacture of pharmaceuticals such as antibiotics,
hormones (e.g. insulin and human growth hormone),
antibodies and vaccines; antibodies and enzymes
used in diagnostics; industrial enzymes; and natural
fragrance and flavour compounds.
29. (c) Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA polymerase
named after the thermophilic bacterium Thermus
aquaticus from which it was originally isolated.
30. (c) When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the
resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of
‘sticky-ends’ and, these can be joined together (endto-end) using DNA ligases.
31. (d) Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of
enzymes called nucleases. These are of two kinds–
exonucleases and endonucleases.
32. (d) Selectable markers have been developed which
differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants
on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the
presence of a chromogenic substrate.
33. (b) Selectable marker selectively permitting the growth
of the transformants.
34. (c) The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium
tumefaciens has now been modified into a cloning
vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants.
35. (a) Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a particular
point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base
pairs.
36. (d) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique used
to make numerous copies of a specific segment of
DNA quickly and accurately. This technique enables
investigators to obtain the large quantities of DNA
that are required for various experiments and
procedures in molecular biology, forensic analysis,
evolutionary biology, and medical diagnostics. In
the procedure, DNA polymerase had to be
replenished after every cycle due to unstability at
the high temperatures which are needed for
denaturation. This problem was solved in 1987 with
the discovery of a heat-stable DNA polymerase
called Taq, an enzyme isolated from the thermophilic
bacterium Thermus aquaticus, which inhabits hot
springs.
37. (d) Agarose gel electrophoresis does not provide a
means of visualizing the DNA but that role is played
by two dyes: ethidium bromide and loading buffer.
Ethidium bromide, known as an intercalating agent
allows it to intercalate, or insert, between nitrogenous
bases of a DNA molecule. When it is exposed to
ultraviolet light, ethidium bromide fluoresces. Thus,
this chemical provides both a means of tagging DNA
molecules and a means of visualizing them.
38. (c) In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the
bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ to take
up DNA.
39. (b) Bacteriophage is used in constructing vectors for
gene cloning. Ethidium bromide is used for staining
DNA.
40. (a) A stirred – tank reactor is usually cylindrical with a
curved base to facilitate the mixing of the reactor
contents. Small volume cultures cannot yield
appreciable quantities of products. To produce in
large quantities, the development of bioreactors was
required, where large volumes (100 -1000 litres) of
culture can be processed.
41. (c) Molecular probe is a group of atoms or molecules
which are used in molecular biology or chemistry to
study the properties of other molecules or structures.
42. (a) Transformation does not involve passive entry of
DNA molecules through permeable cell walls and
membranes. It does not occur 'naturally' in all species
of bacteria, but only in those species possessing
the enzymatic machinery involved in the active
uptake and recombination processes. Even in these
species, all cells in a given population are not capable
of active uptake of DNA. Only competent cells,
which possess a so called competence factor are
capable of serving as recipients in transformation.
43. (a) Bacteria and yeast easily grow in culture medium
and multiply very fast so they are the best vectors
for making the many copies of recombinant DNA,
and express character of the desired gene.
44. (d) All endonuleases do not cut DNA at specific sites.
They were discovered in bacteria, not viruses.
Restriction endonucleases is a type of endonucleases
that cleaves DNA at specific point.
45. (b) Restriction endonucleases cleaves DNA molecule
within a specific restriction site. Thus, they are called
as molecular scissors. DNA fragments generated by
restriction endonucleases upon mixing join due to
free 5' phosphate and 3' OH group.
46. (a) Alternative markers have been developed that can
differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants
based upon their ability to produce colour in presence
of a chromogenic substrate. The plasmid in the
bacteria, lacking an insert produces blue coloured
colonies, while those plasmids with an insert do not
produce any colour due to insertional inactivation
of enzyme, b-galactosidase.
47. (b) A : A plasmid is a small, circular, extra chromosomal
double-stranded DNA molecule that is distinct from a cell's
chromosomal DNA. It naturally exists in bacterial cells,
and also occurs in some eukaryotes.
B : amp is a selectable marker and is essential for the
identification of bacteria containing recombinant plasmids.
C : Ti plasmids (Ti or tumour inducing plasmid) of
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-186 Biology
Agrobacterium tumefaciens has been developed as a
vehicle for introducing foreign genes into plants.
D : Chitinase is an enzyme that cleaves the glycosidic
bonds in chitin, thereby breaking down the
polysaccharide structural component of the hard outer
covering of many animals and of the cell wall of fungi.
48. (c) A : Recombinant technology is a series of procedures
that are used to join together (recombine) DNA
segments. A recombinant DNA molecule is
constructed from segments of two or more different
DNA molecules.
B : Cloning vehicle is the central component of a
gene cloning experiment, which transports the gene
into the host cell and is responsible for its replication.
Two types of DNA molecules that act as vectors are
plasmids and bacteriophage (virus chromosomes).
C : Macromolecular separation occurs in
electrophoresis. Electrophoresis is a technique for
separating the components of a mixture of charged
molecules (proteins, DNAs, or RNAs) in an electric
field within a gel or other support.
D : DNA ligase is a specific type of enzyme that
facilitates the joining of DNA strands together by
catalysing the formation of a phosphodiester bond.
49. (a) A : EcoRI is an endonuclease enzyme isolated from
strains of E. coli, and is part of the restriction
modification system.
B : BamHI (from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens) is a
type II restriction endonuclease, having the capacity
for recognizing short sequences of DNA and
specifically cleaving them at a target site.
C : Hind III is a type II site-specific deoxyribonuclease
restriction enzyme isolated from Haemophilus
influenzae that cleaves the DNA palindromic
sequence AAGCTT in the presence of the cofactor
Mg2+
via hydrolysis.
D : pBR 322 is a plasmid and was one of the first
widely used E. coli cloning vectors.
50. (a) A : Hind III is a type II site-specific deoxyribonuclease
restriction enzyme isolated from Haemophilus
influenzae.
B : Transposons (also called jumping gene) is a
chromosomal segment that can undergo
transposition, especially a segment of bacterial DNA
that can be translocated as a whole between
chromosomal, phage, and plasmid DNA in the
absence of a complementary sequence in the host
DNA.
C : Bacteriophage is a virus which parasitizes a
bacterium by infecting it and reproducing inside it.
D : Palindrome is a segment of double-stranded DNA
in which the nucleotide sequence of one strand reads
in reverse order to that of the complementary strand,
eg, MALAYALAM.
51. (a) A : A microinjection which is used to inject a liquid
substance at a microscopic or borderline
macroscopic level with the help of glass micropipette
to make cells competent
B : Taq DNA polymerase is a heat stable enzyme
used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to
amplify segments of DNA in the lab. It was
discovered in the heat-loving bacterium Thermus
aquaticus, and without it, DNA cannot by amplified.
C : Ampicillin is an antibiotic. It is a semi-synthetic
form of penicillin used to treat infections of the
urinary and respiratory tracts.
D : Ethidium bromide is a molecule commonly used
to visualize DNA in agarose gel electrophoresis
experiments. It both binds to DNA and fluoresces
under proper conditions. It is known as an
intercalating agent and when it is exposed to
ultraviolet light, ethidium bromide fluoresces.
52. (a) A : PCR is a technique used to make numerous copies
of a specific segment of DNA quickly and accurately.
B : Bioreactor is an apparatus in which a biological
reaction or process is carried out, especially on a
large industrial scale. Conversion of organic waste
such as compost or solid waste is a common
application for bioreactors.
C : Gene gun is a device used for high-velocity
injection of DNA-coated fragments of gold directly
into host tissues, cells, or organelles which results
in the transformation of any cell. DNA shot into a
cell can evoke an immune response protective against
an antigen or organism of interest.
D : EcoRI is an endonuclease enzyme isolated from
the strains of E. coli, and is part of the restriction
modification system. In molecular biology it is used
as a restriction enzyme.
53. (d)
54. (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of several
dicot plants is able to deliver a piece of DNA known
as ‘T-DNA’ to transform normal plant cells into a
tumor and direct these tumor cells to produce the
chemicals required by the pathogen.
55. (d) A-Eco RI; B-Bam HI; C-ampR; D-ori. The given figure
represents a physical map of plasmid pBR322. It is
the first artificial and most widely used cloning
vector. pBR322 is constructed from the plasmids of
E.coli, pBR 318 and pBR 320. It contains origin of
replication (Ori), antibiotic resistance genes e.g.,
ampicillin (ampr
) and tetracycline (tetr
), and unique
recognition sites for 20 restriction endonucleases.
Hind III, Eco R I, Bam H, Sal I, Pvu II, Pst I, Cla I are
some restriction sites. Rop codes for the proteins
involved in the replication of the plasmid.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-187
56. (d) The given figure shows a recombinant DNA
technology where the vector DNA (e.g., plasmid
DNA) and alien (foreign) DNA carrying gene of
interest are cut by the same restriction endonuclease
to produce complementary sticky ends. With the help
of DNA ligase enzyme, the complementary sticky
ends of the two DNAs are joined to produce a
recombinant DNA (rDNA). This rDNA is inserted
into host bacterium by transformation using cold
CaCl2
solution.
57. (a) In the given figure of simple stirred tank bioreactor,
the part marked as A, B, C and D are respectively
motor, pH control, foam braker and sterile air. A stirred
tank reactor is usually cylindrical with a curved base
to facilitate the mixing of the reactor contents. The
stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability
throughout the bioreactor.
58. (c) The given apparatus shows sparged stirred tank
bioreactor. This apparatus carries out the
fermentation process by transferring oxygen to mass
bioreactors. The rate of oxygen mass transfer into a
culture in a bioreactor is affected by operational
conditions and geometrical parameters as well as the
physicochemical properties of the medium
(containing nutrients, substances excreted by the
micro-organism, and surface active agents that are
often added to the medium) and the presence of the
micro-organism. Thus, oxygen mass transfer
coefficient values in fermentation broths often differ
substantially from values estimated for simple
aqueous solutions.
59. (a) The given apparatus shows the technique of
electrophoresis. Electrophoresis is the migration of
electrically charged molecules through a fluid or gel
under the influence of an electric field.
Electrophoresis is used especially to separate
combinations of compounds, such as fragments of
DNA, for the purpose of studying their components.
60. (c) PCR is a technique for enzymatically replicating DNA
without using a living organism such as E. coli or
Yeast. It is commonly used in medical and biological
research labs for a variety of tasks like detection of
hereditary diseases, identification of genetic
fingerprints etc.
The correct steps shown in the given figure are:
A – Denaturation at a temperature of about 94° to
98°C. During the denaturation, the double strand
melts open to single stranded DNA, and all enzymatic
reactions stop.
B – Annealing (binding of DNA primer to the
separated strands occurs at 50° to 65°C, which is
lower than the optimal temperature of the DNA
polymerase).
C – Extension or elongation of the strands using the
DNA primer with heat-stable DNA polymerases, most
frequently Taq (Thermus aquaticus) polymerase at
72ºC.
61. (c) Viruses that infect bacterial cells are called
bacteriophages. Often, a viral infection results in the
death of the host. A major protective strategy for the
host is to use restriction endonucleases (restriction
enzymes) to degrade the viral DNA on its
introduction into a cell. These enzymes recognize
particular base sequences called recognition
sequences or recognition sites, in their target DNA
and cleave that DNA at defined positions.
62. (d) The fact that DNA is structured the same way in all
known organisms means that similar methods can
be used to study the hereditary material.
63. (d) Although cloned genes may be used as part of, or in
association with, the other choices, the definition of
a cloned gene is one that has been isolated and
repeatedly duplicated.
64. (d) Genetic engineering is the science of gene
manipulation. Genetic engineering, genetic
modification (GM) and gene splicing are terms for
the process of manipulating genes, generally
implying that the process is outside the organism’s
natural reproductive process. It involves the
isolation, manipulation, transfer, and reintroduction
of DNA into cells or model organisms usually to
express a protein. The aim is to introduce new
characteristics or attributes physiologically or
physically, such as making a crop resistant to a
herbicide, introducing a novel trait, or producing a
new protein or enzyme, along with altering the
organism to produce more of certain traits.
65. (c) Gel electrophoresis is the standard lab procedure for
separating DNA by size (e.g., length in base pairs)
for visualization and purification.
66. (c) Ligases are used to connect short DNA fragments
to form longer segments, a process essential for
inserting DNA segments into vectors.
67. (a) Migration through the electrophoresis gel is a
function of the size of the DNA fragments, with small
fragments moving farthest as they are able to
“squeeze” through the gel matrix more easily.
68. (b) PCR is a way to increase the numbers of a particular
sequence of DNA (or an entire gene). This technique
is most useful when cloning DNA since prior
knowledge of the DNA sequence must first be
obtained.
69. (b) Gene gun or biolistic is a method in which cells are
bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold
or tungsten coated with DNA. Besides the gene gun,
other methods of genetic transfer between cells or
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-188 Biology
organisms include the use of vectors such as viruses
and plasmids.
70. (d) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique of
synthesizing multiple copies of the desired gene (or
DNA) in vitro.
At the start of PCR, the DNA from which a segment
is to be amplified, an excess of the two primer
molecules, the four deoxynucleoside triphosphates
and the DNA polymerase are mixed together in
reaction mixture that has appropriate quantities of
Mg2+. The PCR operation is followed in a sequence
where denaturation, primer extention occurs.
71. (d) Biolistic (gene gun) is direct gene transferred method
for constructing recombinant DNA. The gene gun
was invented by John C. Sanford with Edward Wolf.
A gene gun can be used to genetically infect cells or
whole organisms with foreign DNA by aiming the
barrel of the gun and firing. The microshot projectiles
in the biolistic gene gun are made of microscopic (or
nano) sized gold or platinum powders. These
expensive powders are soaked in DNA or RNA (in
raw or plasmid form) that are engineered for insertion
into the genome of the cells or organisms under the
gun.
72. (a) The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the
plasmid vector became possible with DNA ligase.
DNA ligase is an enzyme that is able to join together
two cut portions of DNA and therefore plays an
important role in DNA repair. DNA ligase is also used
in recombinant DNA technology as it ensures that
the foreign DNA is bound to the plasmid into which
it is incorporated.
73. (a) Plasmid is a genetic structure in a cell that can
replicate independently of the chromosomes. It is
typically a small circular DNA strand in the cytoplasm
of a bacterium or protozoan. Plasmids are much used
in the laboratory manipulation of genes.
74. (b) Before placing DNA into the electrophoretic chamber
it must be cut by restriction endonuclease.
75. (b) Retrovirus is a virus composed of RNA. Retroviruses
have an enzyme, called reverse transcriptase that
gives them the unique property of transcribing their
RNA into DNA after entering a cell. The retroviral
DNA can then integrate into the chromosomal DNA
of the host cell, to be expressed there. Most
retroviruses can cause cancer also.
76. (b) Vector is an organism that does not cause disease itself
but which spreads infection by conveying pathogens
from one host to another. Species of mosquito, for
example, serve as vectors for the deadly disease malaria.
The four major types of vectors are plasmids, viral
vectors, cosmids, and artificial chromosomes.
77. (b) Genetic engineering is the manipulation of genes by
man in vitro. Genetic engineering refers to artificial
synthesis, isolation, modification, combination,
addition and repair of the genetic material (DNA) to
alter the phenotype of the host organism to suit
human needs.
Three techniques of genetic engineering are:
(i) rDNA (recombinant DNA technology)
(ii) gene cloning/gene amplification
(iii) gene therapy
78. (d) Restriction endonuclease is an enzyme produced
chiefly by certain bacteria that has the property of
cleaving DNA molecules at or near a specific
sequence of bases. It hydrolyses polynucleotide
from a phosphodiester bond within a specific
sequence.
79. (a) Restriction modification (R-M) systems of bacteria
exist to protect bacteria from invading foreign DNA.
This system is universal and is an important
component of prokaryotic defense mechanisms
against invading genomes. They occur in a wide
variety of unicellular organisms, including eubacteria
and archaea and comprise two contrasting enzymatic
activities: a restriction endonuclease (REase) and a
methyltransferase (MTase).
80. (b) Agrobacterium tumefacieans is a gram negative
bacteria which is well known for its ability to transfer
DNA between itself and plant, and for this reason it
has become an important tool for genetic engineering.
81. (a) DNA ligase is an enzyme which can join the ends of
two DNA chains by catalysing the synthesis of
phosphodiester bond between 3¢ —OH at the one
end of chain, and a 5¢ —phosphate group at the end
of the other. Normally, joining of two molecules by
the action of ligase is coupled with the breakdown
of a phosphate bond as the formation of new
phosphodiester bond requires energy.
82. (b) Agarose gel electrophoresis provides a means of
analysing DNA by separating molecules based on their
size. Two dyes: ethidium bromide and loading buffer
are used to provide a means of visualizing the DNA.
83. (a) Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that makes
cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.
They acts as molecular scissors. They recognize
specific base sequence at palindrome sites in DNA
duplex and cut its strands.
84. (b) An esterase enzyme cleaves ester bonds. The
restriction enzyme cleaves sugar phosphate bonds in
DNA. The lipase enzyme breaks down fats. The ligase
enzyme reforms sugar phosphate bonds after annealing.
85. (d) Alternative selectable markers have been developed
which differentiate recombinant from nonrecombinants on the basis of their ability to produce
colour in the presence of chromogenic substrate. In
this , a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-189
sequence of an enzyme b-galactosidase. This results
into inactivation of the enzyme, which is referred to
as insertional inactivation. The presence of
chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured colonies
of the plasmid in the bacteria which does not have
an insert. Presence of insert results in insertional
inactivation of the galactosidase and the colonies
do not produce any colour and these are identified
as recombinant colonies.
86. (b) Genetic engineering is scientific alteration of the
structure of genetic material in a living organism. Genetic
engineering is possible because restriction
endonuclease purified from the bacteria can be used in
vitro. It involves the production and use of recombinant
DNA and has been employed to create bacteria that
synthesize insulin and other human proteins.
Cjãòvgt 34 : Bkqvgejpqnqéû ãpæ kvõ
Aòònkeãvkqpõ
1. (c) Golden rice is vitamin A rich variety developed by
rDNA technology and used in the treatment of vitamin
A deficiency.
2. (d) Bt cotton, a transgenic crop variety has been
introduced in India. The Bt cotton variety contains a
foreign gene obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis.
This bacterial gene protects cotton from the ball
worm, a major pest of cotton.
3. (a) The genetically modified brinjal in India has been
developed for insect resistance. Bt-brinjal is a
transgenic brinjal that is developed by inserting a
crystal gene from the Bacillus thuringiensis into the
brinjal’s genome. This process of insertion is
accomplished using Agrobacterium mediated
recombination.
4. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (or Bt) is a gram-positive, soildwelling bacterium and commonly used as a
biological pesticide. It also occurs naturally in the
gut of caterpillars of various types of moths and
butterflies, as well on leaf surfaces, aquatic
environments, animal faeces, insect-rich
environments, and flour mills and grain-storage
facilities. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystal
(which contains insecticidal protein) during a
particular phase of their growth. Bt toxin kills larvae
of certain insects by binding the activated toxin on
mid gut epithelial cells, creating pores which causes
swelling and lysis of the cells leading to the death of
the insect larva.
5. (a) Cry protein is a large family of crystalline toxins
produced from soil bacterium, Bacillus
thuringiensis. These proteins are harmless to
vertebrates, but they are highly toxic to insects and
nematodes. Their value in controlling insects that
destroy crops and transmit human diseases is well
established. The Cry proteins exist as inactive
protoxins and get converted into active toxin when
ingested by the insect, as the alkaline pH of gut
solubilises the crystals.
6. (d) Cry genes encoding the protein (Bt protein) are
isolated from the bacterium and incorporated into
several crop plants like cotton, tomato, corn, rice,
soyabean, etc. The proteins encoded by the
following cry genes control the pest given against
them:
- cry I Ac and cry II Ab control cotton bollworms.
- cry I Ab controls corn borer.
- cry III Ab controls Colorado potato beetle.
- cry III Bb controls corn rootworm.
7. (d) Bt toxins is harmful to insects like lepidopteron
(tobacco budworm, army worm), coleopterans
(beetles) and dipterans (flies and mosquito) because
they kill larvae of certain insects by binding the
activated toxins on midgut epithelial cells, creating
pores which causes swelling and lysis of the cells
leading to the death of the insect larva.
8. (c) RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been
developed to protect the plants from nematode which
is silenced by dsRNA produced by the host plant. It
is a biological process in which RNA molecules
inhibit gene expression, typically by causing the
destruction of specific mRNA molecules.
9. (a) Several nematodes parasitise a wide variety of plants
& animals including human beings. A nematode
Meloidogyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco
plants & causes a great reduction in yield. In RNA
interference technique, sense & antisense RNA fuse
to form dsRNA that silents the expression of m-RNA
of nematode. RNA interference is a novel strategy
adopted to prevent infestation of nematode
Meloidogyne incognitia in roots of tobacco plants.
10. (c) Insulin is made up of 51 amino acids arranged in two
polypeptide chains, A having 21 amino acids and B
with 30 amino acids that are linked together by
disulphide bridges. In mammals, including humans,
insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone (like a proenzyme, the pro-hormone also needs to be processed
before it becomes a fully mature and functional
hormone) which contains an extra stretch called the
C peptide. This C peptide is not present in the mature
insulin and is removed during maturation into insulin.
The main challenge for production of insulin using
rDNA techniques was getting the insulin assembled
into a mature form.
11. (c) Recombinant DNA technology is the joining
together of DNA molecules from two different species
that are inserted into a host organism to produce
new genetic combinations that are of significance to
science, medicine, agriculture, and industry. Insulin
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-190 Biology
was the first human drug made using recombinant
DNA technology. In 1983, Eli lilly, an American
company, prepared two DNA sequences coding for
chains A and B of human insulin and introduced
them into plasmids of Escherichia coli to produce
insulin. Recombinant insulin is synthesized by
inserting the human insulin gene into E. coli, or yeast
(Saccharomyces cerevisiae) which then produces
insulin for human use.
12. (d) E. coli is used in production of interferon. Interferon
is a protein released by animal cells, usually in
response to the entry of a virus, which has the
property of inhibiting virus replication.
13. (a) Gene therapy is an experimental technique that uses
genes to treat or prevent disease. The first clinical
gene therapy was given for treating adenosine
deaminase deficiency. A four-year old girl became
the first gene therapy patient on September 14, 1990
at the NIH Clinical Center. Adenosine deaminase
deficiency, also called ADA deficiency or ADA-SCID
is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder that
causes immunodeficiency. ADA deficiency is due to
a lack of the enzyme adenosine deaminase.
14. (c) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (also called ADA
deficiency or ADA-SCID) is an autosomal recessive
metabolic disorder that damages the immune system
and causes severe combined immunodeficiency
(SCID). The main symptoms of ADA deficiency are
pneumonia, chronic diarrhoea, and widespread skin
rashes. ADA deficiency can be cured by bone
marrow transplantation and enzyme replacement
therapy.
15. (b) ADA is a genetic (inherited) condition that results
in an immune deficiency disorder called severe
combined immunodeficiency disease. The main site
of production of ADA in the body is lymphocytes [a
form of small leucocyte (white blood cell) with a
single round nucleus, occurring especially in the
lymphatic system and which plays a large role in
defending the body against disease].
16. (c) A hybridization probe is a fragment of DNA of
variable length which is used in DNA samples to
detect the presence of nucleotide sequence (the DNA
target) that are complementary to the sequence in
the probe. The probe hybridize to single–stranded
DNA whose base sequence allow probe target basepairing due to complementary between the probe
and target.
17. (b) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
molecule is called probe. They are used to detect the
presence of complementary sequences in nucleic acid
samples. Probes are used for identification and
isolation of DNA and RNA.
18. (b) Transgenic animals are those animals which have
had a foreign gene intentionally inserted into their
genome.
19. (d) Transgenic animals play a number of critical roles in
drug discovery and development. Importantly, they
enable scientists to study the function of specific
genes at the level of the whole organism which has
enhanced the study of physiology and disease
biology and facilitated the identification of new drug
targets. Mice are being used as models, for example,
to study obesity, heart disease, diabetes, arthritis,
cancer, cystic fibrosa, substance abuse, anxiety,
ageing, Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease.
They are also used to study different forms of cancer.
20. (d) Emphysema is a condition in which the air sacs of
the lungs are damaged and enlarged, causing
breathlessness. The protein alpha - 1 antitrypsin is
used to treat the emphysema. Alpha - 1 antitrypsin is
a protein made by cells in the liver and passes out
into the bloodstream and can travel to the lungs. Its
main function is to protect the lungs from damage
caused by other types of proteins.
21. (b) Animals that have their DNA manipulated to possess
and express an extra (foreign) gene are known as
transgenic animals. Transgenic mice, rabbits, pigs,
sheep, cows and fish have been produced, although
over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are
mice.
22. (c) The Indian Government has set up organizations
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval
Committee), which will make decisions regarding the
validity of GM research and the safety of introducing
GM organisms for public services.
23. (c) Around 200000 varieties of rice has been estimated
to be present in India.
24. (c) Basmati rice was patented by a US company even
though the highest number of varieties of this rice is
found in India.
25. (d) Biopiracy is the practice of commercially exploiting
naturally occurring biochemical or genetic material,
especially by obtaining patents that restrict its future
use, while failing to pay fair compensation to the
community from which it originates. Biopiracy is
related to bioresearches, traditional knowledge and
biomolecules and genes discovered.
26. (b) Refer to answer 25.
27. (b) The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the second
amendment of the Indian Patents Bill, that takes such
issues into consideration, including patent terms
emergency provisions and research and development
initiative.
28. (d) About Bt toxin, it is true, that the inactive protoxin
gets converted into active form in the insect gut due
to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilises the
crystals. There are several advantages in expressing
Bt toxins in transgenic Bt crops. The level of toxin
expression can be very high, thus delivering sufficient
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-191
dosage to the pest.
The toxin expression is contained within the plant
system and hence only those insects that feed on
the crop perish. The toxin expression can be
modulated by using tissue-specific promoters and
replaces the use of synthetic pesticides in the
environment.
29. (b) Insulin chain A and B are produced separately in
plasmid of E. coli, extracted and combined by creating
disulfide bond to make it human insulin (active form)
called humulin.
30. (d) All the statements regarding GEAC are correct. The
Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC)
permitted certain companies as well as the research
institutes for conducting the field trials of 5 GM
(genetically modified) crops. The trials for
development of genetically modified cotton, maize,
castor, wheat and rice were permitted.
31. (c) Statement (a) and (b) are correct. (d) Proteins encoded
by cry 1 Ac and cry 1 Ab controls cotton bollworms
and cry1Ab controls corn borer.
32. (c) Hirudin extracted from leeches was the first
anticoagulant used in humans in 1905. Its gene was
chemically synthesized and was transferred into
Brassica napus where hirudin accumulates in seeds.
The hirudin is extracted and purified and used as
medicine. Today hirudins are produced as
recombinant proteins based on the leech
anticoagulant protein sequence. It prevents
coagulation by acting as an antithrombin.
33. (d) All the statements are correct.
34. (d) All the statements are correct.
35. (c) Statement (c) is correct. The first step in PCR
(polymerase chain reaction) is heat which is used to
separate both the strands of target DNA. PCR is a
laboratory technique used to make multiple copies
of a segment of DNA. PCR is very precise and can
be used to amplify, or copy, a specific DNA target
from a mixture of DNA molecules.
36. (c) B thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a
particular phase of their growth.
37. (d) Transgenic Rosie is actually cow. Restriction
enzymes cut the DNA at specific sites.
38. (b) Statement (ii) and (iii) are correct.
39. (c) Statement (iii) is incorrect. Insulin is a hormone made
by the beta cells in the pancreas. Animal insulin is
not identical to human insulin. Animal insulin was
extracted from the pancreases of cattle and pigs. The
sequence of amino acids (the building blocks that
make up the protein) is slightly different in insulins
from the different species. Compared to human
insulin, porcine (pork) insulin has one different
amino acid and bovine (beef) insulin three different
amino acids. These very slight differences do not
affect the way in which the insulin works inside the
human body. Pork insulin is structurally closer to
human insulin than is beef insulin. These days, animal
insulins are made from highly purified pancreas
extracts and are marketed as 'natural' insulins.
40. (a) All the statements regarding transgenic animals are
correct.
41. (a) All the given steps are performed for gene therapy
in the treatment for defective ADA. Adenosine
deaminase deficiency (also called ADA deficiency
or ADA-SCID) is an autosomal recessive metabolic
disorder that that damages the immune system and
causes severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID).
ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow
transplantation and enzyme replacement therapy.
42. (b) Gene therapy is the introduction of normal genes
into cells in place of missing or defective ones in
order to correct genetic disorders. The correct
sequence of the steps in gene therapy is: (iv), (iii),
(ii), (i).
43. (b) Hirudin protein prevents blood clotting. The gene
that codes for this protein has been synthesized
chemically and then transferred to Brassica napus
for it to accumulate in the seeds.
44. (b) Production of transgenic plants is an application of
plant tissue culture in various fields of biology. An
organism that contains genes, transferred through
genetic organism is a transgenic organism.
45. (a) Flavr Savr Tomato remains fresh by blocking the
protein degrading enzyme, polygalactouronase.
46. (a) Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay is used to
detect diseases such as AIDS. Presence of pathogen
usually causes secretion of antibodies by the host
to act against the pathogen which is detected by
ELISA.
47. (a) The GEAC set up by the Government of India makes
discussions upon the validity of GM research and
assesses the associated safety and risks of
introduction of GM organisms for public services.
48. (c) A: E. coli is used in production of interferon.
Interferon is a protein released by animal cells,
usually in response to the entry of a virus, which
has the property of inhibiting virus replication.
B: Bacillus thuringiensis is a bacterium that
produces proteins which are toxic to insects.
C: Rhizobium meliloti is a soil bacterium that forms
nitrogen-fixing nodules on the roots of certain
genera of leguminous plants. The nif genes are
genes encoding enzymes involved in the
fixation of atmospheric nitrogen into a form of
nitrogen available to living organisms. The nif
genes are found in both free-living nitrogenfixing bacteria and in symbiotic bacteria
associated with various plants.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-192 Biology
D: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a small motile
bacterial rod that can reduce nitrates and cause
galls on plant stems (called crown gall disease
of plants). Agrobacterium potentially might be
a very useful vector for introducing any desired
DNA into plants.
49. (a) A: GMO (genetically modified organism) is any
organism whose genetic material has been
altered using genetic engineering techniques
(recombinant DNA).
B: Flavr - Savr tomato is a genetically-modified
tomato which was the first genetically
engineered whole food to be granted a licence
for human consumption. It has increased shelf
life.
C: Bio piracy is related to bioresearches, traditional
knowledge and biomolecules and genes
discovered.
D: E coli are used in the production of insulin.
Recombinant insulin is synthesized by inserting
the human insulin gene into E. coli, or yeast
(Saccharomyces cerevisiae) which then
produces insulin for human use.
50. (b) A: Gene therapy is the first clinical therapy which
is given to a 4 year old girl with adenosine
deaminase deficiency (caused due to deletion
of the gene for adenosine deaminase).
B: Biofertilizer is a substance which contains living
microorganisms which, promotes growth by
increasing the supply or availability of primary
nutrients to the host plant. Bio-fertilizers such
as Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Azospirilium and
blue green algae (BGA) have been in use a long
time.
C: Bt cotton is a genetically modified variety of
cotton producing an insecticide. Bt cotton was
created through the addition of genes encoding
toxin crystals in the Cry group of endotoxin.
When insects attack and eat the cotton plant
the Cry toxins are dissolved due to the high pH
level of the insects stomach.
D: Humulin is used for a preparation of insulin
produced by genetic engineering and
structurally identical to insulin made by the
human pancreas. It is used to treat diabetes.
51. (a) A: Golden rice is genetically modified rice that has
been engineered to have high levels of beta
carotene in it. It is a pre cursor of vitamin A,
which gives it a characteristic golden colour.
B: Bt toxin is a pesticidal toxins (e.g., CryAb1)
produced by the soil bacterium Bacillus
thuringiensis, which are lethal to corn earworms,
Colorado potato bugs and others.
C: RNAi is a biological process in which RNA
molecules inhibit gene expression, typically by
causing the destruction of specific mRNA
molecules. RNA interference (RNAi) technique
has been devised to protect the plants from
nematode is silenced by dsRNA produced by
the host plant.
D: Rosie is the first transgenic cow (genetically
modified cow). Rosie's milk contains the human
gene alpha-lactalbumin into their DNA. The
extra gene may come from the same species or
from a different species.
52. (d) A: Forensic science is the scientific method of
gathering and examining information about the
past which is then used in a court of law. It is
related to DNA fingerprinting.
B: ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent
assay),used in AIDS, is a rapid immunochemical
test that involves an enzyme used for measuring
a wide variety of tests of body fluids. ELISA
tests detect substances that have antigenic
properties, primarily proteins rather than small
molecules and ions, such as glucose and
potassium.
C: Probe is a radioactive DNA/RNA.
D: Alpha 1 antitrypsin is used to treat emphysema
(a condition in which the air sacs of the lungs
are damaged and enlarged, causing
breathlessness). Alpha - 1 antitrypsin is a
protein made by cells in the liver and protect
the lungs from damage caused by other types
of proteins called enzymes.
53. (a) The given figure shows the maturation of pro- insulin
into insulin. The parts marked a s A, B, C and D are
respectively pro-insulin, cell peptideres, insulin and
free C- peptide.
54. (a) Transgenic plants are the ones generated by
introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating
a plant from that cell.
55. (a) Transgenic animals have been successfully used for
producing transgenic mice through genetic
engineering. Many transgenic mice are designed to
increase our understanding of how genes contribute
to development of diseases. Transgenic mice are
being developed for use in testing the safety of
vaccine before they are used in human beings. For
example, transgenic mice are being used to test the
safety of polio vaccine.
56. (b) In this technique, nematode specific genes are
introduced in the host plant in such a way that it
produces both sense and antisense RNA. The two
RNA’s being complementary to each other formed a
double stranded RNA (dsRNA) that initiated RNA
interference (RNA i). This (dsRNA) bind to and
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-193
prevent translation of specific mRNA of nematode
(gene silencing). Thus, transgenic plants based on
RNAi technology are resistant to nematode.
57. (a) Recombinant DNA technology is the process of
joining together two DNA molecules from two
different species that are inserted into a host
organism to produce new genetic combination.
58. (a) Bt cotton is being grown in India by the farmers. Bt
cotton is pest resistant plant which decreases the
pesticides use. Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt for short). Bt toxin gene
has been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed
in plants to provide resistance to insects without
the need for insecticides.
59. (a) A transgenic food crop which may help in solving
the problem of night blindness in developing
countries is golden rice. Golden rice is genetically
modified rice that has been engineered to have
elevated levels of beta carotene in it. It is a pre cursor
of vitamin A, which gives it a characteristic golden
colour.
60. (c) In gene therapy of SCID, WBCs are extracted from
bone marrow of patients and a good copy of human
gene encoding ADA is introduced via retrovirus as
vector.
61. (d) The disorder ADA deficiency is caused due to
deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase. ADA
deficiency can be cured by bone marrow
transplantation or by enzyme replacement therapy,
in which functional ADA is given to the patient by
injection. But both these approaches are not
completely curative as the patient requires periodic
infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes
or hormonal injections. However, if the gene isolated
from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into
cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a
permanent cure.
62. (a) Human insulin has 53 amino acids in two
polypeptides (A and B) connected by two S -S
(disulphide) linkages. In 1983, American company
Eli Lilly prepared two DNA sequences
corresponding to A and B insulin chains. When
introduced in plasmids of E.coli, insulin chains were
formed. They were extracted and fused to produce
humulin (human insulin).
63. (d) Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant
GM crops is to reduce herbicide accumulation in food
articles for health safety. GM plants have been useful
in many ways. Genetic modifications has made crops more
tolerant to abiotic stresses, reduced reliance on chemical
pesticides and enhanced nutritional value of food.
64. (d) Biotechnology is the exploitation of biological
processes for industrial and other purposes, especially
the genetic manipulation of microorganisms (like
microbes, fungi, plants and animals) for the
production of antibiotics, hormones, etc.
65. (a) Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus
thuringiensis and incorporated into several crop
plants such as cotton. The choice of genes depends
upon the crop and the targeted pest, as most of Bt
toxins are insect group specific. The toxin is coded
by gene named cry. Two cry genes - cry I Ac and cry
II Ab have been incorporated in cotton. The proteins
encoded by genes cry II Ab and cry I Ac control
cotton bollworms and that of cry I Ab controls
cornborer.
66. (b) Bt toxin (obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis) is
intracellular crystalline protein which are toxic to
insects. It is widely used as a biological pesticide.
67. (c) RNAi is a method of cellular defense in all
eukaryotes. It is a system within living cells that
helps to control the activity of specific genes. This
method involves silencing of mRNA due to
complementary double stranded RNA that prevents
translation of target gene or mRNA [silencing].
Source of ds RNA is retrovirus (having RNA genome)
or transposons (mobile genetic material).
68. (c) RNAi stands for RNA interference. It is a process
within living cells that moderates the activity of their
genes. It has an important role in defending cells
against parasitic nucleotide sequences - viruses and
transposons but also in directing development as
well as gene expression.
69. (c) Human insulin (humulin) was the first genetically
engineered product produced by an American firm
Eli-Lilly (5th July 1983). Insulin was earlier extracted
from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs. Such
insulin however caused some patients to develop
allergy and other type of reactions to the foreign
proteins.
70. (b) Gene therapy is the technique of genetic engineering
to replace a faulty gene by a normal healthy functional
gene. Gene therapy is being tried for sickle cell
anaemia and severe combined immuno-deficiency
(SCID).
As a first step towards gene therapy, lymphocytes
are extracted from the bone marrow of the patient
and are grown in a culture outside the body. A
functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is
then introduced into these lymphocytes, which are
reinjected to the patient’s bone marrow. But as these
cells do not always remain alive, the patient requires
periodic infusion of such genetically engineered
lymphocytes. However, if the isolated gene from bone
marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells
at early embryonic stages, it can be a permanent cure.
71. (c) In order for gene therapy to be most effective, genes
should be inserted in stem cells because stem cells
have the ability to self-renew. For each organ in the
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-194 Biology
mature body, there are specific stem cells that can
make all the different kinds of cells in that organ. For
example, in the blood system, hematopoietic ("bloodforming") stem cells (HSC) give rise to each of the
different types of blood cells such as red blood cells
(RBC), white blood cells (WBC) and platelets.
72. (b) The ELISA is a fundamental tool of clinical
immunology, and is used as an initial screen for HIV
delection. Based on the principle of antigenantibody interaction, this test allows for easy
visualization of results.
73. (d) Gene therapy is a rapidly growing field of medicine
in which genes are introduced into the body to
provide treatment for a particular disease. Genes
control heredity and provide the basic biological
code for determining the specific function of a cell.
Gene therapy seeks to provide genes that correct
the disease-controlling functions of cells that are
not doing their job.
Cjãòvgt 35 : Ñtéãpkõïõ ãpæ Rqòwnãvkqpõ
1. (d) Precipitation is any form of any water (such as rain, dew,
snow, sleet or hail) formed by condensation of water
vapour in the atmosphere and falls to the earth's surface.
2. (d) Temperature, water, light and soil are non - living
abiotic factors which affect plants and animal species
in an environment. These factors play an important
role in leading variations in the physical or chemical
conditions of different habitats.
3. (a) Stenothermal organisms are those organisms which
are capable to live or survive within a limited range
of temperature.
4. (b) Eurythermal organisms are those organisms which
are capable to live or survive within a wide range of
temperature in the environment.
5. (b) Sea water typically has a salinity of around 35 g/kg
although lower values are typical near coasts where
rivers enter the ocean. Rivers and lakes can have a
wide range of salinities, from less than 0-0.1 g/kg to
a few g/kg, although there are many places where
even higher salinities are found. The dead sea has a
salinity of more than 200 g/kg.
6. (d) Stenohaline organisms are incapable to withstand
wide variation in salinity of the surrounding water.
7. (c) Deep inside the oceans, the environment is
continuously dark and its inhabitants are not aware of
the existence of a celestial source of energy called sun.
8. (d) Water holding capacity is the amount of water held
between field capacity and wilting point. Accessible water
is held in soil pores via forces which depend on the pore
size and the surface tension of water. The closer together
soil particles or aggregates are, the smaller the pores and
the stronger the force holding water in the soil. Because
the water in large pores is held with little force, it drains
most readily. Likewise, plants absorb soil water from the
larger pores first because it takes less energy to pull
water from large pores than from small pores. Therefore
water holding capacity is dependent on the soil
composition, grain size and aggregation.
9. (a) The benthic community is made up of organisms
that live in and on the bottom of the ocean floor.
These organisms are known as benthos. Benthos
include worms, clams, crabs, lobsters, sponges, and
other tiny organisms that live in the bottom sediments.
10. (a) Homeostasis is the property of a system that regulate its
interval and tends to maintain a stable relatively constant
conditions of properties such as temperature or pH.
11. (d) Diapause is a period during which growth or
development is suspended and physiological activity
is diminished, as in certain insects in response to
adverse environmental conditions.
12. (c) Aestivation is the cessation or slowing of metabolic
activity during the summer period to avoid problems
of heat and desiccation etc.
13. (c) Adaptation is an outcome of natural selection. It is a
process in which animal or plant species can adapt
to a certain environment by adjusting themselves in
great varieties of ways to survive and reproduce in
that particular habitat.
14. (d) Blubber is the fatty layer present between the skin
and muscle of whales and other cetaceans. It acts as
an insulator and protects the animal from heat loss
and serves as a food reserve.
15. (b) Archaebacteria is a group of microorganisms (like
methanogens and certain halophiles and
thermacidophiles) which flourishes in hot springs
and deep sea hydrovents where temperatures
exceed 100ºC.
16. (d) Age pyramids are graphical representations that
show the distribution of various age groups in a
population which forms the shape of a pyramid of a
growing population. It determines the overall age
distribution of a population, an indication of the
reproductive capabilities and likelihood of the
continuation of a species.
17. (b) The age of pyramid with narrow base indicates a low
percentage of young individuals. If the birth rate is
drastically reduced, the pre-reproductive group
dwindles in proportion to the other two groups and
it results in an urn-shaped pyramid, which indicates
that population is dying off.
18. (c) Population growth is the increase in the number of
individuals in a population. Natality, immigration,
mortality and emigration are the processes which
affect the density of population in a given habitat
during a given period of time. The former two
processes contribute an increase in population
density whereas the latter two processes to a
decrease.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-195
19. (d) Emigration may be defined as the movement of
individuals from one place to another to establish
permanent or temporary habitation.
20. (c) A population growing in a habitat with limited
resources show initially a lag phase, followed by
phases of acceleration and deceleration and finally
an asymptote, when the population density reaches
the carrying capacity. A plot of N in relation to time
(t) results in a sigmoid curve. This type of curve is
called verhulst pearl logistic curve.
dN K N
rN
dt K
-
=
æ ö ç ÷ è ø
where, N = Population density at time ‘t’
r = intrinsic rate of natural increase
K = carrying capacity
21. (c) In growth pattern, environmental resistance (1 - N/
K) is the action of limiting abiotic and biotic factors
that prohibit the growth of a population as it would
grow according to its biotic potential.
22. (c) Interspecific interaction arise from the interaction of
populations of two different species. They could be
beneficial, detrimental or neutral (neither harm nor
benefit) to one of the species or both.
23. (c) Thorns of Acacia and cactus are the most common
morphological means of defence.
24. (d) Secondary compounds produced by plants are toxic
or repellent to herbivores and microbes, and help
defend plants producing them. Production increases
when a plant is attacked by herbivores or pathogens.
Strychnine, caffeine and quinine are some secondary
metabolites which help them against grazers and
browsers.
25. (b) Competitive release is the growth of the species
range when a competitor for its niche is eliminated. It
usually occurs when one of two species competing
for the same resource disappears, thereby allowing
the remaining competitor to utilize the resource more
fully than it could in the presence of the first species.
Joseph Connell's (1961) demonstrates competitive
release for study of competition for space between
the barnacle species Balanus and Chathamalus in
the intertidal zone on the rocky Scottish coast.
26. (a) Cuscuta is a total stem parasite which is a good
example of ectoparasitism. It is commonly found
growing on hedge plants. It has lost chlorophyll and
leaves in the course of evolution. It attaches and
wraps itself around the stem of host plant and
produces haustoria that gets inserted into the
vascular system of host. The parasitic plant sucks
all the nutrients from the host plant with the help of
haustoria. Cuscuta is known to receive even the
flower inducing hormone or florigen from the host.
27. (c) Brood parasitism is a type of social parasitism in
which eggs are laid in the nests of other birds, causing
them to be hatched and the young raised by the
hosts, regularly at the cost of the hosts' own young.
Examples include cuckoos and cowbirds.
28. (c) Commensalism is a symbiotic association between
two organisms in which one benefits and the other
derives neither benefit nor harm. Some of these
include clownfish and sea anemones, fleas and dogs,
sharks and remoras, and epiphyte/orchid on mango
branch. Association between liver flukes and
tapeworms is a type of endosymbiosis in which one
symbiont lives within the body of another.
29. (d) Interaction between two species, where both suffer
adverse effects is known as competition. Competition is
the relationship in which each population adversely affects
the other in the struggle for resources short in supply.
Competition is of two types – interspecific and
intraspecific.
(a) Interspecific competition occurs between two
individuals of two different species occurring
in a habitat.
(b) Intraspecific competition occurs between
individuals of the same species.
30. (d) Mutualism is a symbiotic association between two
species of organisms in which both the species
benefit and takes advantages from each other and
cannot survive without each other. Fig wasps are
the sole pollinators of fig flowers/trees and in turn,
fig wasps can breed nowhere else but inside figs.
31. (c) In amensalism, one species is inhibited by toxic
secretion of another species. Inhibitor species is
neither benefitted nor harmed.
32. (b) A: Lichen represents an intimate mutualistic (i)
relationship between a fungus and
cyanobacteria (ii).
B: The mycorrhizae (iii) are the associations
between fungi and roots of higher plants.
C: Plants needs the help of animals (iv) for pollinating
their flowers and dispersing their seeds.
D: The wasp (v) pollinates the fig inflorescence
while searching for suitable egg laying sites.
33. (b)
34. (c) Abiotic components are physical factors which affect
the structure, behaviour and life history of organisms.
These components (such as soil, moisture, range of
temperature, and availability of light) along with
biotic factors (such as the availability of food and
the presence of predators) can characterise the
habitat of an organism.
35. (c) Abiotic factor (which include water, sunlight,
oxygen, soil and temperature) are the non-living parts
of the environment that can have a major influence
on living organisms. Temperature is strongly
influenced by sunlight and plays an important role
for animals that cannot regulate their own body
temperature. A few organisms can tolerate and
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-196 Biology
flourish in wide range of temperature and few
organisms are limited to narrow range of temperature.
And this level of thermal tolerance of different
species determines their geographical distribution
to a large extent. Therefore, temperature is responsible
for all the given statements.
(i) Mango trees cannot grow in temperate
countries like Canada and Germany.
(ii) Tuna fish are rarely caught beyond tropical
latitude in the ocean.
(iii) Snow leopard is not found in Kerala forest
36. (b) Statement (i) and (iv) are incorrect.
(i) Temperature progressively increases from pole to
equator. (iv) Temperature ranges from sub-zero levels
in polar areas and high altitudes to >50ºC in tropical
deserts in summer.
37. (d) An overexposure to UV-B radiation can cause
sunburn and some form of skin cancer. In humans,
prolonged exposure to solar UV-radiation may result
in acute and chronic health effects on the skin, eye
and immune system. Moreover, UV-C can cause
adverse effects that can variously be mutagenic or
carcinogenic.
38. (d) Plants donot have mechanism of thermoregulation
to maintain that internal temperatures.
39. (d) Small animals have a large surface area relative to
their volume. They tend to lose body heat very fast
when it is cold outside; then they have to spend
much energy to generate body heat through
metabolism. This is the main reason why very small
animals are rarely found in polar regions. Hibernation
is a time when animals ‘sleep’ through cold weather.
The familiar case of bears going into hibernation
during winter is an example of escape in time.
40. (c) Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for
many organisms particularly true for small animals
like shrews and humming birds. During the course
of evolution, the costs benefits of maintaining a
constant internal environment are taken into
consideration.
41. (a) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(iv) All adaptation are not genetically fixed in all
organisms.
(v) In Opuntia, the pathway of photosynthesis is
through C4
cycle.
42. (b) Allen's rule states that the limbs, ears, and other
appendages of the animals living in cold climates
tend to be shorter than in animals of the same species
living in warm climates. Shorter and more compact
body parts have less surface area than elongated
ones and thus radiate less body heat.
43. (d) Desert lizards lack the physiological ability that
mammals love to deal with the high temperature of
their habitat but manage to keep their body
temperature fairly constant by behavioural means.
They bask in the sun and absorb heat when their
body temperature drops below the comfort zone, but
move into shade when the ambient temperature starts
increasing.
44. (d) The given examples show behavioural adaptations.
Behavioural adaptation is the process by which an
organism or a species changes its pattern of action
to better suit its environment.
45. (b) Expanding population is a population containing a
large proportion of young individuals. Pyramid
shaped age structure and urn shaped age structure
are the characteristics of expanding population.
46. (d) Predator is an organism that exists by preying upon
other organisms. Predator in nature is prudent (means
sensible) because they do not exploit their prey.
Such predator would maintain the prey population
at the density that gives the maximum rate of
production of new prey biomass.
47. (c) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as
laying egg on human hair is categorised as a parasite
because they survive by living on human scalp by
taking nourishment from there.
48. (c) Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host
organism are called ectoparasites. The most familiar
examples of this group are the lice on humans and
ticks on dogs.
49. (a) Statement (a) is incorrect. An overwhelming majority
(around 99 percent) of animals and nearly all plants
cannot maintain a constant internal temperature.
50. (c) In sigmoid growth curve, finally, growth rate becomes
stable because mortality and natality rates become
equal to each other and finally the population shows
zero growth rate as birth rate equals death rate.
51. (a) Cyclomorphosis, or cyclic change in morphology is
observed. The morphology is Dependent upon
variation of temperature in water so, Daphnia shows
different morphology in different seasons.
52. (a) The interaction between predator and prey is
interspecific. Predator population usually depends
upon the number of prey which in turn is controlled
by predators.
53. (b) A group of individuals resembling each other in
morphological, physiological, biochemical and
behavioural characters constitute a species such
individuals can breed among themselves but cannot
breed with members other than their own to produce
fertile offsprings. New species are formed mainly due
to reproductive isolation.
54. (a) Cold blooded organisms utilize their stored food at
the time of hibernation and aestivation.
55. (a)
56. (a) Predation is a relation between two organisms in
which one organism captures and feeds on other.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-197
Commensalism is a relation between two organisms
in which one benefits and the other derives neither
benefit nor harms. Parasitism is a relation between
organisms in which one lives as a parasite on another
and harm the host. Competition is process in which
the fitness and survival ability of one species is
significantly lower in the presence of another species.
57. (d)
58. (a) In the given figure of biome distribution with respect
to annual temperature and precipitation, the parts
marked as A, B and C is respectively tropical forest,
temperate forest and coniferous forest. A tropical
forest is found in areas with high average temperature
and significant amount of rain fall. This forest
consists of a completely closed canopy of trees that
prevents penetration of sunlight to the ground. The
temperate forests are found in rather mild climatic
area within the temperate zone that receives heavy
rainfall and usually includes numerous kinds of trees.
Coniferous forest is a terrestrial biome found in
temperate regions of the world with warm summers
and cool winters and adequate rainfall to sustain a
forest.
59. (c) In the given figure of organismic response, the types
of organism in response to abiotic factors marked as
A, B and C are respectively conformers, regulator
and partial regulator.
60. (d) The given age pyramid represents the declining
population of humans. It is an Urn shaped pyramid
with least number of pre-reproductive individuals.
Low birth rate, stable death rate and increased
immigrations can lead to declining population of
humans.
61. (d) ‘A’ is more recent and shows slight reduction in
growth rate.
62. (a) Population density due to changes in the following
basic process - A: Natality + Immigration; B:
Mortality + Emigration
Natality is the proportion of births to the total
population in a place in a given time. Immigration is
the number of individuals of the same species that
have come into the habitat from elsewhere during
the time period under consideration. Mortality is the
number of deaths in the population during a given
period of time. Emigration is the number of individuals
of the population who left the habitat and have gone
elsewhere during a given period of time.
63. (c) According to the given figure, I, II, III and IV (which
affects the basic process of population density) are
respectively increase, increase, decrease and
decrease.
64. (b) 65. (c)
66. (d) Soil moisture, soil nutrients and length of growing
season affect what kinds of plants can grow in a
place and what kinds of organisms the biomes can
sustain. Along with temperature and precipitation,
these are factors that distinguish one biome from
another and influence the dominant types of
vegetation and animals that have adapted to a
biome’s unique characteristics.
67. (c) Many freshwater fishes cannot live for long in seawater and vice-versa mainly because of osmosis.
Freshwater fishes are adapted to reduce the amount
of water reaching into their bodies. Freshwater fish
differ physiologically from salt water fish in several
aspects. Their gills must be able to diffuse water
while simultaneously keeping the salts of the bodily
fluids inside. The scales of the fish also play a part in
the process; freshwater fish that have lost too many
scales get a surplus of water diffused in through the
skin, causing the fish to die.
68. (d) Chemical composition of water and pH of water are
the factors that are important for aquatic organisms.
69. (d)
70. (c) pH, mineral composition and topography are the
important factors which determine to a large extent
of vegetation in an area.
71. (b) Regarding temperature and osmotic concentration
nearly all plants are conformers. Conformers are those
organisms whose internal conditions are controlled
primarily by environmental conditions.
72. (d) Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions
because they have a larger surface area relative to
their volume.
73. (d) The Kangaroo rats of North American deserts do
not need to drink water because of the following
reasons, like- they meet their water requirements
through internal oxidation fats when water is a
byproduct, they are able to concentrate their urine
thereby minimizing the loss of water from their body
and also they do not have sweat glands so no
perspiration occurs in the animals.
74. (c) At the high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure of
O2
will be too low so the solubility of oxygen in the
blood will be very less hence the oxygen carried by
each RBC will be too less. But to fulfill the oxygen
requirement of the body blood has to carry more
oxygen to the body tissue and this is done by the
increased number of RBCs.
75. (c) Population ecology is the branch of ecology that
studies the structure and dynamics of populations.
Population ecology is an important area of ecology
because it links ecology of population genetics and
evolution.
76. (d) Natural selection operates to evolve the desired traits
at population level, because it is the organisms only
which has to cope with a changed environment.
Therefore, population ecology links ecology to
population genetics and evolution.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-198 Biology
77. (b) Birth rate or natality rate is a measure of the extent to
which a population replenishes itself through births.
Birth rate No. of births
Total population
=
8
0.4
20
= = offspring per lotus per year
78. (b) Mortality or death rate refers to the death of
individuals in a population.
Death rate No. of deaths
Total population
=
4
0.1
40
= = individuals per fruitfly per week
79. (a) When in an age pyramid, the number of individuals
of reproductive age is lesser than pre - reproductive
but higher than post - reproductive ones, then it
shows that population is growing.
80. (b) Age distribution is important, as it influences both,
natality and mortality of the population. From an
ecological view point there are three major ecological
ages (age groups) in any population. These are-prereproductive, reproductive and post-reproductive.
The relative duration of these age groups in
proportion to the life span varies greatly with different
organisms.
81. (c) Population density will increase if the number of
births plus the number of immigrant (B + I) is more
than the number of deaths plus the number of
emigrants (D + E), otherwise it will decrease. Births
and deaths are the most important factors influencing
population density.
82. (b) Natality and immigration are the two basic process
which contribute to an increase in population
density. Natality is the proportion of births to the
total population in a place in a given time. Immigration
is the number of individuals of the same species that
have come into the habitat from elsewhere during
the time period under consideration.
83. (a) The integral form of the exponential growth equation
is Nt
= N0
e–rt
where,
Nt
= Population density after time t.
N0
= Population density at time zero.
r = intrinsic rate of natural increase.
e = the base of natural logarithms (2.71828).
The equation describes the exponential or geometric
growth pattern of a population and results in a Jshaped curve. The J-shaped curve of exponential
growth is characteristic of some population that are
introduced into a new or unfilled environment or
whose numbers have been drastically reduced by a
catastrophic event and are rebounding.
84. (c) Carrying capacity of a population in any environment
is the maximum population size of that particular
species that the environment can tolerate
indefinitely, given the food, habitat, water, and other
necessities available in the environment.
85. (b) The intrinsic rate of increase is inversely related to
generation time, T. Therefore, organisms with very
high intrinsic growth rates have short generation time.
86. (c) In exponential growth, the increase or decrease in
population size during a unit period is N × (b – d).
87. (d) Exotic species when introduced into the environment
where they are not native, they become invasive and
start spreading fast because the invaded land does
not have their natural predators.
88. (d) Different feeding habit of finches does not lessen
the impact of predation.
89. (b) This type of mechanism is known as resource
partitioning. If two species compete for the same
resource, they could avoid competition by choosing,
for instance, different times for feeding or different
foraging patterns.
90. (b) The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Island became
extinct within a decade after goats were introduced
on the islands, apparently due to the greater browsing
efficiency of the goats. The whole incidence shows
the process of competition among the species.
91. (d) Gause's principle states that similar species cannot
coexist for long in the same ecological niche because
competing for the same critical resources within an
environment, one of them will eventually outcompete
and displace the other.
Cjãòvgt 36 : Eeqõûõvgï
1. (c) Any unit which includes all the organisms interacting
with the physical environment so that a flow of energy
leads to clearly defined trophic structure, biotic
diversity & material cycle within the system is called
ecosystem.
2. (d) Man - made ecosystems are the artificial ecosystems
which rely on the human efforts to sustain. They do
not possess a self - regulating mechanism and have
almost no diversity and have simple food webs. The
cycling of nutrients is negligible. The man made
ecosystems include the villages, towns, cities, rivers,
orchids, dams, gardens, lakes, crop field, aquarium
and agriculture.
3. (b) Stratification is the way in which plants of different
species are arranged in different vertical layers in
order to make full use of the available physical and
physiological requirements.
4. (b) Abiotic components (non living) include inorganic
substances or minerals, organic substances &
different climatic conditions like temperature, pH,
light etc. Decomposers are heterotrophic organisms,
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-199
mainly fungi and bacteria, who meet their energy
and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic
matter or detritus.
5. (d) Ecosystem is a biological community of interacting
organisms and their physical environment. It includes
both biotic and abiotic components, their
interactions, and some source of energy. Biotic
factors are the living parts of an ecosystem-the
animals, plants and microorganisms. Abiotic factors
are non-living chemical and physical parts of the
environment that affect living organisms and the
functioning of ecosystems. Abiotic factors can
include water, light, radiation, temperature, humidity,
atmosphere, soil, flow of energy and cycling of
materials.
6. (a) Species composition and stratification are the two
main structural features of an ecosystem. Species
composition is the identity of all the different
organisms that make up a community. Stratification
is the vertical distribution of different species
occupying different levels. For e.g., tree occupy top
vertical strata or layer of a forest, shrubs the second
and herbs and grasses occupy the bottom layers.
7. (c) Identification and enumeration of plants and animal
species of an ecosystem gives its species
composition.
8. (c) Primary productivity is associated with the
producers which are autotrophic, most of which are
photosynthetic and to a much lesser extent the
chemosynthetic micro-organisms. It is defined as the
rate of production of biomass or organic matter per
unit area over a time period by plants during
photosynthesis.
9. (d) Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the
rate of production of organic matter during
photosynthesis.
10. (a) Primary productivity is the rate at which energy is
converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic
autotrophs to organic substances. It is expressed in
terms of weight or energy. The total amount of
productivity in a region or system is gross primary
productivity.
11. (a) The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
Net primary productivity is the available biomass for
the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and
decomposers). The annual net primary productivity
of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion
tons (dry weight) of organic matter.
12. (b) In the process of leaching, water soluble substances
(formed as a result of decomposition) are leached or
go down to deeper layers of soil.
13. (d) The main source of energy for an ecosystem is the
radiant energy or light energy derived from the sun.
50% of the total solar radiation that falls on earth is
photosynthetically active radiation (PAR).
The light energy is converted into chemical energy
in the form of sugar by photosynthesis.
6H2O + 6CO2
+ Light ® 6C6H12O6
+ 6O2
Plants utilize 2-10% of PAR in photosynthesis.
14. (a) The flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
That is, it flows from the producer level to the
consumer level and never in the reverse direction.
Hence, energy can be used only once in the
ecosystem. But the minerals circulate and recirculate
many times in the ecosystem.
15. (b) The standing crop is measured as the mass of living
organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area
which is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight. It
indicates the productivity and luxuriance of growth.
16. (a) Ecosystem is a system or a group of interconnected
elements, formed by the interaction of a community
of organisms with their environment such that energy
is exchanged and system-level processes, such as
the cycling of elements, develop. Ecosystem is open
because resources can move from one ecosystem to
another. Ecosystems require a continuous flow of highquality energy to maintain their structure and function.
For this reason, all ecosystems are open systems
requiring a net flow of energy to persist over time.
17. (b) The energy flow in an ecosystem is from the producer
level to the consumer level. At each trophic level 80
to 90% of energy is lost. Hence, the amount of energy
decreases from the producer level to the consumer
level.
Pyramid of energy is always upright because during
the flow of energy from one trophic level to the next
one, there always occurs a loss of energy.
18. (d) Two types of nutrient cycles are – gaseous cycles
(nitrogen, oxygen, carbon cycles) and sedimentary
cycles (phosphorus, sulphur cycles). In gaseous
cycle, the main reservoirs of chemicals are the
atmosphere and ocean. In sedimentary cycles, the
main reservoirs are soils and rocks. In sedimentary
cycles the nutrients do not enter the atmosphere.
19. (d) In sedimentary cycles of matter, materials involved
in circulation between biotic and abiotic components
of biosphere are non-gaseous and the reservoir pool
is lithosphere, e.g., phosphorus, calcium, magnesium.
Sulphur has both sedimentary and gaseous phases.
20. (d) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct.
(ii) Abiotic factors are non-living chemical and physical
parts of the environment that affect living organisms
and the functioning of ecosystems. Abiotic factors
can include water, light, radiation, temperature,
humidity, atmosphere, and soil, flow of energy and
cycling of materials.
(iv) Energy flow is unidirectional.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-200 Biology
21. (a) Decomposition is an oxygen - requiring process. The
rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical
composition of detritus and climatic factors.
22. (a) Temperature and soil moisture are the most important
climatic factors that regulate decomposition through
the effects on the activities of soil microbes. Warm
and moist environment favour decomposition
whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit
decomposition resulting in build - up of organic
materials.
23. (a) Food chain is a series of organisms interrelated in
their feeding habits, the smallest being fed upon by
a larger one, which in turn feeds a still larger one, etc.
A food chain begins with a producer, usually a green
plant or alga that creates its own food through
photosynthesis. Limitation of the length of the food
chain does not depend on one organisms ability to
consume another.
24. (c) In aquatic ecosystem such as pond, the producers
(macrophytes, phytoplankton) are small organisms.
Their biomass is least, and this value gradually
shows an increase towards the apex of the pyramid,
thus making the pyramid inverted in shape.
25. (b) In most ecosystems, all the pyramids of number,
energy and biomass are upright i.e., producers are
more in number and biomass than the herbivores
and herbivores are more in number and biomass than
the carnivores. Also energy at a lower trophic level
is always more than that at a higher level.
26. (c) Statement (ii) and (iii), regarding food chain, are
correct.
27. (a) The rate of biomass production is called productivity
and is expressed in terms of g–2 yr–1 or (k cal m–2) yr–
1
to compare the productivity of different
ecosystems. Gross primary productivity of an
ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter
during photosynthesis. Primary productivity is
associated with the producers which are autotrophic,
most of which are photosynthetic and to a much
lesser extent the chemosynthetic micro-organisms.
28. (a) The transfer of food energy from the producers,
through a series of organisms (herbivores to
carnivores to decomposers) with repeated eating and
being eaten, is known as a food chain. Thus, food
chain is the flow of energy in a community. Under
natural conditions, the linear arrangement of food
chains, hardly occurs and these remain indeed
interconnected with each other through different
types of organisms at different trophic levels.
29. (c) Ecological succession is the process by which the
structure of a biological community changes and
evolves over time. Two different types of succession
(primary and secondary) have been distinguished.
Primary succession occurs in essentially lifeless
areas-regions in which the soil is incapable of
sustaining life as a result of factors such as lava
flows, newly formed sand dunes, or rocks left from a
retreating glacier. Secondary succession occurs in
areas where a community that previously existed has
been removed; it is typified by smaller-scale
disturbances that do not eliminate all life and nutrients
from the environment.
30. (d) The climax community remains stable as long as the
environment remains unchanged.
31. (d) Human beings benefit from a multitude of resources
and processes that are supplied by natural
ecosystem. Collectively, these benefits are known
as ecosystem services, for example, healthy forest
ecosystems purify air and water, mitigate droughts
and floods, cycle nutrients, generate fertile soils,
provide wildlife habitat, maintain biodiversity,
pollinate crops, provide storage site for carbon and
also provide aesthetic, cultural and spiritual values.
32. (d) Communities is an assemblage of interacting
populations occupying a given area. Climate, species
interaction, feeding relationship among organisms
and succession are the factors which influence
communities.
33. (c) Any calculations of energy content, biomass, or
numbers has to include all organisms at that trophic
level. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never
be inverted, because when energy flows from a
particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some
energy is always lost as heat at each step.
34. (b) Regarding biogeochemical cycles, statement (i), (ii),
and (iv) are correct.
Biogeochemical cycle is the flow of chemical elements
and compounds between living organisms and the
physical environment. Chemicals absorbed or
ingested by organisms are passed through the food
chain and returned to the soil, air, and water by such
mechanisms as respiration, excretion, and
decomposition. As an element moves through this
cycle, it often forms compounds with other elements
as a result of metabolic processes in living tissues
and of natural reactions in the atmosphere,
hydrosphere, or lithosphere.
35. (d) Energy flow in the ecosystem in a unidirectional
manner. There is a decline in the amount of energy
passing from one trophic level to the next. Thus pyramid of energy is always upright. According to
Lindemann, only 10% of energy goes to next trophic
level.
36. (b) Net primary productivity is the rate of organic matter
built up or stored by producers in their bodies per
unit time and area. Net productivity is equal to gross
primary productivity minus loss due to respiration
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-201
and other reasons. Rate of increase in energy
containing organic matter or biomass by
heterotrophs or consumers per unit time and area is
known as secondary productivity.
37. (d) When food is made available automatically the next
higher level of organism in the hierarchy should increase. This is because when the forest cover got
depleted it led to the increase in the number of endangered species. If the deer population is more, it
automatically leads to an increase in the tiger population.
38. (c) In the food web different food chains are
interconnected. Each chain consists of
interconnected. Each chain consists of different
trophic levels i.e. producers, consumers and
detrivorous. So, kite can also be a part of food web.
39. (c) The organisms of all the species that live in a
particular area and interact in various ways with one
another form biotic community. Biotic community is
a grouping that is higher than population in ecological
hierarchy. It is an assemblage of all the populations
of different organisms occurring in an area. The
different populations of a community do not remain
isolated. They show interactions and interdependence.
40. (a) A : Primary succession is the series of community
changes which occur on an entirely new habitat
which has never been colonized before. For example,
facesa newly quarried rock or sand dunes.
B : Climax community is the final stage of biotic
succession which is attained by a plant community
in an area under the environmental conditions
present at a particular time. The species composition
of the climax community remains the same because
all the species present successfully reproduce
themselves and invading species fail to gain a
foothold.
C : Consumers are organisms of an ecological food
chain that receive energy by consuming other organisms.
These organisms are formally referred to as heterotrophs,
which include animals, bacteria and fungus. .
D : Producer is an autotrophic organism that serves
as a source of food for other organisms in a food
chain. Producers include green plants, which produce
food through photosynthesis, and certain bacteria
that are capable of converting inorganic substances
into food through chemosynthesis.
41. (a) A : Standing state refers to the amount of nutrients
such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorous, calcium etc,
present in the soil at any given time. It varies in different
kinds of ecosystems and also on a seasonal basis.
B : Gaseous cycle include those of nitrogen, oxygen,
carbon, and water. In this cycle, the reservoir is the
air or the oceans (via evaporation).
C : Standing crop is the total biomass of an ecosystem
or any of its components at a given time. The
standing crop is measured as the mass of living
organisms or the number in a unit area.
D : Sedimentary cycles include those of iron, calcium,
phosphorus, and other more earthbound elements.
In this cycle, the reservoir is the Earth's crust.
42. (b)
43. (c) A : Pioneer community on lithosphere is crustose
lichen. Pioneer species are the first to occupy bare
ground. These plants are often intolerant of
competition and especially of shading, and may be
crowded out as the community develops.
B : Ecological succession is the process by which
the structure of a biological community changes and
evolves over time.
C : Climax community is the final stage of biotic
succession attainable by a plant community in an
area under the environmental conditions present at
a particular time.
D : Ecological pyramid is a graphical representation
designed to show the biomass or bio productivity at
each trophic level in a given ecosystem. Ecological
pyramids were developed by Charles Elton (1927)
and are, therefore, also called Eltonian pyramids.
44. (d) A : Presence of 3 - 4 storeys of plant grown in a
forest s called stratification.
B : A biome having grasses with scattered trees is
called savannah.
C : Man made ecosystem is dam. Man - made
ecosystem are the artificial ecosystems which rely
on the human efforts to sustain.
D : Pioneer in hydrosere is blue green algae.
45. (a) Fungi is not autotrophic. Autotrophs are producers
which make their own food through the process of
photosynthesis.
46. (d) In the given diagrammatic representation of trophic
levels in an ecosystem, species marked a s A, B,C and
D are respectively secondary consumer, primary
producer, plants and man/lion.
47. (c) The given diagram represents a simplified model of
phosphorus cycle in a terrestrial ecosystem. The
natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock, which
contains the phosphorus in the form of phosphates.
48. (a) Food web is a network of food chains or feeding
relationships by which energy and nutrients are
passed on from one species of living organisms to
another.
49. (a)
50. (c) In aquatic ecosystem such as pond, as the producers
(macrophytes, phytoplankton) are small organisms.
Their biomass is least, and this value gradually
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-202 Biology
shows an increase towards the apex of the pyramid,
thus making the pyramid inverted in shape.
51. (c) Pyramid given in option (c) represents the variation
in biomass at different trophic levels in pond
ecosystem. Biomass means the dry mass of living
material at a stage in a food chain. The biomass goes
down as you go from one stage to the next, just like
the amount of energy.
52. (c) Option (c) is a pyramid of energy which represents
both the food chain. Pyramid of energy is a graphic
representation of amount of energy trapped per unit
time and area in different trophic levels of food chain
with producers forming the base and top carnivores
the tip. The energy content is expressed as Kcal/m2
/
yr. The pyramids of energy indicates not only the
amount of energy flow at each level, but more
importantly the actual role the various organisms
play in the transfer of energy. In shape it is always
upright, as in most of the cases there is always a
gradual decrease in the energy content at successive
trophic levels from the producers to various
consumers.
P
PC
SC
TC
Pyramid of energy (Kcal/m2
/yr) in any ecosystem
(P = Producers; PC = primary consumers (herbivores);
SC = secondary consumers (carnivores); TC =
Tertiary consumers (carnivores)
53. (c) Arrow III is incorrect.
54. (d) The given food chain represents the grazing food
chain. This food chain starts from plants, goes
through herbivores and ends in carnivores.
Plant ® Herbivores ® Pri. Carnivores ® Sec.
Carnivores ® Top carnivores
55. (c) In parasitic food chain, the pyramid of number is
always inverted, because a single plant may support
the growth of many herbivore and each herbivore
provides nutrition to several parasites, which
supports many hyperparasites. Thus, the number of
organisms gradually shows an increase.
56. (b) Secondary consumers are organisms, primarily
animals, which eat primary consumers. Through
photosynthesis (the process by which plants
captures the sun's energy and uses it to grow), plants
take carbon dioxide out of the atmosphere and release
oxygen. The carbon dioxide is converted into carbon
compounds that make up the body of the plant, which
are stored in both the aboveground parts of the
plants (shoots and leaves), and the belowground
parts (roots). In the next step, animals eat the plants,
breath in the oxygen, and exhale carbon dioxide. The
carbon dioxide created by animals is then available
for plants to use in photosynthesis. Carbon stored
in plants that are not eaten by animals eventually
decomposes after the plants die, and is either
released into the atmosphere or stored in the soil.
Therefore, If CO2
is removed totally from the
biosphere; secondary consumers will be affected first.
57. (d) Decomposition involves breakdown of complex
organic matter by decomposer to inorganic raw
materials like CO2, water & various nutrients. It
consists of the following processes:
Fragmentation : It is the formation of smaller pieces
of dead organic matter or detritus by detritivores.
Catabolism : Chemical conversion of detritus into
simpler inorganic substances with the help of
bacterial and fungal enzymes is called catabolism.
Leaching : Water soluble substances (formed as a
result of decomposition) are leached to deeper layers
of soil.
Humification : If decomposition leads to the
formation of colloidal organic matter (humus), the
process is called humification.
Mineralization : Formation of simpler inorganic
substances (like CO2
, water and minerals) is termed
mineralization.
58. (b) According to the 10% law, at each trophic level, only
10% of the energy received is transferred to the next
trophic level. And rest of the energy is used up in
biological activity and gets wasted in the
environment.
59. (a) Sparrow feeds upon grains hence called primary
consumer and can also feed on insects hence also
called secondary consumer at the same time in the
same ecosystem.
60. (b) According to the 10% law, at each trophic level, only
10% of the energy received is transfered to the next
trophic level.
61. (b) The phosphorus cycle is the biogeochemical cycle
that describes the movement of phosphorus through
the lithosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere. The
carbon cycle is the circulation and transformation of
carbon back and forth between living things and the
environment. The phosphorous cycle differs from
carbon cycle in that the phosphorous cycle does
not include a gaseous phase whereas the carbon
cycle does.
62. (d) Grassland can support greater grazing rates by
herbivores than forests because grassland produces
less woody plant tissue.
63. (b) An ecosystem includes the environment and the
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-203
biological community living there. A coral reef
ecosystem would include much more than just the
fish.
64. (b) Herbivorous animals are primary consumers in
terrestrial ecosystem.
65. (d) Respiration and photosynthesis; fossil fuel
combustion and decomposition of dead organisms
contribute to the carbon cycle. The carbon cycle is
the circulation and transformation of carbon back
and forth between living things and the environment.
66. (b) The pyramid of biomass is upright, in which the
number of organism decreases from first trophic level,
i.e., producers to second trophic level, i.e., herbivores
to the last trophic level, i.e., carnivores.
67. (d) Primary succession is the ecological succession
occurring in an area where no organisms are found,
like bare rocks, sand dunes etc.
68. (d) Unlike their behaviour in air and water, elements on
land move slowly, and usually only for short
distances.
69. (c) Fresh weight is not used for the construction of
ecological pyramids because the total fresh weight
does not change into energy. Hence we can say that
fresh weight is not continuous in the tropic levels.
70. (d) Four important functional aspects of the ecocystem
are (i) productivity (ii) decomposition, (iii) energy
flow, (iv) nutrient cycling. Stratification is the occurrence
of vertical zonation in the ecosystem & indicates the
presence of favourable environmental conditions.
71. (b) In an ecosystem, producers (e.g., plants/
phytoplankton) belong to first trophic level,
herbivores or primary consumer (e.g., grasshopper)
to the second and carnivores or secondary consumer
(e.g., lion, wolf) to the third trophic level.
72. (b) In food web, each successive trophic level has less
total energy content as per law of Lindeman. Some
energy is lost in tranfer from one to another level.
73. (a) Green plants are called producer because they can
synthesize food material in presence of light
(autotrophs), therefore for any food chain first link
is the green plants.
74. (d) 2/3 parts of earth is ocean, here various types of
food chains form food webs. This ecosystem is most
stable due to buffering action of water.
75. (b) Secondary productivity is the rate of storage of organic
matter by consumers per unit area per unit time.
76. (d) In ecological succession from pioneer to climax
community, the biomass shall increase continuously.
Cjãòvgt 37 : Bkqækøgtõkvû ãpæ Cqpõgtøãvkqp
1. (d) Biodiversity is the variety of living forms present in
various ecosystems. It is the occurrence of different types
of ecosystems different species of organisms with their
biotypes and genes adapted to different climates,
environments along with their interactions and processes.
2. (a) Alpha diversity, also known as within community
diversity, means diversity of organisms sharing the
same community habitat.
3. (b) All the three diversities [alpha diversity (a-diversity),
beta diversity (b-diversity) and gamma diversity (gdiversity)] were introduced by R. H. Whittaker. Beta
diversity may be defined as the rate of replacement
of species along a gradient of habitats or communities
due to presence of different microhabitat, niches and
differences in environmental condition between
community diversity.
4. (b) Gamma diversity refers to the total species richness
over a large area or region.
5. (c) Eastern Himalayan and Western Ghats are the
hotspot area which shows maximum biodiversity in
our country.
6. (b) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) is an international organization which works
in the field of nature conservation and sustainable
use of natural resources. It is also involved in data
gathering and analysis, research, field projects and
education.
7. (c) According to IUCN (2004), the total numbers of plant
and animals species are more than 1.5 million species
described so far.
8. (c) Animals are more diverse (above 70%) than plants
including plantae and fungi (22%).
9. (d) Exotic species usually reduces biodiversity because
these species which is not native to a particular area,
arrives (usually with the help of human) and
establishes a population, and spreads on its own
kind.
10. (c) The number of fungal species in the world is more
than the combined total species of fishes, amphibians,
reptiles and mammals. Therefore it represents the
highest number of species in the world.
11. (d) Pigeon is not an example of recent extinction because
extinction is a natural phenomenon in which a species
goes extinct if it is not able to adapt to changes in it's
environment, or compete effectively with other
organisms. Examples of recent extinctions include
dodo (Mauritius), quagga (Africa), Steller's sea cow
(Russia), thylacine (Australia) and three subspecies
of tiger (Bali, Java, Caspian).
12. (b) Amphibians are more vulnerable to extinction because
they are highly sensitive to environmental changes
which lead to extinction. Threatened by habitat
destruction and degradation, the spread of virulent
diseases, climate change and trade, amphibians may
be on the verge of a near total disappearance from
global ecosystems.
13. (d)
14. (d) Hunting is not the cause of “The Evil Quartet of
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-204 Biology
biodiversity loss.”
15. (a)
16. (c) Vulnerable species are those species that already
existed in low number and are likely to move into
endangered category in the near future, if causal
factors such as habitat destruction, over exploitation
and other environmental disturbances continue over
a period of time. E.g. Musk deer, Sambhar deer, Black
buck.
17. (b) Nile perch is a large predator fish, introduced in
Lake Victoria of South Africa. It was endemic to the
aquatic system because it begins to threaten the
entire fresh water ecosystem by feeding on small
herbivorous and detrivorous cichlid fish species (of
Lake victoria).
18. (b) Global warming is predicted to be a major cause of
extinction in the future. Global warming is the regular
increase in the overall temperature of the earth's
atmosphere which is generally credited to the
greenhouse effect caused by increased levels of
harmful gases like carbon dioxide, CFCs, and other
pollutants.
19. (c) Habitat loss is the most serious threat to biodiversity
leading to extinction of animals and plants species.
All over the world habitats are being turned into
agricultural land, harvested for wood and fuel, and
destroyed or changed to build roads, schools, malls
and other human developments. Since human
population is growing so rapidly and consuming so
many natural resources, habitat loss is occurring at
a rapid pace.
20. (a) A country with a high proportion of endemic species
should receive high conservation priority because if
the endemic species are lost there, they generally
become completely extinct.
21. (c) In situ conservation (on site) is the conservation of
genetic resources within natural or human-made
ecosystems in which they occur. E.g. protected areas
such as national parks, sanctuaries, biosphere
reserves, cultural landscapes, natural monuments.
22. (c) Biosphere reserve is an area created to protect the
biological and cultural diversity of a region. It is a
place of collaboration, education and
experimentation, where scientists etc can share
research data to better understand man's impact on
nature, and where local communities, environmental
groups, and economic interests can work
collaboratively on conservation and development
issue.
23. (d) Hot spots are the areas or regions of high endemism
and very high levels of species richness. These are
the richest and the most threatened reservoirs of
plant and animal life on earth. There are 34 hot spots
in the world, of which three are in India; namely
Western Ghats, Indo-Burma and Himalaya.
24. (a) Hot spots are the areas or regions of high endemism
and very high levels of species richness. These are
the richest and the most threatened reservoirs of
plant and animal life on earth.
25. (b) Endemic plants and animals are those species which
are restricted to a particular area. This makes them
both extremely special as well as more vulnerable to
extinction. As they are only found in certain
locations, they require special conservation efforts.
26. (d) National Park is a protected area, which is strictly
reserved for the welfare of the wildlife and where
activities like forestry, grazing and cultivation are
not permitted. Their boundaries are well marked and
circumscribed. In national parks, the emphasis is on
the preservation of a single plant or animal species.
27. (b) There are 83 national parks and 421 sanctuaries found
in India. Their total area is about 1,41,295 sq. km. It is
about 4% of India’s total geographic area.
28. (c) Seed bank is an example of ex - situ conservation. Ex
situ conservation is the conservation outside the
(organisms) habitats by preserving sample
population in genetic resources, centres, zoos,
botanical gardens etc. Seed bank is a type of gene
bank which stores seeds (may be of food crops or
those of rare species which were destroyed) to
protect biodiversity.
29. (d) Cryopreservation is a process where cells, whole
tissues, or any other substances susceptible to
damage caused by chemical reactivity or time are
preserved by cooling to sub-zero temperatures. At
low enough temperatures, any enzymatic or chemical
activity which might cause damage to the material in
question is effectively stopped. The germ plasm in
cryopreservation is maintained at –196°C (not °F).
30. (d) All the given statements are correct.
31. (c) Wildlife conservation is the practice of protecting
wild plant and animal species in their natural habitats.
32. (c) A botanical garden is a place where plants are grown
and revealed for the purposes of research and
education and allows ex situ conservation for germ
plasm. Botanical gardens distinguish them from other
parks and gardens where plants, with beautiful
flowers, are grown for public convenience. Botanical
gardens specialize in trees are referred to as arboreta.
33. (a) Wild life sanctuary is a protected area which is
reserved for the conservation of animals only.
34. (d) Biodiversity is the variety of living forms present in
various ecosystems. It includes variability among life
forms from all sources including air, water and land. It is
the diversity of biological organisation ranging from
cellular macromolecules to biomes.
35. (a) According to the concept of species-area
relationship, within a region, species richness gets
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-205
increased when explored area is increased, but only
up to a limit.
36. (a) Genetic diversity is the diversity shown by a single
species at genetic level.
37. (d) Quantifying or measuring the species genome does
not help to recognise biodiversity. Biodiversity is
the variety of plant and animal life found in a
particular habitat.
38. (a) Habitat loss and its alteration is the most important
human activity leading to extinction of wildlife. The
transformation of the natural areas determines not
only the loss of the vegetable species, but also a
decrease in the animal species associated with them.
Habitat alteration and destruction of the natural
habitat cause the destruction of breeding grounds,
shelter and sources of food.
39. (d) A sacred grove or sacred wood is a grove of trees of
special religious importance to a particular culture.
40. (d) Ex situ conservation means off-site conservation. It
protects an endangered species of plant or animal
outside its natural habitat; for example, by removing
part of the population from a threatened habitat and
placing it in a new location, either a wild area or within
the care of humans. While ex situ conservation
comprises some of the oldest and best known
conservation methods, it also involves newer
methods also like cryopreservation etc..
41. (d) Biodiversity refers to the variety found in biota from
genetic make-up of plants and animals to cultural
diversity. The main cause of the loss of biodiversity
can be attributed to the influence of human beings
on the world's ecosystem. The important factors
causing loss of biodiversity are - habitat loss, habitat
fragmentation, disturbances, over exploitation of
resources, pollution, exotic species, co-extinction,
alien species invasion, intensive agriculture and
forestry.
42. (b) Fragmentation and loss of habitat are the major cause
of loss of numbers of migratory birds.
43. (a) Communities with higher number of species are more
stable as it can resist occasional disturbances. A
stable community should show less variation in
productivity from year to year and resistant towards
by alien species.
44. (a) Latitudinal and altitudinal gradation is displayed by
biodiversity. A decrease in in variety of species is
seen as we assend a high mountain due to a drop in
temperature and greater variations in seasons.
45. (c) Fossil records indicate that there had been five
episodes of mass extinctions since life originated
and diversified on earth mostly due to natural caves,
the sixth or current mass extinction is on going and
different from earlier extinctions as it is man-made.
46. (c) Tropical rain forests are located in the equatorial
regions where ever the annual rainfall exceeds 140
cm. They are also called jungles and cover one
twelveth of earth's surface but contain more than
half of the earth's flora and fauna (i.e., rich in
biodiversity). Now-a-days these forests are
disappearing due to excessive cutting of forests for
domestic purposes like fuel, furnitures,
accomodations, cloths, resin, gum, etc.
47. (c) Biodiversity varies with change in latitude or altitude.
The diversity increases as we move from high to low
latitudes (i.e., from poles of equator). In the temperate
region, the climate is severe with short growing
period for plants while in tropical rain forests the
conditions are favourable for growth throughout the
year. This makes it possible for a large number of
species to occur and grow. Gamma diversity refers
to the total biodiversity over a large area or region. It
is the total of a and b diversity.
48. (b) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III.
Nile perch introduced in Lake Victoria acts as an alien
species and leads to the extinction of cichlid fish
present in the lake. Narrowly utilitarian is the obvious
reason for biodiversity conservation. Habitat
destruction is the main cause for loss of biodiversity.
Hot spot is a biogeographic region with a major
reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from
humans, hence it show high species diversity as well
as high endemism.
49. (c) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
Biodiversity term (given by Edward Wilson) is used
to describe the variety of plant and animal species in
a given particular area. In - situ conservation (also
called as on site conservation) protects an
endangered plant or animal species in its natural
habitat by different methods. Plant pollinator or
mutualism shows co - extinctions (phenomena of the
loss or decline of a host species resulting in the loss
or endangering of other species that depend on it).
Ex - situ conservation (also called as off - site
conservation) preserves the components of
biological diversity outside their natural habitats.
50. (a) A - III, B - V, C - I, D - II, E - IV
51. (b) A - III, B - I, C - II
52. (b) A - V, B - IV, C - II, D - I, E - III
53. (a) In the given pie diagrams (A, B and C), the
proportionate number of species of major taxa of
invertebrates, vertebrates and plants respectively
marked as I (mollusca), II (amphibians), III (Fungi),
IV (Angiosperms)
54. (d)
55. (a) A, B and C respectively show minimum, greater and
maximum diversity. Since the number of individuals
in all the three boxes are same but the variety of animals
in all the boxes are different, like box A shows diversity
of single animal - bird, box B shows diversity of birds
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-206 Biology
and mammals whereas box C shows diversity of three
animals - birds, mammals and insects.
56. (d) Fungi > Angiosperms > Algae > Pteridophytes
57. (a) India has only 2.4% of the land area of the world; it
has 8.1% of the global species biodiversity.
58. (d) On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line
and the equation is described as Log S = log C + Z log
A, where, S= Species richness, A= Area, C= Y-intercept
and Z= slope of the line (regression co-efficient).
59. (d) Cheetah has become extinct from India in the mid20th century, about the time that India gained its
independence in 1947. And it is the only animal to
become extinct from India due to unnatural causes.
60. (d) Threatened species are species that are likely to
disappear from the world sooner or later. In the Red
list, all species listed under the categories critically
are endangered, vulnerable and endangered are
together described as threatened species.
61. (d) Creating biosphere reserve is the most effective
approach to conserve the plant diversity in an area.
A biosphere reserve is an ecosystem with plants and
animals of unusual scientific and natural interest.
62. (d) Animal species should be preserved mainly because
man cannot recreate a species of animals after its
destruction and also preservation of these animal
will provide better knowledge and understanding of
their own species.
63. (b) Conservation is the systematic study of the nature
and of Earth's biodiversity with the aim of protecting
species, their habitats, and ecosystems from excessive
rates of extinction and the erosion of biotic interactions.
64. (a) All life forms should be conserved because, they
maintain diverse genetic resources.
65. (a) The variety in the number and richness of the species
of a region is called species diversity. Species
diversity increases from high altitude to low altitude
and from high latitude to low latitude.
66. (c) Lantana camara and water hyacinth are exotic
species introduced in India. Exotic species are those
species which are not native to an ecosystem, but
often established purposefully or inadvertently by
human activity.
67. (c) Information given in the table shows that area III
has the maximum species diversity. Species diversity
is a extent of the diversity within their ecological
community that includes both species richness (the
number of species in a community) and the evenness
of species abundances.
68. (d) Alteration of habitat by human beings is the greatest
threat to global biodiversity. Natural habitats are
increasingly changed by human activities.
69. (b) Migratory species perform cyclical movements
between two distinct geographical areas, one of
which is usually the area in which they breed. These
species present special preservation challenges
because their conservation may need international
cooperation when they require habitats or
environments in different countries where they
migrate to survive.
70. (b) Biosphere reserves are a special category of
protected areas of land or coastal environments
where in people are an integral component of the
system.
71. (c) Sacred groves help in protection of many rare,
threatened and endemic species of plants and animals
found in an area. The process of deforestation is
strictly prohibited in this region by tribals. Hence,
the sacred grove is a biodiversity rich area.
Cjãòvgt 38 : Epøktqpïgpvãn Ëõõwgõ
1. (d) Pollution causes undesirable changes in the
characteristics of air, water, land or soil. Pollution is
the contamination of air, water, or soil by substances
that are harmful to living organisms. Pollution can
occur naturally, for example through volcanic
eruptions, or as the result of human activities, such
as the spilling of oil or disposal of industrial waste.
2. (b) Pollution is any undesirable change in physical
chemical or biological characteristics of air, land,
water or soil. In order to control environmental
pollution, the Govt. of India has passed the
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to protect and
improve the quality of our environment.
3. (d) The electrostat precipitator can remove over 99
percent particulate matter present in the exhaust from
a thermal power plant. The electrostatic precipitator
has electrode wires which are maintained at several
thousand of volts. The electrode wires produce a
Corona that releases electrons. These electrons get
attached to the dust particles by giving them a netnegative charge. The collecting plates are grounded
to attract the charged dust –particles. The velocity
of air between the plates is kept low enough to allow
the dust particles to fall. However, the particulate
matter that are very small are not removed by these
precipitators.
4. (b) To remove harmful gases, like sulphur-dioxide, from
gaseous air pollutants the scrubbers are used. In scrubber
the harmful gases (exhaust) are passed through a spray
of water or the lime to separate the clean air.
5. (a) According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB),
particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter
(PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest
harm to human health.
6. (a) Catalytic converter is a device incorporated in the
exhaust system of a motor vehicle, containing a
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-207
catalyst for converting pollutant gases into less
harmful ones. In its reaction chamber, it contains a
finely divided catalyst (usually platinum and other
metals such as rhodium, palladium, and gold) into
which exhaust gases from an automotive engine are
passed together with excess air so that carbon
monoxide and hydrocarbon pollutants are oxidized
to carbon dioxide and water, and nitrogen oxides are
reduced to nitrogen and oxygen gases.
7. (d) Noise is undesirable sound of high level that causes
psychological and physiological disorders in human.
A brief exposure to extremely high level of sound
( ³ 150 dB) generated by taking off of a jet plane or
rocket, may damage ear drums and hence can impair
hearing ability permanently.
8. (a) The Govt. of India through a new auto fuel policy
has laid out a roadmap to cut down the vehicular
pollution in Indian cities. For example, Euro II norms
stipulate that sulphur be controlled at 350 ppm in
diesel and 150 ppm in petrol.
9. (c) All automobiles and fuel - petrol and diesel were to
meet the Euro III emission specification in some cities
from 1 April 2008 and have to meet the Euro IV norms
by 1 April 2010.
10. (c) All domestic sewage and industrial effluents, without
being treated are dumped into nearby river. Even
0.1% of impurites by sewage, makes the water unfit
for human use.
11. (a) The domestic sewage primarily contains
biodegradable organic matter which is decomposed
by bacteria and other micro-organisms. The amount
of such organic matter in sewage water is measured
by BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) method.
12. (c) Full form of BOD is biochemical oxygen demand. It
is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic
biological organisms in a body of water to break down
organic material present in a given water sample at
certain temperature over a specific time period.
13. (c) BOD may be defined as the amount of oxygen
required by aerobic microorganisms to decompose
the organic matter in a sample of water, such as that
polluted by sewage. It is used as a measure of the
degree of water pollution.
14. (c) An algal bloom is a relatively rapid increase in the
population of (usually) phytoplankton algae in an
aquatic system. Typically only one or a few species
are involved and the bloom is recognized by
discoloration of the water resulting from the high
density of pigmented cells. Although there is no
officially recognized threshold level, algae are unlikely
to be considered to be blooming unless more than
10,000 cells per millilitre occur. Algal bloom
concentrations may reach millions of cells per
millilitre. Colours observed are green, yellowishbrown, or red. Bright green blooms may also occur.
These are a result of blue-green algae, which are
actually bacteria (cyanobacteria). Algal bloom causes
deterioration of the water quality and fish mortality.
15. (b) The excessive growth of a floating plant, Water
Hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) has caused havoc
in India by blocking our water- ways. In India it is
also known as‘Terror of Bengal’. It grows abundantly
in nutrient rich water bodies and causes an imbalance
in the aquatic ecosystem.
16. (a) Unlike domestic sewage, waste water from industries
like petroleum, paper manufacturing, metal extraction
and processing, chemical manufacturing, etc. often
contain toxic substances, notably heavy metals
(defined as elements with density > 5g/cm3
); such
as mercury, cadmium, copper, lead etc.) and a variety
of organic compounds.
17. (a) Increase in concentration of a pollutant from one
link in a food chain to another is called
biomagnification. In aquatic food chain,
biomagnification of DDT shows that the
concentration of DDT is increased at successive
trophic level. Concentration of DDT for first trophic
level (phytoplankton) and top trophic level (fish
eating birds) is respectively 0.025ppm and 25ppm in
aquatic food chain if DDT is 0.03 pb in water. High
concentration of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in
birds which causes thinning of eggshell and their
premature breaking eventually causing decline in bird
population.
18. (b) DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because it
inhibits calcium ATPase.
19. (b) Eutrophication is a natural process which literally
means well nourished or enriched. It is a natural state
in many lakes and ponds which have a rich supply
of nutrients. Eutrophication becomes excessive when
abnormally high amount of nutrient from sewage,
fertilizers, animal wastage and detergent, enter
streams and lakes causing excessive growth or
blooms of microorganisms. With increasing
eutrophication, the diversity of the phytoplankton
community of a lake increases and the lake finally
becomes dominated by blue - green algae.
20. (b) Friends of the Arcata Marsh (FOAM) is a non-profit
organization which for the last twenty years has
advanced knowledge and educated the public about
treatment and reuse of wastewater. The purpose of
the FOAM is to stimulate understanding of the
Arcata Marsh and Wildlife Sanctuary, its relationship
with Arcata's integrated wastewater treatment system,
the surrounding watersheds and bay, and their link
with the earth's water cycle.
21. (a) Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled modified
plastic, developed by Ahmed khan’s company. This
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-208 Biology
mixture is mixed with bitumen that is used to lay
roads.
22. (a) Main green house gases are CO2
, CH4
, N2O, CFC
excluding this SO2
, NO2
, O3
, water vapour are also
released from industries and agriculture which are
responsible for to increasing the green house effect.
23. (d) The green house effect is a naturally occuring
phenomenon that is responsible for heating of Earth’s
surface and atmosphere. Without a green house
effect, the average temperature at earth’s surface
would have been around – 18°C, rather than the
present average of +15°C.
24. (a) Jhum cultivation is a local name for slash and burn
agriculture practiced by the tribal groups in the north
eastern states of India like Arunachal Pradesh,
Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland and also in the
districts of Bangladesh like Khagrachari and Sylhet.
This system involves clearing a piece of land by
setting fire or clear felling and using the area for
growing crops of agricultural importance such as
upland rice, vegetables or fruits. After a few cycles,
the land loses fertility and a new area is chosen.
25. (c) Integrated organic farming refers to a cylindrical zero
waste procedure, where waste products from one
process are recycled in as nutrients for the other
processes. This allows the maximum utilization of
resources and increases the efficiency of production.
26. (a) The presence of a large amount of nutrients in water
causes excessive growth of planktons or freefloating algae to produce algal bloom. Such algal
blooms deteriorate the quality of water, cause the
mortality of fishes and impart distinct colour to water
bodies.
27. (b) Pollution in large cities can be controlled to a large
extent by road side plantation and proper disposal
of garbage and domestic as well as municipal wastes.
28. (d) All the statements regarding eutrophication are
correct. Eutrophication is a natural process that
occurs in an aging lake or pond as that body of water
gradually builds up its concentration of plant
nutrients.
29. (d) Eco friendly disposal of municipal wastes should be
sorted out into biodegradable, non - biodegradable
and recyclable wastes and treated separately.
30. (a) Cultural eutrophication is an accelerated form of
eutrophication. Cultural or artificial eutrophication
occurs when human activity introduces increased
amounts of these nutrients, which speed up plant
growth and eventually choke the lake of all of its
animal life.
The prime contaminates are nitrates and phosphates
which act like plant nutrients.
The water from electricity generating units reduces
the number of organisms sensitive to high
temperature and may enhance the growth of plants
and fish in extremely cold areas, only after causing
damage to indigenous flora and fauna.
31. (d) All the statements regarding Eco San are correct.
Eco san is a sustainable system for handling human
excreta or faecal matter by using composting toilets.
These are very useful in the rural areas where sewer
system are not possible. These toilets are hygienic,
efficient, practical and most effective for the disposal
of human excreta.
32. (a) Ozone layer is a deep layer in earth's atmosphere
that contains ozone which is a naturally occurring
molecule containing three oxygen atoms. The good
ozone is found in the upper part of the atmosphere
called the stratosphere. The ozone layer forms a thick
layer in stratosphere, encircling the earth that has
large amount, of ozone in it. It protects the Earth
from the harmful radiations that come from the sun.
33. (d) All the statements regarding noise pollution are
correct. Noise pollution is the unwanted sound which
is released into the environment. It disturbs the
human being and cause an adverse effect on the
mental and psychological well - being. It is measured
in the units of decibels and is denoted by dB. The
noise which is more than 115 dB is tolerant. It affects
the general health and hearing power of the human
beings.
34. (a) Integrated waste water treatment involves
conventional sedimentation, filtering and chlorine
treatment. After this a lot of dangerous pollutants
like dissolved heavy metals still remain. To combat
this situation, the biologists developed a series of
six connected marshes over 60 hectares of marshland
where appropriate plants, algae, fungi and bacteria
were seeded which neutralize, absorb and assimilate
the pollutants. Hence, as the water flows through
the marshes, it gets purified naturally.
35. (c) The major contribution in green houses is water
vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide,
ozone, and any fluorocarbons. Global warming is
because of green - house gases. Global warming is a
gradual increase in the overall temperature of the
earth's atmosphere generally attributed to the
greenhouse effect caused by increased levels of
carbon dioxide, CFCs, CH4
, and other pollutants.
36. (b) Montreal protocol on substances that deplete the
ozone layer is a protocol to the Vienna Convention
for the Protection of the Ozone Layer. It is an
international treaty designed to protect the ozone
layer by phasing out the production of a number of
substances believed to be responsible for ozone
depletion. The treaty was opened for signature on
September 16, 1987, and entered into force on
January 1, 1989, followed by a first meeting in Helsinki,
May 1989.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-209
37. (d) Unlike other pollution, noise pollution is such that it
does not show its presence by leaving any kind of
residue in the environment. Yet it badly affects the
human health, as apart from hampering the hearing
ability, it also causes nervous disorders in man. Green
plantation along the noisy roads is a technique (green
mufflers) to counteract the noise pollution because
plants may absorb noise of low frequency.
38. (d) The greenhouse effect is a process by which thermal
radiation from a planetary surface is absorbed by
atmospheric greenhouse gases, and is re-radiated in
all directions. Re designing land-fill dumps to allow
methane to be collected slows down the green house
effect.
39. (b) Methane is produced by incomplete biomass
combustion, incomplete decomposition mostly by
anaerobic methanogens.
Carbon dioxide contributes about 60% of the total
global warming and share of methane (CH4
) and
chlorofluoro carbons (CFCs) is 20% and 14%
respectively. N2O also contributes 6% in total global
warming. Efficient engine such as multi point fuel
injection engine can reduce the unburnt
hydrocarbon (methane) in auto-emissions.
40. (b) Catalytic converters are involved in reducing
gaseous pollutions by converting
CO ¾¾® CO2
, NO2 ¾¾® N2
etc. Thus, decrease
the amount of pollutant. They can not reduce
emission of SPM.
41. (b) Global warming is due to the increase in concentration
of green house gases resulted in increase in global
temperature. These global gases prevent the escape
of long wave radiations into space.
42. (a) Water pollutants are commonly measured by their
main common denominator, called BOD (Biochemical
Oxygen Demand), i.e., the amount of free oxygen
absorbed by extraneous substances from water. If
water is polluted, it will consume more oxygen,
thereby enhancing the BOD of water.
43. (b) Eutrophication is a natural process which literally
means well nourished or enriched. It is a natural state
in many lakes and ponds which have a rich supply
of nutrients. Eutrophication become excessive,
however when abnormally high amount of nutrient
from sewage, fertilizers, animal wastage and
detergent, enter streams and lakes causing excessive
growth or blooms of microorganisms. With
increasing eutrophication, the diversity of the
phytoplankton community of a lake increases and
the lake finally becomes dominated by blue - green
algae.
44. (d) A : DDT - Increase in concentration of a pollutant
from one link in a food chain to another is called
biomagnification. In aquatic food chain,
biomagnification of DDT shows that the
concentration of DDT is increased at successive
trophic level.
B : Platinum - Palladium and Rhodium - These act as
catalyst in catalytic converter which is a device
incorporated in the exhaust system of a motor vehicle
for converting pollutant gases into less harmful ones.
Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter
are advised to use unleaded petrol because lead
causes inactivation of catalyst (platinum, palladium,
and rhodium) in a catalytic converter.
C : Acid rain- Acid rain is a rainfall made by
atmospheric pollution, it causes environmental harm,
chiefly to forests and lakes. The main cause is the
industrial burning of coal and other fossil fuels, the
waste gases containing sulphur and nitrogen oxides
which combine with atmospheric water to form acids.
D : Global warming - Global warming is the increase
of Earth's average surface temperature due to effect
of greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide
emissions from burning fossil fuels or from
deforestation, CFCs, CH4, and other pollutants,
which trap heat that would otherwise escape from
Earth.
45. (b) A : Catalytic converter is a device incorporated in
the exhaust system of a motor vehicle, containing a
catalyst for converting pollutant gases into less
harmful ones. As the exhaust passes through the
converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into
carbon dioxide, water, carbon monoxide and nitric
oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen
gas respectively.
B : Electrostatic precipitator is a device that removes
suspended dust particles from a gas or exhaust by
applying a high-voltage electrostatic charge and
collect the particles on charged plates.
C : Earmuffs is a pair of soft fabric coverings,
connected by a band across the top of the head, that
are worn over the ears to protect them from cold or
high noise level.
D : Land - fill is a site for the disposal of solid waste
in which refuse is buried between layers of dirt so as
to fill in or reclaim low-lying ground.
46. (b) A : Environment (protection) Act was enacted in 1986
with the objective of providing for the protection
and improvement of the environment. The Act was
last amended in 1991.
B : Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
1981 is an Act of the Parliament of India to control
and prevent air pollution. It was amended in 1987.
C : Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act,
1974 is established for water pollution control. This
act prevents and controls water pollution, maintains
or restores the wholesomeness of water, establish
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-210 Biology
boards for the prevention and control of water
pollution and confer on and assign to the boards,
the power and functions relating to the above
mentioned.
D : Concept of Joint Forest Management of Govt. of
India, 1980 to work closely with the local communities
for protecting and managing forests.
47. (a) DDT is a synthetic organic compound used as an
insecticide. Like other chlorinated aromatic
hydrocarbons, DDT tends to persist in the
environment and becomes concentrated in animals
at the head of the food chain. Its use is now banned
in many countries.
A : Zooplankton - 0.04 ppm
B : Small fish - 0.5 ppm
C : Large fish - 2 ppm
D : Fish eating birds - 25 ppm
48. (a) A : Ahmed khan, aged 57 years old is a plastic sac
manufacturer in Bangalore and has managed to find
the ideal solution to the ever increasing problem of
accumulating plastic waste. He has been producing
plastic sacks for 20 years.
B : Ramesh Chandra Dagar is an organic farmer in
Sonipat, follows integrated organic farming.
C : Amrita Devi Bishnoi is involved in protecting
wildlife. In 1730, 363 Bishnoi men, women and
children led by Amrita Devi died protecting trees
from cutting by the king's men. This incident
happened in Khejarli which is a village in Jodhpur
district of Rajasthan, 26 km south-east of the city of
Jodhpur. The Bishnois sacrificed their lives while
protecting trees by hugging to them.
49. (c) Solar energy coming to the earth is not responsible
for green house effect. It is the increase in green
house gases in atmosphere like CO2
which is released
by complete combustion of fossil fuels or biomass
in industries or transportation vehicles that prevent
the re-radiation of infrared radiation from the earth
and result in increase in the temperature of the earth.
50. (c) A : UV - Snow blindness : Snow blindness is a painful
eye condition that occurs when your eye is exposed
to invisible rays of energy called ultraviolet (UV)
rays, either from the sun or from a man-made source.
B : Biodegradable organic matter - BOD :
Biodegradable organic matter such as plant and
animal matter and other substances originating from
living organisms, or artificial materials that are similar
enough to plant and animal matter to be put to use
by microorganisms. It is possible to estimate the
amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage
water by measuring biochemical oxygen demand
(BOD).
C : DDT - Biomagnification : DDT is a synthetic
organic compound used as an insecticide. Like other
chlorinated aromatic hydrocarbons, DDT tends to
persist in the environment and becomes concentrated
in animals at the head of the food chain.
D : Phosphates - Eutrophication : Eutrophication is a
natural process that occurs in an aging lake or pond
as that body of water gradually builds up its
concentration of plant nutrients such as nitrogen
and phosphorus.
51. (c) A : Colloidal material - Faecal matter bacteria, cloth
and paper fibres.
B : Waterborne disease - Typhoid, Jaundice, Cholera.
Waterborne diseases are caused by pathogenic
microorganisms that most commonly are transmitted
in contaminated fresh water.
C : E - wastes - Irreparable computers and other
electronic goods. It is the term used to describe old,
end-of-life or discarded appliances using electricity. It
includes computers, consumer electronics, fridges etc
which have been disposed of by their original users.
D : Manure - Cattle excreta (dung). Manure is animal
excrement that is used to fertilize.
E : Bad ozone - Troposphere. In the Earth's lower
atmosphere (troposphere), near ground level, bad
ozone is formed when pollutants emitted by cars,
power plants, industrial boilers, refineries, chemical
plants, and other sources react chemically in the
presence of sunlight. Ozone at ground level is a
harmful pollutant.
52. (c) The given diagram in question shows a device known
as scrubber that can remove gases like sulphur
dioxide. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed through
a spray of water or lime.
53. (a) Figure (a) shows the correct relative contribution of
greenhouse gases to global warming.
54. (a) The given figure shows changes occur after the
discharge of sewage into a river. Micro-organisms
involved in biodegradation of organic matter in the
receiving water body consume a lot of oxygen, and
as a result there is a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen
downstream from the point of sewage discharge.
55. (a) In the given diagram of the effect of polluting river
with untreated whey, the graph marked as "X"
represents the bacterias count.
56. (a) Electrostatic precipitator is a device that removes
suspended dust particles from a gas or exhaust by
applying a high-voltage electrostatic charge and
collecting the particles on charged plates. In the given
diagram of electrostatic precipitator, the parts marked
as A, B and C are respectively discharge corona,
negatively charged ions, and collection plate grounded.
57. (c) In the given figure ‘X’ represents ozone hole. Ozone
hole is the area above Antarctica, where the ozone
layer is the thinnest.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Hints & Solutions S-211
58. (a) The given figure shows the phenomenon of green
house effect. Green house effect is a naturally
occurring phenomenon that is responsible for
heating of earth surface and atmosphere.
The sunlight or solar energy when enters
atmosphere, about ¼ of it is reflected back due to
clouds and gases in the outermost atmosphere, some
of it is absorbed, and about half of solar radiation
falls on the earth surface for heating it, though a
small proportion of it is reflected back from earth.
59. (d) CNG is a readily available alternative to gasoline
that's made by compressing natural gas to less than
1% of its volume at standard atmospheric pressure.
It consists mostly of methane. It is odourless,
colourless and tasteless. CNG is better than petrol/
diesel because it has very low moisture content,
cheap, easy to transport, burns more efficiently,
completely and can not be adulterated.
60. (a) In clean water, the concentration of BOD
(biochemical oxygen demand) is low but the DO
(dissolved oxygen) is high because BOD may be
defined as the amount of oxygen required by aerobic
microorganisms to decompose the organic matter in
a sample of water, such as that polluted by sewage.
It is used as a measure of the degree of water pollution.
61. (a) Water pollution is the contamination of water bodies
(e.g. lakes, rivers, oceans, aquifers and groundwater)
by chemical, physical, radioactive or pathogenic
microbial substances. This form of environmental
degradation occurs when pollutants are directly or
indirectly discharged into water bodies without
adequate treatment to remove harmful compounds.
Water pollution can be stopped best by treating
effluents to remove injurious chemicals.
62. (c) Sewage is a waste material (such as human urine and
faeces) that is carried away from homes and other
buildings in a system of pipes. Fishes die by sewage
due to increase oxygen competition among them
which leads to suffocation from low levels of
dissolved oxygen in the water.
63. (a) Eutrophication is a natural process that occurs in an
aging lake or pond as that body of water gradually
builds up its concentration of plant nutrients.
Artificial or cultural eutrophication occurs when
human activity introduces increased amounts of
these nutrients, which speed up plant growth and
eventually choke the lake of all of its animal life.
Therefore, lake affected by high levels of artificial
eutrophication will have high nutrient levels, large
phytoplankton populations and low oxygen levels
at depth.
64. (b) Lake A and B are identical in all aspects except that
Lake A has higher temperature. On the basis of this
difference it is clear that Lake B has higher rate of
oxygen dissolution.
65. (d) Greenhouse gases contribute to the greenhouse
effect by absorbing infrared radiation. Greenhouse
gases in the earth's atmosphere absorb IR from the
sun and release it. Some of the heat released reaches
the earth, along with heat from the sun that has
penetrated the atmosphere. Both the solar heat and
the radiated heat are absorbed by the earth and
released; some are reabsorbed by greenhouse gases
to preserve the cycle. Common examples of
greenhouse gases include: water vapour, carbon
dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone, and any
fluorocarbons. Although water vapour is the most
abundant greenhouse gas but it is a relatively
ineffective one. Human activities are responsible for
almost all of the increase in greenhouse gases in the
atmosphere over the last 150 years. Today the
concentration of green - houses gases is very high
because of use of refrigerator, increased combustion
of oils and coal and deforestation.
66. (b) One of the major effects of deforestation is increased
CO2
concentration in the atmosphere because trees
hold a lot of carbon in their biomass that is lost with
deforestation.
67. (c) If the forest cover is reduced to half, large areas will
become deserts, on a long term basis.
68. (d) The main problem with switching over to
compressed nautral gas (CNG) is the difficulty of
laying down pipelines to deliver CNG through
distribution points/pumps and ensuring
uninterrupted supply.
69. (a) Catalytic converter is a device incorporated in the
exhaust system of a motor vehicle, containing a
catalyst for converting pollutant gases into less
harmful ones. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic
converter are advised to use unleaded petrol because
lead causes inactivation of catalyst (platinum,
palladium, and rhodium) in a catalytic converter.
70. (b) Emissions that are released directly into the
atmosphere from the tailpipes of cars and trucks are
the primary source of vehicular pollution. But motor
vehicles also pollute the air during the processes of
manufacturing, refuelling, and from the emissions
associated with oil refining and distribution of the
fuel they burn. Use of high sulphur petrol and diesel
is not taken for reducing vehicular pollution.
71. (d) All the statements regarding biomagnification are
correct. Biomagnification is the concentration of
toxins in an organism as a result of its ingesting other
plants or animals in which the toxins are more widely
dispersed.
72. (d)
73. (a) Excess fluorine in drinking water causes hardening
of bones and stiffness of joints, black foot disease is
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
S-212 Biology
due to arsenic and Itai-Itai disease is due to cadmium
in contaminated water.
74. (c) The effect of today's radioactive fallout will be
harmful to children of future generation because its
affects the DNA structure.
75. (d) Soil erosion is the loss of protective vegetation
through deforestation, over grazing, ploughing and
fire makes soil vulnerable to being swept away by
wind and water. Without soil and plants, the land
becomes desert like and unable to support life knanv
as desertification. Irrigation without proper drainage
of water leads to water logging in the soil. But
reforestation is a method of conservation of forest
by developing forest cover in the area which has
been damaged or cleared during exploitation.
76. (a) UV-radiations are harmful for living beings. These
radiations cause harm to the DNA, RNA and protein.
It also causes ageing of skin, damage to skin cells
and various types of skin cancers.
77. (a) Increase in the level of green house gases leads to
global warming. This rise in temperature is leading
to deleterious changes in the environment and result
in odd climatic conditions, thus leading to rise
melting of polar ice caps and himalayan snow caps.
Over many years, this will result in a rise in sea level
that can submerge many coastal areas.
78. (a) Radioactive pollution causes gene mutation. It can
change the base sequence of DNA.
79. (c) In 1962, American biologist, Rachel Carson published
the book Silent Spring, which alleged that DDT
causes cancer and harmed bird reproduction by
thinning egg shells. This followed the principles of
biological magnification, killing higher level
organisms like the birds. DDT is a persistent organic
pollutant with a reported half life of between 2-15
years, and is immobile in most soils.
80. (d) Global warming is the increase of Earth's average
surface temperature due to effect of greenhouse
gases, such as carbon dioxide emissions from
burning fossil fuels or from deforestation, which trap
heat that would otherwise escape from Earth. It can
be controlled by reducing deforestation, cutting
down use of fossil fuels.
81. (c) The increase in the level of green house gases (e.g.,
CO2
, CH4
, CFC, N2O etc.) has led to the considerable
heating of earth surface leading to global warming.
The relative contributions of various green house
gases to global warming is
CO2
(60%) > CH4
(20%) > CFC (14%) > N2O (6%)
82. (c) According to Centrol Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter
are responsible for causing various breathing and
respiratory problems. They can also cause irritation,
inflammations, damage to the lungs and premature
deaths.
83. (a) An algal bloom is a rapid increase in the population
of phytoplankton algae in an aquatic system.
Typically only one or a few species are involved and
the bloom is recognized by discoloration of the water
resulting from the high density of pigmented cells.
84. (d) Ozone layer is a deep layer in earth's atmosphere
that contains ozone which is a naturally occurring
molecule containing three oxygen atoms. Ozone layer
absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation reaching
the earth from the sun. Depletion of ozone layer is
the destruction of the upper atmospheric layer of
ozone gas, caused by substances formed from
breakdown of ozone depleting substances. Skin
related disorders will be more common due to
depletion of ozone layer. It causes aging of skin,
damage to skin cell and various types of skin cancer.
85. (d) Balance in an ecosystem is necessary. When one
part is upset, the results spread to a much wider
arena, affecting not only that ecosystem, but others
as well.
86. (a) Biomagnification refers to the increase in the
concentration of a persistant chemical by the
organisms at successive trophic levels in a food
chain. The maximum biomagnification is seen among
fishes in an aquatic ecosystem.
87. (d) Soil fertility is the ability of level of soil to grow and
support plant life. Fertile soil contains the sufficient
minerals and nutrients needed for plant growth. It is
often composed of large amounts of topsoil. An
important characteristic of soil fertility is its sufficient
amount of microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi,
earthworms, protozoa and nematodes. Soil fertility
can be destroyed by cutting down forests, acid rain
and over grazing and over irrigation.
88. (b) Ozone is a colourless unstable toxic gas with a
pungent odour and powerful oxidizing properties. It
is formed from oxygen by electrical discharges or
ultraviolet light. The ozone layer forms a thick layer
in stratosphere, encircling the earth that has large
amount of ozone in it. It protects Earth from the
harmful radiations that come from the sun. The ozone
layer has the capability to absorb almost
97-99% of the harmful ultraviolet radiations that the
sun emits and which can produce long term
devastating effects on humans beings as well as
plants and animals.
89. (a) Thermal pollution can occur when water is used as a
coolant in nuclear power or industrial plant and then
returned to the aquatic environment at a higher
temperature than it is originally. Thermal pollution
can lead to a decrease in the dissolved oxygen level
in the water while increasing the biological demand
of aquatic organisms for oxygen.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
BOTANY
1. The sum total of chemical reactions occurring in our body is
called
(a) Metabolism (b) Homeostasis
(c) Irritability (d) Catabolism
2. An important criterion for modern day classification is
(a) Resemblances in morphology
(b) Anatomical and physiological traits
(c) Breeding habits
(d) Presence or absence of notochord
3. In which of the following, all listed genera belong to the
same class of Algae?
(a) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia
(b) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas
(c) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix
(d) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracillaria
4. In the class Phaeophyceae, the plant body is usually
attached to the substratum by a _____(A)_____ and has a
stalk, the _____(B)_____ and leaf like photosynthetic organ
the _____(C)_____.
(a) A – holdfast, B – stipe, C – frond
(b) A – stipe, B – holdfast, C – frond
(c) A – frond, B – stipe, C – holdfast
(d) A – stipe, B – frond, C – holdfast
5. The region of the stem where leaves are born are called
____________ while ___________ are the portions
between two _____________ .
(a) nodes, nodes, internodes
(b) nodes, internodes, nodes
(c) internodes, nodes, nodes
(d) nodes, internodes, internodes
6. Which option is correctly matched with the diagrams?
(a) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Vexillary
(b) A-Vexillary, B-Valvate, C-Twisted, D-Imbricate
(c) A-Imbricate, B-Vexillary, C-Valvate, D-Twisted
(d) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary, D-Valvate
7. Plant cells that are photosynthetically active are found in
the ___________ layer of leaf and are ___________cells.
(a) epidermis, parenchymatous
(b) mesophyll, parenchymatous
(c) mesophyll, sclerenchymatous
(d) aerenchyma, collenchymatous
8. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(i) Uneven thickening of cell wall is characteristic of
sclerenchyma.
(ii) Periblem forms the cortex of the stem and the root.
(iii) Tracheids are the chief water transporting elements in
gymnosperms.
(iv) Companion cell is devoid of nucleus at maturity.
(v) The commercial cork is obtained from Quercus suber.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (v)
9. Which plant hormone promotes seed, bud dormancy and
causes stomatal closure ?
(a) IAA (b) Abscisic acid
(c) GAl
(d) Cytokinin
10. Which of the following divisions of fungi includes club fungi?
(a) Zygomycota (b) Ascomycota
(c) Deuteromycota (d) Basidiomycota
11. Identify the factors which affect the rate of diffusion.
(i) Gradient of concentration.
(ii) Permeability of the membrane.
(iii) Temperature.
(iv) Pressure.
(v) Size of diffusing material.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (v)
(c) All of these (d) Only (v) is correct
12. What is the number and positions of insertions of flagella in
class Rhodophyceae?
(a) 2 – 8, equal, apical (b) 2, unequal, lateral
(c) 2 – 6, equal, lateral (d) Absent
13. In biological taxonomy, a ________is a comprehensive
treatment of a taxon.
(a) flora (b) manuals
(c) monograph (d) monogram
Mock Test
1
MOCK TESTS
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-2 Mock Test - 1
14. Assertion: A simple leaf has undivided lamina.
Reason : Leaves showing pinnate and palmate venations
have various type of incisions.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
15. When a meristematic tissue cambium is present inside a
vascular bundle, the bundle is said to be
(a) conjoint (b) open
(c) closed (d) collateral
16. Which one does not differ between a C3
and a C4
plant?
(i) Initial CO2
acceptor
(ii) Extent of photorespiration
(iii) Enzyme catalyzing reaction that fixes CO2
(iv) Presence of Calvin cycle
(v) Leaf anatomy
(a) (i) and (v) (b) Only (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (ii)
17. Identify the following figures.
(a) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus
(b) A – Euglena, B – Planaria, C – Agaricus
(c) A – Planaria, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus
(d) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Aspergillus
18. Nuclear DNA exists as a complex of proteins called ______
that condenses into ______ during cellular division.
(a) chromosomes, chromatin
(b) chromatids, chromosomes
(c) chromophores, chromatin
(d) chromatin, chromosomes
19. The flower is the reproductive unit in the ________ meant
for ____________ reproduction.
(a) angiosperms and sexual
(b) gymnosperms and sexual
(c) algae and asexual
(d) pteridophytes and asexual
20. R.Q. for glucose (Carbohydrates) is
(a) 1 (b) 0.5
(c) 2 (d) 0.05
21. Which one is the correct option for the labelled diagrams A,
B, C and D ?
(a) A – Telocentric chromosome, B – Acrocentric chromosome, C – Submetacentric chromosome, D – Metacentric chromosome
(b) A – Acrocentric chromosome, B – Telocentric chromosome, C – Metacentric chromosome, D – Submetacentric chromosome
(c) A – Submetacentric chromosome, B – Metacentric chromosome, C – Telocentric chromosome, D – Acrocentric
chromosome
(d) A – Metacentric chromosome, B – Submetacentric chromosome, C– Acrocentric chromosome, D – Telocentric
chromosome
22. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Algae I. Solanum tuberosum
B. Fungi II. Equisetum
C. Angiosperm III. Cycas
D. Pteridophyte IV. Chlamydomonas
E. Gymnosperm V. Rhizopus
(a) A® V; B® IV; C® I; D® II; E® III
(b) A ® IV; B® V; C® I; D® II; E® III
(c) A® IV; B® I; C® V; D® II; E® III
(d) A® IV; B® I; C® V; D® III; E® II
23. In animals, glucose is stored as ________ while in plants
stored as ________________.
(a) cellulose, starch (b) starch, glycogen
(c) cellulose, glycogen (d) glycogen, starch
24. Vessels are absent in
(a) teak wood (b) shisham wood
(c) Pinus wood (d) sal wood
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 1 MT-3
25. Identify the phases from the graph given below that shows
the change in DNA content during various phases (A to D)
of mitotic cell cycle.
D
NA content
A B
Time
C D
4C
2C
A B C D
(a) G2 G1
S M
(b) G2 S G1 M
(c) G1 S G2 M
(d) M G1 S G2
26. Match column-I with column-II and Column-IIII and choose
the correct option.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(Element) (Function) (Deficiency
Symptom)
A. Calcium I. Required for ionic- (i) Grey
balance. blot on
leaves.
B. Boron II. Essential for constit- (ii) Fruit-yield
ution of nucleic acid decreases.
C. PhosphorusIII. Required for (iii) Red blots
absorption of calcium. on leaves.
D. Chlorine IV. Required to activate (iv) Fruit-size
respiratory enzyme. diminishes.
E. Manganese V. Required for synthesis (v) Young
of bipolar spindle. root tip
begin to
die.
(a) A® I-iv; B® II-v; C® III-iii; D® IV-i; E® V-ii
(b) A® V-v; B® IV-iv; C® III-i; D® II-iii; E® I-ii
(c) A® IV-iii; B® I-iv; C® V-v; D® III-ii; E® II-i
(d) A® V-v; B® III-iv; C® II-iii; D® I-ii; E® IV-i
27. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Transpiration I. Uses energy to pump
molecules against a
concentration gradient.
B. Guttation II. Active absorption of water.
C. Exudation III. Loss of water vapour from
plant parts.
D. Active transport IV. Loss of liquid water from
leaves.
V. Loss of water from injured
plant parts.
(a) A ® I; B® II; C® III; D® V
(b) A ® II; B® I; C ® IV; D® III
(c) A® III; B® IV; C® V; D® I
(d) A® IV; B® V; C® II; D® III
28. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been
developed for
(a) insect-resistance
(b) enhancing shelf life
(c) enhancing mineral content
(d) drought-resistance
29. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Radial vascular bundle I. Cucurbita pepo
B. Collateral vascular bundle II. Dracaena
C. Bicollateral vascular bundle III. Roots of
angiosperms
D. Amphicribral vascular IV. Sunflower stem
bundle
E. Amphivasal vascular bundle V. Fern
(a) A ® III; B® IV; C® I; D® V; E® II
(b) A ® II; B® III; C® I; D® V: E® IV
(c) A ® III; B® IV; C® V; D® I: E® II
(d) A® III; B® I; C® II; D® IV; E® V
30. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a
plant having the genotype AABbCC ?
(a) Four (b) Nine
(c) Two (d) Three
31. Acid rain is caused due to increase in concentration of
(in atmosphere)
(a) SO2
and NO2
(b) CO and CO2
(c) CO and SO3
(d) O3 and dust
32. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of
biodiversity in India ?
(a) Indo-Gangetic Plain (b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Aravalli Hills (d) Western Ghats
33. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a method
used for
(a) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
(b) working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile
engines.
(c) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in
producing curd on a commercial scale.
(d) working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity
to carry oxygen.
34. Function of companion cells is
(a) providing energy to sieve elements for active transport
(b) providing water to phloem
(c) loading of sucrose into sieve elements by passive
transport
(d) loading of sucrose into sieve elements
35. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest
annual net primary productivity?
(a) Tropical deciduous forest
(b) Temperate evergreen forest
(c) Temperate deciduous forest
(d) Tropical rain forest
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-4 Mock Test - 1
36. The impacts of loss of biodiversity include
(i) Decrease in plant production.
(ii) Lowered resistance to environmental perturbation
(iii) Increased variability in ecosystem processes like water
use, pest/disease cycle, plants productivity.
(iv) None of these
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)
37. Assertion : DNA is associated with proteins.
Reason : DNA binds around histone proteins that form a
pool and the entire structure is called a nucleosome.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
38. What will happen if decomposers are removed from the
ecosystem?
(a) Energy cycle is stopped
(b) Mineral cycle is stopped
(c) Consumers cannot absorb solar energy
(d) Rate of decomposition of mineral increases
39. The formula for exponential population growth is
(a) dN/rN = dt (b) rN / dN = dt
(c) dN / dt = rN (d) dt / dN = rN
40. Osmotic pressure of a solution is
(a) greater than pure solvent.
(b) less than pure solvent.
(c) equal to pure solvent.
(d) less than or greater than pure solvent.
41. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease
resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of
(a) Chilli (b) Maize
(c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat
42. The age of pyramid with broad base indicates
(a) High percentage of young individuals
(b) Low percentage of young individuals
(c) High percentage of old individuals
(d) Low percentage of old individuals
43. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Auxin I. Herring sperm DNA
B. Cytokinin II. Inhibitor of growth
C. Gibberellin III. Apical dominance
D. Ethylene IV. Epinasty
E.
Abscisic
acid V. Induces amylase synthesis
(a) A® III; B® I; C® V; D® IV; E® II
(b) A® IV; B® V; C® I; D® III; E® II
(c) A® II; B® I; C® V; D® III; E® IV
(d) A® III; B® I; C® V; D® II; E® IV
44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
(i) Pollen grains represent immature male
gametophyte.etophyte.
(ii) In angiosperms partially developed male gametophytes
are pollinated.
(iii) Generative cell is siponogenous while vegetative cell
is spermatogenous.
(iv) Formation and differentiation of pollen grains is called
microsporogenesis.
(v) Pollen grains of some plants produce severe allergy
and respiratory or bronchial diseases.
(vi) Pollen grains are poor in nutrients.
(a) (i) and (vi) (b) (iii) and (vi)
(c) (iv) and (v) (d) (v) and (vi)
45. Assertion : In case of vegetatively propagated crops, pureline selection is not required.
Reason : Hybrid vigour is mostly used in vegetatively
propagated plants.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
ZOOLOGY
46. The practical purpose of classification of living organisms
is to
(a) explain the origin of living organsims
(b) trace the evolution of living organsims
(c) name the living organisms
(d) facilitate identification of unknown organisms
47. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched
with its particular named taxonomic category ?
(a) Tiger - tigris, the species
(b) Cuttle fish - mollusca, a class
(c) Humans - primata, the family
(d) Housefly - musca, an order
48. Glucagon is secreted by
(a) b (beta) cells of islets of langerhans
(b) a (alpha) cells of islets of langerhans
(c) b cells of pancreas
(d) Adrenal cortex
49. Choose the correct names of the different bacteria according
to their shapes.
(a) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(b) A – Bacilli, B – Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
(c) A – Spirilla, B – Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio
(d) A – Spirilla, B – Vibrio, C – Cocci, D – Bacilli
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 1 MT-5
50. Which of following is not a protein hormone ?
(a) Relaxin (b) HCG
(c) Placental lactogen (d) Estradiol
51. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(Epithelial tissue) (Location)
A. Cuboidal I. Epidermis of skin
B. Ciliated II. Inner lining of blood vessels
C. Columnar III. Inner surface of gall bladder
D. Squamous IV. Inner lining of fallopian tube
E. Keratinized squamous V. Lining of pancreatic duct
(a) A ® V; B® IV; C® II; D® III; E® I
(b) A ® III; B® IV; C® V; D® II; E® I
(c) A ® V; B® IV; C® III; D® II; E® I
(d) A® III; B® IV; C® V; D® I; E® II
52. Chloramphenicol and Erythromycin (broad spectrum
antibiotics) are produced by
(a) Streptomyces (b) Nitrobacter
(c) Rhizobium (d) Penicillium
53. Which one of the following statements about Human sperm
is correct?
(a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for
piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in
fertilisation.
(b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg
envelope facilitating fertilisation.
(c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the
sperm towards the ovum.
(d) Acrosome serves no particular function.
54. Assertion : Sponges belong to Porifera.
Reason : Sponges have canal system.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
55. Which one of the following organisms may respire in the
absence of oxygen ?
(a) Azotobacter (b) Clostridium
(c) Rhizobium (d) Lactobacillus
56. Vectors include
(a) bacterial and plant plasmids
(b) viruses
(c) artificial chromosomes
(d) All of the above
57. Which of the following is not a step in understanding
Biodiversity ?
(a) Naming the species
(b) Looking at other related species
(c) Assessing the species geographic range
(d) Quantifying the species genome
58. Which is part of pectoral girdle?
(a) Glenoid cavity (b) Sternum
(c) Ilium (d) Acetabulum
59. Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe
and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct?
(a) Yeast - Statins
(b) Acetobacter aceti - Acetic acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum - Lactic acid
(d) Aspergillus niger - Citric acid
60. Which of the following is false about Columnar epithelium?
(i) It is made of tall and slender cells.
(ii) Free surface may have microvilli.
(iii) They are found in stomach and intestine and help in
secretion and absorption.
(iv) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in hollow structure
like bronchioles and fallopian tubes/ products.
(v) They have apical nuclei.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
61. Select the correct statement from the ones given below.
(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the
truth.
(b) Morphine is often given as a pain killer to persons who
have undergone surgery.
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate.
(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates
recovery.
62. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions
are found in
(a) muscular tissue (b) connective tissue
(c) epithelial tissue (d) neural tissue
63. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
(a) Common cold, AIDS
(b) Dysentery, Common cold
(c) Typhoid, Tuberculosis
(d) Ringworm, AIDS
64. The part of the virus which gives to it the hereditary feature,
is
(a) capsid (b) capsomere
(c) nucleic acid (d) None of these
65. A population of organisms has a gene for which there are
two alleles, D and d. The allele frequency of D = 0.8. If this
population satisfies all five of the Hardy-Weinberg
conditions, what are the genotype frequencies that are expected
in the next generation?
(a) DD = 0.04; Dd = 0.32; dd = 0.64
(b) DD = 0.64; Dd = 0.32; dd = 0.64
(c) DD = 0.04; Dd = 0.64; dd = 0.32
(d) DD = 0.64; Dd = 0.32; dd = 0.04
66. Which of the following organs can be called as a sort of
"Blood bank" ?
(a) Lungs (b) Heart
(c) Liver (d) Spleen
67. Which one of the following groups of animals is Bilaterally
symmetrical and Triploblastic?
(a) Aschelminthes (Round worms)
(b) Ctenophores
(c) Sponges
(d) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-6 Mock Test - 1
68. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in
human females because
(a) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy.
(b) this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation.
(c) this disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation.
(d) this disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation.
69. Which of the following statement is wrong about
Chylomicrons?
(i) Chylomicrons are produced in the epithelial cells of
small intestine.
(ii) It contains triglycerides, cholesterol and phospholipids.
(iii) It is protein coated small vesicles.
(iv) Chylomicrons are released from the epithelial cell into
lacteals.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of these
70. The following graph is of relative concentrations of the four
hormones present in the blood plasma of a woman during
her menstrual cycle. Identify the hormones.
day
A
B
C D
increasing concentration
of hormone
A B C D
(a) FSH Progesterone LH Oestrogen
(b) LH Progesterone FSH Oestrogen
(c) FSH Oestrogen LH Progesterone
(d) LH Oestrogen FSH Progesterone
71. Animal A and B show symmetry
A B
(a) Bilateral, Asymetrical
(b) Radial, Bilateral
(c) Bilateral, Bilateral
(d) Radial, Radial
72. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correct?
(a) Semicircular canal - Balancing
(b) Cochlea - Hearing
(c) Utriculus & sacculus - Balancing & hearing
(d) All of the above
73. The Ribosomes are made up of
(a) DNA + Protein (b) RNA + Protein
(c) DNA + RNA (d) None of these
74. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Pinna I. Collects vibrations in the air
which produces sound
B. Ear canal II. Passage for sound wave from
pinna to ear drum
C. Tympanic membrane III. Transfers sound wave to ear
ossicles
D. Ear Ossicles IV. Increases the efficiency of
transmission of sound
waves to the innear ear
E. Cochlea V. Has hearing receptors
F. Eustachian tube VI. Equalizes the pressure on
both sides of ear drum
(a) A® I; B® II; C® III; D® IV; E® V; F® VI
(b) A® I; B® VI; C® V; D® IV; E® III; F® II
(c) A® I; B® II; C® IV; D® III; E® V; F® VI
(d) A® I; B® VI; C® V; D® IV; E® III; F® II
75. Air is breathed through
(a) Trachea — lungs — larynx — pharynx — alveoli
(b) Nose — larynx — pharynx — bronchus — alveoli —
bronchioles
(c) Nostrils — pharynx — larynx — trachea — bronchi —
bronchioles — alveoli
(d) Nose — mouth — lungs
76. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Limbless reptiles I. Elephant
B. Jawless vertebrates II. Lamprey
C. Flightless bird III. Ichthiophis
D. Largest IV. Ostrich
terrestrial animal V. Cobra
E. Blind worm VI. Penguin
(a) A ® II; B ® V; C ® IV; D ® I; E ® III
(b) A ® V; B ® II; C ® IV; D ® I; E ® III
(c) A ® V; B ® II; C ® I; D ® VI; E ® III
(d) A ® V; B ® VI; C ® II; D ® VI; E ® III
77. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Tidal volume I. 2500 to 3000 ml
B. Inspiratory II. 1000 ml of air
reserve volume
C. Expiratory reserve III. 500 ml of air
D. Residual volume IV. 3400 to 4800 ml of air
E. Vital capacity V. 1200 ml of air
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 1 MT-7
(a) A ® III; B® IV; C® II; D® I; E® V
(b) A ® III; B® I; C® II; D® V; E® IV
(c) A ® III; B® I; C® IV; D® V; E® IV
(d) A ® IV; B® IV; C® II; D® I; E® III
78. In the diagram of excretory system of humna beings given
below, different parts have been indicated by alphabets;
choose the answer in which these alphabets have been
correctly matched with the parts which they represent
B
A
F
C
D
E
(a) A = Kidney, B = Abdominal aorta, C = Ureters,
D = Urinary bladder, E = Urethra, F = Renal pelvis
(b) A = Kidney, B = Abdominal aorta, C = Urethra,
D = Urinary bladder, E = Ureters , F = Renal pelvis
(c) A = Kidney, B = Renal pelvis, C = Urethra, D = Urinary
bladder, E = Ureters, F = Abdominal aorta
(d) A = Kidney, B = Abdominal aorta, C = Urethra,
D = Urinary bladder, E = Renal pelvis, F = Ureters
79. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of
the categories of small molecular weight organic compounds
in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the
one blank component “X” in it.
OH OH
HOCH2 “X”
O
Category Component
(a) Cholesterol Guanine
(b) Amino acid NH2
(c) Nucleotide Adenine
(d) Nucleoside Uracil
80. Which of the following is totally reabsorbed in renal
tubules ?
(a) Na (b) K
(c) H2O (d) C6H12O6
81. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is
the correct representation of the respective activity of the
human heart?
(a) S - start of systole
(b) T - end of diastole
(c) P - depolarisation of the atria
(d) R - repolarisation of ventricles
82. At metaphase of mitosis, each chromosome consists of
__________ chromatid(s) _________ centromere(s)
_______ kenetochore(s) and _______ molecules of DNA
(a) 2, 1, 2, 2 (b) 2, 2, 2, 2
(c) 2, 1, 1, 1 (d) 2, 1, 2, 1
83. Function of Gall bladder is
(a) storage of bile (b) formation of enzymes
(c) synthesis of bile (d) formation of bile salts
84. The technique called Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT)
is recommended for those females
(a) who cannot produce an ovum.
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus.
(c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for
the sperms.
(d) who cannot provide suitable environment for
fertilisation.
85. Following is the figure of actin (thin) filaments. Identify A, B
and C.
(a) A-Tropomyosin, B-Troponin, C-F-actin
(b) A-Troponin, B-Myosin, C-Tropomyosin
(c) A-Troponin, B-Tropomyosin, C-Myosin
(d) A-Troponin, B-Tropomyosin, C-F-actin
86.
Identify A to E .
(a) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax,
D-Tegmina, E-Pleura
(b) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax,
D-Tegmina, E-Sterna
(c) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax,
D-Tegmina, E-Anal cerci
(d) A- Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax,
D-Tegmina, E-Anal style
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-8 Mock Test - 1
87. Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct
option.
Column-I Column - II
A. Somatostain I. Pineal gland
B. Melatonin II. Corpus luteum
C. Aldosterone III. Placenta
D. Progesterone IV. Adrenal cortex
E. hCG V. Islet of Langerhans
VI. Adenohypophysis
(a) A® V; B® I; C® VI; D® III; E® II
(b) A ® I; B® II; C® IV; D® III; E® V
(c) A ® II; B® VI; C® IV; D® V; E® III
(d) A® V; B® I; C® IV; D® II; E® III
88. Assertion : Chiasmata is formed during diplotene.
Reason : Chiasmata are formed due to deposition of
nucleoproteins.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
89. The primary reason why the same basic techniques can be
used to analyze the DNA from species as diverse as bacteria
and humans is that
(a) all cells are identical.
(b) every organism has the same amount of DNA.
(c) the DNA sequences of all organisms are the same.
(d) DNA has a consistent structure in all organisms.
90. Which one of the following statement is true?
(a) The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting
potential.
(b) The greater the BOD of waste water, less is its polluting
potential.
(c) The lesser the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting
potential.
(d) The lesser the BOD of waste water, less is its
polluting potential.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 1 MT-9
BOTANY
2. (b) Modern day classification is new systematics or
biosystematics which includes all the characteristics
of organisms gathered from the study of different
sections like physiology, ecology, anatomy,
biochemistry, cytology.
10. (d) The members of division basidiomycota (class
basidiomycetes) are commonly called club fungi
because the basidia are club shaped.
14. (b) A leaf having a single or undivided lamina is called
simple leaf. The lamina can have different types of
incisions, which may reach upto half (-fid), more than
half (-partite) or near the base or midrib (-sect).
Depending upon the pinnate or palmate venation, the
incisions are known as pinnatifid palmatifid,
pinnatipartite, palmatipartite, pinnatisect and
palmatisect, etc.
18. (d) The complex of protein and DNA is called chromatin.
Chromosomes are only present during cell
reproduction.
20. (a) C H O 6O 6CO 6H O 6 12 6 2 2 2 + ¾¾® +
R.Q. =
2
2
Vol.of CO evolved 6
1
Vol.of O absorbed 6
= =
28. (a) The genetically modified brinjal in India has been
developed for insect resistance. Bt brinjal is a transgenic
brinjal that is developed by inserting a crystal gene
from the Bacillus thuringiensisinto the brinjal’s genome.
This process of insertion is accomplished using
Agrobacterium mediated recombination.
30. (c) It would make only two types of gametes, these are
ABC & AbC.
31. (a) The main precursors of acid rain are SO2
and NO2
in
atmosphere which form H2
SO4
(Sulphuric acid) and
HNO3
(nitric acid) with H2O and these come down with
rain. Such rains are called acid rains.
1 (a) 13 (c) 25 (c) 37 (a) 49 (a) 61 (b) 73 (b) 85 (d)
2 (b) 14 (b) 26 (d) 38 (b) 50 (d) 62 (c) 74 (a) 86 (c)
3 (b) 15 (b) 27 (c) 39 (c) 51 (c) 63 (a) 75 (c) 87 (d)
4 (a) 16 (b) 28 (a) 40 (b) 52 (a) 64 (c) 76 (b) 88 (c)
5 (b) 17 (a) 29 (a) 41 (d) 53 (b) 65 (d) 77 (b) 89 (d)
6 (a) 18 (d) 30 (c) 42 (a) 54 (b) 66 (d) 78 (a) 90 (a)
7 (b) 19 (a) 31 (a) 43 (a) 55 (b) 67 (a) 79 (d)
8 (d) 20 (a) 32 (d) 44 (b) 56 (d) 68 (c) 80 (d)
9 (b) 21 (a) 33 (a) 45 (b) 57 (d) 69 (d) 81 (c)
10 (d) 22 (b) 34 (d) 46 (d) 58 (a) 70 (c) 82 (a)
11 (c) 23 (d) 35 (d) 47 (a) 59 (c) 71 (b) 83 (a)
12 (d) 24 (c) 36 (b) 48 (b) 60 (b) 72 (d) 84 (a)
ANSWER KEY
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-10 Mock Test - 1
32. (d) Hot spots are those areas which were rich in
biodiversity but are now under threat due to direct or
indirect interference of human activites. These regions
are on the edge to get some of their species extinct due
to humans. Western Ghats in India are under threat
due to continuous developmental activities and Doon
valley is under threat due to continuous mining activities.
33. (a) BOD is a measure of organic matter present in water. It
refers to amount of O2
consumed by microbes to
decompose all the organic matter in 1 L of water at 20°C
for 5 days. The greater the BOD of waste water, more is
its polluting potential.
34. (d) Function of companion cell is to load sugar and amino
acids into sieve elements. These cells use transmembrane proteins to take up by active transport.
35. (d) They are found in the equatorial regions where rainfall
exceeds 140 cm. The warm humid climate supports broad
leaved evergreen plants. Productivity is very high
(12000 k. cal/m2
/ year). The vegetation show
stratification into two or more well defined layers.
37. (a) A chain of DNA has 140 base pairs, make
3
1
4
turns and
twist around a histone octamer forming nucleosome.
The core of nucleosome consists of 4 histones H2A,
H2B, H3
and H4
.
39. (c) The formula of exponential growth is dN
dt
= rN where
dN
dt
is the rate of change in population size, r is the
biotic potential and N is the population size.
41. (d) ‘Himgiri’ has been developed by hybridisation and
selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens
is a variety of wheat. It is resistant to leaf/stripe rust
and hill bunt.
45. (b) In case of vegetatively propagated crops, pure line
selection is not required. Pure-line selection is useful
only for sexually reproducing plants. Hybrid vigour is
most profitably used in vegetatively propagated crops
because they do not involve sexual reproduction and
hence loss of hybrid superiority.
ZOOLOGY
46. (d) Biological classification is the scientific arrangement
of organisms in a hierarchial series of groups and
subgroups on the basis of similarities and differences
in their traits. It helps in building evolutionary pathways
and in identifying new organisms.
47. (a) Tiger and tigris both are from same genus with particular
taxonomic category.
48. (b) Glucagon is secreted by a (alpha) cells of islets of
langerhans.
53. (b) Acrosome is a small pointed structure at the tip of
nucleus. It breaks down just before fertilization,
releasing hydrolytic enzymes that assist penetration
between follicle cells that surrounds the ovum, thus
facilitating fertilization.
54. (b) Sponges belong to Porifera and they have characteristic
canal system.
58. (a) Glenoid cavity is a shallow concavity on the lateral
side of pectoral girdle in which the head of humerus
fits making the shoulder joint.
59. (c) Clostridium butylicum industrially produces butyric
acid.
61. (b) Morphine is potent opioid analgesic that is often given
to persons (who have undergone surgery) as a pain
killer. It is mainly used to relieve severe and persistent
pain. It is administrated through mouth, injection or
suppositories.
63. (a) Common cold, AIDS is a pair of viral diseases. Viruses
are a very common type of agents. Viruses are the
smallest life-form existing, since they are not even a
single cell. It is almost like they are not alive at all. They
are small strands of DNA-like cell material. A virus
consists mostly of RNA and cannot survive without
host cells.
65. (d) We are told that the allele frequency for D = 0.8;
therefore, the frequency of d = 0.2. These values are
the p and q that we need to calculate the genotype
frequencies in the next generation. Using the HardyWeinberg equation, p2
(DD) = 0.64, 2pq (Dd) = 0.32,
and q2
(dd) = 0.04.
67. (a) Aschelminthes is bilaterally symmetrical and
triploblastic. These are mostly aquatic, free living or
parasitic. Their body is three layered which is ectoderm,
mesoderm and endoderm.
68. (c) This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation.
Males suffer this disorder since they have only one X
chromosome and hence express any trait present on
this chromosome.
75. (c) The pathway of inhaled air is - Nostrils - pharynx
(common passage for food & air) - larynx (voice box) -
trachea (the wind pipe) - bronchi (2 for each side lungs)
- bronchioles (give arise to alveolar ducts) - alveoli (the
exchange site for gases in the form of small sacs or pouches).
79. (d) A combination of a nitrogen base with a pentose
sugar is known as nucleoside. The nitrogen base
combines with the sugar molecule at its carbon atom 1¢
in a glycosidic bond (C – N – C) by one of its nitrogen
atoms (usually 1 in pyrimidines and 9 in purines).
Depending upon the type of pentose sugar,
nucleosides are differentiated into ribonucleosides and
deoxyribonucleosides.
81. (c) In a standard ECG, the P-wave is a small upward wave
that indicates the depolarisation of the atria. This is
caused by the activation of SA node.
84. (a) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for
those females who cannot produce an ovum. In this
process, the eggs of the donor woman are removed and
transferred into fallopian tube of another woman in the
form of mixture with sperm who cannot produce ovum,
but can provide suitable environment for fertilization. Thus
in GIFT, site of fertilization is fallopian tube, not laboratory.
88. (c) The point of attachment between homologous
chromosomes after the partial dissolution of
nucleoprotein complex are called chiasmata. It occurs
during diplotene substage of prophase I.
89. (d) The fact that DNA is structured the same way in all
known organisms means that similar methods can be
used to study the hereditary material.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
BOTANY
1. Binomial nomenclature means
(a) one name given by two scientists
(b) one scientific name consisting of a generic and specific
epithet
(c) two names, one latinised, other of a person
(d) two names of the same plant
2. Which pair of the following belongs to basidiomycetes ?
(a) Puffballs and Claviceps
(b) Peziza and Stink borns
(c) Morchella and Mushrooms
(d) Birds nest fungi and Puffballs.
3. Which two points are known as the twin characteristics of
growth?
(i) Increase in mass
(ii) Differentiation
(iii) Increase in number of individuals
(iv) Response to stimuli
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
4. Choose the collection of terms that completes the following
sentence : Plants are____ organisms, they frequently show
a ______ spatial distribution, and their population density
is most appropriately expressed in terms of ______ .
(a) modular; clumped; biomass
(b) modular; random; individuals per unit area
(c) modular; uniform; biomass
(d) unitary; uniform; biomass
5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Organisms living in oceans, lakes and rivers do not
face any water-related problems.
(ii) Euryhaline can tolerate a wide range of salinities.
(iii) Stenohaline are restricted to a narrow range of salinities.
(iv) No fresh water animals cannot live for long in sea water
but sea animals can live in fresh water for long time
because of osmotic balance
(a) All are correct (b) All are false
(c) Only (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
6. The most important feature of all living systems is to
(a) utilize oxygen to generate energy
(b) replicate the genetic information
(c) produce gametes
(d) utilize solar energy for metabolic activities
7. Consider the following statements regarding
Photosynthesis.
(i) ATP formation during photosynthesis is termed as
photophosphorylation.
(ii) Kranz anatomy pertains to leaf.
(iii) Reduction of NADP to NADPH occurs during Calvin
cycle.
(iv) In a chlorophyll molecule magnesium is present in
phytol tail.
Of the above statements.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
8. Soil can easily become deficient inaaaaaaaaaaaa
because these ions are negatively charged and do not
stick to negatively charged clay particles.
(a) Nitrate (b) Calcium
(c) Ammonium (d) Magnesium
9. In a dicotyledonous stem, the sequence of tissues from the
outside to the inside is-
(a) Phellem-pericycle-endodermis-phloem
(b) Phellem-phloem-endodermis-pericycle
(c) Phellem-endodermis-pericycle-phloem
(d) Pericycle-phellem-endodermis-phloem
10. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist
to gibberellins?
(a) Zeatin (b) Ethylene
(c) ABA (d) IAA
11. Which is the correct option for the all given characteristics
of Fungi ?
(i) It includes unicellular as well as multicellular fungi.
(ii) In multicellular forms hyphae are branched and septate.
Mock Test
2
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-12 Mock Test - 2
(iii) Conidiophore produces conidia (spores) exogenously
in chain.
(iv) Sexual spores are ascopores produced endogenously
in chain.
(v) Fruiting body is called ascocarp.
(a) Phycomycetes (b) Sac fungi
(c) Club fungi (d) Fungi imperfecti
12. Assertion : Net primary productivity is gross primary
productivity minus respiration.
Reason : Secondary productivity is produced by
heterotrophs.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
13. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is most likely to
happen on a long term basis?
(a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to death.
(b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will die due to lack
of fodder.
(c) Large areas will become deserts.
(d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer due to a reduced
availability of variety of germplasm.
14. Increase in CO2
concentration around leaf results in
(a) Rapid opening of stomata
(b) Partial closure of stomata
(c) Complete closure of stomata
(d) No effect on stomatal opening
15. Green house gases include
(a) CO2
, CFC, CH4
and NO2
(b) CO2
, O2
, N2
, NO2
and NH3
(c) CH4
, N2
, CO2
and NH3
(d) CFC, CO2
, NH3
and N2
16. Sacred groves are found in
(i) Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya
(ii) Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan
(iii) Western ghat regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra
and Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar areas of Madhya
Pradesh
(iv) None of these
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (iv)
17. In Gymnosperm, endosperm is formed by
(a) fusion between a male gamete and two polar nuclei.
(b) fusion between a male gamete and a polar nuclei.
(c) fusion between egg and male gamete.
(d) germination of megaspore.
18. Find out the pairs which are correctly matched.
Column-I Column-II
A. Primary succession I. Autotrophs
B. Climax community II. Community that has
completed succession
C. Consumer III. Colonization of a new
environment
D. Producer IV. Animals
(a) A® (III); B® (II); C® (IV); D® (I)
(b) A® (III); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (II)
(c) A® (I); B® (III); C® (II); D® (IV)
(d) A ® (II); B® (III); C® (IV); D® (I)
19. The expressions given below shows the summary equations.
(A) Pyruvate C H OH + CO 25 2
NADH + H+ NAD+
(B) C6H12O6
+ NAD+
+ 2ADP + 2 iP + 2C3H4O3
+ 2ATP +
2NADH + 2H+
(C) Pyruvic acid + 4NAD+
+ FAD+
+ 2H2O + ADP + Pi ?
3CO2
+ 4NADH + 4H+
+ ATP + FADH2
Categorise the summary equations under respective phases.
A B C
(a) Krebs’ cycle Glycolysis Fermentation
(b) Glycolysis Krebs’ cycle Fermentation
(c) Fermentation Krebs’ cycle Glycolysis
(d) Fermentation Glycolysis Krebs’ cycle
20. Water potential of pure water and its solution are
(a) 0 and 1 (b) 0 and 0
(c) 0 and more than 1 (d) 0 and less than 1
21. Double fertilisation leading to initiation of endosperm in
angiosperms require
(a) fusion of one polar nucleus and the second male gamete
only
(b) fusion of two polar nuclei and the second male gamete
(c) fusion of four or more polar nuclei and the second male
gamete only
(d) all the above kinds of fusion in different angiosperms
22. In bryophytes, male and female sex organs are called ______
and ______ respectively.
(a) microsporangia; macrosporangia
(b) male strobili; female strobili
(c) antheridia; archegonia
(d) androecium; gynoecium
23. Seeds are regarded to be the product of sexual reproduction
because they
(a) can be stored for a long period.
(b) give rise to new plants.
(c) are the result of fusion of male gamete with the female
gamete.
(d) None of these
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 2 MT-13
24. What is common between Chloroplasts, Chromoplasts and
Leucoplasts?
(a) Presence of pigments
(b) Possession of thylakoids and grana
(c) Storage of starch, proteins and lipids
(d) Ability to multiply by a fission-like process
25. In Krebs’ cycle GTP is formed in
(a) substrate level phosphorylation
(b) oxidative phosphorylation
(c) photophosphorylation
(d) decarboxylation
26. Select the characters which are not applicable to the family
Solanaceae?
(i) Epipetalous and Syngenesious anthers
(ii) Bicarpellary and Syncarpous ovary
(iii) Oblique overy with Axile placentation
(iv) Stamens six, arranged in two whorls.
(v) Bicarpellary, Syncarpous and Inferior ovary
(a) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (iv) and (v) are correct
(c) (ii), (iv) and (v) are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
27. Assertion : Ethylene causes climacteric ripening of fruits.
Reason : Climacteric fruits show a rise in respiration at the
time of ripening.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
28. Identify the types of simple tissue indicated by A, B, C and D.
(a) A – Parenchyma, B – Collenchyma, C – Fibre
(Sclerenchyma), D – Sclereid (Sclerenchyma)
(b) A – Collenchyma, B – Parenchyma, C – Fibre
(Sclerenchyma), D – Sclereid (Sclerenchyma)
(c) A – Parenchyma, B – Collenchyma, C – Sclereid
(Sclerenchyma), D – Fibre (Sclerenchyma)
(d) A – Collenchyma, B – Parenchyma, C – Sclereid
(Sclerenchyma), D – Fibre (Sclerenchyma)
29. Assertion : The product of the first reaction of the Kreb's
cycle is citric acid, a six carbon compound.
Reason : The first reaction of the Kreb's cycle is the
condensation of acetyl CoA with oxaloacetate.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
30. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about
gemmae?
(i) These are specialised structures by which asexual
reproduction take place in liverworts.
(ii) They are green and multicellular.
(iii) They develop in small receptacles called gemma cups.
(iv) They detach from parent body and germinate to form
new individuals.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
31. Which of the following shows the correct graph of arithmetic
growth?
(a)
Time
Growth
(b)
Time
Growth
(c)
Time
Growth
(d)
Time
Growth
32. Translocation of sugars in flowering plants occurs in the
form of
(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose
(c) Fructose (d) Maltose
33. Refer the figure given below and select the option which
gives correct words for A, B, C and D.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-14 Mock Test - 2
A B C D
(a) K Ammonification Animal biomass Plant biomass
(b) NH3 Ammonification Plant biomass Animal
biomass
(c) CO2 Denitrification Animal biomass Plant biomass
(d) CHO Nitrification Plant biomass Animal
biomass
34. Plants have supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes
of the stem known as __________ roots.
(a) prop (b) stilt
(c) tap (d) adventitious
35. The diagram below shows ATP synthesis through
chemiosmosis.
lumen
Cyt.
b & f
Which option shows the correct labelling of A, B, C and D in
the diagram ?
(a) A - F1
, B - Thylakoid membrane, C - Photosystem (I),
D - Photosystem (II)
(b) A - F0
, B - Thylakoid membrane, C - Photosystem (I),
D - Photosystem (II)
(c) A - F1
, B - Thylakoid membrane, C - Photosystem (II),
D - Photosystem (I)
(d) A - F0
, B - Thylakoid membrane, C - Photosystem (II),
D - Photosystem (I)
36. The process of mitosis is divided into 4 phases. Identify the
correct order in which these phases appear in mitosis
(a) Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase and Prophase
(b) Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase and Prophase
(c) Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase and Telophase
(d) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase
37. RQ (respiratory quotient) is defined as
(a) Volume of CO2
evolved = volume of O2
consumed
(b) 2
2
Volumeof O consumed
Volumeof CO evolved
(c) 2
2
Volumeof CO evolved
Volumeof O consumed
(d) 2
2
Volumeof O evolved
Volumeof CO consumed
38. Conversion of sugar into alcohol during fermentation is due
to the direct action of
(a) temperature
(b) micro-organisms
(c) concentration of sugar solution
(d) enzyme zymase
39. Identify the phyllotaxy.
(a) A-Alternate, B - Opposite, C - Whorled
(b) A- Whorled, B - Opposite, C -Alternate
(c) A-Alternate, B - Whorled, C - Opposite
(d) A-Whorled, B -Alternate, C - Opposite
40. Match Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Diffusion I. Hydrophilic substances
B. Osmosis II. Shrinkage of protoplasm
C. Imbibition III. Semipermeable membrane
D. Plasmolysis IV. Free movement of ions and
gases
(a) A ® (II); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (III)
(b) A ® (IV); B® (III); C® (I); D® (II)
(c) A® (III); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (II)
(d) A® (II); B® (III); C® (IV); D® (I)
41. Which of the following statements are correct about Calyx?
(a) Calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower and are called
sepals.
(b) Sepals are green, leaf like and protect the flower in the
bud stage.
(c) The calyx may be gamosepalous (sepals free) or
polysepalous (sepals united)
(d) Both (a) and (b).
42. Assertion : In Mirabilis, selfing of F1 pink flower plants
produces same phenotypic and genotypic ratio.
Reason : Flower colour gene shows incomplete dominance.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
43. Which of the following statements are not true?
(i) Cork cambium is otherwise called phellogen.
(ii) Cork is otherwise called phellem.
(iii) Secondary cortex is otherwise called periderm.
(iv) Cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are
collectively called phelloderm.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 2 MT-15
44. Assertion : Each molecule of ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate
fixes one molecule of CO2
.
Reason : Three molecules of NADPH and two ATP are
required for fixation of one molecule of CO2
.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
45. Which of the following structures in Pinus are haploid?
(a) Megaspore, integument, root
(b) Endosperm, megaspore, pollen grain
(c) Pollen grain, leaf, root
(d) Megaspore, endosperm, embryo
ZOOLOGY
46. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and
crab are
(a) jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(b) green gland and tracheae
(c) book lungs and antennae
(d) compound eyes and anal cerci
47. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making
curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones
categorised as
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(d) Heterotrophic bacteria
48. Dikaryon formation is characteristic of
(a) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(b) Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes
(c) Ascomycetes and Phycomycetes
(d) Phycomycetes and Zygomycetes
49. Which gas is responsible for the puffed-up appearance of
dough ?
(a) CO2
(b) O2
(c) SO2
(d) NO2
50. Neurons receive signals through their __________ and send
signals to other neurons through their __________.
(a) dendrites ... receptors
(b) end feet ... cell bodies and dendrites
(c) cell bodies and dendrites ... axons
(d) transmitter vesicles ... axons
51. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes
a nerve cell from other types of cells?
(a) Vacuoles and Fibres
(b) Flagellum and Medullary sheath
(c) Nucleus and Mitochondria
(d) Perikaryon and Dendrites.
52. About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does
rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally
occurs?
(a) 14th day (b) 20th day
(c) 5th day (d) 11th day
53. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are
present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual
would be
(a) B (b) O
(c) AB (d) A
54. The chemical method of contraception includes
(a) jellies only
(b) creams and foams only
(c) oral contraceptives only
(d) all of the above
55. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
(a) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
(b) Spermatogonia; Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
(c) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
(d) Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa
56. Which of the following conditions is responsible for increase
in ventilation rate of lungs ?
(a) Increase of CO2
content in inhaled air
(b) Increase of CO2
content in exhaled air
(c) Decrease of O2
content in inhaled air
(d) Decrease of O2
content in exhaled air
57. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic
implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.
(a) A-translation B - transciption C-Erwin Chargaff
(b) A-transcription B - translation C-Francis Crick
(c) A-translation B - extension C-Rosalind Franklin
(d) A-transcription B - replication C-James Watson
58. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by tremors and
progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by degeneration of
brain neurons that are involved in movement control and
make use of neurotransmitter
(a) acetylcholine (b) norepinephrine
(c) dopamine (d) GABA
59. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of
foreign DNA into crop plants?
(a) Meloidogyne incognita
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Penicillium expansum
(d) Trichoderma harzianum
60. Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine
gland with the hormone it secrets and its function/deficiency
symptom:
Endocrine Hormone Function/deficiency
gland symptom
(a) Posterior Growth Oversecretion
pituitary Hormone Stimulates abnormal
(GH) growth
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-16 Mock Test - 2
(b) Thyroid Thyroxine Lack of iodine in diet
gland results in goitre
(c) Corpus Testosterone Stimulates spermatoluteum genesis
(d) Anterior Oxytocin Stimulates uterus
pituitary contraction during child
birth
61. The type of epithelium found in oesophagus, cornea, vagina
and urethra is
(a) stratified squamous epithelium
(b) ciliated epithelium
(c) stratified columnar epithelium
(d) glandular epithelium
62. Which one of the following is an example of Ex-situ
conservation?
(a) Wildlife sanctuary (b) Seed bank
(c) Sacred groves (d) National park
63. Match column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
A. Somatostain I. Pineal gland
B. Melatonin II. Corpus luteum
C. Aldosterone III. Placenta
D. Progesterone IV. Adrenal cortex
E. hCG V. Islet of Langerhans
VI. Adenohypophysis
(a) A® (V); B® (I); C® (VI); D® (III); E® (II)
(b) A® (I); B® (II); C® (IV); D® (III); E® (V)
(c) A® (II); B® (VI); C® (IV); D® (V); E® (III)
(d) A® (V); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (II); E® (III)
64. The diagram represents the reproductive organ of male
cockroach. Choose the correct combination of labelling
A
B
D
C
(a) A – 8th sternum, B - Anal cercus, C - 10th tergum,
D - Anal style
(b) A - 10th tergum, B - Anal cercus, C - Anal style, D - 8th
sternum
(c) A - Anal style, B - Anal cercus, C - 10th tergum, D- 8th
sternum
(d) A - Anal cercus, B - 8th sternum, C - 10th tergum,
D - Anal style.
65. Which of the following statements about Restriction
enzymes is false?
(a) They work on DNA extracted from all types of organisms.
(b) They are used to glue together short segments of DNA.
(c) They come in many varieties, each with its own DNA
target sequence.
(d) They are highly specific for their DNA target sequences.
66. Which option is true for A, B, C and D?
A B C D
(a) Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar
(b) Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres
(c) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres
(d) Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath
67. Roquefort cheese is produced with the help of
(a) Yeast
(b) Rhizopus nigricans
(c) Aspergillus niger
(d) Penicillium roquefortii
68. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Ca+2 is necessary for blood coagulation.
(ii) Coagulation in blood vessel is prevented during normal
condition by heparin.
(iii) Clotting of blood involves changes of fibrinogen to
fibrin by thrombin.
(iv) Blood clotting involves cascading process involving a
number of factors present in the active form always.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
69. Which one of the following combination is mismatched?
(a) Glycocalyx - May be capsule or slime layer
(b) Pili - Reproduction
(c) Cell wall - Protective, determines shape, prevents from
bursting
(d) Flagella, Pili and Fimbriae - Surface structures of
bacterial cell
70. A sagittal section of human-brain is shown here. Identify at
least two labels from A-D.
(a) A – Cerebral hemispheres;
B – Cerebellum
(b) C – Mid brain; D – Cerebellum
(c) A – Cerebrum; C – Pons
(d) B – Corpus callosum; D – Medulla
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 2 MT-17
71. If concentration of CO2
is more the curve of oxygen will
shift towards
(a) Right (b) Left
(c) Central (d) None of these
72. The figure shows a section of human ovary. Select the option
which gives the correct identification of A and B with
function/characteristic:
(a) A – Primary oocyte – it is the prophase – I of the meiotic
division
(b) B – Corpus luteum – secretes progesterone
(c) A – Tertiary follicle – forms Graafian follicle
(d) B – Corpus luteum – secretes estrogen
73. Mesoglea Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm
A B
The above diagram shows the germs layer. The animals
having structures shown in the figures A and B are
respectively called
(a) Diploblastic, Triploblastic
(b) Triploblastic, Diploblastic
(c) Diploblastic, Diploblastic
(d) Triploblastic, Triploblastic
74. In ECG , what does ‘T’ wave represent?
(a) Diastole of auricles
(b) Diastole of ventricles
(c) Systole of ventricles
(d) Diastole of auricles and ventricles
75. The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by
(a) temperature
(b) concentration of the substrate
(c) original activation energy of the system
(d) concentration of the enzyme
76. Which one of the following statements is true regarding
Digestion and Absorption of food in humans?
(a) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through
intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+
.
(b) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are
transported from intestine into blood capillaries.
(c) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase
in our mouth
(d) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme
pepsinogen.
77. Consider the diagram given below :
Parts labelled as 'A', 'B', 'C', 'D', and 'E' respectively indicate
(a) Femur, Ilium, Tibia, Pubis and Sacrum
(b) Pubis, Tibia, Femur, Ilium and Sacrum
(c) Ilium, Femur, Tibia, Pubis and Sacrum
(d) Pubis, Femur, Tibia, Ilium and Sacrum
78. Which of the following statements is/are not true?
(i) In Urochordata, notochord is present only in larval tail.
(ii) In Cephalochordata, notochord extends from head to
tail region.
(iii) Branchiostoma belongs to Hemichordata.
(iv) Only one class of living members, class cyclostomata
represents the super class agnatha
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(b) (iii), (iv) and (i) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (iv) only
79. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs
to the category of organs mentioned against it?
(a) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita -
Analogous organs
(b) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye -
Vestigial organs
(c) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian tubules of
Cockroach - Excretory organs
(d) Wings of honey bee and wings of crow - Homologous
organs
80. The number of chromatids in a chromosome at anaphase is
(a) 2 in mitosis and 1 in meiosis
(b) 1 in mitosis and 2 in meiosis
(c) 2 each in mitosis and meiosis
(d) 2 in mitosis and 4 in meiosis
81. When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption
then which of the following will not help in the maintenance
of blood volume
(a) Decreased glomerular filtration
(b) Increased ADH secretion
(c) Decreased arterial pressure in kidney
(d) Increased arterial pressure in kidney
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-18 Mock Test - 2
82. A ribose (but not deoxyribose) nucleotide is
(a) Cytosine - pentose sugar - phosphate
(b) Guanine - pentose sugar - phosphate
(c) Thymine - pentose sugar - phosphate
(d) Uracil - pentose sugar - phosphate
83. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked potatoes eaten
by a man, starting from the mouth and as it moves down the
alimentary canal?
(a) Salivary maltase ® carboxypeptidase ® trypsinogen
(b) Pancreatic amylase ® salivary amylase ® lipases
(c) Disaccharidase like maltase ® lipases ® nucleases
(d) Salivary amylase ® pancreatic amylase ®
disaccharidases
84.
Anatomical regions of human stomach are –
(a) A - Fundus; B - Pyloric; C - Cardiac
(b) A - Cardiac; B - Fundus; C - Pyloric
(c) A - Fundus; B - Cardiac; C - Pyloric
(d) A - Pyloric; B - Fundus; C - Cardiac
85. Assertion : HIV infection can be avoided by use of condoms.
Reason : Condoms secrete anti-viral interferons.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
86. Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part
and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it ?
(a) Biceps of upper arm–Smooth muscle fibres
(b) Abdominal wall–Smooth muscle
(c) Iris–Involuntary smooth muscle
(d) Heart wall–Involuntary unstriated muscle
87. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy
resulting in an affected child?
(a) 50% (b) 25%
(c) 100% (d) no chance
88.
HO – P – OCH2
O
||
|
OHA
N-base
O
Identify A.
(a) Glycosidic bond (b) Phosphate bond
(c) Ester bond (d) Ionic bond
89. The blood leaving the lungs has all its haemoglobin
oxygenated and gives up oxygen to the tissues, because
(a) the tissues can absorb O2
from oxyhaemoglobin
(b) O2
-concentration in tissues is higher and CO2
concentration lower as compared to lungs
(c) oxyhaemoglobin undergoes reduction
(d) O2
-concentration in tissues is lower and CO2
concentration higher than in lungs.
90. Match column - I with column -II
Column-I Column-II
A. Basophils I. Phagocytes
B. Neutrophils II. Secrete histamin,
serotonin, heparin and
involved in inflammatory
response
C. Monocytes III. Resist infections and are
also involved in allergic
reaction
D. Eosinophils IV. Immunity
E. Lymphocytes V. 60 - 65
(a) A® (II); B and C® (I); D® (III); E® (IV)
(b) A ® (II); B and C® (III); D® (I); E ® (IV)
(c) A® (III); B and C® (I); D® (II); E® (IV)
(d) A® (IV); B and C® (III); D® (I); E® (II)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 2 MT-19
BOTANY
1. (b) Binomial Nomenclature means the scientific name of any
organism consisting of a generic epithet and a specific
epithet.
2. (d) The class Basidiomycetes includes those members that
produce their basidia and basidiospores on or in a
basidiocarp.
6. (b) Replication of the genetic information causes transfer
of genetic information from one generation to the next.
8. (a) NO3
–
, is negatively charged and not tightly bound to
soil particles.
10. (c) Gibberellins and ABA are antagonistic with each other.
ABA counteracts many effects of gibberellins like
induction of hydrolases and a-amylases in barley
seedlings.
12. (b) Net primary productivity is the rate of organic matter
built up or stored by producers in their bodies per unit
time and area. Net productivity is equal to gross primary
productivity minus loss due to respiration and other
reasons. Rate of increase in energy containing organic
matter or biomass by heterotrophs or consumers per
unit time and area is known as secondary productivity.
13. (c) If the forest cover is reduced to half, large areas will
become deserts, on a long term basis.
21. (b) The second male gamete entering the ovary fuses with
two haploid polar nuclei to form triploid primary
endosperm nucleus which develops into endosperm.
This fusion of two male gametes with two different
structures (egg and secondary nucleus) in the same
female gametophyte is called double fertilization.
24. (d) Though the flagella are of different structure, they serve
the same role in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
27. (b) In most fruits the rate of respiration will undergo a sharp
rise and then fall near the end of ripening. Kidd and West
termed this phenomenon "climacteric rise". The climacteric
acts as a trigger that sets in progress those changes that
rapidly transform the fruit from an unripe to a ripe condition.
Finally, application of ethylene to unripe fruit will bring on
a premature climactric and accelerate ripening.
29. (a) The first reaction of the Krebs cycle is the condensation
of acetyl CoA (2 C compound) with oxaloacetate
(4 C compound). Citric acid, a 6 carbon-compound is
the first product of Krebs cycle.
42. (a) F2 phenotypic and genotypic ratio in monohybrid cross
involving incomplete dominance is
1 : 2 : 1
RR Rr rr
(red) (pink) (white)
44. (c) Each molecule of ribulose-1, 5-biphosphate fixes one
molecule of carbon dioxide with the addition of water,
thereby resulting in the formation of two molecules of
3-phosphoglyceric acid (3-PGA). The fixation and
reduction of one molecule of CO2
requires three
molecules of ATP and two of NADPH, coming from the
photochemical reactions.
45. (b) Because endosperm is haploid (n) and formed before
fertilization and megaspore mother cell divides
reductionally to form a linear tetrad of haploid
megaspores and microspore (= pollen grain) is the first
stage of the gametophyte (n).
1 (b) 14 (b) 27 (b) 40 (b) 53 (c) 66 (c) 79 (c)
2 (d) 15 (a) 28 (a) 41 (d) 54 (d) 67 (d) 80 (b)
3 (d) 16 (d) 29 (a) 42 (a) 55 (c) 68 (c) 81 (d)
4 (c) 17 (d) 30 (d) 43 (a) 56 (a) 69 (b) 82 (d)
5 (c) 18 (a) 31 (b) 44 (c) 57 (b) 70 (c) 83 (d)
6 (b) 19 (d) 32 (b) 45 (b) 58 (c) 71 (a) 84 (c)
7 (a) 20 (d) 33 (b) 46 (a) 59 (b) 72 (b) 85 (c)
8 (a) 21 (b) 34 (b) 47 (d) 60 (b) 73 (a) 86 (b)
9 (c) 22 (c) 35 (d) 48 (a) 61 (c) 74 (d) 87 (b)
10 (c) 23 (c) 36 (d) 49 (a) 62 (b) 75 (c) 88 (c)
11 (b) 24 (d) 37 (c) 50 (c) 63 (d) 76 (a) 89 (d)
12 (b) 25 (a) 38 (d) 51 (d) 64 (a) 77 (d) 90 (a)
13 (c) 26 (b) 39 (a) 52 (a) 65 (b) 78 (d)
ANSW ER KEY
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-20 Mock Test - 2
ZOOLOGY
46. (a) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton are the common
characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab.
47. (d) The most abundant prokaryotes are helpful to humans
in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics
are the heterotrophic bacteria. Lactobacillis converts
milk into curd.
50. (c) Dendrites generally receive inputs and conduct signals
towards the cell body, whereas axons conduct signals
away from the cell body.
51. (d) The cytoplasm immediately surrounding the nucleus is
loaded with protein synthetic machinery and is called
perikaryon, dendrites are usually shorter, tapering and
much branched processes which may be one to several.
These two are only present in nerve cells.
52. (a) At 14th day of normal human menstrual cycle rapid
secretion of LH hormone normally occurs.
53. (c) Blood group AB is also known as the universal recipient.
55. (c) In testis, the immature male germ cells or spermatogonia
(2n) multiply by mitotic divide and increase in number.
Some spermatogonia (2n) known as primary spermatocytes divide meiotic division to form secondary spermatocytes (n). The secondary spermatocytes undergo
second meiotic division to produce spermatid which
are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called spermiogenesis.
57. (b)
In this question A is transcription, B - translation C -
Francis Crick (central dogma) It is unidirectional flow of
information DNA to mRNA (transcription) and then
decoding the information present in mRNA in the
formation of polypeptide chain or protein (translation).
59. (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is the causal agent of crown
gall disease (the formation of tumours) in over 140 species
of dicot. This disease is caused by a DNA plasmid
(Ti
plasmid) carried by bacterium and transferred to the
plant cells. Ti
plasmid is widely used in plant engineering
as a vector in order to inject gene in host plant to form
transgenic plant.
60. (b) • Growth hormone secreted by Anterior pituitary
• Corpus leutum secrete Progesterone
• Oxytocin is secreted by Posterior pituitary
62. (b) Ex-situ conservation is the conservation of selected
organism in places outside their natural homes. They
include off site collection and gene banks.
In situ conservation, on the other hand, is the
conservation of endangered species in their natural
habitat. Biosphere reserves, National parks, Wildlife
sanctuaries and sacred groves all are examples of In
situ conservation.
65. (b) Ligases are the enzymes used to glue together DNA
fragments.
67. (d) Roquefort cheese is produced with the help Penicillium
roquefortii.
70. (c) Cerebrum is the first and most developed part of fore
brain. It makes 2/3 part of total brain. Pons is a small
spherical projection, which is situated below the midbrain and upper side of the medulla oblongata. It acts as
a relay centre among different parts of brain. B and D
are thalamus and spinal cord respectively.
71. (a) Oxygen tends to displace CO2
so that the curve shifts
more to the right.
72. (b) The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure in
female mammals that is involved in the production of relatively high levels of progesterone. ‘A’ marked in the figure
shows primary follicle, a layer of granulosa cells, surrounds
each primary oocyte. A large number of these follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty.
76. (a) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through
intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+
.
Carbohydrates are absorbed as monosaccharides
(simple sugars such as glucose, fructose, and galactose
that cannot be further broken down by hydrolysis) or
as disaccharides (such as sucrose, lactose, maltose, and
dextrin that can be hydrolyzed to two monosaccharides).
These simpler molecules, however, must be obtained
by the breaking down of polysaccharides, (complex
carbohydrates) that contain many monosaccharides.
Chief among these is amylase, a starch that accounts
for 20 percent of dietary carbohydrate.
79. (c) Nephridia of earthworm and malphigian tubules of
cockroch belong to excretory organs. Earthworm has a
well developed excretory system which is composed of
large number of minute, coiled and glandular,
segmentally arranged excretory tubules called the
nephridia. Malphigian tubules of cockroach are
extremely fine yellowish unbranched thread like
structures present at the junction of midgut and hindgut.
81. (d) Increased arterial pressure in kidney will promote the
filtration but the person is suffering from poor renal
reabsorption, so the volume of glomerular filtrate and
urine will increase and person would be unable to
maintain the volume of blood.
83. (d) Chemical process of digestion started in the oral cavity
by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate (potato
contains starch) splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase.
Carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolysed by
pancreatic amylase into disaccharides.
85. (c) The use of condoms has shown a decrease in the
transmission of AIDS because condoms are contraceptive.
86. (b) The structure of the abdominal wall is similar in principle
to the thoracic wall. There are three layers, an external,
internal and innermost layer. The vessels and nerves lie
between the internal and innermost layers. The abdomen
can be divided into quadrants or nine abdominal regions.
Pain felt in these regions may be considered to be direct
or referred to abdominal wall made up of smooth muscles.
87. (b) Genotype of carrier parents is –
Aa (male parent) × Aa (female parent)
AA ® normal child (25%)
Aa ® carrier child (50%)
aa ® affected child (25%)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
BOTANY
1. An important function of Botanical gardens is
(a) Providing beautiful area for recreation
(b) One can observe tropical plants over there
(c) They allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm
(d) They provide natural habitat to wildlife
2. Which of the following cell membrane components serve as
recognition signals for interactions between cells?
(a) Recognition proteins
(b) Glycolipids or glycoproteins
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Integral proteins
3. Which of the following meristems is responsible for
extrastelar secondary growth in dicotyledonous stem?
(a) Phellogen
(b) Intrafascicular cambium
(c) Interfascicular cambium
(d) Intercalary meristem
4. Nitrogenase enzymes are extremely sensitive to _________
molecules.
(a) hydrogen (b) oxygen
(c) water (d) CO2
5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
facilitated diffusion?
(i) It is a very specific process.
(ii) It is a passive process.
(iii) It helps the substances, hydrophilic in nature, to be
transported across the membrane
(iv) It is faster than active process.
(a) All are correct
(b) (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) All are correct except (iv)
6. Na+
/ K+
pump in a cell is an example of
(a) osmosis (b) diffusion
(c) passive transport (d) active transport
7. What is true about male and female gametophyte in plant
kingdom ?
(a) In bryophytes and pteridophytes they have
independent free-living existence.
(b) In Gymnosperms and Angiosperms they have no
independent free-living existence.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) In bryophytes, pteridophytes and angiosperms they
have free-living life. They remain in sporangia which
are retained on sporophytes.
8. Assertion : Magnesium is important in photosynthesis and
carbohydrate metabolism.
Reason : Mg++ is involved in the synthesis of nucleic acids.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
9. Which of the following is the most significant difference
between Mitosis and Meiosis?
(a) Chromosomes are duplicated before mitosis.
(b) Meiosis is not followed by cytokinesis.
(c) Homologous pairs of chromosomes are split up in
meiosis.
(d) A spindle formed of microtubules moves the
chromosomes in mitosis.
10. What does the shape of the given age pyramids
(I to III) reflect about the growth status of populations ?
(a) (b) (c)
Post-reproductive
Reproductive
Pre-reproductive
I II III
(a) Declining Stable Expanding
(b) Stable Expanding Declining
(c) Expanding Stable Declining
(d) Declining Expanding Stable
11. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of
(a) ATP and NADPH (b) ATP, NADPH and O2
(c) ATP (d) NADPH
Mock Test
3
I II III
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-22 Mock Test - 3
12. Which of the following statements about herbarium is correct?
(a) It is a store house of collected plant specimens that are
dried and preserved on sheets.
(b) Herbarium sheets contain information about date and
place of collection, names, family, collector’s name etc.
(c) It serves as quick referral systems in taxonomical
studies.
(d) All of the these
13. Which of the following arrangement is correct from the point
of view of decreasing biodiversity in angiosperms (N), fungi
(F), pteridophytes (P) and algae (A)
(a) N > F > P > A (b) N > F > A > P
(c) F > N > P > A (d) F > N > A > P
14. A bicollateral vascular bundle has which of the following
arrangement of tissues ?
(a) Outer phloem - Outer xylem - Middle cambium - Inner
xylem - Inner phloem
(b) Outer xylem - Outer cambium - Middle phloem - Inner
cambium - Inner xylem
(c) Outer cambium - Outer phloem - Middle xylem - Inner
phloem - Inner cambium
(d) Outer phloem - Outer cambium- Middle xylem - Inner
cambium - Inner phloem
15. Assertion : The two cotyledons in seed are embryonic leaves.
Reason : The embryo contains radicle and plumule.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
16. Assertion : Water potential is new term for diffusion pressure
deficit.
Reason : Both diffusion pressure deficit and water potential
have a negative value.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
17. Which of the following pair is a combination of lowest and
highest energy molecules ?
(a) Glucose and Pyruvic acid
(b) Acetyl CoA and Palmitic acid
(c) Glucose and Malic acid
(d) Malic acid and Acetyl CoA
18. Which of the following pair comes under the group
Chrysophytes?
(a) Diatoms and Euglena
(b) Euglena and Trypanosoma
(c) Diatoms and Desmids
(d) Gonyaulax and Desmids
19. Denitrification is carried by bacteria
(a) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus
(b) Nitrosomonas and Nitrococcus
(c) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
(d) Pseudomonas and Nitrococcus
20. Phellogen and Phellem respectively denote
(a) Cork and Cork cambium
(b) Cork cambium and Cork
(c) Secondary cortex and Cork
(d) Cork and Secondary cortex
21. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hot spot of
biodiversity ?
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Gangetic Plain
(c) Sunderbans (d) Western Ghats
22. During the post-fertilisation period the ovules develop into
__________ and the ovary matures into a _________.
(a) A – seeds; B – fruit (b) A – fruit; B – seeds
(c) A – flower; B – seed (d) A – seeds; B – flower
23. If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned man, their
sons will be
(a) one-half colour blind and one-half normal
(b) three-fourths colour blind and one-fourth normal
(c) all colour blind sons
(d) all normal visioned
24. Which of the following statments are true about virues ?
(i) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(ii) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside the living
cells.
(iii) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial proof filters.
(iv) Viruses are made up of protein + DNA or RNA (never
both DNA and RNA).
Choose the answer from the following options
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) All of these
25. Assertion : A Sanctuary is formed for the conservation of
animals only.
Reason : Restricted human activities are allowed in
sanctuaries.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
26. The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the substrate
concentration at which the reaction reaches to
(a) zero (b) 2 Vmax
(c) ½ Vmax (d) ¼ Vmax
27. Bryophytes are different from fungi in having
(a) land habit
(b) sterile jacket layers
(c) multiflagellate gametes
(d) gametophytic plant body
28. Desert regions are characterized by ___ centimeters of rainfall
per year.
(a) less than 5 (b) less than 15
(c) less than 25 (d) over 50
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 3 MT-23
29. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Chromosomes are moved I. Pachytene
to spindle equator
B. Centromere splits and II. Zygotene
chromatids apart
C. Pairing between homologous III. Anaphase
chromosomes takes place
D. Crossing between homologous IV. Metaphase
chromosomes
(a) A ® I; B® II; C® III; D® IV
(b) A ® II; B® III; C® IV; D® I
(c) A ® IV; B® III; C® II; D® I
(d) A ® III; B® I; C ® IV; D® II
30. Which is not the function of Cell wall?
I. Provides shape to the cell.
II. Protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection.
III. Helps in cell to cell interaction.
IV. Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iv)
(c) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of these
31. Which one o23f the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
(a) IAA - Cell wall elongation
(b) Abscissic acid - Bolting
(c) Gibberellic acid - Stem elongation
(d) Cytokinin - Cell division
32. Which one of the following option correctly represents the type of Life cycle patterns?
Sporophyte
(2n)
Zygote (2n)
Syngamy
(n)
Meiosis
Gametogenesis
A B
Zygote
(2n)
Meiosis
Gametophyte (n)
Gametogenesis
Syngamy
Spores (n) C
Gametogenesis
Syngamy
Zygote (2n)
Sporophyte
(2n)
Meiosis
Spores (n)
Gametophyte (n)
(a) A - Diplontic, B - Haplodiplontic, C - Haplontic (b) A - Haplodiplontic, B - Haplontic, C - Diplontic
(c) A - Haplontic, B - Diplontic, C - Haplodiplontic (d) A - Diplontic, B - Haplontic, C - Haplodiplontic
33. The conditions necessary for vernalization are
(i) high temperature and water
(ii) low temperature
(iii) water and carbon dioxide
(iv) oxygen and water
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
34. Identify A, B, C, D and E respectivelyB
C
D
E
Pollen tube
A-cells
Egg cell
Synergid
(a) Antipodal cells, Secondary nuclei, Stigma, Style,
Chalaza
(b) Antipodal cells, Secondary nuclei, Style, Stigma,
Chalaza
(c) Antipodal cells, Secondary nuclei, Stigma, Chalaza,
Style
(d) Antipodal cells, Secondary nuclei, Chalaza, Stigma,
Style
35. Which of the following statements are correct about Leaf?
(i) Leaf is a lateral, generally flattened structure borne on
the stem.
(ii) It develops at the node and bears a bud in its axil.
(iii) Leaves originate from root apical meristems and
arranged in an acropetal order.
(iv) They are the most important vegetative organs for
reproduction.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All of these
36. Select the correct statement(s)
(i) IARI has released a mustard variety rich in vitamin C.
(ii) Pusa Sawani variety of Okra is resistant to aphids.
(iii) Hairiness of leaves provides resistance to insect pests.
(iv) Agriculture accounts for approximately 33% of India's
GDP and employs nearly 62% of the population.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) None of these
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-24 Mock Test - 3
37. Assertion : UAA, UAG and UGA terminate protein synthesis.
Reason : They are not recognised by tRNA.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
38. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Grana of chloroplast I. Kreb's cycle
B. Stroma of chloroplast II. Light reaction
C. Cytoplasm III. Dark reaction
D. Mitochondrial matrix IV. Glycolysis
(a) A ® IV; B® III; C® II; D® I
(b) A ® I; B® II; C® IV; D® III
(c) A ® IV; B® I; C ® III; D® II
(d) A® II; B® III; C® IV; D® I
39. If you consider the combined processes of photosynthesis
and cellular respiration, the electrons found in H2O at the
beginning of the light reactions end up attaching to
_______ during respiration.
(a) O2
to make new H2O molecule.
(b) NADPH to make new glucose molecule.
(c) pyruvate to make ethanol.
(d) electron transport carriers to make O2
.
40. Match the following and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
(Symbols used in floral (Parts of the flower)
formula)
(A) Å I. Zygomorphic
(B) K II. Corolla
(C) C III. Androecium
(D) A IV. Actinomorphic
(E) G V. Calyx
(F) % VI. Superior ovary
(a) A - IV; B - V; C - VI; D - I; E - III; F - II
(b) A - IV; B - V; C - III; D - II; E - I; F - VI
(c) A - V; B - IV; C - III; D - II; E - VI; F - I
(d) A - IV; B - V; C - II; D - III; E - VI; F - I
41. Food chains differ from food webs in that
(i) food chains are single sequence of who eats whom in a
community.
(ii) food chains better represent the entire community.
(iii) food webs represent the complex interaction among
food chains.
(iv) food chain is the flow of energy in a population.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) None of these
42. In electron transport system (ETS), which of the following
cytochrome reacts with oxygen ?
(a) Cyt b (b) Cyt a3
(c) Cyt b6
(d) Cyt f
43. Which of the following class of algae is rarely found in fresh
water?
(a) Chlorophyceae (b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Rhodophyceae (d) Both (a) and (b)
44. Assertion : Wilting occurs due to loss in turgidity.
Reason : Turgor pressure checks the excessive entry of water
into cells.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
45. Which one of the following processes during decomposition
is correctly described?
(a) Humification-Leads to the accumulation of a dark
coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial
action at a very fast rate.
(b) Catabolism-Last step decomposition under fully
anaerobic condition.
(c) Leaching-Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the
top layers of soil.
(d) Fragmentation-Carried out by organisms such as
earthworm.
ZOOLOGY
46. Biological organisation starts with
(a) cellular level
(b) organism level
(c) atomic level
(d) sub-microscopic molecular level
47. Which of the following statements regarding nomenclature
is correct ?
(a) Generic name always begins with capital letter whereas
specific name with small letter.
(b) Scientific name should be printed in italics.
(c) Scientific name when typed or handwritten should be
underlined.
(d) All the above
48. Which of the following is an example of Amoeboid protozoan?
(a) Trypanosoma (b) Paramoecium
(c) Gonyaulax (d) Entamoeba
49. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with
its two general characteristics?
(a) Arthropoda - Body divided into head, thorax
and abdomen and respiration by
tracheae
(b) Chordata - Notochord at some stage and
separate anal and urinary
openings to the outside
(c) Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial symmetry
and mostly internal fertilization
(d) Mollusca - Normally oviparous and
development through a
trochophore or veliger larva
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 3 MT-25
50. Assertion : Blood is colourless in the insects.
Reason : Insect blood has no role in O2
transport.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
51. Adaptive radiation refers to
(a) evolution of different species from a common ancestor
(b) migration of members of a species to different
geographical areas
(c) power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of
environments
(d) adaptations due to geographical isolation
52. Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation
of body temperature?
(a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Medulla Oblongata
53. Find out the pairs, which are correctly matched.
Column-I Column-II
A. PCR I. Large scale
culture
B. Bioreactor II. To induce alien
DNA in host cell
C. Gene gun III. Restriction
endonuclease
D. Eco RI IV. Amplification of gene
(a) A® (IV); B® (I); C® (II); D® (III)
(b) A® (II); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (III)
(c) A ® (IV); B® (I); C® (III); D® (II)
(d) A® (I); B® (IV); C® (II); D® (III)
54. Which of the following processes is helped by Bile salts?
(a) Nucleic acid Nucleotides Nuclease Nucleotidase ¾¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾¾¾®
Nucleosides Sugar bases Nucleosidase ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® +
(b) Sucrose Glucose Fructose ¾¾¾¾® + Sucrase
(c) Fats Diglycerides Monoglycerides Lipase ¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®
(d)
Proteins
Trypsin/Chymotrypsin Peptones Dipeptides Carboxypeptidase
Proteoses
ü
ï
ý ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾®
ï
þ
55. A biologist studied the population of rats in
a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average
mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net
increase in population is
(a) 15 (b) 05
(c) zero (d) 10
56. Which National Park is the new home of the Indian onehorned rhinoceros ?
(a) Dudhwa (b) Jim Corbett
(c) Kanha (d) Bandhavgarh
57. Assertion : Enzymes lower the activation energy.
Reason : A substrate molecule can be acted upon by a
particular enzyme.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
58. Which one of the following genes is defective in patients
suffering from Severe Combined Immuno-deficiency
Syndrome (SCID) ?
(a) RNAase
(b) ADA
(c) Ribonucleotide reductase
(d) DNAase
59. Recombinant DNA can be transferred into host cell by
(a) growing the host cell in growth medium containing
ampicillin.
(b) coating the DNA with carbohydrates so that the cells
will engulf the DNA.
(c) treating cells with calcium ions or electrical pulses to
increase cell permeability.
(d) injecting proteins into host cells to make them more
permeable.
60. Prophase of reduction division is divided into number of
stages. The correct chronological sequence is
(a) Leptotene - Pachytene - Zygotene - Diplotene -
Diakinesis
(b) Leptotene - Diplotene - Pachytene - Zygotene -
Diakinesis
(c) Leptotene - Zygotene - Diplotene - Pachytene -
Diakinesis
(d) Leptotene - Zygotene - Pachytene - Diplotene -
Diakinesis
61. Progestasert and LNG-20 are
(a) Implants
(b) Copper releasing IUDs
(c) Non-medicated IUDs
(d) Hormone releasing IUDs
62. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show
symptoms of AIDS?
(a) When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells.
(b) When viral DNA is produced by reverse trancriptase.
(c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes
and damages large number of these cells.
(d) Within 15 day of sexual contact with an infected
person
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-26 Mock Test - 3
63. Which of the following are necessary for evolution by natural
selection to take place?
(i) Offspring resemble their parents more than other
individuals in the population.
(ii) Differences among individuals exist and lead to different
number of successful offspring being produced.
(iii) Individuals adjust their development depending on the
environment.
(iv) Every individual has a desire to have many offspring.
(v) Populations tend to grow faster than their food supplies.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (v)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
64. Which of the following is a chordate feature, not shared by
the non-chordates?
(a) Metamerism (b) Axial organization
(c) Bilateral symmetry (d) Pharyngeal gill slits
65. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Operator site I. Binding site for
RNA polymerase
B. Promoter site II. Binding site for
repressor molecule
C. Structural gene III. Codes for enzyme protein
D. Regulator gene IV. Codes for repressor
molecules
(a) A® (II); B® (I); C® (III); D® (IV)
(b) A® (II); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (III)
(c) A ® (IV); B® (III); C® (I); D® (II)
(d) A® (II); B® (III); C® (I); D® (IV)
66. Which of the following statements are true/false ?
(i) The blood transports CO2
comparatively easily
because of its higher solubility.
(ii) Approximately 8.9% of CO2
is transported being
dissolved in the plasma of blood.
(iii) The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses
passively into the blood stream and passes into red
blood corpsucles and react with water to form H2CO3
.
(iv) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2
) of the erythrocytes is
basic.
(v) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the
erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) are true, (ii) and (iv) are false.
(b) (i), (iii) and (v) are false, (ii) and (iv) are true.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true, (iii) and (v) are false.
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false, (iii) and (v) are true.
67. Match column -I with column - II.
Column-I Column-II
A. Endometrium I. Copulation chamber in female
B. Menopause II. Site of implantation of zygote
C. Fallopian tube III. Cessation of menstrual cycle
in female
D. Vagina IV. Site of fertilization in female
(a) A ® (II); B ® (III); C ® (IV); D ® (I)
(b) A ® (IV); B ® (II); C ® (III); D ® (I)
(c) A ® (IV); B ® (III); C ® (II); D ® (I)
(d) A ® (IV); B ® (III); C ® (I); D ® (II)
68. Which one of the following has its own DNA?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Dictyosome
(c) Lysosome (d) Peroxisome
69. Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome
number 21. What percentage of offspring produced by an
affected mother and a normal father would be affected by
this disorder?
(a) 25% (b) 100%
(c) 75% (d) 50%
70. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Ribs are attached I. True ribs
to the sternum
ventrally and to
the vertebrae
dorsally.
B. Ribs are attached II. False ribs
to sternum
through coastal
cartilage (hyaline)
of 7th rib
C. Ribs are not III. Floating ribs
attached to sternum
(a) A® I; B® II; C® III
(b) A® I; B® III; C ® II
(c) A® II; B® I; C ® III
(d) A® III; B® II; C® I
71. The diagram given below repesents the T.S. of Gut. Identify
A, B, C and D
(a) A - Serosa; B - Muscularis; C - Submucosa; D - Mucosa
(b) A - Muscularis; B - Serosa; C - Submucosa; D - Mucosa
(c) A - Serosa; B - Muscularis; C - Mucosa; D - Submucosa
(d) A - Serosa; B - Submucosa; C - Muscularis; D - Mucosa
72. Which of the following represents the action of insulin?
(a) Increases blood glucose levels by hydrolysis of
glycogen.
(b) Increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glucagon
production.
(c) Decreases blood glucose levels of forming glycogen.
(d) Increases blood glucose level by promoting cellular
uptake of glucose.
73. Which of the following possesses electric organ and belongs
to class Chondrichthyes?
(a) Torpedo (b) Petromyzon
(c) Trygon (d) Exocoetus
74. Which of the following is the contractile protein of a muscle?
(a) Myosin (b) Tropomyosin
(c) Actin (d) Tubulin
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 3 MT-27
75. Although much CO2
is carried in blood, yet blood does not
become acidic, because
(a) it is absorbed by the leucocytes.
(b) blood buffers play an important role in CO2
transport.
(c) it combines with water to form H2CO3which is
neutralized by NaCO3
.
(d) it is continuously diffused through tissues and is not
allowed to accumulate.
76. Consider the following four statements (i-iv) regarding
kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of
these.
(i) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may
need to take immune suppresants for a long time.
(ii) The cell mediated immune response is responsible for
the graft rejection.
(iii) The B lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the
graft.
(iv) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant
depends on specific interferons.
The two correct statements are:
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
77. Which of the following ion is necessary for the contraction
of a muscle and nerve impulse transmission?
(a) Na+
(b) K+
(c) Ca++ and Mg++ ions (d) None of these
78. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a
hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
(a) Luteinizing – Failure of ovulation
(b) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
(c) Thyroxine – Tetany
(d) Parathyroid – Diabetes mellitus
79. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid
valve of the human heart is partially non - functional, what
will be the immediate effect?
(a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.
(b) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.
(c) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.
(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be
reduced.
80. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given
below. Identify at least two of the labels A, B, C, D correctly.
(a) B-Synaptic connection, D-K+
(b) A-Neurotransmitter, B-Synaptic cleft
(c) C- Neurotransmitter, D-Ca++
(d) A-Receptor, C-Synaptic vesicles
81.
Identify structures A to D
(a) A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Hepatic caecae, D-Malpighian
tubules
(b) A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caecae, D-Malpighian
tubules
(c) A- Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Malpighian tubules, D-Hepatic
caecae
(d) A- Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules, D-Hepatic
caecae
82. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally.
The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted
in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site of
(a) Atrioventricular bundle
(b) Purkinje system
(c) Sinuatrial node
(d) Atrioventricular node
83. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory
system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which
gives correct identification and main function and/or
characteristics.
(a) B-Pleural membrane-surrounds ribs on both sides to
provides cushion against rubbing.
(b) C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like structures for
exchange of gases.
(c) D-Lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during
inspiration.
(d) A-Trachea-long tube supported by complete
cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-28 Mock Test - 3
84. Refer the following diagram and identify the parts of a kidney
indicated
A
B
C
D
E
(a) A - cortex, B - nephron, C - pelvis, D - medulla,
E - ureter
(b) A - cortex, B - medulla, C - nephron, D - pelvis,
E - ureter
(c) A - nephron, B - cortex, C - medulla, D - ureter,
E - pelvis
(d) A - nephron, B - cortex, C - medulla, D - pelvis,
E - ureter
85. Assertion : Intercalated discs are important regions of
cardiac muscle cells.
Reason : Intercalated discs function as boosters for muscle
contraction waves.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
86. Which of the following statement(s) is/are wrong about
Lymph ?
(i) Lymph is colourful as it has haemoglobin but no RBC.
(ii) The fluid present in lymphatic system is called lymph.
(iii) It contains specialized lymphocytes which are
responsible for immunity of the body.
(iv) Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients and
hormones.
(v) Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals lpresent
in the intestinal villi.
(a) Only (i) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)
87. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Hypothalamus I. Sperm lysins
B. Acrosome II. Estrogen
C. Graafian follicle III. Relaxin
D. Leydig cells IV. GnRH
E. Parturition V. Testosterone
(a) A® (IV); B® (I); C® (II); D® (III); E ® (V)
(b) A® (II); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (III); E ® (V)
(c) A ® (I); B® (I); C® (V); D® (IV); E® (III)
(d) A® (IV); B® (I); C® (II); D® (V); E® (III)
88. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that
(a) one strand turns anti-clockwise
(b) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their
ends, share the same position
(c) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands
are in opposite position (pole)
(d) one strand turns clockwise
89. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human
reproductive system gets blocked, the gametes will not be
transported from
(a) testes to epididymis
(b) epididymis to vas deferens
(c) ovary to uterus
(d) vagina to uterus
90. Which of the following statements about the neural basis of
the knee-jerk reflex in humans is false ?
(a) The leg extensor is stimulated to contract by the motor
neuron in this reflex loop.
(b) The only synapses between neurons involved in this
loop occur in the spinal cord.
(c) The basic response is a polysynaptic circuit containing
several interneurons.
(d) Conscious action can modify the basic reflex because
of the action of interneurons.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 3 MT-29
1 (c) 13 (d) 25 (a) 37 (a) 49 (c) 61 (d) 73 (a) 85 (a)
2 (b) 14 (d) 26 (c) 38 (d) 50 (b) 62 (c) 74 (a) 86 (a)
3 (a) 15 (b) 27 (b) 39 (a) 51 (a) 63 (a) 75 (b) 87 (d)
4 (b) 16 (c) 28 (c) 40 (d) 52 (c) 64 (d) 76 (d) 88 (c)
5 (d) 17 (b) 29 (c) 41 (a) 53 (a) 65 (a) 77 (c) 89 (a)
6 (d) 18 (b) 30 (d) 42 (b) 54 (c) 66 (a) 78 (a) 90 (c)
7 (c) 19 (a) 31 (b) 43 (b) 55 (c) 67 (a) 79 (d)
8 (b) 20 (b) 32 (d) 44 (b) 56 (a) 68 (a) 80 (d)
9 (c) 21 (d) 33 (c) 45 (d) 57 (b) 69 (d) 81 (b)
10 (c) 22 (a) 34 (a) 46 (d) 58 (b) 70 (a) 82 (c)
11 (c) 23 (c) 35 (a) 47 (d) 59 (c) 71 (a) 83 (b)
12 (d) 24 (c) 36 (c) 48 (d) 60 (d) 72 (c) 84 (d)
ANSWER KEY
BOTANY
2. (b) Both glycolipids and glycoproteins serve as
recognition signals.
8. (b) Magnesium is a constituent of the chlorophyll
molecule, without which photosynthesis would not
occur. Many of the enzymes involved in carbohydrate
metabolism require magnesium as an activator.
Magnesium is also an activator for those enzymes
involved in the synthesis of nucleic acids (DNA, RNA)
from nucleotide polyphosphate.
9. (c) In mitosis, each daughter cell ends up with two of
each chromosome.
11. (c) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation
of ATP. This process is called photophosphorylation,
which occurs in two different ways. Adenosine
triphosphate (ATP) is considered by biologists to be
the energy currency of life. It is the high-energy
molecule that stores the energy we need to do just
about everything we do. It is present in the cytoplasm
and nucleoplasm of every cell, and essentially all the
physiological mechanisms that require energy for
operation obtain it directly from the stored ATP.
14. (d) In a bicollateral vascular bundle, the middle xylem is
bounded by outer phloem and outer cambium. The inner
face of the xylem has inner cambium and inner phloem.
The bicollateral bundle is always open.
15. (b) In angiosperms, cotyledons are embryonic leaves.
Embryo also has radicle and plumule which gives rise
to root and shoot respectively.
16. (c) The reduction in the diffusion pressure of water in a
solution over its pure state is called diffusion pressure
deficit or DPD. It is a term coined by Meyer (1938). It
has positive value. Water potential is a modern term
coined by Slatyer and Taylor (1960) which is equivalent
to DPD, but it has a negative value.
21. (d) Hotspots are the geographical areas where biodiversity
is maximum. Two hot spots is India are Western Ghats
and North eastern himlayan region.
23. (c) Colour blindness is a X-chromosome linked character.
So they’ll be having all colour blind sons and carrier
daughters.
25. (a) A sanctuary is an area which is reserved for the
protection of wild animals only. The activities like
harvesting of timber, collection of minor forest products
and private ownership rights are allowed, however, such
activities should not have any adverse effect on animals.
27. (b) Bryophytes are different from fungi in having sterile
jacket layers.
28. (c) Deserts have less than 25 centimeters of rainfall per
year.
44. (b) Flowers, young stems and other softer organs are able
to maintain their form due to turgidity or TP (turgor
pressure). In case of loss of turgidity, the shoots droop
down and the leaves show wilting. Turgor pressure
(pressure potential or hydrostatic pressure) keeps a
check on the excessive entry of water into cells.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-30 Mock Test - 3
72. (c) Insulin is a peptide hormone, which plays a major role
in the regulation of glucose homeostasis. Insulin acts
mainly on hepatocytes and adipocytes (cells of adipose
tissue), and enhances cellular glucose uptake and
utilization. Insulin also stimulates conversion of glucose
to glycogen (glycogenesis) in the target cells.
74. (a) Actin and tropomyosin are part of thin filaments of
skeletal muscle. Tubulin is present in microtubules.
Myosin is muscle protein.
75. (b) CO2
enters RBC and reacts with water to form carbonic
acid. Carbonic acid dissociates to form bicarbonate and
hydrogen ions. Some bicarbonate ions are transported
in erythrocytes while some diffuse into the blood
plasma. Exit of bicarbonate ions change the ionic
balance between the plasma and erythrocytes. To
restore this balance chloride ions diffuse from plasma
into erythrocytes. Due to this the pH of blood is
maintained.
76. (d) Tissue and blood group matching are essential before
undertaking kidney transplant. Even if kidney transplant
is proper, the recipient may need to take immuno
suppresant all his/her life. The ability of body to
differentiate self and nonself and the cell-mediated
immune response is responsible for graft rejection.
77. (c) Ca++ is an essential element for the contraction of
muscles because release of Ca++ ions from sarcoplasmic
reticulum trigger the muscle contraction process.
78. (a) Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates ovulation.
Deficiency of insulin causes diabetes mellitus.
Deficiency of ADH or vasopressin causes diabetes
insipidus. Deficiency of parathormone causes tetany.
Deficiency of thyroxine causes cretinism in infants and
myxoedema in adults.
79. (d) Tricuspid valve is the valve in the heart between the
right atrium and right ventricle. The valve opens to
allow blood to flow from atrium into the ventricle. Thus
if tricuspid valve is partially non-functional, then the
flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.
80. (d) A-Receptor, C-Synaptic vesicles B is synaptic cleft. A
synapse is formed by the membranes of a synaptic
neuron and post synaptic neuron, which may or may
not be separated by a gap called synaptic cleft. It is
filled by fluid called neurotransmitter which are involved in transmission of impulse at these synapses.
82. (c) SA node is the natural pacemaker located in the right
atrium. SA node initiates the cardiac impulse. So, artificial
pacemaker will be grafted at the site of SA node.
83. (b) Alveoli are very thin, irregular walled bag like structures
for gaseous exchange. Tracheae, bronchi and
bronchioles are supported by incomplete cartilaginous
rings. Double layered pleural membrane surrounds the
lungs with pleural fluid between them. It reduces friction
on the lung surface.
89. (a) If the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system
gets blocked the gametes will not be transformed from
testes to epididymis.
90. (c) The basic knee-jerk response is controlled by a
monosynaptic circuit. Interneurons are only involved
in the voluntary or conscious modification of this reflex.
45. (d) Humification, catabolism, leaching and fragmentation
are the steps of decomposition which operate
simultaneously on the detritus. Fragmentation is
breaking down detritus into smaller particles by
detritivores like earthworm. By the process of leaching,
water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into soil
horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
Humification occurs at a very slow rate.
ZOOLOGY
46. (d) Biological organisation starts with sub-microscopic
moleculer level like viruses, bacteria etc. These
organisms are unable to be seen by naked eyes without
the help of microscope or even electron microscope.
49. (c) Pseudocoelomate is any invertebrate animal whose
body cavity is a pseudocoel, a cavity between the gut
and the outer body wall derived from a persistent
blastocoel, rather than a true coelom. Pseudocoelomate
animal include the Rotifera and Nematoda.
50. (b) Insect blood is colourless and does not play any role
in transport of oxygen. Insects have tracheal
respiration.
51. (a) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution of different
species from a common ancestor. The mammals are
adapted for different mode of life i.e. they show adaptive
radiation. They can be aerial (bat), aquatic (whale and
dolphins), burrowing or fossorial (rat), cursorial (horse),
scantorial (squarrel) or arboreal (monkey). The adaptive
radiation, the term by osborn, is also known as Divergent
evolution.
55. (c) Net increase in population : (Natality + Immigration) –
(Mortality + Emigration)
(250 + 20) – (240 + 30) = 270 – 270 = 0
57. (b) Activation energy is an external supply of energy which
is needed for the initiation of the chemical reaction.
Activation energy required for such a large number of
reactions cannot be provided by living systems.
Enzymes lower the activation energy required for a
reaction. Enzymes are generally specific for their
substrates.
59. (c) Treating cells with ampicillin does not make them more
permeable to DNA. Coating DNA with lipids (not
carbohydrates) is used to introduce recombinant DNA
molecules into host cells, injecting DNA (not protein)
is a method used to place recombinant DNA into best
cells.
62. (c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes
and damages large number of these cells, at this stage
infected persons start showing symptoms of AIDS.
64. (d) Chordates show the presence of nerve cord, notochord
and pharyngeal gill slits.
68. (a) Mitochondria has its own DNA. It is a structure within
cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells that carries out aerobic
respiration. It is the site of Kreb’s cycle and ETS.
Therefore, it is also called as cell’s energy production
site.
69. (d) 50% of ova will have (n + 1) chromosome which would,
on fertilisation, yield abnormal zygotes (n + 1) + (n)
= 2n + 1.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
BOTANY
1. Species are considered as
(a) real units of classification devised by taxonomists
(b) real basic units of classification
(c) the lowest units of classification
(d) artificial concept of human mind which cannot be
defined in absolute terms
2. Which one of the following is primarily concerned with Cell
division ?
(a) GA3
(b) IAA
(c) Cytokinin (d) IBA
3. Which of the following factors most often limits the primary
productivity of the Ecosystem ?
(a) Solar radiation/light (b) Oxygen
(c) Consumers (d) Nitrogen
4. If the pressure potential is +0.16 megapascals (mPa) and the
osmotic potential is –0.24 megapascals, then the water
potential would be
(a) + 0.4 mPa (b) +0.08 mPa
(c) – 0.08 mPa (d) + 0.16 mPa
5. Vacuole in a plant cell
(a) is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and
lipids
(b) is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory
substances
(c) lacks membrane and contains air
(d) lacks membrane and contains water and excretory
substances
6. Which one is wrong about the Guard cell?
(a) They are modified ground tissue.
(b) They are chlorophyllous.
(c) Its outer wall is thin and inner wall is highly thickened.
(d) They regulate stomatal movement for transpiration and
gaseous exchange.
7. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are
collectively called
(a) Phelloderm (b) Phellogen
(c) Periderm (d) Phellem
8. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Apple I. Outer portion of receptacle
B. Coconut II. Fleshy thalamus
C. Jackfruit III. Thalamus & pericarp
D. Guava IV. Endosperm
E. Pineapple V. Bract, perianth & seeds
(a) A® (II); B® (III); C® (IV); D® (V); E® (I)
(b) A® (V); B® (III); C® (I); D® (VI); E® (II)
(c) A® (II); B® (III); C® (I); D® (V); E® (IV)
(d) A® (II); B® (IV); C® (V), D® (III); E® (I)
9. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores
and the decomposers is called
(a) Net primary productivity
(b) Secondary productivity
(c) Standing crop
(d) Gross primary productivity
10. How much portion of the PAR is captured by the plants?
(a) 5 – 10%
(b) 7 – 10%
(c) 8 – 10%
(d) 2 – 10%
11. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically
correctly named, correctly printed according to the
International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?
(a) Musca domestica - The common house lizard, a reptile.
(b) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen
causing the most serious type of malaria.
(c) Felis tigris - The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir
forests.
(d) E.coli - Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly
occurring bacterium in human intestine.
12. Pyrenoids in green algal cells are related to
(a) starch formation
(b) protein storage
(c) general metabolism
(d) enzyme secretion
Mock Test
4
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-32 Mock Test - 4
13. Examine the figures given below and select the right options
out of (a-d); in which all the 4 items A, B, C and D are identified
correctly
Buds
Nodes
Adventitious
root
Bud
Leaf scar
Node
(A)
(C) (D)
(B)
A B C D
(a) Tuber Rhizome Bulb Leaf buds
(b) Offset Sucker Stolon Leaf buds
(c) Offset Stolon Sucker Leaf buds
(d) Tuber Rhizome Bulbil Leaf buds
14. The Scrubber is used mainly to remove the following gas/es
from the exhaust after spraying water/ lime
(a) CO2
(b) SO2
(c) O2
& N2
(d) CO & CO2
15. Growth rings are formed due to activity of
(a) extrastelar cambium (b) intrastelar cambium
(c) interstelar cambium (d) both (b) and (c)
16. Mark the statement that describes the eco-friendly disposal
of municipal solid-waste
(a) It should be burnt to completion.
(b) It should be dumped in open waste land.
(c) It should be dumped in sanitary landfills.
(d) It should be sorted out into bio-degradable,
non- biodegradable and recyclable wastes and treated
separately.
17. A population would grow exponentially
(a) if it were limited only by density-dependent factors.
(b) until it reaches carrying capacity.
(c) if there were no limiting factors.
(d) if it were a population with an equilibrial life history.
18. Match the column-I (Component) with column-II (% of the
total cellular mass) and identify the correct options
Column-I Column-II
(Component) (% of the total cellular mass)
A. Water I. 3
B. Proteins II. 70-90
C. Carbohydrates III. 2
D. Lipids IV. 5-7
E. Nucleic acids V. 10-15
(a) A ® (V); B® (II); C® (III); D® (IV); E ® (I)
(b) A ® (II); B® (V); C® (I); D® (III); E ® (IV)
(c) A® (III); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (V); E® (II)
(d) A® (V); B® (IV); C® (III); D® (II); E® (I)
19. Two lakes, A and B are identical in all aspects except that
lake A has higher temperature. Which of the following is
true ?
(a) A has higher rate of Oxygen dissolution
(b) B has higher rate of Oxygen dissolution
(c) Oxygen dissolution of both is the same
(d) Both have same BOD
20. Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of
photosynthesis?
(a) O2
(b) ATP and NADPH2
(c) High-energy electrons (d) Sugar
21. Assertion : Systematics is the branch of biology that deals
with classification of living organisms.
Reason : The aim of classification is to group the organisms.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) The deficiency of any element can cause multiple
symptoms.
(ii) Same symptoms may be caused by the deficiency of
one or several different elements.
(iii) The concentration of the essential element below which
plant growth is retarded is termed as critical
concentration.
(iv) Chlorosis is the loss of chlorophyll due to deficiency
of N, K, Mg, Fe, S, Mn, Zn, Mo.
(v) Different plants respond differently to the deficiency
of the same element.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
23. In the DNA molecule
(a) the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine
nucleotides is not always equal
(b) there are two strands which run parallel in the 5¢ ® 3¢
direction
(c) the proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies
with the organism
(d) there are two strands which run anti-parallel one in
5¢ ® 3¢ direction and other in 3¢ ® 5¢
24. Leaves of dicotyledonous plants possess ________
venation, while ____________ venation is the characteristic
of most monocotyledons.
(a) reticulate and parallel
(b) parallel and reticulate
(c) reticulate and perpendicular
(d) obliquely and parallel
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 4 MT-33
25. In C4
plant, during photosynthesis C4
acid undergoes
decarboxylation in __________ to produce C3
acid (pyruvic
acid) and __________.
(a) mesophyll, O2
(b) bundle sheath, CO2
(c) grana, CO2
(d) bundle sheath, CO2
26. Assertion : Leaves of Bryophyllum, Begonia help in
vegetative multiplication.
Reason : Leaves of these plants possess adventitious buds.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
27. Diagram given below shows stages in embryogenesis in a
typical dicot (Capsella). Identify structures A to D
respectively
Zygote
Globular
Embryo
Heart-Shaped
Embryo
Mature
Embryo
A
B
C
D
(a) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
(b) Hypophysis, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
(c) Suspensor, Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledons
(d) Suspensor, Radicule, Plumule, Hypocotyls
28. Aristotle used simple_______characters to classify plants
into trees, shrubs and herbs.
(a) anatomical
(b) biochemical
(c) morphological
(d) physiological
29. Osmosis means movement of
(a) Solute from low concentration to higher concentration
(b) Solute from higher concentration to low concentration
(c) Solvent from low concentration of solution to higher
concentration of solution
(d) Solvent from higher concentration of solution to low
concentration of solution
30. Consider the following statements
(i) In a dicot root, the vascular bundles are collateral and
endarch.
(ii) The inner most layer of cortex in a dicot root is
endodermis.
(iii) In a dicot root, the phloem masses are separated from
the xylem by parenchymatous cells that are known as
the conjunctive tissue.
Of the statements given above
(a) (i) is true, but (ii) and (iii) are false
(b) (ii) is true, but (i) and (iii) are false
(c) (i) is false, but (ii) and (iii) are true
(d) (iii) is false, but (i) and (iii) are true
31. Root pressure is maximum when
(a) Transpiration is high and Absorption is very low
(b) Transpiration is very low and Absorption is high
(c) Transpiration is very high and Absorption is also high
(d) Transpiration and Absorption both are slow
32. Match the growth regulators in column-I with the processes
in column-II and choose the correct combination.
Column-I Column-II
A. Auxin I. Colouring test in lemon
B. Gibberellin II. Cell division test in plants
C. Cytokinin III. Avena curvature test
D. Ethylene IV. Dwarf corn test
(a) A – (III), B – (IV), C – (II), D – (I)
(b) A – (I), B – (IV), C – (II), D – (III)
(c) A – (IV), B – (III), C – (I), D – (II)
(d) A – (II), B – (I), C – (IV), D – (III)
33. Which of the following is the correct option ?
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-34 Mock Test - 4
34. The oxidation of a molecule of FADH2
yields less ATP than
a molecue of NADH yields because FADH2
(a) carries fewer electrons.
(b) is formed in the cytosol and energy is lost when it
shuttles its electrons across the mitochondrial
membrane.
(c) passes its electrons to a transport molecule later in the
chain and at a lower energy level.
(d) is the last molecule produced by the Krebs cycle, and
little energy is left to be captured.
35. Assertion : Mosses are evolved from algae.
Reason : Protonema of mosses is similar to some green algae.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
36. Which of the following options is correct?
(a) Pollination gives the guarantee of the promotion of
post-pollination events that lead to fertilization.
(b) The events – “from pollen deposition on stigma until
pollen tubes enter the ovule” are together referred to
as pollen-pistil interaction.
(c) Pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by only promotion (not
rejection) of the pollen.
(d) Pistil has no ability to recognise the pollen, whether
right or wrong type.
37. In which of the following reaction of glycolysis, a molecule
of water is removed from the substrate ?
(a) Frucoste-6-phosphate ® Fructose 1, 6-phosphate
(b) 3-phosphate glyceraldehyde ® 1, 3-biphosphoglyceric
acid
(c) PEP ® Pyruvic acid
(d) 2-phosphoglycerate ® PEP
38. Which one of the option is correct?
A
B
C
D
E
Seed coat
Raphe
Seed Seed opened
(a) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Radicle, D - Cotyledon,
E - Plumule
(b) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule, D - Cotyledon,
E - Radicle
(c) A - Micropyle, B - Hilum, C - Plumule, D - Cotyledon,
E - Radicle
(d) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule, D - Radicle,
E - Cotyledon
39. The picture below shows a graph drawn on the parameters
of growth versus time. A, B, C respectively represent
B
C
A
Size
Time
(a) Exponential
phase
Log phase Steady state phase
(b) Steady state
phase
Log phase Log phase
(c) Log phase Steady
state
phase
Logarithmic phase
(d) Log phase Lag phase Steady state phase
40. Which one of the following statement(s) is/are false?
(i) C2H4
promotes leaf senescence.
(ii) C2
H4
speeds the ripening of fruits.
(iii) C2H4
causes apical hook formation.
(iv) C2H4
promotes horizontal growth of seedling and
swelling of axis.
(v) C2H4
promotes male flowers in cucumber thereby
increasing the yield.
(a) All the statements (b) (i) and (v)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (v)
41. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(i) Green algae occur in fresh water, brackish water, salt
water.
(ii) Habitat of Brown algae-fresh water (rare), brackish
water, salt water
(iii) Some red algae are found in fresh water, mostly occur
in salt water, some are in brackish water.
S. No. A B C D
(a) Porphyra Fucus Dictyota Polysiphonia
(b) Polysiphonia Porphyra Dictyota Fucus
(c) Fucus Dictyota Porphyra Polysiphonia
(d) Porphyra Polysiphonia Fucus Dictyota
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 4 MT-35
(iv) Most of the red algae are multicellular.
(v) Red alga may occur in both well lighted regions close
to water-surface and also at great depths in oceans
where light penetration is little.
(vi) Cell wall of red algae consists of cellulose + agar.
(vii) 2 – 8, equal and apical flagella in green algae
(a) All are correct
(b) All are false
(c) (i) and (vi) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct
42. Assertion : Enzymes are defined as biological proteins.
Reason : Chemically all enzymes are globular proteins.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
43. Meiosis and Mitosis differ from each other because in meiosis
(a) the four nuclei formed are not similar to parental ones
(b) homologous chromosomes pair exchange parts
(c) number of chromosomes gets halved
(d) all of the above
44. Choose the correct option
A. Semi Dwarf Wheat I. Sonalika
B. Semi Dwarf Rice II. Kalyan sona
III. IR-8
IV. Jaya
V. Taichung Native-1
VI. Ratna
(a) A® (I), (III), (V); B® (II), (IV), (VI)
(b) A® (III), (IV), (V), (VI); B® (I), (II)
(c) A® (I), (II), (IV); B® (III), (V), (VI)
(d) A® (I), (II); B® (III), (IV), (V), (VI)
45. Identify A, B, C and D of a nutrient cycle.
Rock minerals
B A
Detritus
Soil solution
Run off
Uptake
D
C
Litter
(a) A – Consumers; B – Decomposition; C – Producers
D – Weathering
(b) A – Consumers; B – Weathering; C – Producers;
D – Decomposition
(c) A – Producers; B – Consumers; C – Decomposition;
D – Weathering
(d) A – Consumers; B – Producers; C – Decomposition
D – Weathering
ZOOLOGY
46. The ‘Birds’ taxonomically represent
(a) Family (b) Order
(c) Class (d) Phylum
47. 'Project Tiger' in India was started in
(a) 1970 (b) 1972
(c) 1981 (d) 1985
48. Ganga and Yamuna Action plan is initiated by
(a) ministry of environment and forest.
(b) ministry of agriculture.
(c) ministry of wild-life conservation.
(d) none of these
49. Industrial melanism as observed in Peppered moth proves
that
(a) the melanic form of the moth has no selective
advantage over lighter form in industrial area
(b) the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either
in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area
(c) melanism is a pollution-generated feature
(d) the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random
mutation
50. Which of these is not correctly matched ?
(a) Gene gun—Biolistic gun
(b) Plasmids—Extrachromosomal DNA
(c) DNA ligase—Biological scissors
(d) Bacteriophages—Viruses
51. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects
(a) all lymphocytes (b) activator B cells
(c) cytotoxic T cells (d) T4
lymphocytes
52. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully
in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Trichoderma
(c) Xanthomonas (d) Bacillus
53. Meiosis in AaBb will produce gametes
(a) AB, aB, Ab, ab (b) AB, ab
(c) Aa, bb (d) Aa, Bb
54. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for
(a) species-specific narrow spectrum pesticidal applications.
(b) species-specific broad spectrum pesticidal applications.
(c) species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.
(d) species-specific broad spectrum insecticidal applications.
55. What type of human population is represented by the
following age pyramid?
(a) Vanishing population (b) Stable population
(c) Declining population (d) Expanding population
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-36 Mock Test - 4
56. The genetic material in viruses is
(a) Only RNA
(b) Only DNA
(c) RNA and DNA both
(d) RNA or DNA i.e. one nucleic acid in a virus
57. Which one of the following option gives the correct matching
of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection?
Disease Causative Mode of
Organisms Infection
(a) Typhoid Salmonella typhii With inspired air
(b) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet
pneumoniae Infection
(c) Elephantiasis Wuchereria Infected water
bancrofti and food
(d) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
vivax Anopheles
mosquito
58. A normal- visioned man whose father was colour blind,
marries a woman whose father was also colour blind. They
have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances
that this child would be colour blind ?
(a) 100% (b) zero percent
(c) 25% (d) 50%
59. Select the correct statement(s)
(i) The essence of Darwinian theory about evolution is
natural selection.
(ii) The rate of appearance of new forms is not linked to
the life cycle or the life span.
(iii) Adaptative ability is not inherited.
(iv) Mutation is random and directionless.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) None of these (d) All of these
60. Identify A, B and C of a nucleosome.
A B
C
Core of histone molecules
(a) A – DNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer
(b) A – H1 histone; B – DNA; C – Histone octamer
(c) A – Histone octamer; B – RNA; C – H1 histone
(d) A – RNA; B – H1 histone; C – Histone octamer
61. Assertion : Cartilage (protein matrix) and bone (calcium
matrix) are rigid connective tissue.
Reason : Blood is connective tissue in which plasma is the
matrix.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
62. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(a) "Bt" in "Bt-cotton" indicates that it is a genetically
modified organism produced through biotechnology.
(b) Somatic hybridization involves fusion of two complete
plant cells carrying desired genes.
(c) The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced from
transgenic Brassica napus seeds.
(d) "Flavr Savr" variety of tomato has enhanced the
production of ethylene which improves its taste.
63. Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine
gland with its hormone and its function:
Endocrine Hormone Function
gland
(a) Ovary FSH stimulates follicular
development and the
secretion of estrogens.
(b) Placenta estrogen initiates secretion of the milk.
(c) Corpus estrogen essential for maintenance
luteum of endometerium
(d) Leydig androgen initiates the cells production
of sperms.
64. What is true about Ribosomes?
(a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands
for sedimentation coefficient.
(b) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
(c) These are found only in eukaryotic cells.
(d) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.
65. Monocondylic skull, warm blooded animals with air sacs are
present in
(a) reptilia (b) birds
(c) amphibia (d) mammalia
66. The diagram represents the Human larynx. Choose the
correct combination of labelling from the options given
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 4 MT-37
(a) A – Larynx, B – Parathyroid, C – Tracheal cartilage,
D – Trachea
(b) A – Naso Larynx, B – Thyroid, C – Tracheal cartilage,
D – Trachea
(c) A – Trachea, B – Thyroid, C – Bronchiole, D – Tracheal
cartilage
(d) A – Epiglottis, B – Thyroid, C – Tracheal cartilage,
D – Trachea
67. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about
Mycoplasma ?
(i) Mycoplasma has no cell wall.
(ii) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism.
(iii) Mycoplasma cannot survive without O2
.
(iv) Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and plants.
(v) True sexuality is not found in bacteria.
(vi) A sort of sexual reproduction by adopting a primitive
DNA transfer from one bacterium to the other occurs.
Choose the answer from the following options
(a) All of these
(b) Only (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(d) (i), (iii) and (vi)
68. Assertion : Copper-T is an effective contraceptive device in
human females.
Reason : Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from vagina
upwards into fallopian tubes.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
69. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Ultrafiltration I. Henle's loop
B. Concentration of urine II. Ureter
C. Transport of urine III. Urinary bladder
D. Storage of urine IV. Malpighian corpuscles
V. Proximal convoluted
tubules
(a) A® (IV); B® (I); C® (II); D® (III)
(b) A® (IV); B® (III); C® (II); D® (I)
(c) A® (V); B® (IV); C® (II); D® (III)
(d) A® (V); B® (IV); C® (I); D® (II)
(e) A® (VI); B® (I); C® (III); D® (II)
70. Tendons and Ligaments belong to
(a) Muscular tissue
(b) Epithelial tissue
(c) Fibrous connective tissue
(d) Areolar connective tissue
71. Match the column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
A. Animals which give I. Hydra
birth to young one
B. Animal which produces II. Planaria
bud
C. An animal which III. Viviparous
shows regeneration
D. Provides nutrition IV. Placenta
to the developing
embryo from the mother
(a) A ® (I); B ® (III); C ® (II); D ® (IV)
(b) A ® (III); B ® (I); C ® (II); D ® (IV)
(c) A ® (III); B ® (II); C ® (IV); D ® (II)
(d) A ® (III); B ® (IV); C ® (I); D ® (II)
72. Combining of haemoglobin with O2
in lungs can be
promoted by
(a) decreasing O2 concentration in blood
(b) increasing O2
concentation in blood
(c) increasing CO2
concentration in blood
(d) introducing CO into blood.
73. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is
correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological
feature?
Animals Morphological feature
(a) Liver fluke, Sea - Bilateral
anemone, Sea symmetry
cucumber
(b) Centipede, Prawn, - Jointed appendages
Sea urchin
(c) Scorpion, Spider, - Ventral solid central
Cockroach nervous system
(d) Cockroach, - Metameric
Locust, Taenia segmentation
74. The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of
(a) Parathormone
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Both calcitonin and parathormone
(d) Calcitonin
75. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(i) Absorption of simple sugar, alcohol, some water and
medicines takes place in stomach.
(ii) Maximum water absorption occurs in small intestine.
(iii) Small intestine is the major site of digestion and
absorption of food.
(iv) Fatty acid and glycerol are absorbed by lacteals.
(v) Nothing is absorbed in mouth and large intestine.
(a) (i), (iv) and (v) (b) only (v)
(c) only (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
76. The wishbone of the bird is derived from
(a) skull (b) pectoral girdle
(c) pelvic girdle (d) hindlimb
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-38 Mock Test - 4
77. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of
muscular or skeletal system
(a) Muscular dystrophy-Age related shortening or muscles.
(b) Osteoporosis-Decrease in bone mass and higher
chance of fractures with advancing age.
(c) Myasthenia gravis-Autoimmune disorder which
inhibits sliding of myosin filaments.
(d) Gout - Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of
calcium.
78. Study the diagram of Synapse
I. Which numbered label indicate the location of the
receptor molecules?
II. Which number points to a synaptic vesicles?
III. Which number point to neurotransmitter?
IV. Which number points to synaptic cleft?
I II III IV
(a) C A B D
(b) B A C D
(c) C A D B
(d) C D A B
79. Which of the following statements are true/false?
(i) In Torpedo the electric organs are capable of generating
strong electric shock to paralyze the prey.
(ii) Bony fishes use pectoral, pelvic, dorsal anal and caudal
fins in swimming.
(iii) Amphibian skin is moist and has thick scales.
(iv) Birds are poikilothermous animals.
(v) The most unique mammalian characteristic is the
presence of milk producing mammary glands by which
the young ones are nourished.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true; (iv), E are false
(b) (i), (ii) and (v) are true; (iii) and (iv) are false
(c) (i), (iv) and (v) are true; (ii) and (iii) are false
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false; (iii) and (v) are true
80. Which of the following statements about Hormones is/are
correct?
(i) Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals.
(ii) Hormones act as intercellular messengers.
(iii) Hormones are produced in trace amount.
(iv) Hormones may be proteins, steroids, glycoproteins and
bigenic amines.
(a) All of these (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
81. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(a) Glucagon - Beta cells (source)
(b) Somatostatin - Delta cells (source)
(c) Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion)
(d) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease)
82. Assertion : Presence of HCl in stomach is necessary for the
process of digestion.
Reason : HCl kills and inhibits the growth of bacteria in the
stomach.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
83. Which of the following is correctly stated as it happens in
the common Cockroach ?
(a) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out
from the colon
(b) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
(c) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
(d) The food is grounded by mandibles and gizzard
Cockroach takes the food after grounding by its
mandibles and gizzard.
84. Which one of the following statements in regard to the
excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(a) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to
water
(b) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing
HCO3
(c) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is
reabsorbed by the renal tubules
(d) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to
electrolytes
85. Column-I Column-II
A. Initiation of I. Anaphase-I
spindle fibres
B. Synthesis of II. Zygotene
RNA and protein
C. Action of endonuclease III. G1
phase
D. Movement of chromatids IV. Pachytene
towards opposite poles
V. Anaphase-II
The correct match is
(a) A ® (II); B® (III); C® (IV); D® (V)
(b) A ® (III); B® (II); C® (I); D® (V)
(c) A® (I); B® (III); C® (V); D® (IV)
(d) A ® (V); B® (III); C® (I); D® (II)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 4 MT-39
86. Figure refers to reproductive system of female cockroach.
The correct labellings indicated by alphabets are
respectively
(a) A-Spermatheca, B-Collateral glands, C-Gonapophyses
(b) A-Phallic gland, B-Collateral glands, C-Gonapophyses
(c) A-Spermatheca, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Gonapophyses
(d) A-Spermatheca, B-Collateral glands, C-Tegmina
87. Assertion : EEG is of immense diagnostic value in the cardiac
diseases.
Reason : Defects in cardiac functions can be reflected in
changes in the pattern of electrical potentials recorded in
the EEG.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
88. An enzyme increases the rate of a reaction by
(a) supplying the energy required to start the reaction.
(b) increasing the rate of random collisions of molecules.
(c) removing the product of the reaction so allowing it to
continue.
(d) bringing the reacting molecules into precise orientation
with each other.
89. Assertion : Implantation is the process of attachment of
blastocyst on uterine endometrium.
Reason : Implantation is controlled by trophoblast and
occurs by decidual cell reaction.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
90. Assertion : Medulla oblongata causes reflex actions like
vomiting, coughing and sneezing.
Reason : It has many nerve cells which control autonomic
reflexes.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-40 Mock Test - 4
BOTANY
2. (c) Cytokinins induce cell division in plants and thus
influence the plant growth by controlling cell division.
4. (c) The water potential is the sum of the osmotic potential
(usually negative) and the pressure potential (usually
positive), so W.P. = – 0.24 + 0.16 = –0.08 mPa.
7. (c) Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are collectively called
periderm.
9. (a) The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores
and the decomposers is called net primary productivity.
It is equal to the rate of organic matter created by
photosynthesis minus the rate of respiration and other
losses.
12. (a) Pyrenoids are the rounded bodies found in the chloroplast
of green algae and are the centres of conversion of
glucose to starch and also collection of starch.
21. (b) Systematics is related with classification of organisms.
In classification the organisms are grouped on the basis
of their characters or phylogeny, etc.
23. (d) In the DNA molecule, there are two strands which run
anti-parallel one in 5' - 3' direction and other in 3' -5'
direction, the two chains are held together by hydrogen
bonds between their bases. Adenine (A), a purine of one
chain is exactly opposite thymine (T), a pyramidine of
the other chain. Similarly, cytosine (C), a pyrimidine lies
opposite guanine (G), a purine. This allows a sort of lock
and key arrangement between large sized purine and small
sized pyrimidine. It is strengthened by the appearance of
hydrogen bonds between the two.
31. (b) Stephentiales (1727) coined the term root pressure, Root
pressure is developed when rate of water absorption is
more than the rate of transpiration.
35. (a) According to some Botanists, Mosses originated from
algae. Protonema of mosses is similar to certain algae.
42. (a) We know that all biological reactions are catalysed by
special catalysts called enzyme, thus enzymes are defined
as biological proteins. We also know that enzymes are
small organic molecules which are weakly held to the
protein and can be easily separated by dialysis. Therefore
chemically all enzymes are globular proteins. A few
exceptions are ribozymes.
43. (d) Four nuclei formed are not similar to parent ones because
they are haploid in nature. Homologous chromosome
pairs exchange parts because in crossing over exchange
of chromatid arms takes place and number of
chromosomes gets halved.
1 (c) 14 (b) 27 (b) 40 (d) 53 (a) 66 (d) 79 (c)
2 (c) 15 (d) 28 (c) 41 (a) 54 (c) 67 (c) 80 (a)
3 (a) 16 (d) 29 (c) 42 (a) 55 (c) 68 (c) 81 (a)
4 (b) 17 (c) 30 (c) 43 (d) 56 (d) 69 (a) 82 (b)
5 (a) 18 (b) 31 (b) 44 (d) 57 (b) 70 (c) 83 (d)
6 (a) 19 (b) 32 (a) 45 (c) 58 (b) 71 (b) 84 (c)
7 (c) 20 (d) 33 (a) 46 (c) 59 (b) 72 (a) 85 (a)
8 (d) 21 (b) 34 (c) 47 (b) 60 (a) 73 (c) 86 (a)
9 (a) 22 (a) 35 (a) 48 (a) 61 (b) 74 (a) 87 (d)
10 (d) 23 (d) 36 (b) 49 (d) 62 (c) 75 (b) 88 (d)
11 (c) 24 (a) 37 (d) 50 (c) 63 (d) 76 (b) 89 (b)
12 (a) 25 (d) 38 (b) 51 (d) 64 (b) 77 (b) 90 (a)
13 (d) 26 (a) 39 (b) 52 (a) 65 (b) 78 (a)
ANSWER KEY
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 4 MT-41
ZOOLOGY
49. (d) During the period when the number of coal-burning
factories in England was increasing (during the Industrial
Revolution) it was noticed that the number of melanic
individuals of the species of Peppered Moth (Biston
betularia) was becoming more common. Originally rare in
the population of normally light-colored moths, the
frequency of the melanic form increased in polluted areas
until it was over 90%. This change in color has come to
be known as “industrial melanism.”
51. (d) AIDS virus infects T4
lymphocytes (also called Helper
cells). Cytotoxic T cells are called T8
lymphocytes.
55. (c) This age pyramid represents the declining population of
any organism. Population decline is the reduction over
time in region’s census. It can be caused for several
reasons that includes heavy immigration disease, famine
or sub-replacement fertility.
57. (b) Pneumonia disease is spreaded by the organism
Streptococcus pneumoniae and the mode of infection is
by droplet infection.
58. (b) If a normal visioned man marries a woman whose father
was also colourblind. Then his wife would be carrier of
this disease if her mother was normal. This trait passed
on to children but daughters produced by this couple
are carrier not colourblind. 50% of sons would be
colourblind.
61. (b) Cartilage comprises of mucopolysaccharide called
chondroctin sulphate. Bone is a hard connective tissue.
Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
63. (d) Leydig cells or interstitial cells, which are present in the
intertubular spaces produce a group of hormones called
androgens mainly testosterone. Androgens play a major
stimulatory role in the process of spermatogenesis (formation of spermatozoa).
64. (b) Ribosomes are amembranous (i.e. without membrane) cell
organelle composed of rRNA and protein. These are
found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In
prokaryotes, ribosomes are 70S type while in eukaryotes,
it is 80S type.
68. (c) Intra-uterine device (IUD) Copper-T is plastic or metal
object placed in the uterus by a doctor. Copper-T prevent
the fertilization of the egg or implantation of the embryo.
73. (c) Scorpion, spider and cockroach have ventral solid central
nervous system. All three belong to phylum-Arthopoda.
– Spider belongs to class-Archnida
– Scorpion belongs to class-Archnida
– Cockroach belongs to class-Insecta
74. (a) A peptide hormone secreted by the parathyroid gland in
response to low levels of calcium in the blood. It acts to
maintain normal blood levels of calcium by increasing
the number of osteoclasts, which break down the bone
matrix and release calcium into the blood.
77. (b) Major causative factors of osteoporosis are imbalances
of hormones like calcitonin of thyroid, parathormone of
parathyroids, and sex hormones and deficiencies of
calcium and vitamin D.
81. (a) Glucagon is secreted by a-cells of the islets of Langerhans
in the pancreas. It increases the concentration of glucose
in the blood by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen.
82. (b) Presence of hydrochloric acid in stomach is necessary
for digestion because acidic medium activates the action
of gastric juice. HCl maintains a strong acidic pH of about
1-2 in the stomach. At this acidic pH inactive pepsinogen
is spontaneously hydrolysed to active pepsin and inactive
pro-rennin is converted to active rennin. Pepsin and
rennin digest proteins to peptones and proteoses. In
addition, HCl helps to kill and inhibit the growth of
bacteria and other harmful organisms that may enter in
the stomach along with the food.
83. (d) Cockroach takes the food after grounding by its
mandibles and gizzard.
84. (c) Urine formation involves three main process called,
glomerular filtration, reabsorption and secretion. A
comparison of the volume of the filtrate formed per day
(which is 180 litres per day) with that of urine released
(about 1.5 litres) suggest that nearly 99 percent of the
glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules. The
descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water
but impermeable to electrolytes. The ascending limb is
impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes.
Reabsorption of sodium ions and water takes place in
distal convoluted tubule.
87. (d) An electrocardiogram is the recording of the various
events of the cardiac cycle. Defects in cardiac functions
or structures are reflected in the ECG. The ECG is, therefore
of immense diagnostic value in cardiac diseases. On the
other hand, EEG is an index of the brain functions. EEG or
electroencephalogram represents the spontaneous
electrical activity of the brain as recorded from the
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-42 Mock Test - 4
electrodes placed on the scalp. EEG wave pattern obtained
shows certain characterstic feature of the brain like the
frequency amplitude of the signals of brain. Thus any
deviation from the normal caused either by brain disease
or change in the physiological state of the brain can be
easily detected by EEG.
88. (d) An enzyme reduces the activation energy needed for the
reaction to occur by binding with a substrate and straining
its bonds so allowing for easier reaction, or binding
multiple substrates in a way that brings them together in
a precise orientation so they can react readily with one
another.
89. (b) The process of attachment of the blastocyst (mammalian
blastula) on the endometrium of uterus is called
implantation.
90. (a) Medulla oblongata consists of accumulation of nerve
cells and act as vital centres of many autonomic reflexes
like vomiting, coughing and sneezing.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
BOTANY
1. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
(a) step-wise arrangement of all categories for
classification of plants and animals.
(b) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the
nomenclature of plants and animals.
(c) a list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on
taxonomy of a species or group.
(d) classification of a species based on fossil record.
2. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished
from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for
(a) interaction with the environment and progressive
evolution
(b) reproduction
(c) growth and Movement
(d) responsiveness to touch
3. Which one of the following animals may occupy more than
one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at the same time?
(a) Sparrow (b) Lion
(c) Goat (d) Frog
4. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of
carotenoids?
(a) Indole-3 -acetic acid (b) Gibberellic acid
(c) Abscisic acid (d) Indole butyric acid
5. Which combination of tissues acts together to provide
support to the hypocotyl of seedling?
(a) Xylem and Phloem fibres
(b) Epidermis and Parenchyma
(c) Xylem and Parenchyma
(d) Epidermis and Collenchyma
6. Jaya and Ratna developed for green revolution in India are
the varieties of
(a) Maize (b) Rice
(c) Wheat (d) Bajra
7. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Passive transport of nutrients - ATP
(b) Apoplast - Plasmodesmata
(c) Potassium - Readily immobilisation
(d) Bakane of rice seedlings - F. Skoog
8. The symbiotic association of fungi and algae is called
(a) Lichen (b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Rhizome (d) Endomycorrhiza
9. What is the function of the filiform apparatus present at the
entrance of ovule?
(a) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid.
(b) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the
embryo sac.
(c) It brings about opening of the pollen tube.
(d) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg.
10. Which element is essential for the stability of chromosome
structure?
(a) Zn (b) Ca
(c) Mo (d) Fe
11. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly
described?
(a) Centrioles - Sites for active RNA synthesis.
(b) Lysosomes - Optimally active at a pH of about 8.5.
(c) Thylakoids - Flattened membranous sacs forming the
grana of chloroplasts.
(d) Ribosomes - Those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while
those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70S).
12. Assertion : Hydroponics is used for solution culture.
Reason : A balanced nutrient solution contains both essential
and non-essential elements.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
13. A graph that plots the rate at which CO2
is converted to
glucose versus the wavelength of light illuminating a leaf is
called
(a) An absorption spectrum
(b) An action spectrum
(c) A planck constant
(d) Enzyme kinetics
Mock Test
5
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-44 Mock Test - 5
14. Choose the right option.
S . No. A B C D
(a) Volvox Chlamydomonas Laminaria Chara
(b) Chara Laminaria Volvox Chlamydomonas
(c) Laminaria Volvox Chlamydomonas Chara
(d) Chlamydomonas Chara Laminaria Volvox
15. Which of the following statements about the process of
DNA replication is false?
(a) Many different enzymes are needed for the process to
function properly.
(b) Mistakes can be corrected at multiple steps in the
process.
(c) Uncorrected mistakes introduce mutations into the
DNA base sequence.
(d) Mistakes in the copying process are very common
occurrences.
16. Which of the following statements about Pollen and
Pollination is false ?
(a) Evolution of the pollen grain rejected the need for
swimming sperm in flowering plants.
(b) At maturity, the pollen grain consists of two sperm
nuclei and a tube nucleus.
(c) The pollen tube enters the female gametophyte through
the style.
(d) The pollen grain makes twice the genetic contribution to
endosperm cells than it does to the cells of the embryo.
17. In meiosis
(a) division of nucleus occurs twice but replication of DNA
only once
(b) division of nucleus occurs twice and replication of
DNA twice
(c) division of nucleus occurs once and replication of DNA
is also once
(d) division of nucleus occurs once and DNA - replication
is twice
18. Select the correct statement(s)-
(i) IARI has released a mustard variety rich in vitamin C.
(ii) Pusa Sawani variety of Okra is resistant to aphids.
(iii) Hairiness of leaves provides resistance to insect pests.
(iv) Agriculture accounts for approximately 33% of India's
GDP and employs nearly 62% of the population.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) None of these
19. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i) Light reaction occurs in stroma.
(ii) Light reaction occurs in grana and ATP + NADPH2
are
formed.
(iii) In stroma dark reaction occurs.
(iv) Dark reaction is not directly light driven but is
dependent on the products (ATP + NADPH2
) formed
in light reaction.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) All are correct.
(d) Only (ii) is correct.
20. Which of the following class of Algae is mostly found in salt
water?
(a) Phaeophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Chlorophyceae (d) Both (a) and (b)
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 5 MT-45
21. Pollution in big cities can be controlled to a large extent by
(i) Improving traffic condition and road.
(ii) Road side plantation
(iii) Proper disposal of garbage and domestic as well as
municipal wastes.
(iv) Cannot be controlled
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) All of these
22. Which of the following statements about Nitrification is not
correct ?
(a) Nitrobacter oxidizes nitrite to nitrate.
(b) Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus convert ammonium
ions to nitrite.
(c) Nitrification reactions are energy-producing (exergonic)
reactions.
(d) Heterotrophic plants are more directly dependent on
the nitrifying bacteria for usable nitrogen than
autotrophic plants.
23. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Parenchyma I. Shoot apex
B. Sclerenchyma II. Mechanical tissue
C. Xylem III. Water conduction
D. Apical meristem IV. Universal tissue
E. Phloem V. Sieve cells
(a) A ® (II); B® (IV); C® (II); D® (I); E ® (V)
(b) A® (IV); B® (II); C® (III); D® (I); E® (V)
(c) A® (IV); B® (III); C® (I); D® (II); E® (V)
(d) A® (IV); B® (I); C® (III); D® (II); E ® (V)
24. Interactions in which the consumer lives within the body of
the host and slowly damages the host are referred to as
(a) Commensalism (b) Parasitism
(c) Mutualism (d) Competition
25. Which of the following regarding water transport is true ?
(a) Root pressure is sufficient to drive xylem sap movement.
(b) Bulk flow is not a mechanism by which water and
minerals are transported.
(c) The cohesive nature of water is central to water
movement in a plant.
(d) None of the above
26.
A
B
C
D
E
Connective
The above diagram refers to a T. S. of anther. Identify A to E
respectively-
(a) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, epidermis, middle layer,
endothecium
(b) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, tapetum, middle layer,
endothecium
(c) Sporogenous tissue, epidermis, middle layer, tapetum,
endothecium
(d) Sporogenous tissue, tapetum, middle layer, epidermis,
endothecium
27. Which of the following groups of plants have Underground
stems?
(a) Potato, ginger, turmeric, Euphorbia, zaminkand
(b) Potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia
(c) Potato, Citrus, Opuntia, zaminand, Colocasia
(d) Potato, cucumber, watermelon, zaminkand, Colocasia
28. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. 4C Compound I. Acetyl CoA
B. 2C Compound II. Pyruvate
C. 5C Compound III. Citric acid
D. 3C Compound IV. a-ketoglutaric acid
V. Malic acid
(a) A ® (II); B® (V); C® (III); D® (I)
(b) A® (V); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (II)
(c) A ® (III); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (II)
(d) A® (V); B® (III); C® (I); D® (II)
29. Refer the experiment given below
After a few days, which of the following will have occurred?
(a) A rise in level X and a drop in level Y.
(b) A drop in level X and a drop in level Y.
(c) A rise in level X and a rise in level Y.
(d) A drop in level X and a rise in level Y.
30. One of the most important functions of Botanical gardens is
that
(a) they provide a beautiful area for recreation
(b) one can observe tropical plants there
(c) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm
(d) they provide the natural habitat for wildlife
31. Which two distinct microbial processes are responsible for
the release of fixed nitrogen as dinitrogen gas (N2
) to the
atmosphere?
(a) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation and Denitrification
(b) Aerobic nitrate oxidation and Nitrite reduction
(c) Decomposition of organic nitrogen and Conversion of
dinitrogen to ammonium compounds
(d) Enteric fermentation in cattle and Nitrogen fixation by
Rhizobium in root nodules of legumes
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-46 Mock Test - 5
32. Choose the correct option.
(a) A-Epicarp, B-Mesocarp, C-Seed, D-Endocarp
(b) A-Epicarp, B-Mesocarp, C-Ovule, D-Endocarp
(c) A-Epicarp, B-Mesocarp, C-Ovary, D-Endocarp
(d) A-Epicarp, B-Mesocarp, C-Embryo, D- Endocarp
33. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the
chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and
rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2
generation will show
(a) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
(b) segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
(c) higher number of the parental types
(d) higher number of the recombinant types.
34. Which of the following statements are false ?
(i) C2H4
breaks seed and bud dormancy.
(ii) ABA stimulates the opening of stomata.
(iii) Cytokinin is primarily concerned with cell division.
(iv) ABA is synergistic to GA.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
35. The following diagram is of a typical cell cycle.
X
Cytokinesis
Telophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Prophase
Y
Z
M Phase
G0
Mark the correct option.
(a) X - G1
; Y - S; Z - G2
(b) X - G2
; Y - S; Z - G1
(c) X - G0
; Y - S; Z - G2
(d) None of these
36. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
(a) polymerize in the 3’ - to - 5’ direction and forms replication
fork
(b) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
(c) polymerize in the 5’ - to - 3’ direction and explain
3’ - to - 5’ DNA replication
(d) result in transcription.
37. In PS-I the reaction centre Chl a has absorption maxima at
_____________, while in PS-II the reaction centre Chl a
has absorption maxima at ___________.
(a) P680, P700 (b) P700, P680
(c) P800, P600 (d) P700, P900
38. Product of biotechnology is
(a) transgenic crop (GM crop)
(b) humulin
(c) biofertilizer
(d) All of these
39. The base pairs of DNA are correctly shown as
(a) A º T and C = G (b) A = T and C = G
(c) A = T and C º G (d) A º T and C º G
40. It shows correct chronological order of the events occuring
during callus culture
(a) Callus ® Cell division ® Explant ® Addition of
cytokinin ® Acquire meristematic property
(b) Explant ® Callus® Cell division ® Addition of
cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property
(c) Explant ® Cell division ® Callus ® Addition of
cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property
(d) Callus ® Explant ® Cell division ® Addition of
cytokinin ® Cells acquire meristematic property
41. Assertion: Many plants are propagated vegetatively even
though they bear seeds.
Reason: Potatoes multiply by tubers, apple by cutting.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
42. Assertion : Ginger has a prostrate-growing rhizome.
Reason : Shoot growth is not effected by gravity.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 5 MT-47
43. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, the
BOD will
(a) Increase (b) Remain unchanged
(c) Slightly decrease (d) Decrease
44. Assertion : No two species can occupy the same ecological
niche in a habitat.
Reason: A habitat can contain only one ecological niche.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
45. Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant GM
crops is to
(a) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual
labour.
(b) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of
herbicides.
(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides.
(d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health
safety.
ZOOLOGY
46. An organism is in the same class but not in the same family.
It may belong to same
(a) Genus (b) Species
(c) Variety (d) Order
47. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma
is wrong ?
(a) They are pleomorphic.
(b) They are sensitive to penicillin.
(c) They cause diseases in plants.
(d) They are also called PPLO.
48. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for
its activity is called
(a) Apoenzyme (b) Isoenzyme
(c) Coenzyme (d) Holoenzyme
49. Which one of the following statements about certain given
animals is correct?
(a) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates.
(b) Molluscs are acoelomates.
(c) Insects are pseudocoelomates.
(d) Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates.
50. A patient is generally advised to specially, consume more
meat, lentils, milk and eggs in diet only when he suffers from
(a) Scurvy (b) Kwashiorkor
(c) Rickets (d) Anemia
51. Which one of the following four glands is correcly matched
with the accompanying description?
(a) Thyroid — Hyperactivity in young
children causes cretinism
(b) Thymus — Starts undergoing atrophy
after puberty
(c) Parathyroid — Secretes parathormone,
which promotes movement of
calcium ions from blood into
bones during classification
(d) Pancreas — Delta cells of the islets of
Langerhans secrete a hormone,
which stimulates glycolysis in liver
52. Mature mammalian sperm are stored in the ____ prior to
their release during ejaculation.
(a) seminiferous tubules
(b) scrotum
(c) vas deferens
(d) epididymis
53. Consider the statements given below regarding
contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
(i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first
trimester is generally safe.
(ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother
breast-feeds the infant upto two years.
(iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective
contraceptives.
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after
coitus to prevent conception.
Which two of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
54. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers release of
(a) oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(b) oxytocin from foetal pituitary
(c) human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta
(d) human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from placenta
55. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises
‘Jawless fishes’?
(a) Mackerals and Rohu
(b) Lampreys and Hag fishes
(c) Guppies and Hag fishes
(d) Lampreys and Eels
56. The processes by which DNA forms mRNA and mRNA
forms protein are respectively
(a) Translation and Transcription
(b) Transcription and Replication
(c) Transcription and Translation
(d) Replication and Translation.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-48 Mock Test - 5
57. When CO2
concentration in blood increases, breathing
becomes
(a) shallower and slow
(b) there is no effect on breathing
(c) slow and deep
(d) faster and deeper
58. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the right
option
Column-I Column-II
A. Statins I. Yeast
B. Ethanol II. Blood-cholesterol
lowering agent
C. Dung III. Insect-resistant plant
D. Bt-cotton IV. Biogas
(a) A® (II); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (III)
(b) A ® (III); B® (IV); C® (I); D® (II)
(c) A® (I); B® (II); C® (III); D® (IV)
(d) A® (IV); B® (II); C® (I); D® (III)
59. Birth control pills check ovulation in female by inhibiting
the secretion of
(a) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
(b) luteinizing hormone (LH)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
60. When number of chromosomes is already reduced to half in
the first reductional division of meiosis, where is the
necessity of second meiotic division?
(a) The division is required for the formation of four
gametes
(b) Division ensures equal distribution of haploid
chromosomes
(c) Division ensures equal distribution of genes on
chromosomes
(d) Division is required for segregation of replicated
chromosomes
61. Bell-shaped polygonal pyramid indicates
(a) High percentage of young individuals
(b) Moderate percentage of young individuals
(c) Low percentage of young individuals
(d) Low percentage of old individuals
62. Lactose operon produces enzymes
(a) b-galactosidase, permease and glycogen synthetase.
(b) b-galactosidase, permease and transacetylase.
(c) Permease, glycogen synthetase and transacetylase.
(d) b-galactosidase, permease and phosphoglucose
isomerase.
63. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5 gm raw sugar, 4
gm albumin, 10 gm pure buffalo ghee adultrated with 2 gm
vegetable ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm lignin.
How many calories he is likely to get?
(a) 144 (b) 126
(c) 164 (d) 112
64. Diversity in the type of breaks of finches adapted to different
feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by
Darwin, provides evidence for
(a) Intraspecific variations.
(b) Intraspecific competition.
(c) Interspecific competition.
(d) Origin of species by natural selection.
65. Which one of the following is the true description about an
animal concerned?
(a) Earthworm - The alimentary canal consists
of a sequence of pharynx,
oesophagus, stomach, gizzard and
intestine
(b) Frog - Body divisible into three regions -
head, neck and trunk
(c) Rat - Left kidney is slightly higher in
position than the right one
(d) Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax
and 8 pairs on abdomen)
66. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for
producing
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before
use in humans
(b) transgenic models for studying new treatments for
certain cardiac diseases
(c) transgenic cow – rosie which produces high fat milk
for making ghee
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super
power
67. The figure given below shows human urinary system with
structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly
identifies them and gives their characteristics and /or
functions.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 5 MT-49
(a) B-pelvis-broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum,
directly connected to loops of Henle.
(b) C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and contains complex
nephrons.
(c) D - Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not contain any
part of nephrons
(d) A-Adrenal gland - located at the anterior part of kidney.
Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate glycogen
breakdown.
68. Identify the correct match for the given apparatus.
Apparatus Function
(a) Gene gun Vectorless direct gene transfer
(b) Column Separation of chlorophyll
chromatograph pigments
(c) Stirred tank Carry out fermentation
bioreactor process
(d) Respirometer Finding out rate of respiration
69. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. Collagen I. Glucose transport
B. Trypsin II. Binding with some
chemical like for smell, taste
and hormones
C. Insulin III. Hormone
D. Antibody IV. Enzyme
E. Receptor V. Intercellular ground
substance
F. GLUT-4 VI. Fight infectious agents
(a) A® V; B® IV;C® III; D® VI; E® II; F® I
(b) A ® II; B® III; C® IV; D® V; E® VI; F® I
(c) A® VI; B® II; C® I; D® V; E® VI; F® III
(d) A® I; B® IV; C® III; D® VI; E® II; F® V
70. Match column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
Method Mode of Action
A. The pill I. Prevents sperms
reaching cervix
B. Condom II. Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy III. Prevents ovulation
D. Copper T IV. Semen contains no
sperms
(a) A® (III); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (II)
(b) A® (IV); B® (I); C® (II); D® (III)
(c) A ® (III); B® (IV); C® (I); D® (II)
(d) A® (II); B® (III); C® (I); D® (IV)
71. Assertion : Symptoms of emphysema develops when a
person living on plains ascends and stays on a mountain.
Reason : Air pressure and partial pressure of oxygen falls
with the rise in altitude.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
72. Which one of the following statement is correct in relation
to Honey bees?
(a) Apis indica is the largest wild honey bee in India
(b) Honey is predominantly sucrose and arabinose
(c) Beewax is a waste product of honey bees
(d) Communication in honey bees was discovered by Karl
Von Frisch
73. Male and Female Cockroaches can be distinguished
externally through
(a) anal styles in male
(b) anal cerci in female
(c) anal style and antennae in female
(d) both (b) and (c)
74. Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an example of
(a) Point mutation
(b) Polygenic inheritance
(c) Codominance
(d) Chromosomal aberration
75. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the
answer which gives correct identification of the stage with
its characteristics.
(a) Late anaphase Chromosomes move away from
equatorial plate, Golgi complex
not present
(b) Cytokinesis Cell plate formed, mitochondria
distributed between two
daughter cells
(c) Telophase Endoplasmic reticulum and
nucleolus not reformed yet
(d) Telophase Nuclear envelop reforms, golgi
complex reforms
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-50 Mock Test - 5
76. RNA primers are necessary in DNA synthesis because
(a) DNA polymerase can only add to an existing strand of
nucleotides.
(b) DNA polymerase can only add to an existing DNA
strand.
(c) DNA primase is the first enzyme in the replication
complex.
(d) All of the above
77. Which of the following statement about Cell junctions is
false?
(i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with
little intercellular materials.
(ii) In almost all animal tissues specialized junction provide
both structural and functional link between its individual
cells.
(iii) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking
across a tissue.
(iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep
neighbouring cells together.
(v) Gap junctions provide cytoplasmic channels between
cells for passage of ions, small molecules and sometimes
big molecules.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (v) (d) None of these
78. Read the following statements and identify the correct
options.
Na+
– K+
pump
(i) Needs energy (ATP) to work
(ii) Expels 3 Na+
for every 2K+
ions imported
(iii) Works against a concentration gradient
(iv) Maintains resting potential
(a) All are corect
(b) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) None is correct
79. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false about
internal fertilization?
(i) Male gametes are motile.
(ii) Male gametes are non-motile.
(iii) Male gametes are produced in large number.
(iv) Male gametes are produced in small number.
(v) There is a significant reduction in the number of eggs
produced.
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (v)
80. The class of enzymes that catalyze the removal of a group
from a substrate without addition of water, leaving double
bonds, is
(a) transferases (b) dehydrogenases
(c) hydrolases (d) lyases
81. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect
to Immunity?
(a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the
bite by a viper snake.
(b) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are
produced by T – lymphocytes.
(c) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has
four light chains.
(d) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of
B-lymphocytes.
82. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true ?
(i) Urine is hypertonic in distal convoluted tubule.
(ii) When the urine passes into collecting tubule, it becomes
hypotonic.
(iii) Urine is isotonic in proximal convoluted tubule.
(iv) Urine becomes more and more hypotoinic as it passes
through Henle's loop.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) only
83. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of
a normal person, the P-wave represents the
(a) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(b) Beginning of the systole
(c) End of systole
(d) Contraction of both the atria
84. The accompanying diagram shows the structure of a neuron.
Identify A to E.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 5 MT-51
A B C
(a) Nerve fibre Cyton or cell body Schwann cell
(b) Dendrites Cyton or cell body Schwann cell
(c) Dendrites Nerve cell Schwann cell
(d) Dendrites Cyton or cell body Nerve cell
85. The most important function of Endoplasmic Reticulum is
(a) Protein synthesis
(b Nourishing the nucleus
(c) Secretion of materials
(d) To give shape to the cell
86. Match column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
A. Adrenohypophysis I. Epinephrine
B. Adrenal medulla II. Somatotropin
C. Parathyroid gland III. Thymosin
D. Thymus gland IV. Calcitonin
(a) A ® (III); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (II)
(b) A ® (I); B® (II); C® (III); D® (IV)
(c) A ® (II); B® (I); C® (IV); D® (III)
(d) A ® (IV); B® (III); C® (II); D® (I)
87. Pulmonary artery carries
(a) deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs
(b) deoxygenated blood from lungs to heart
(c) oxygenated blood from heart to lungs
(d) oxygenated blood from lungs to heart
88. Assertion : Muscle contraction force increases with rise in
strength of stimulus.
Reason : This is due to increased contraction of individual
muscle fibres with increase in stimulus strength.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
89. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns
of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an
example of
(a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent
evolution.
(b) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
convergent evolution.
(c) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent
evolution.
(d) Homologous organs that have evolved due to
convergent evolution.
90. Assertion : Urinary bladder and ureters are lined by
transitional epithelium.
Reason : Ureters carry the urine to urinary bladder where it
is stored temporarily.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason
is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-52 Mock Test - 5
BOTANY
2. (b) There are several factors and processes which
differentiate living beings with non-living beings like
reproducction, respiration, growth, etc. But among them
reproduction is the only difference which differentiate
without any exception living beings with non-living
beings.
3. (a) Sparrow feeds upon grains hence called primary
consumer and can also feed on insects hence called
secondary consumer at the same time in the same
ecosystem.
4. (c) Abscisic acid (ABA), also known as abscisin II and
dormin, is a plant hormone. It functions in many plant
developmental processes, including bud dormancy.
Abscisic acid is a derivative of carotenoids. It was
called “abscisin II” originally because it was thought
to play a major role in abscission of fruits. At about the
same time another group was calling it “dormin”
because they thought it had a major role in bud
dormancy. The name abscisic acid (ABA) was coined
by a compromise between the two groups.
6. (b) Jaya and Ratna are two rice varieties developed for
green revolution in India.
8. (a) The symbiotic association of fungi and algae is called
Lichen.
9. (a) Filiform apparatus helps in the entry of pollen tube into
a synergid in ovule. Filiform apparatus is in the form of
finger like projection comprising a core of microfibrils
enclosed in a sheath. The filiform apparatus resembles
transfer cells meant for short distance movement of
metabolites. The filiform apparatus is responsible for
the absorption of food from the nucleus.
12. (c) Solution culture is being used for raising flowers and
vegetables at home. This soilless production of plants
is called hydroponics. A solution having all the essential
elements in proper proportion is called normal or
balanced nutrient solution.
15. (d) Even though DNA replication typically occurs millions
of times during the life of a multicellular organism, it is
remarkably error-free. Those errors that do occur are
usually corrected with a high degree of reliability.
22. (d) Heterotrophic plants are less dependent on nitrogen
obtained from nitrification since they receive some
nitrite and nitrate through their parasitic or carnivorous
nutritional modes.
24. (b) This is the classic definition of a parasitic interaction.
25. (c) Water movement depends on the cohesive nature of
water to withstand the tension placed on the water
column by transpiration.
1 (a) 13 (b) 25 (c) 37 (b) 49 (a) 61 (b) 73 (a) 85 (a)
2 (b) 14 (a) 26 (a) 38 (d) 50 (b) 62 (b) 74 (b) 86 (c)
3 (a) 15 (d) 27 (b) 39 (c) 51 (b) 63 (a) 75 (d) 87 (a)
4 (c) 16 (d) 28 (b) 40 (c) 52 (d) 64 (d) 76 (a) 88 (c)
5 (d) 17 (a) 29 (a) 41 (a) 53 (c) 65 (d) 77 (d) 89 (b)
6 (b) 18 (c) 30 (c) 42 (b) 54 (a) 66 (a) 78 (a) 90 (b)
7 (c) 19 (b) 31 (b) 43 (a) 55 (b) 67 (d) 79 (c)
8 (a) 20 (a) 32 (a) 44 (c) 56 (c) 68 (c) 80 (d)
9 (a) 21 (b) 33 (c) 45 (d) 57 (d) 69 (a) 81 (a)
10 (c) 22 (d) 34 (c) 46 (d) 58 (a) 70 (a) 82 (d)
11 (c) 23 (b) 35 (a) 47 (b) 59 (c) 71 (a) 83 (d)
12 (c) 24 (b) 36 (c) 48 (c) 60 (d) 72 (d) 84 (b)
ANSWER KEY
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 5 MT-53
ZOOLOGY
47. (b) While working at the Rockefeller Institute, Brown
reported isolation of a PPLO from human arthritic joint
tissue in 1938. In discussing the significance of this
observation, Brown reported successful treatment of
arthritic patients in 1949 with a new antibiotic called
aureomycin (Clark, 1997).
48. (c) An organic substance bound to an enzyme and
essential for its activity is called coenzyme.
49. (a) Acoelomates are animals that have no body cavity or
coelom. The examples are poriferans, coelenterates,
ctenophore, platyhelminthes. Pseudo-coelomates are
animals that have false or pseudo coelom. Examples
are aschelminthes. Coelomates are animals that have
true coelom enclosed by mesoderm on both sides.
Examples: from annelida to arthropoda are coelomates.
Hence roundworms are pseudocoelomates, molluscs and
insects are coelomates while flatworms are acoelomates.
50. (b) A child may have a diet containing sufficient
carbohydrates and fats but still suffers a serious form
of malnutrition. This form of malnutrition is known as
Kwashiorkar. It develops in children whose diets are
deficient in protein.
52. (d) Located on the surface of each testis, the epididymis
stores mature sperm until they are ready to be emitted
just prior to ejaculation.
54. (a) Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine
mechanism. The signals for parturition originate from
the fully developed foetus and the placenta which
induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection
reflex. This triggers release of oxytocin from the maternal
pituitary.
55. (b) Lampreys and hag fishes are unusual, jawless fishes
that comprise the order Cyclostomata, so named
because of the circular shape of the mouth. The brains
of lampreys and hagfishes differ a lot, but they also
show a large number of similarities, as do all craniate
brains.
57. (d) The breathing becomes faster and deeper in order to
oxygenate the blood at a fast rate. Shallow and slow
breathing occurs during rest.
30. (c) Ex-situ conservation means off site conservation. It is
the process of protecting an endangered species of
plant or animal by removing it from an unsafe or
threatened habitat and placing it or part of it under the
care of man. Botanical garden is one of the method of
ex-situ conservation.
33. (c) When the linked genes are situated quite close, the
chances of crossing over are highly reduced. Due to
this, large number of parental gametes are formed and
only few recombinant gametes are formed. This results
in higher number of parental types in F2
generation as
compared to recombinants.
36. (c) Okazaki fragments in DNA are linked up by the enzyme
DNA ligase. Replication always occur in 5' - 3' direction.
Okazaki fragments synthesized on 3' - 5' DNA template,
join to form lagging strand which grows in 3' - 5'
direction.
41. (a) Vegetative reproduction is asexual type of reproduction
Potato, Sugarcane, Apple, etc., are multiplied by asexual
means.
42. (b) Ginger is horizontal in position and generally branched
and producing aerial leaves or shoots aboveground
and adventitious roots on lower side in favourable
season. Thus shoot growth is not effected by gravity.
43. (a) The degree of pollution is directly proportional to BOD,
therefore more the organic pollution (specially sewage),
the more would be BOD of water.
44. (c) The place where an organism lives is called its habitat.
Habitats are characterised by conspicuous physical
features, which may include the dominant forms of plant
and animal life. Habitat may also refer to the place
occupied by an entire biological community. For
example, a large number of species are found in a forest
habitat. On the other hand, the ecological niche of an
organism represents (i) the range of conditions it can
tolerate (ii) the resources it utilises, and (iii) its functional
role in the ecological system. A habitat can contain
many ecological niches and support a variety of species.
Each species has a distinct niche, and no two species
are believed to occupy exactly the same niche.
45. (d) Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant
GM crops is to reduce herbicide accumulation in food
articles for health safety. GM plants have been useful
in many ways. Genetic modifications has made crops
more tolerant to abiotic stresses, reduced reliance on
chemical pesticides, enhanced nutritional value of food.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
MT-54 Mock Test - 5
63. (a) Physiological value of carbohydrates is 4.0 kcal/g,
proteins 4.0 kcal/g and of fats is 9.0 kcal/g. Hence,
5 g raw sugar will yield
5 × 4.0 = 20.0 kcal
4 g albumin (protein) will yield
4 × 4.0 = 16.0 kcal
10 + 2 g of fat will yield
12 × 9.0 = 108.0 kcal
Total yield = 144 kcal.
64. (d) Nature select those set of characters that are best
adapted to the environment. This has resulted in the
great diversity seen in the population of finches.
65. (d) Mollusca mostly oviparous and a few viviparous. The
development may be direct or indirect with trochophore,
velliger and glochidium.
66. (a) Genetic engineering has been successfully used for
producing transgenic mice. Many transgenic mice are
designed to increase our understanding of how genes
contribute to development of diseases. Transgenic mice
are being developed for use in testing the safety of
vaccine before they are used in human beings. For
example transgenic mice are being used to test the safety
of polio vaccine.
71. (a) When a person living on plains ascend and stays on a
mountain above 8000 feet from the sea level, he develops
symptoms of mountain sickness which includes
breathlessness, headache, dizziness, irritability, nausea,
vomiting, mental fatigue and a bluish ting on the skin,
nails and lips. The rise in altitude, consequently lowers
the partial pressure of oxygen. This lowers the alveolar
partial pressure of oxygen which causes reduction in
the diffusion of oxygen from the alveolar air to the
blood. so oxygenation of blood is decreased
progressively, which produces the symptoms of
mountain sickness, Emphysema.
72. (d) Karl Von Frisch, carried out many experiments and
determined that when a foraging bee returns to the
hive, it performs a waggle dance. Honey is
predominantly glucose and fructose. Dorsata is a bigger
bee than Apis indica (a medium sized bee). Bees wax is
secreted by special wax glands to make compartments.
74. (b) Inheritance of skin colour in human is controlled by
three genes, A, B and C which is polygenic inheritance.
75. (d) Telophase is the stage of reconstitution of nuclei. The
chromosomes that have reached their respective poles
decondense and lose their individuality and collect in
a mass in the two poles. Nuclear envelope assemble
around chromatin mass. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and
ER reform.
76. (a) DNA polymerase cannot initiate the building of a
nucleotide strand; it can only add to an existing strand.
Thus, RNA primers are necessary to begin DNA
synthesis.
81. (a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the
bite by a viper snake. It is also a type of immunization
which is called as passive immunization.
Antibodies, produced by B-cells, are typically made of
basic structural units—each with two large heavy
chains and two small light chains. B cells differentiate
into plasma cells that secrete antibodies. Antibodies
are proteins that bind to specific antigens and mark
them for destruction by, for example, marking them more
recognizable to phagocytic cells. Rejection of a kidney
graft is not a function of B lymphocyte.
82. (d) The filtrate is isotonic to blood plasma (in proximal
convoluted tubule) and the filtrate becomes hypertonic
to blood plasma (in descending limb of loop of Henle).
The filtrate is hypotonic to blood plasma (in ascending
limb of loop of Henle) in distal convoluted tubule. ADH
make the filtrate isotonic to blood plasma.
83. (d) The P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or
depolarisation) of the atria, which leads to the
contraction of both the atria. The QRS complex
represents the depolarisation of the ventricles, which
initiates the ventricular contraction. The contraction
starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the
systole.
85. (a) Because E.R. possesses ribosomes on their membrane
which are responsible for protein synthesis.
88. (c) The muscle fibre always contracts with the maximum
force and this force doesn't rise on increasing the
strength of the stimulus. If the stimulus is of strength
below the threshold, then the muscle fibre doesn't
contract at all. This is known as All or None law. But
the entire muscle doesn't obey this law, it means that
force of contraction of muscle increase with rise in
strength of the stimulus. This is due to the fact that the
strength of the threshold stimulus varies from muscle
fibre to muscle fibre in a muscle.
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
Mock Test - 5 MT-55
89. (b) The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different
patterns of structure, yet they perform similar functions.
This is an example of analogous organs. Analogous
organs have evolved due to convergent evolution .
Analogous organs have developed in the evolutionary
process through adaptation of quite
different organisms to similar mode of life.
90. (b) Urinary bladder and ureters of excretory system are
lined by transitional epithelium because it is a
stretchable epithelium, hence the urinary bladder and
ureters may be considerably stretched without getting
torn when they are filled with urine. Ureters are thin
muscular tubes which emerge from the hilum of each
kidney. Urine enters the ureters from the renal pelvis
and is conducted along the ureters by peristaltic waves
on their walls. Ureters from both the kidneys finally
open into urinary bladder which is a hollow muscular
sac. In this way urine from both the kidneys is drained
into the urinary bladder which stores it temporarily.
EBD_7209
Join Telegram @CLEARIITJEE Join Our telegram Channel Cleariitjee for more books and Study materials
No title
